Upper GI ?'s

The nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube into a 68-year-old female patient who is nauseated and vomiting. She has an abdominal mass and suspected small intestinal obstruction. The patient asks the nurse why this procedure is necessary. What response by the nurse is most appropriate? A) "The tube will help to drain the stomach contents and prevent further vomiting." B) "The tube will push past the area that is blocked and thus help to stop the vomiting." C) "The tube is just a standard procedure before many types of surgery to the abdomen." D) "The tube will let us measure your stomach contents so that we can plan what type of IV fluid replacement would be best."

A) The NG tube is used to decompress the stomach by draining stomach contents and thereby prevent further vomiting. The NG tube will not push past the blocked area. Potential surgery is not currently indicated. The location of the obstruction will determine the type of fluid to use, not measure the amount of stomach contents.

Cobalamin injections have been prescribed for a patient with chronic atrophic gastritis. The nurse determines that teaching regarding the injections has been effective when the patient states, a. "The cobalamin injections will prevent me from becoming anemic." b. "These injections will increase the hydrochloric acid in my stomach." c. "These injections will decrease my risk for developing stomach cancer." d. "The cobalamin injections need to be taken until my inflamed stomach heals."

ANS: A Cobalamin supplementation prevents the development of pernicious anemia. The incidence of stomach cancer is higher in patients with chronic gastritis, but cobalamin does not reduce the risk for stomach cancer. Chronic gastritis may cause achlorhydria, but cobalamin does not correct this. The loss of intrinsic factor secretion with chronic gastritis is permanent, and the patient will need lifelong supplementation with cobalamin.

A patient has just arrived on the postoperative unit after having a laparoscopic esophagectomy for treatment of esophageal cancer. Which nursing action should be included in the postoperative plan of care? a. Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees. b. Reposition the nasogastric (NG) tube if drainage stops or decreases. c. Notify the doctor immediately about bloody NG drainage. d. Start oral fluids when the patient has active bowel sounds.

ANS: A Elevation of the head of the bed decreases the risk for reflux and aspiration of gastric secretions. The NG tube should not be repositioned without consulting with the health care provider. Bloody NG drainage is expected for the first 8 to 12 hours. A swallowing study is needed before oral fluids are started.

The nurse has taught a client about lifestyle modifications for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). What statements by the client indicate good understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "I just joined a gym, so I hope that helps me lose weight." b. "I sure hate to give up my coffee, but I guess I have to." c. "I will eat three small meals and three small snacks a day." d. "Sitting upright and not lying down after meals will help." e. "Smoking a pipe is not a problem and I don't have to stop."

ANS: A, B, C, D Lifestyle modifications can help control GERD and include losing weight if needed; avoiding chocolate, caffeine, and carbonated beverages; eating frequent small meals or snacks; and remaining upright after meals. Tobacco is a risk factor for GERD and should be avoided in all forms. DIF:Understanding/ComprehensionREF:1113 KEY: Gastrointestinal disorders| lifestyle modifications| patient education MSC:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Evaluation NOT:Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance

After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A patient who was admitted yesterday with gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding and has melena b. A patient who is crying after receiving a diagnosis of esophageal cancer c. A patient with esophageal varices who has a blood pressure of 96/54 mm Hg d. A patient with nausea who has a dose of metoclopramide (Reglan) scheduled

ANS: C The patient's history and blood pressure indicate possible hemodynamic instability caused by GI bleeding. The data about the other patients do not indicate acutely life-threatening complications.

A patient with acute gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding is receiving normal saline IV at a rate of 500 mL/hr. Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate immediately to the health care provider? a. The patient's blood pressure (BP) has increased to 142/94 mm Hg. b. The nasogastric (NG) suction is returning coffee-ground material. c. The patient's lungs have crackles audible to the midline. d. The bowel sounds are very hyperactive in all four quadrants.

ANS: C The patient's lung sounds indicate that pulmonary edema may be developing as a result of the rapid infusion of IV fluid and that the fluid infusion rate should be slowed. The return of coffee-ground material in an NG tube is expected for a patient with upper GI bleeding. The BP is slightly elevated but would not be an indication to contact the health care provider immediately. Hyperactive bowel sounds are common when a patient has GI bleeding.

A 62-year-old patient who has been diagnosed with esophageal cancer tells the nurse, "I know that my chances are not very good, but I do not feel ready to die yet." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "You may have quite a few years still left to live." b. "Thinking about dying will only make you feel worse." c. "Having this new diagnosis must be very hard for you." d. "It is important that you be realistic about your prognosis."

ANS: C This response is open-ended and will encourage the patient to further discuss feelings of anxiety or sadness about the diagnosis. Patients with esophageal cancer have only a low survival rate, so the response "You may have quite a few years still left to live" is misleading. The response beginning, "Thinking about dying" indicates that the nurse is not open to discussing the patient's fears of dying. And the response beginning, "It is important that you be realistic," discourages the patient from feeling hopeful, which is important to patients with any life-threatening diagnosis.

Which assessment finding in a patient who had a total gastrectomy 12 hours previously is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Absent bowel sounds b. Scant nasogastric (NG) tube drainage c. Complaints of incisional pain d. Temperature 102.1° F (38.9° C)

ANS: D An elevation in temperature may indicate leakage at the anastomosis, which may require return to surgery or keeping the patient NPO. The other findings are expected in the immediate postoperative period for patients who have this surgery.

