UNT A&P 2302 Chapter 21 Review

Which of the following types of cells display protein fragments produced by the cancer within them? A) macrophages B) dendritic cells C) all nucleated cells D) B cells

C) all nucleated cells

The most common type of organ transplant is the __________. A) xenograft B) autograft C) allograft D) isograft

C) allograft

B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ________. A) thymus B) spleen C) bone marrow D) lymph nodes

C) bone marrow

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in phagocytosis? A) adherence, digestion, killing, ingestion, chemotaxis B) chemotaxis, ingestion, digestion, adherence, killing C) chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion, killing D) ingestion, adherence, chemotaxis, digestion, killing

C) chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion, killing

The only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells are the ________. A) regulatory cells B) helper cells C) cytotoxic cells D) plasma cells

C) cytotoxic cells

Which hypersensitivity is caused by T lymphocytes? A) chronic B) subacute C) delayed D) acute

C) delayed

Which cells stimulate both arms of the immune response? A) plasma cells B) complement cells C) helper T cells D) basophils E) killer T cells

C) helper T cells

Which defense mechanism results in redness, heat, pain, and swelling? A) antibody production B) cell-mediated immunity C) inflammation D) phagocytosis

C) inflammation

Interferons ________. A) are virus-specific, so that an interferon produced against one virus could not protect cells against another virus B) act by increasing the rate of cell division C) interfere with viral replication within cells D) are routinely used in nasal sprays for the common cold

C) interfere with viral replication within cells

Phagocyte mobilization involves ________. A) diapedesis, during which cells line up against the capillary wall B) margination, which is the process of white cell movement through the walls of capillaries into injured tissues C) mainly neutrophil and macrophage migration into inflamed areas D) monocytes as the most active phagocyte

C) mainly neutrophil and macrophage migration into inflamed areas

Regulatory T cells ________. A) release cytokines that increase the activity of cytotoxic T cells and activated B cells B) decrease their activity as antigenic stimulus decreases C) may function in preventing autoimmune reactions D) are the most thoroughly understood T cells

C) may function in preventing autoimmune reactions

Which of the following is/are a nonspecific barrier defense? A) complements B) macrophages C) mucous membranes D) antibodies E) natural killer cells

C) mucous membranes

Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. This phenomenon is termed ________. A) diapedesis B) agglutination C) opsonization D) chemotaxis

C) opsonization

Which of the following is associated with passive immunity? A) exposure to an antigen B) infusion of weakened viruses C) passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus D) booster shot of vaccine

C) passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

Fever ________. A) is a higher-than-normal body temperature that is always dangerous B) decreases the metabolic rate of the body to conserve energy C) production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting D) causes the liver to release large amounts of iron, which seems to inhibit bacterial replication

C) production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting

Treatment of an abscess often requires that it be surgically drained because ______. A) the wall of the abscess prevents proper blood flow into the pus B) the wall of the abscess prevents proper elimination of wastes from the enclosed pus C) the wall of the abscess prevents neutrophils from entering the pus and attacking the pathogens D) the wall of the abscess prevents macrophages from differentiating into monocytes in the pus

C) the wall of the abscess prevents neutrophils from entering the pus and attacking the pathogens

Why are children given vaccinations? A) to activate the cell-mediated defense against pathogens B) to see whether the immune system is capable of defense against disease C) to develop memory cells against various diseases D) to develop a disease in a mild state rather than have it later on in a more serious state

C) to develop memory cells against various diseases

________ refers to a group of at least 20 plasma proteins that normally circulate in an inactive state and are a major mechanism for destroying foreign substances in the body.

Complement

________ cells are the only T lymphocytes that can directly attack and kill other cells.

Cytotoxic T

Select the correct statement about active and passive immunity. A) Immunological memory is established by passive immunization. B) A vaccination is an example of the introduction of passive immunity into the body. C) The antibodies utilized in active immunity are acquired from another organism. D) Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies.

D) Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies.

Which of the following is a role of interferons (IFNs)? A) IFNs stimulate antibody production in response to a bacterial infection. B) IFNs stimulate the release of histamine. C) IFNs activate helper T cells by presenting antigens. D) IFNs help the body combat viral infections.

D) IFNs help the body combat viral infections.

Which of the following is true about the number of binding sites per functional antibody unit? A) IgD contains 4 binding sites. B) IgA contains 6 binding sites. C) IgG contains 6 binding sites. D) IgM contains 10 binding sites.

D) IgM contains 10 binding sites.

Which of the following is not characteristic of the adaptive immune system? A) It is antigen-specific. B) It is systemic. C) It has memory. D) It is specific for a given organ.

D) It is specific for a given organ.

Select the correct statement about antigens. A) "Self-antigens" is another name for incomplete antigens. B) The largest type of antigen is called a hapten. C) Only small antigens exhibit reactivity. D) One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.

D) One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.

________ determine(s) what specific foreign substances our adaptive immune system will be able to recognize and resist. A) The type of antigen B) Memory cell production C) Enzymes present at the time of the invasion D) Our genes

D) Our genes

__________ is the property of lymphocytes that prevents them from attacking the body's own cells. A) Antigenicity B) Immunological memory C) Immunocompetence D) Self-tolerance

D) Self-tolerance

Which of the following is true of immediate hypersensitivities? A) They are also called type IV hypersensitivities. B) They are are adaptive immune responses to disease organisms. C) They include allergic contact dermatitis. D) They involve IgE antibodies and the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils.

D) They involve IgE antibodies and the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils.

Select the correct statement about the prevention of immune attack on "self." A) The development of tolerance is specific to B cells only. B) Neutrophils capable of binding to self-antigens are chemically inactivated. C) Tolerance to self is due to the action of foreign antigens that inactivate the immune response to one's own tissues. D) Tolerance is developed during fetal life.

D) Tolerance is developed during fetal life.

Which of the following would be classified as a delayed hypersensitivity reaction? A) immune complex hypersensitivity B) anaphylaxis C) cytotoxic hypersensitivity D) allergic contact dermatitis

D) allergic contact dermatitis

Humoral immunity is provided by __________. A) T cells B) interferons C) complement proteins D) antibodies

D) antibodies

MHC II proteins are found on __________. A) cytotoxic T cells B) helper T cells C) red blood cells D) antigen-presenting cells

D) antigen-presenting cells

A vaccination works to establish __________. A) natural active immunity B) artificial passive immunity C) natural passive immunity D) artificial active immunity

D) artificial active immunity

Which type of disease results from the inability of the immune system to distinguish self- from nonself-antigens? A) allergy B) immunodeficiency C) SCID D) autoimmune disease E) anaphylaxis

D) autoimmune disease

Natural killer (NK) cells ________. A) are also called cytotoxic T cells B) are a type of phagocyte C) are cells of the adaptive immune system D) can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated

D) can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated

What is the second step of T cell activation? A) anergy B) chemotaxis C) antigen binding D) co-stimulation

D) co-stimulation

Which are correctly matched? A) B cells: suppress the immune response once the foreign antigen has been cleared from the body B) helper T cells: recognize virus-infected cells C) regulatory T cells: make antibodies D) cytotoxic T cells: activated by antigens bound to MHC I

D) cytotoxic T cells: activated by antigens bound to MHC I

Leukotrienes cause __________. A) neutrophils to migrate to an area of inflammation B) apoptosis of cells C) the release of digestive enzymes outside the cell D) dilation of the small blood vessels in an injured area

D) dilation of the small blood vessels in an injured area

Helper T cells ________. A) bind tightly to target cells and release a lymphotoxin called perforin B) often function to decrease the immune response C) release B7 proteins D) function in the adaptive immune system activation

D) function in the adaptive immune system activation

The primary immune response ________. A) occurs more rapidly and is stronger than the secondary response B) occurs when memory cells are stimulated C) is another name for immunological memory D) has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells

D) has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells

When a localized area exhibits increased capillary filtration, hyperemia, and swelling, it is an indication that __________. A) antibodies are phagocytizing target cells B) antigens are present C) fever is developing D) inflammation is occurring E) an immune response is underway

D) inflammation is occurring

Which of the following minerals needed for bacterial reproduction do the liver and spleen sequester during a fever? A) copper and gold B) phosphorous and silica C) magnesium and calcium D) iron and zinc