A patient who recently has been experiencing frequent heartburn is seen in the clinic. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about a. barium swallow. b. radionuclide tests. c. endoscopy procedures. d. proton pump inhibitors.

ANS: D Because diagnostic testing for heartburn that is probably caused by gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is expensive and uncomfortable, proton pump inhibitors are frequently used for a short period as the first step in the diagnosis of GERD. The other tests may be used but are not usually the first step in diagnosis.

All of the following orders are received for a patient who has vomited 1500 mL of bright red blood. Which order will the nurse implement first? a. Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube and connect to suction. b. Administer intravenous (IV) famotidine (Pepcid) 40 mg. c. Draw blood for typing and crossmatching. d. Infuse 1000 mL of lactated Ringer's solution.

ANS: D Because the patient has vomited a large amount of blood, correction of hypovolemia and prevention of hypovolemic shock are the priorities. The other actions also are important to implement quickly but are not the highest priorities.

Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient with newly diagnosed gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? a. "Peppermint tea may be helpful in reducing your symptoms." b. "You should avoid eating between meals to reduce acid secretion." c. "Vigorous physical activities may increase the incidence of reflux." d. "It will be helpful to keep the head of your bed elevated on blocks."

ANS: D Elevating the head of the bed will reduce the incidence of reflux while the patient is sleeping. Peppermint will lower LES pressure and increase the chance for reflux. Small, frequent meals are recommended to avoid abdominal distention. There is no need to make changes in physical activities because of GERD.

After the nurse teaches a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) about recommended dietary modifications, which diet choice for a snack 2 hours before bedtime indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. Chocolate pudding b. Glass of low-fat milk c. Peanut butter sandwich d. Cherry gelatin and fruit

ANS: D Gelatin and fruit are low fat and will not decrease lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure. Foods like chocolate are avoided because they lower LES pressure. Milk products increase gastric acid secretion. High-fat foods such as peanut butter decrease both gastric emptying and LES pressure.

A 62-year-old man patient who requires daily use of a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) for the management of severe rheumatoid arthritis has recently developed melena. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about a. substitution of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for the NSAID. b. use of enteric-coated NSAIDs to reduce gastric irritation. c. reasons for using corticosteroids to treat the rheumatoid arthritis. d. misoprostol (Cytotec) to protect the gastrointestinal (GI) mucosa.

ANS: D Misoprostol, a prostaglandin analog, reduces acid secretion and the incidence of upper GI bleeding associated with NSAID use. Enteric coating of NSAIDs does not reduce the risk for GI bleeding. Corticosteroids increase the risk for ulcer development, and will not be substituted for NSAIDs for this patient. Acetaminophen will not be effective in treating the patient's rheumatoid arthritis.

A patient who is vomiting bright red blood is admitted to the emergency department. Which assessment should the nurse perform first? a. Checking the level of consciousness b. Measuring the quantity of any emesis c. Auscultating the chest for breath sounds d. Taking the blood pressure (BP) and pulse

ANS: D The nurse is concerned about blood loss and possible hypovolemic shock in a patient with acute gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding; BP and pulse are the best indicators of these complications. The other information also is important to obtain, but BP and pulse rate are the best indicators for hypoperfusion.

A patient with a recent 20-pound unintended weight loss is diagnosed with stomach cancer. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Refer the patient for hospice services. b. Infuse IV fluids through a central line. c. Teach the patient about antiemetic therapy. d. Offer supplemental feedings between meals.

ANS: D The patient data indicate a poor nutritional state and improvement in nutrition will be helpful in improving response to therapies such as surgery, chemotherapy, or radiation. Nausea and vomiting are not common clinical manifestations of stomach cancer. There is no indication that the patient requires hospice or IV fluid infusions.

A patient with recurring heartburn receives a new prescription for esomeprazole (Nexium). In teaching the patient about this medication, the nurse explains that this drug a. neutralizes stomach acid and provides relief of symptoms in a few minutes. b. reduces the reflux of gastric acid by increasing the rate of gastric emptying. c. coats and protects the lining of the stomach and esophagus from gastric acid. d. treats gastroesophageal reflux disease by decreasing stomach acid production.

ANS: D The proton pump inhibitors decrease the rate of gastric acid secretion. Promotility drugs such as metoclopramide (Reglan) increase the rate of gastric emptying. Cryoprotective medications such as sucralfate (Carafate) protect the stomach. Antacids neutralize stomach acid and work rapidly.

5. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. 42-year-old who has acute gastritis and ongoing epigastric pain b. 70-year-old with a hiatal hernia who experiences frequent heartburn c. 53-year-old who has dumping syndrome after a recent partial gastrectomy d. 60-year-old with nausea and vomiting who has dry oral mucosa and lethargy

ANS: D This older patient is at high risk for problems such as aspiration, dehydration, and fluid and electrolyte disturbances. The other patients will also need to be assessed, but the information about them indicates symptoms that are typical for their diagnoses and are not life threatening.

The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient who has just vomited yellow green liquid and reports nausea. Which action would be an appropriate nursing intervention? a. Offer the patient an herbal supplement such as ginseng. b. Apply a cool washcloth to the forehead and provide mouth care. c. Take the patient for a walk in the hallway to promote peristalsis. d. Discontinue any medications that may cause nausea or vomiting.