D) iron and zinc

Interferons can be used to treat all of the following EXCEPT __________. A) cancer B) viral infections C) hepatitis C D) muscular dystrophy

D) muscular dystrophy

Which of the following is an effect of complement activation? A) tissue repair B) T cell activation C) fever D) opsonization

D) opsonization

Which of the following does not respond to cell-mediated immunity? A) intracellular pathogens that reside within host cells B) some cancer cells C) foreign tissue transplants D) pathogens in the CNS

D) pathogens in the CNS

Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense against microorganisms? A) keratin B) cilia C) gastric juice D) phagocytes

D) phagocytes

Innate immune system defenses include ________. A) B cells B) T cells C) plasma cells D) phagocytosis

D) phagocytosis

What types of antigen are recognized by T cells? A) free antigens B) bacterial antigens only C) cancer antigens only D) processed fragments of protein antigens displayed on surfaces of body cells

D) processed fragments of protein antigens displayed on surfaces of body cells

B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by ________. A) reducing its size B) immediately producing antigen-specific antibodies C) forming of a large number of cells that are unlike the original B cell D) producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells

D) producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells

What occurs if a T cell binds to an antigen and the T cell does NOT receive a co-stimulatory signal? A) the T cell is activated B) the T cell becomes a memory cell C) the T cell releases interleukins D) the T cell enters a state of anergy

D) the T cell enters a state of anergy

The first step in inflammation is __________. A) swelling B) phagocyte mobilization C) vasodilation D) the release of inflammatory chemicals

D) the release of inflammatory chemicals

Which of the following statements is characteristic of a secondary humoral response? A) It triggers fever. B) It results in less antibody secretion. C) It results in less memory-cell circulation. D) It occurs only in the spleen. E) It occurs much more rapidly than a primary response.

E) It occurs much more rapidly than a primary response.

Which of the following is NOT one of the cardinal signs of inflammation? A) swelling B) pain C) heat D) redness E) opsonization

E) opsonization

Active artificially acquired immunity is a result of __________. A) antibodies passed on from mother to baby through breast milk B) antibodies passed on from mother to fetus through the placenta C) contact with a pathogen D) contact with toxins secreted by pathogens E) vaccination

E) vaccination

Select the correct statement about complement. A) An adaptive immune mechanism is often involved in directing complement to its target. B) Complement can be activated through three pathways: classical, secondary, and alternate. C) The membrane attack complex consists of complement proteins C3a through C5. D) Complement proteins C1 through C9 act exclusively in the classical pathway.

A) An adaptive immune mechanism is often involved in directing complement to its target.

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of antibody action? A) B cell synthesis B) neutralization C) precipitation D) agglutination

A) B cell synthesis

Class I MHC proteins are recognized by which of the following cell types (that are destined to become T cells)? A) CD8 B) CD4

A) CD8

Which major class of lymphocytes become cytotoxic T cells? A) CD8 cells B) CD4 cells C) CD6 cells

A) CD8 cells

________ are released by activated T cells and macrophages to mobilize immune cells and attract other leukocytes into the area. A) Cytokines B) Perforins C) Interleukin 1 proteins D) Interleukin 2 proteins

A) Cytokines

Select the correct definition about tissue grafts. A) Isografts are between identical twins. B) Allografts are between different species. C) Xenografts are between individuals of the same species. D) Autografts are between two genetically identical individuals.

A) Isografts are between identical twins.

Which of the following is NOT a key characteristic of adaptive immunity? A) Its primary response is fast. B) It is specific. C) It is systemic. D) It has memory.

A) Its primary response is fast.

Which cells do NOT have a direct role in phagocytosis? A) NK cells B) neutrophils C) macrophages D) dendritic cells

A) NK cells

Which of the following statements regarding NK cells is a false or incorrect statement? A) NK cells are a type of neutrophil. B) NK cells are present in the blood, spleen, lymph nodes, and red bone marrow. C) NK cells attack cells that display abnormal MHC antigens. D) NK cells attack cancer cells and virus-infected body cells.

A) NK cells are a type of neutrophil.

Which of the following is NOT a function of interferons? A) They cannot be synthesized in a laboratory. B) They are not virus-specific. C) They interfere with viral replication in affected cells. D) They mobilize natural killer cells.

A) They cannot be synthesized in a laboratory.

A nonself substance that can provoke an immune response is called a(n) __________. A) antigen B) colony-stimulating factor C) interferon D) antibody E) immunoglobulin

A) antigen

In clonal selection of B cells, which substance is responsible for determining which cells will eventually become cloned? A) antigen B) interferon C) antibody D) complement

A) antigen

Class II MHC proteins are found on which of the following cell types? A) antigen-presenting cells B) all nucleated cells

A) antigen-presenting cells

What mobilizes the adaptive defenses and provokes an immune response? A) antigens B) pyrogens C) MHC proteins D) interferons

A) antigens

Cytotoxic T cells ________. A) are the only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells B) require the double recognition signal of I MHC plus II MHC on the target cell in order to function C) function mainly to stimulate the proliferation of other T cell populations D) self-destruct once the antigen has been neutralized

A) are the only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells

Which of the following is/are NOT a surface barrier to pathogen influx? A) complement cascade B) skin secretions C) saliva and tears D) mucous membranes

A) complement cascade

The process that begins when a helper T cell binds to a class II MHC protein on a displaying cell is known as __________. A) costimulation B) T cell proliferation C) antigen proliferation D) self-antigen recognition

A) costimulation

Toll-like receptors (TLRs) trigger the release of ________ to attract white blood cells to the scene. A) cytokines B) histamine C) prostaglandins D) complement

A) cytokines

Which of the following cells engulf antigens and present fragments of them on their own surfaces, where they can be recognized by cells that will deal with them? A) dendritic cells B) NK cells C) T lymphocytes D) CD8 cells

A) dendritic cells

The antibody molecule is held together by ________ bonds. A) disulfide B) hydrogen C) amino acid D) sodium

A) disulfide

In the respiratory burst, __________ are released; these have a potent cell-killing ability. A) free radicals B) neutrophils C) histamines D) platelet-derived growth factors

A) free radicals

Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called ________. A) haptens B) antibodies C) ions D) reagins

A) haptens

Which of the following are MISMATCHED? A) helper T cells: directly target and kill cancer cells B) cytotoxic T cells: carry out cellular immune responses C) regulatory T cells: release inhibitory cytokines to dampen the immune response D) B cells: can be activated to produce antibodies

A) helper T cells: directly target and kill cancer cells

What constitutes the body's first line of defense against disease? A) intact skin and mucous membranes B) the adaptive defense system C) inflammation D) antimicrobial proteins and various phagocytic cells

A) intact skin and mucous membranes

Which type of molecule is produced by virus-infected cells to communicate to noninfected cells the presence of a virus? A) interferon B) pyrogen C) complement D) antigen E) interleukin

A) interferon

A graft that is transplanted from one person to a genetically identical individual (i.e., to an identical twin) is an example of a(n) __________. A) isograft B) allograft C) autograft D) xenograft

A) isograft

Monoclonal antibodies are used for the diagnosis of all of the following except ________. A) juvenile diabetes B) hepatitis C) rabies D) pregnancy

A) juvenile diabetes

Saliva and lacrimal fluids contain which enzyme that destroys bacteria? A) lysozyme B) trypsin C) reverse transcriptase D) pepsin E) amylase

A) lysozyme

Toll-like receptors are found on __________. A) macrophages B) neutrophils C) mast cells D) lymphocytes

A) macrophages

Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by ________. A) natural killer cells B) T lymphocytes C) B lymphocytes D) pinocytosis

A) natural killer cells

Which nonspecific defense cells specialize in attacking cancer cells and virus-infected cells? A) natural killer cells B) plasma cells C) basophils D) macrophages E) helper T lymphocytes

A) natural killer cells

What is the role of interferon in defense against disease? A) protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses B) protects cells that have not yet been infected by bacteria C) activates the complement mechanism D) activates the inflammatory process

A) protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses

Which of the following is/are secreted by leukocytes and macrophages and result(s) in a fever? A) pyrogens B) histamine C) antibodies D) keratin E) heparin

A) pyrogens

Which of the following is the first step in an inflammatory response? A) release of leukocytosis-inducing factor B) positive chemotaxis C) diapedesis D) adhesion of the neutrophil's cell-adhesion molecules to antigen