Correct answer: b Cleansing the face and hands with a cool washcloth and providing mouth care are appropriate comfort interventions for nausea and vomiting. Ginseng is not used to treat postoperative nausea and vomiting. Unnecessary activity should be avoided. The patient should rest in a quiet environment. Medications may be temporarily withheld until the acute phase is over, but the medications should not be discontinued without consultation with the health care provider.

The patient receiving chemotherapy rings the call bell and reports the onset of nausea. The nurse should prepare an as-needed dose of which medication? a. Zolpidem b. Ondansetron c. Dexamethasone d. Morphine sulfate

Correct answer: b Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist antiemetic that is especially effective in reducing cancer chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Morphine sulfate may cause nausea and vomiting. Zolpidem does not relieve nausea and vomiting. Dexamethasone is usually used in combination with ondansetron for acute and chemotherapy-induced emesis.

The nurse is caring for a 68-year-old patient admitted with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The patient has an abdominal mass, and a bowel obstruction is suspected. The nurse auscultating the abdomen listens for which type of bowel sounds that are consistent with the patient's clinical picture? A) Low-pitched and rumbling above the area of obstruction B) High-pitched and hypoactive below the area of obstruction C) Low-pitched and hyperactive below the area of obstruction D) High-pitched and hyperactive above the area of obstruction

D) Early in intestinal obstruction, the patient's bowel sounds are hyperactive and high-pitched, sometimes referred to as "tinkling" above the level of the obstruction. This occurs because peristaltic action increases to "push past" the area of obstruction. As the obstruction becomes complete, bowel sounds decrease and finally become absent.

A 72-year-old patient was admitted with epigastric pain due to a gastric ulcer. Which patient assessment warrants an urgent change in the nursing plan of care? A) Chest pain relieved with eating or drinking water B) Back pain 3 or 4 hours after eating a meal C) Burning epigastric pain 90 minutes after breakfast D) Rigid abdomen and vomiting following indigestion

D.A rigid abdomen with vomiting in a patient who has a gastric ulcer indicates a perforation of the ulcer, especially if the manifestations of perforation appear suddenly. Midepigastric pain is relieved by eating, drinking water, or antacids with duodenal ulcers, not gastric ulcers. Back pain 3-4 hours after a meal is more likely to occur with a duodenal ulcer. Burning epigastric pain 1-2 hours after a meal is an expected manifestation of a gastric ulcer related to increased gastric secretions and does not cause an urgent change in the nursing plan of care.

A pt with a hx of PUD suddenly begins to complain of severe abdominal pain. Which actions should the nurse take at this time? (select all that apply) A notify physician B withhold oral food and fluids C place the pt in Fowler's position D obtain an order for a narcotic analgesic E admin the prescribed PPI

A B C Perforation is acute pain: place in Fowler's, allowing containments to pool in the pelvis, NPO STAT, and HCP notified.

The nurse is concerned that a pt recovering from a partial gastrectomy for stomach cancer is at risk for nutritional deficiency. For which nutritional deficiencies should the nurse focus care? (select all that apply) A anemia B calcium C folic acid D Vit C E Vit B12

A B C E anemia is major problem after major gastric resection. Folic acid deficiency is seen after surgery and decreased absorption of Ca. Cells of stomach are responsible for absorption of Vit B12

The health care provider prescribes the following therapies for a patient who has been admitted with dehydration and hypotension after 3 days of nausea and vomiting. Which order will the nurse implement first? a. Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr. b. Administer IV ondansetron (Zofran). c. Provide oral care with moistened swabs. d. Insert a 16-gauge nasogastric (NG) tube.

ANS: A Because the patient has severe dehydration, rehydration with IV fluids is the priority. The other orders should be accomplished as quickly as possible after the IV fluids are initiated.

A patient who has had several episodes of bloody diarrhea is admitted to the emergency department. Which action should the nurse anticipate taking? a. Obtain a stool specimen for culture. b. Administer antidiarrheal medications. c. Teach about adverse effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). d. Provide education about antibiotic therapy.

ANS: A Patients with bloody diarrhea should have a stool culture for E. coli O157:H7. NSAIDs may cause occult blood in the stools, but not diarrhea. Antidiarrheal medications usually are avoided for possible infectious diarrhea to avoid prolonging the infection. Antibiotic therapy in the treatment of infectious diarrhea is controversial because it may precipitate kidney complications.

When counseling a patient with a family history of stomach cancer about ways to decrease risk for developing stomach cancer, the nurse will teach the patient to avoid a. smoked foods such as bacon and ham. b. foods that cause abdominal distention. c. chronic use of H2 blocking medications. d. emotionally or physically stressful situations.

ANS: A Smoked foods such as bacon, ham, and smoked sausage increase the risk for stomach cancer. Use of H2 blockers, stressful situations, and abdominal distention are not associated with an increased incidence of stomach cancer.

The nurse is caring for a client who had an esophagectomy 3 days ago and was extubated yesterday. What actions may the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Assisting with position changes and getting out of bed b. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to at least 30 degrees c. Reminding the client to use the spirometer every 4 hours d. Taking and recording vital signs per hospital protocol e. Titrating oxygen based on the client's oxygen saturations

ANS: A, B, D The UAP can assist with mobility, keep the head of the bed elevated, and take and record vital signs. The client needs to use the spirometer every 1 to 2 hours. The nurse titrates oxygen. DIF:Applying/ApplicationREF:1122 KEY: Gastrointestinal disorders| postoperative nursing| delegation| unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) MSC: Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

A nurse is teaching clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) about foods to avoid. Which foods should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Chocolate b. Decaffeinated coffee c. Citrus fruits d. Peppermint e. Tomato sauce

ANS: A, C, D, E Chocolate, citrus fruits such as oranges and grapefruit, peppermint and spearmint, and tomato-based products all contribute to the reflux associated with GERD. Caffeinated teas, coffee, and sodas should be avoided. DIF:Understanding/ComprehensionREF:1111 KEY:Gastrointestinal disorders| patient education MSC:Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation

Which item should the nurse offer to the patient who is to restart oral intake after being NPO due to nausea and vomiting? a. Glass of orange juice b. Dish of lemon gelatin c. Cup of coffee with cream d. Bowl of hot chicken broth

ANS: B Clear cool liquids are usually the first foods started after a patient has been nauseated. Acidic foods such as orange juice, very hot foods, and coffee are poorly tolerated when patients have been nauseated.

The family member of a patient who has suffered massive abdominal trauma in an automobile accident asks the nurse why the patient is receiving famotidine (Pepcid). The nurse will explain that the medication will a. prevent aspiration of gastric contents. b. inhibit the development of stress ulcers. c. lower the chance for H. pylori infection. d. decrease the risk for nausea and vomiting.

ANS: B Famotidine is administered to prevent the development of physiologic stress ulcers, which are associated with a major physiologic insult such as massive trauma. Famotidine does not decrease nausea or vomiting, prevent aspiration, or prevent H. pylori infection.

A 44-year-old man admitted with a peptic ulcer has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place. When the patient develops sudden, severe upper abdominal pain, diaphoresis, and a firm abdomen, which action should the nurse take? a. Irrigate the NG tube. b. Check the vital signs. c. Give the ordered antacid. d. Elevate the foot of the bed.

ANS: B The patient's symptoms suggest acute perforation, and the nurse should assess for signs of hypovolemic shock. Irrigation of the NG tube, administration of antacids, or both would be contraindicated because any material in the stomach will increase the spillage into the peritoneal cavity. Elevating the foot of the bed may increase abdominal pressure and discomfort, as well as making it more difficult for the patient to breathe.

The nurse is caring for a pt receiving radiation therapy for esophageal cancer. Which manifestation should the nurse immediately report to the HCP? A weight loss B bright bleeding from the mouth C difficulty swallowing solid foods D crackles in the base of the R lung

B bleeding could indicate perforation

The results of a patient's recent endoscopy indicate the presence of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which teaching point should the nurse provide to the patient based on this new diagnosis? a "It would be beneficial for you to eliminate drinking alcohol." b "You'll need to drink at least two to three glasses of milk daily." c "Many people find that a minced or pureed diet eases their symptoms of PUD." d "Taking medication will allow you to keep your present diet while minimizing symptoms."

Correct answer: a Alcohol increases the amount of stomach acid produced. so it should be avoided. Although there is no specific recommended dietary modification for PUD, most patients find it necessary to make some sort of dietary modifications to minimize symptoms. Milk may exacerbate PUD.

a patient who had a gastroduodenostomy (Billroth I operation) for stomach cancer reports generalized weakness, sweating, palpitations, and dizziness 15 to 30 minutes after eating. What long-term complication does the nurse suspect is occurring? a. Malnutrition b. Bile reflux gastritis c. Dumping syndrome d. Postprandial hypoglycemia

c After a Billroth I operation, dumping syndrome may occur 15 to 30 minutes after eating because of the hypertonic fluid going to the intestine and additional fluid being drawn into the bowel. Malnutrition may occur but does not cause these symptoms. Bile reflux gastritis cannot happen when the stomach has been removed. Postprandial hypoglycemia occurs with similar symptoms, but 2 hours after eating.

After administering a dose of promethazine (Phenergan) to a patient with nausea and vomiting, the nurse explains that which of the following may be experienced as a common temporary adverse effect of the medication? A) Drowsiness B) Reduced hearing C) Sensation of falling D) Photosensitivity

A) Drowsiness (Although being given to this patient as an antiemetic, promethazine also has sedative and amnesic properties. For this reason, the patient is likely to experience drowsiness as an adverse effect of the medication.)

A client is having a temporary tracheostomy placed during surgery for oral cancer. What action by the nurse is best to relieve anxiety? a. Agree on a postoperative communication method. b. Explain that staff will answer the call light promptly. c. Give the client a Magic Slate to write on postoperatively. d. Reassure the client that you will take care of all of his or her needs.

ANS: A Before surgery that interrupts the client's ability to communicate, the nurse, client, and family (if possible) agree upon a method of communication in the postoperative period. The client may or may not prefer a slate and may not be able to communicate in writing. Reassuring the client and telling him or her you will take care of all of his or her needs does not help the client be an active participant in care. Ensuring that the staff will answer the call light promptly will not guarantee this will occur. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 1105 KEY: Oral disorders| communication MSC: Integrated Process: Caring NOT: Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity

A patient with a bleeding duodenal ulcer has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place, and the health care provider orders 30 mL of aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide (Maalox) to be instilled through the tube every hour. To evaluate the effectiveness of this treatment, the nurse a. periodically aspirates and tests gastric pH. b. monitors arterial blood gas values on a daily basis. c. checks each stool for the presence of occult blood. d. measures the amount of residual stomach contents hourly.