A) release of leukocytosis-inducing factor

A moderate fever is an example of an innate body defense. A) true B) false

A) true

A transfusion reaction is a subacute hypersensitivity to foreign red blood cells. A) true B) false

A) true

Anaphylactic shock can result from an immediate hypersensitivity where the allergen enters the blood. A) true B) false

A) true

Antigens can be complete or incomplete. A) true B) false

A) true

Binding of a helper T cell with an antigen-presenting cell and binding of a B7 protein are necessary for co-stimulation and T cell activation. A) true B) false

A) true

Cellular ingestion and destruction of particulate matter is called phagocytosis. A) true B) false

A) true

Dendritic cells are important antigen-presenting cells. A) true B) false

A) true

HIV attacks helper T cells by binding into the CD4 proteins. A) true B) false

A) true

If a person with type A blood is given a unit of type B blood, the type B RBCs are destroyed. A) true B) false

A) true

It is our genes, not antigens, that determine what specific foreign substances our immune system will be able to recognize and resist. A) true B) false

A) true

Self-antigens are ignored by T cells. A) true B) false

A) true

Soluble proteins secreted by plasma cells are called antibodies. A) true B) false

A) true

Somatic recombination by B cells allows each B cell to form its own unique antibody genes. A) true B) false

A) true

Some immunocompetent cells will never be called to service in our lifetime. A) true B) false

A) true

Substances capable of triggering the adaptive immune system and provoking an immune response are called antigens. A) true B) false

A) true

The directional movement of cells in response to chemicals is called chemotaxis. A) true B) false

A) true

The immune system is highly adaptive because gene coding for antibodies displays somatic recombination. A) true B) false

A) true

The mechanism of the "lethal hit" of cytotoxic T cells and NK cells involves a protein called perforin. A) true B) false

A) true

The polio vaccine is an example of active artificial immunity. A) true B) false

A) true

The respiratory burst produced by some macrophages releases free radicals. A) true B) false

A) true

Graft rejection may be caused by ________. A) using a xenograft B) use of immunosuppressive drugs C) treatment with antilymphocyte serum D) total body irradiation

A) using a xenograft

The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by ________. A) vasodilation B) vasoconstriction C) phagocyte mobilization D) production of complement and interferon

A) vasodilation

________ is the most common type of immediate hypersensitivity.

Allergy

Which of the following is a characteristic of a secondary immune response? A) A secondary immune response is started by naive lymphocytes, while a primary immune response is initiated by memory cells. B) A secondary immune response lasts longer than a primary immune response. C) A secondary immune response is slower than a primary immune response. D) A secondary immune response produces as many antibodies as a primary immune response.

B) A secondary immune response lasts longer than a primary immune response.

__________ are substances that can trigger the adaptive defenses and provoke an immune response. A) Haptens B) Antigens C) Interleukins D) Antibodies

B) Antigens

Which of the statements below does not describe antigens? A) Antigens exhibit immunogenicity and reactivity. B) Antigens only come from microbes. C) The parts of antigen molecules that initiate immune responses are called epitopes or antigenic determinants. D) Antigens can include proteins, nucleic acids, lipoproteins, glycoproteins, and certain large polysaccharides.

B) Antigens only come from microbes.

Which of the following is NOT a property of interferons (IFNs)? A) IFNs have an anticancer role B) IFNs stimulate B cells to produce antibodies C) IFNs have antiviral activity D) IFNs activate macrophages

B) IFNs stimulate B cells to produce antibodies

__________ is the most abundant class of antibodies in plasma. A) IgE B) IgG C) IgM D) IgA

B) IgG

Select the correct statement about immunodeficiency. A) Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) disease is an acquired condition. B) The causative agent in acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a virus that recognizes CD4 proteins. C) Hodgkin's disease is a hereditary immunodeficiency found in children. D) The most common form of immunodeficiency is graft-versus-host (GVH) disease.

B) The causative agent in acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a virus that recognizes CD4 proteins.

Which statement is true about T cells? A) They usually directly recognize antigens, which then activates a subpopulation of killer cells. B) Their proliferation is enhanced by interleukins 1 and 2. C) Once activated, they cannot secrete cytokines. D) They will develop into cytotoxic T cells if antigen is complexed with class II MHC proteins.