ANS: A The purpose for antacids is to increase gastric pH. Checking gastric pH is the most direct way of evaluating the effectiveness of the medication. Arterial blood gases may change slightly, but this does not directly reflect the effect of antacids on gastric pH. Because the patient has upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding, occult blood in the stools will appear even after the acute bleeding has stopped. The amount of residual stomach contents is not a reflection of resolution of bleeding or of gastric pH.

The nurse is aware that which factors are related to the development of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? (Select all that apply.) a. Delayed gastric emptying b. Eating large meals c. Hiatal hernia d. Obesity e. Viral infections

ANS: A, B, C, D Many factors predispose a person to GERD, including delayed gastric emptying, eating large meals, hiatal hernia, and obesity. Viral infections are not implicated in the development of GERD, although infection with Helicobacter pylori is. DIF:Remembering/KnowledgeREF:1111 KEY: Gastrointestinal disorders MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation

A client has been taught about alginic acid and sodium bicarbonate (Gaviscon). What statement by the client indicates that teaching has been effective? a. "I can only take this medicine at night." b. "I should take this on a full stomach." c. "This drug decreases stomach acid." d. "This should be taken 1 hour before meals."

ANS: B Gaviscon should be taken with food in the stomach. It can be taken with meals at any time. Its mechanism of action is not to decrease stomach acid. DIF:Evaluating/SynthesisREF:1113 KEY:Gastrointestinal disorders| antacids| patient education MSC:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Evaluation NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies

Which of these assessment findings in a patient with a hiatal hernia who returned from a laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication 4 hours ago is most important for the nurse to address immediately? a. The patient is experiencing intermittent waves of nausea. b. The patient has absent breath sounds throughout the left lung. c. The patient has decreased bowel sounds in all four quadrants. d. The patient complains of 6/10 (0 to 10 scale) abdominal pain.

ANS: B Decreased breath sounds on one side may indicate a pneumothorax, which requires rapid diagnosis and treatment. The abdominal pain and nausea also should be addressed but they are not as high priority as the patient's respiratory status. The patient's decreased bowel sounds are expected after surgery and require ongoing monitoring but no other action.

The nurse is working with clients who have esophageal disorders. The nurse should assess the clients for which manifestations? (Select all that apply.) a. Aphasia b. Dysphagia c. Eructation d. Halitosis e. Weight gain

ANS: B, C, D Common signs of esophageal disorders include dysphagia, eructation, halitosis, and weight loss. Aphasia is difficulty with speech, commonly seen after stroke. DIF:Remembering/KnowledgeREF:1124 KEY:Gastrointestinal disorders| nursing assessment MSC:Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential

A client has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). The provider prescribes a proton pump inhibitor. About what medication should the nurse anticipate teaching the client? a. Famotidine (Pepcid) b. Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox) c. Omeprazole (Prilosec) d. Ranitidine (Zantac)

ANS: C Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used in the treatment of GERD. Famotidine and ranitidine are histamine blockers. Maalox is an antacid. DIF:Remembering/KnowledgeREF:1113 KEY: Gastrointestinal disorders| proton pump inhibitors| patient education MSC:Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies

A 58-year-old patient has just been admitted to the emergency department with nausea and vomiting. Which information requires the most rapid intervention by the nurse? a. The patient has been vomiting for 4 days. b. The patient takes antacids 8 to 10 times a day. c. The patient is lethargic and difficult to arouse. d. The patient has undergone a small intestinal resection.

ANS: C A lethargic patient is at risk for aspiration, and the nurse will need to position the patient to decrease aspiration risk. The other information is also important to collect, but it does not require as quick action as the risk for aspiration.

When admitting a patient with a stroke who is unconscious and unresponsive to stimuli, the nurse learns from the patient's family that the patient has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). The nurse will plan to do frequent assessments of the patient's a. apical pulse. b. bowel sounds. c. breath sounds. d. abdominal girth.

ANS: C Because GERD may cause aspiration, the unconscious patient is at risk for developing aspiration pneumonia. Bowel sounds, abdominal girth, and apical pulse will not be affected by the patient's stroke or GERD and do not require more frequent monitoring than the routine.

35. A 26-year-old woman has been admitted to the emergency department with nausea and vomiting. Which action could the RN delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Auscultate the bowel sounds. b. Assess for signs of dehydration. c. Assist the patient with oral care. d. Ask the patient about the nausea.

ANS: C Oral care is included in UAP education and scope of practice. The other actions are all assessments that require more education and a higher scope of nursing practice.

The health care provider prescribes antacids and sucralfate (Carafate) for treatment of a patient's peptic ulcer. The nurse will teach the patient to take a. antacids 30 minutes before the sucralfate. b. sucralfate at bedtime and antacids before meals. c. antacids after eating and sucralfate 30 minutes before eating. d. sucralfate and antacids together 30 minutes before each meal.

ANS: C Sucralfate is most effective when the pH is low and should not be given with or soon after antacid. Antacids are most effective when taken after eating. Administration of sucralfate 30 minutes before eating and antacids just after eating will ensure that both drugs can be most effective. The other regimens will decrease the effectiveness of the medications.

A patient complaining of nausea receives a dose of metoclopramide. Which potential adverse effect should the nurse tell the patient to report? a Tremors b Constipation c Double vision d Numbness in fingers and toes

correct answer a Extrapyramidal side effects, including tremors and tardive dyskinesias, may occur with metoclopramide administration. Constipation, double vision, and numbness in fingers and toes are not adverse effects of metoclopramide.

The nurse determines a patient has experienced the beneficial effects of therapy with famotidine when which symptom is relieved? a. Nausea b. Belching c. Epigastric pain d. Difficulty swallowing

correct answer c Famotidine is an H2-receptor antagonist that inhibits parietal cell output of HCl acid and minimizes damage to gastric mucosa related to hyperacidity, thus relieving epigastric pain. It is not indicated for nausea, belching, and dysphagia.

A pt with a history of peptic ulcer disease has presented to the emergency department with complaints of severe abdominal pain and a rigid, boardlike abdomen, prompting the health care team to suspect a perforated ulcer. Which of the following actions should the nurse anticipate? A) Providing IV fluids and inserting a nasogastric tube B) Administering oral bicarbonate and testing the patient's gastric pH level C) Performing a fecal occult blood test and administering IV calcium gluconate D) Starting parenteral nutrition and placing the patient in a high-Fowler's position

A) Providing IV fluids and inserting a nasogastric tube A perforated peptic ulcer requires IV replacement of fluid losses and continued gastric aspiration by NG tube. Nothing is given by mouth and gastric pH testing is not a priority. Calcium gluconate is not a medication directly relevant to the patient's suspected diagnosis and parenteral nutrition is not a priority in the short term.

A client is prescribed cetuximab (Erbitux) for oral cancer and asks the nurse how it works. What response by the nurse is best? a. "It blocks epidermal growth factor." b. "It cuts off the tumor's blood supply." c. "It prevents tumor extension." d. "It targets rapidly dividing cells."

ANS: A Cetuximab (Erbitux) targets and blocks the epidermal growth factor, which contributes to the growth of oral cancers. The other explanations are not correct. DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 1105 KEY: Oral disorders| cancer| patient education MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies

A patient is hospitalized with vomiting of "coffee-ground" emesis. The nurse will anticipate preparing the patient for a. endoscopy. b. angiography. c. gastric analysis testing. d. barium contrast studies.

ANS: A Endoscopy is the primary tool for visualization and diagnosis of upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. Angiography is used only when endoscopy cannot be done because it is more invasive and has more possible complications. Gastric analysis testing may help with determining the cause of gastric irritation, but it is not used for acute GI bleeding. Barium studies are helpful in determining the presence of gastric lesions, but not whether the lesions are actively bleeding.

Which information will the nurse include for a patient with newly diagnosed gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? a. "Peppermint tea may reduce your symptoms." b. "Keep the head of your bed elevated on blocks." c. "You should avoid eating between meals to reduce acid secretion." d. "Vigorous physical activities may increase the incidence of reflux."

ANS: B Elevating the head of the bed will reduce the incidence of reflux while the patient is sleeping. Peppermint will decrease lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure and increase the chance for reflux. Small, frequent meals are recommended to avoid abdominal distention. There is no need to make changes in physical activities because of GERD.

Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient with peptic ulcer disease about the effect of ranitidine (Zantac)? a. "Ranitidine absorbs the gastric acid." b. "Ranitidine decreases gastric acid secretion." c. "Ranitidine constricts the blood vessels near the ulcer." d. "Ranitidine covers the ulcer with a protective material."

ANS: B Ranitidine is a histamine-2 (H2) receptor blocker, which decreases the secretion of gastric acid. The response beginning, "Ranitidine constricts the blood vessels" describes the effect of vasopressin. The response "Ranitidine absorbs the gastric acid" describes the effect of antacids. The response beginning "Ranitidine covers the ulcer" describes the action of sucralfate (Carafate).

Which information about dietary management should the nurse include when teaching a patient with peptic ulcer disease (PUD)? a. "You will need to remain on a bland diet." b. "Avoid foods that cause pain after you eat them." c. "High-protein foods are least likely to cause you pain." d. "You should avoid eating any raw fruits and vegetables."

ANS: B The best information is that each individual should choose foods that are not associated with postprandial discomfort. Raw fruits and vegetables may irritate the gastric mucosa, but chewing well seems to decrease this problem and some patients may tolerate these foods well. High-protein foods help neutralize acid, but they also stimulate hydrochloric (HCl) acid secretion and may increase discomfort for some patients. Bland diets may be recommended during an acute exacerbation of PUD, but there is little scientific evidence to support their use.

A patient with peptic ulcer disease associated with the presence of Helicobacter pylori is treated with triple drug therapy. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about a. sucralfate (Carafate), nystatin (Mycostatin), and bismuth (Pepto-Bismol). b. amoxicillin (Amoxil), clarithromycin (Biaxin), and omeprazole (Prilosec). c. famotidine (Pepcid), magnesium hydroxide (Mylanta), and pantoprazole (Protonix). d. metoclopramide (Reglan), bethanechol (Urecholine), and promethazine (Phenergan).

ANS: B The drugs used in triple drug therapy include a proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole and the antibiotics amoxicillin and clarithromycin. The other combinations listed are not included in the protocol for H. pylori infection.

The nurse is caring for a patient who complains of abdominal pain and hematemesis. Which new assessment finding(s) would indicate the patient is experiencing a decline in condition? a. Pallor and diaphoresis b. Ecchymotic peripheral IV site c. Guaiac-positive diarrhea stools d. Heart rate 90, respiratory rate 20, BP 110/60

Correct Answer: a A patient with hematemesis has some degree of bleeding from an unknown source. Guaiac-positive diarrhea stools would be an expected finding. When monitoring the patient for stability, the nurse observes for signs of hypovolemic shock such as tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, altered level of consciousness, pallor, and cool and clammy skin. An ecchymotic peripheral IV site will require assessment to determine the need for reinsertion. Access would be critical in the immediate treatment of shock, but the ecchymotic site does not represent a decline in condition.