B) Their proliferation is enhanced by interleukins 1 and 2.

Which of the following is not a mechanism for the development of autoimmune disorders? A) exposure of previously "hidden" self-antigens to the adaptive immune system B) a second exposure to an allergen C) mutation followed by the appearance of membrane proteins not previously present D) cross-reaction of antibodies formed against foreign antigens with self-antigens

B) a second exposure to an allergen

Which of the following is not a method by which antibodies work? A) neutralizing antigen B) activating cytokines C) enhancing phagocytosis D) agglutinating and precipitating antigen

B) activating cytokines

Which of the following is not a type of T cell? A) cytotoxic B) antigenic C) helper D) regulatory

B) antigenic

Self-reactive B cells are eliminated in the __________. A) thymus B) bone marrow C) lymph nodes D) spleen

B) bone marrow

The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is called ________. A) diapedesis B) chemotaxis C) margination D) phagocytosis

B) chemotaxis

Which class of MHC proteins presents exogenous antigens? A) class I MHC proteins B) class II MHC proteins

B) class II MHC proteins

Which of the following is characteristic of antibodies? A) carbohydrate structure B) composed of heavy and light polypeptide chains C) three binding sites per antibody monomer D) incapable of being transferred from one person to another

B) composed of heavy and light polypeptide chains

Antibody functions include all of the following except ________. A) binding and inactivating chemical toxins released by bacteria or other microorganisms B) cross-linking cell-bound antigens on red blood cells when blood types are properly matched C) linking soluble antigens together so that they fall out of solution D) targeting foreign cells so that complement proteins can cause cellular lysis

B) cross-linking cell-bound antigens on red blood cells when blood types are properly matched

A given pathogen will provoke either a cell-mediated response or an antibody-mediated response but not both. A) true B) false

B) false

A graft from a monkey to a human is an example of an allograft. A) true B) false

B) false

Adaptive immunity is provided only by lymphocytes that secrete antibodies. A) true B) false

B) false

Both T cells and B cells must accomplish double recognition: They must simultaneously recognize self and nonself to be activated. A) true B) false

B) false

Delayed hypersensitivity reactions are caused by the cross-linking of antibodies to mast cells or basophils. A) true B) false

B) false

Fever is seldom beneficial because it speeds up the cellular metabolic rate and will not allow antigen-antibody reactions to occur. A) true B) false

B) false

Immunocompetence refers to the ability of the immune system to form antibodies and killing compounds. A) true B) false

B) false

In addition to cell lysis, complement activation may invoke neutralization, precipitation, and inflammation. A) true B) false

B) false

Interleukin 1 (IL-1) is released by helper T cells to stimulate bound T cells. A) true B) false

B) false

Monoclonal antibodies can be specific for several antigenic determinants. A) true B) false

B) false

Neutrophils respond to infection by releasing antibody proteins into the blood. A) true B) false

B) false

Plasma cells are responsible for "remembering" and responding to a pathogen that has already invaded the body. A) true B) false

B) false

T cells represent a small portion of the lymphocytes in the circulatory system. A) true B) false

B) false

Which of the following is NOT a sign of inflammation? A) swelling B) fever C) pain D) redness

B) fever

Complement proteins work by __________. A) producing antibodies B) forming pores in the membranes of target cells C) neutralization of antigens D) creating an impermeable barrier E) phagocytosis of target cells

B) forming pores in the membranes of target cells

Which of the following cells is the most critical cell in immunity? A) B cell B) helper T cell C) cytotoxic T cell D) APC

B) helper T cell

Delayed hypersensitivities ________. A) are mediated by B cells B) include allergic contact dermatitis C) include anaphylactic shock, a systemic vasodilation that results in inadequate blood delivery to all tissues D) do not involve T cells

B) include allergic contact dermatitis

Immunocompetence ________. A) occurs in one specific organ of the adaptive immune system B) is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it C) prevents intercellular communication so that only specific cell types respond to the invader D) requires exposure to an antigen

B) is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it

Which immune cell is able to respond quickly after any subsequent encounter with the same antigen? A) basophil B) memory cell C) helper T cell D) plasma cell E) antigen-presenting cell