After administration of a dose of metoclopramide, which patient assessment finding would show the medication was effective? a. Decreased blood pressure b. Absence of muscle tremors c. Relief of nausea and vomiting d. No further episodes of diarrhea

Correct answer: C Metoclopramide is classified as a prokinetic and antiemetic medication. If it is effective, the patient's nausea and vomiting should resolve. Metoclopramide does not affect blood pressure, muscle tremors, or diarrhea.

A 74-yr-old female patient with osteoporosis is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which over-the-counter medication to treat GERD should be used with caution? a. Sucralfate b. Cimetidine c. Omeprazole d. Metoclopramide

Correct answer: C There is a potential link between proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) (e.g., omeprazole) use and bone metabolism. Long-term use or high doses of PPIs may increase the risk of fractures of the hip, wrist, and spine

The patient with chronic gastritis is being put on a combination of medications to eradicate Helicobacter pylori. Which drugs does the nurse know will probably be used? a Antibiotic(s), antacid, and corticosteroid b Antibiotic(s), aspirin, and antiulcer/protectant c Antibiotic(s), proton pump inhibitor, and bismuth d Antibiotic(s) and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

c To eradicate H. pylori, a combination of antibiotics, a proton pump inhibitor, and possibly bismuth (for quadruple therapy) will be used. Corticosteroids, aspirin, and NSAIDs are drugs that can cause gastritis and do not affect H. pylori.

The nurse is caring for a patient treated with IV fluid therapy for severe vomiting. As the patient recovers and begins to tolerate oral intake, which food choice would be most appropriate? a. Iced tea b. Dry toast c. Hot coffee d. Plain yogurt

Correct answer:b Dry toast or crackers may alleviate the feeling of nausea and prevent further vomiting. Water is the initial fluid of choice. Extremely hot or cold liquids and fatty foods are generally not well tolerated

Twelve hours after undergoing a gastroduodenostomy (Billroth I), a patient complains of increasing abdominal pain. The patient has absent bowel sounds and 200 mL of bright red nasogastric (NG) drainage in the last hour. The most appropriate action by the nurse at this time is to a. notify the surgeon. b. irrigate the NG tube. c. administer the prescribed morphine. d. continue to monitor the NG drainage.

ANS: A Increased pain and 200 mL of bright red NG drainage 12 hours after surgery indicate possible postoperative hemorrhage, and immediate actions such as blood transfusion and/or return to surgery are needed. Because the NG is draining, there is no indication that irrigation is needed. The patient may need morphine, but this is not the highest priority action. Continuing to monitor the NG drainage is not an adequate response.

A patient recovering from a gastrojejunostomy (Billroth II) for treatment of a duodenal ulcer develops dizziness, weakness, and palpitations about 20 minutes after eating. To avoid recurrence of these symptoms, the nurse teaches the patient to a. lie down for about 30 minutes after eating. b. choose foods that are high in carbohydrates. c. increase the amount of fluid intake with meals. d. drink sugared fluids or eat candy after each meal.

ANS: A The patient is experiencing symptoms of dumping syndrome, which may be reduced by lying down after eating. Increasing fluid intake and choosing high carbohydrate foods will increase the risk for dumping syndrome. Having a sweet drink or hard candy will correct the hypoglycemia that is associated with dumping syndrome but will not prevent dumping syndrome.

The nurse is preparing teaching for a pt with gastroesophageal reflux disease. What should this teaching include? (select all that apply) A there is no tx for this disease B avoid lying down for several hours after eating C Elevate HOB on 6-8 inch blocks D peppermint and chocolate candies can help relieve symptoms E stop taking prescribed PPI's once symptoms are relieved

B C help prevent back flow of gastric content

A patient with a peptic ulcer who has a nasogastric (NG) tube develops sudden, severe upper abdominal pain, diaphoresis, and a very firm abdomen. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Irrigate the NG tube. b. Obtain the vital signs. c. Listen for bowel sounds. d. Give the ordered antacid.

ANS: B The patient's symptoms suggest acute perforation, and the nurse should assess for signs of hypovolemic shock. Irrigation of the NG tube, administration of antacids, or both would be contraindicated because any material in the stomach will increase the spillage into the peritoneal cavity. The nurse should assess the bowel sounds, but this is not the first action that should be taken.

The nurse implements discharge teaching for a patient following a gastroduodenostomy for treatment of a peptic ulcer. Which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "Persistent heartburn is expected after surgery." b. "I will try to drink liquids along with my meals." c. "Vitamin supplements may be needed to prevent problems with anemia." d. "I will need to choose foods that are low in fat and high in carbohydrate."

ANS: C Cobalamin deficiency may occur after partial gastrectomy, and the patient may need to receive cobalamin via injections or nasal spray. Foods that have moderate fat and low carbohydrate should be chosen to prevent dumping syndrome. Ingestion of liquids with meals is avoided to prevent dumping syndrome. Although peptic ulcer disease may recur, persistent heartburn is not expected after surgery and the patient should call the health care provider if this occurs.