B) memory cell

Binding of an eosinophil to an antibody-coated parasitic worm involves binding of the antibody's stem region to a(n) ______. A) antigen-binding site on the eosinophil plasma membrane B) plasma membrane protein on the eosinophil's surface C) plasma membrane protein on the worm's surface D) antigen-binding site on a worm cell's plasma membrane

B) plasma membrane protein on the eosinophil's surface

Which of the following is characteristic of complete antigens? A) small molecules B) reactivity with an antibody C) contain many repeating chemical units D) inhibit production of antibodies

B) reactivity with an antibody

Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response? A) prevents the spread of the injurious agent to nearby tissue B) replaces injured tissues with connective tissue C) disposes of cellular debris and pathogens D) sets the stage for repair processes

B) replaces injured tissues with connective tissue

Clonal selection of B cells ________. A) occurs during fetal development B) results in the formation of plasma cells C) cannot occur in the presence of antigens D) only occurs in the secondary immune response

B) results in the formation of plasma cells

All of the following are examples of autoimmune disorders EXCEPT __________. A) Graves' disease B) sickle-cell anemia C) rheumatoid arthritis D) myasthenia gravis E) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

B) sickle-cell anemia

Cytotoxic T cells kill target cells __________. A) by phagocytosis B) through insertion of perforins into the target's membrane C) by secreting antibodies D) by releasing oxidizing agents E) through injection of tumor necrosis factor

B) through insertion of perforins into the target's membrane

Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease? A) multiple sclerosis B) type II diabetes C) systemic lupus erythematosus D) glomerulonephritis

B) type II diabetes

Which of the following statements is a false or incorrect statement? A) The lymphoid organs where lymphocytes become immunocompetent are called primary lymph organs. All other lymphoid organs are referred to as secondary lymphoid organs. B) It is our genes, not antigens, that determine what specific foreign substances our immune system will be able to recognize and resist. C) After becoming immunocompetent, the naive T cells and B cells are exported to the bone marrow where the encounters with antigens occur. D) T cells and B cells become fully immunocompetent when they bind with recognized antigens.

C) After becoming immunocompetent, the naive T cells and B cells are exported to the bone marrow where the encounters with antigens occur.

Which of the following types of cells is involved in adaptive immunity? A) neutrophils B) macrophages C) B cells D) natural killer cells

C) B cells

Which of the following is/are NOT an innate defense mechanism of the body? A) skin B) inflammation C) B lymphocytes D) fever

C) B lymphocytes

Which of the following statements is incorrect or false? A) Haptens lack immunogenicity unless attached to protein carriers. B) Class 1 MHC molecules are built into the plasma membranes of all body cells. C) Class II MHC molecules appear only on the surface of antigen-presenting cells, thymic cells, and T cells that have been activated by exposure to antigens. D) MHC proteins are the cell's identity markers.

C) Class II MHC molecules appear only on the surface of antigen-presenting cells, thymic cells, and T cells that have been activated by exposure to antigens.

Select the correct statement about the function of antibodies. A) Antibodies may directly destroy "invaders." B) Neutralization is the process by which antibodies cause invading cells to clump together. C) Complement fixation is the main mechanism by which antibodies provide protection. D) The most potent agglutinating agent is IgG.

C) Complement fixation is the main mechanism by which antibodies provide protection.

________ predominate at the sites of chronic infections. A) Basophils B) Eosinophils C) Macrophages D) B cells

C) Macrophages

Lymphocytes that develop immunocompetence in the thymus are __________. A) NK cells B) macrophages C) T lymphocytes D) B lymphocytes

C) T lymphocytes

Pure antibody preparations specific for a single antigenic determinant are called ________ antibodies.

monoclonal

Harmful or disease-causing microorganisms are called ________.

pathogens

________ is an autoimmune disease that severely impairs renal function.

Glomerulonephritis

A(n) ________ is a cell hybrid formed from the fusion of tumor cells and B lymphocytes.

Hybridoma

The antibody that becomes bound to mast cells and basophils and causes the cells to release histamine and other chemicals is ________.

IgE

________ cells can lyse and kill cancer cells and virus-infected body cells before the immune system is activated.

Natural killer

________ is a dangerous condition where the cytokines are released unchecked, making the capillaries very leaky and thus depleting blood fluids.

Septic shock or Sepsis

________ are grafts taken from another animal species

Xenografts