A 46-year-old female with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is experiencing increasing discomfort. Which patient statement indicates that additional teaching about GERD is needed? a. "I take antacids between meals and at bedtime each night." b. "I sleep with the head of the bed elevated on 4-inch blocks." c. "I eat small meals during the day and have a bedtime snack." d. "I quit smoking several years ago, but I still chew a lot of gum."

ANS: C GERD is exacerbated by eating late at night, and the nurse should plan to teach the patient to avoid eating at bedtime. The other patient actions are appropriate to control symptoms of GERD.

An 80-year-old who is hospitalized with peptic ulcer disease develops new-onset auditory hallucinations. Which prescribed medication will the nurse discuss with the health care provider before administration? a. Sucralfate (Carafate) b. Omeprazole (Prilosec) c. Metoclopramide (Reglan) d. Aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel)

ANS: C Metoclopramide can cause central nervous system (CNS) side effects ranging from anxiety to hallucinations. Hallucinations are not a side effect of proton-pump inhibitors, mucosal protectants, or antacids.

The pt who is admitted with a diagnosis of diverticulitis and a history of irritable bowel disease and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has received a dose of Mylanta 30 ml PO. The nurse would evaluate its effectiveness by questioning the patient as to whether which of the following sxs has been resolved? A) Diarrhea B) Heartburn C) Constipation D) Lower abdominal pain

B) Heartburn (Mylanta is an antacid that contains both aluminum and magnesium. It is indicated for the relief of GI discomfort, such as with heartburn associated with GERD.)

A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease has presented to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain and a rigid, boardlike abdomen. The health care provider suspects a perforated ulcer. Which interventions should the nurse anticipate? a. Providing IV fluids and inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube Correct b. Administering oral bicarbonate and testing the patient's gastric pH level c. Performing a fecal occult blood test and administering IV calcium gluconate d. Starting parenteral nutrition and placing the patient in a high-Fowler's position Incorrect

Correct answer: a A perforated peptic ulcer requires IV replacement of fluid losses and continued gastric aspiration by NG tube. Nothing is given by mouth, and gastric pH testing is not a priority. Calcium gluconate is not a medication directly relevant to the patient's suspected diagnosis, and parenteral nutrition is not a priority in the short term

The nurse provides discharge teaching to a pt with acute gastritis. Which pt statement indicates that teaching has been effective? A I will eat only bland foods B I will have yearly upper endoscopy exams C I will fully cook all meat, poultry, and egg product D I will avoid using aspirin or NSAIDs for routine pain relief

D commonly associated with the development of acute gastritis

A patient with oral cancer is not eating. A small-bore feeding tube was inserted and the patient started on enteral feedings. Which patient goal would indicate improvement? a Weight gain of 1 kg in 1 week b Administer tube feeding at 25 mL/hr. c Consume 50% of clear liquid tray this shift. d Monitor for tube for placement and gastrointestinal residual

correct answer a The goal for a patient with oral cancer that is not eating would be to note weight gain rather than loss. Consuming 50% of the clear liquid tray is not a realistic goal. Administering feedings, monitoring tube placement, and tolerance are interventions used to achieve the goal.

A patient had a stomach resection for stomach cancer. The nurse should teach the patient about the loss of the hormone that stimulates gastric acid secretion and motility and maintains lower esophageal sphincter tone. Which hormone will be decreased with a gastric resection? A) Gastrin B) Secretin C) Cholecystokinin D) Gastric inhibitory peptide

A) Gastrin is the hormone activated in the stomach (and duodenal mucosa) by stomach distention that stimulates gastric acid secretion and motility and maintains lower esophageal sphincter tone. Secretin inhibits gastric motility and acid secretion and stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate secretion. Cholecystokinin allows increased flow of bile into the duodenum and release of pancreatic digestive enzymes. Gastric inhibitory peptide inhibits gastric acid secretion and motility.

A 50-year-old man vomiting blood-streaked fluid is admitted to the hospital with acute gastritis. To determine possible risk factors for gastritis, the nurse will ask the patient about a. the amount of saturated fat in the diet. b. any family history of gastric or colon cancer. c. a history of a large recent weight gain or loss. d. use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

ANS: D Use of an NSAID is associated with damage to the gastric mucosa, which can result in acute gastritis. Family history, recent weight gain or loss, and fatty foods are not risk factors for acute gastritis.

A pt is prescribed omeprazole 20 mg twice daily, clarithormycin 500 mg twice daily, and amoxicillin 1 g daily for tx of PUD cause by H-pylori. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to give the pt about these meds? A take the drugs with a full glass of H2O B complete the full course of all meds as prescribed C consume 8 oz of yogurt or buttermilk daily while taking these drugs D take the drugs on an empty stomach, 1 hour before brkfst and at least 2 hours after dinner

B

A nurse has conducted a community screening event for oral cancer. What client is the highest priority for referral to a dentist? a. Client who has poor oral hygiene practices b. Client who smokes and drinks daily c. Client who tans for an upcoming vacation d. Client who occasionally uses illicit drugs

B Smoking and alcohol exposure create a high risk for this client. Poor oral hygiene is not related to the etiology of cancer but may cause a tumor to go unnoticed. Tanning is a risk factor, but short-term exposure does not have the same risk as daily exposure to tobacco and alcohol. Illicit drugs are not related to oral cancers.DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 1103KEY: Oral disorders| health screening| primary prevention| nursing assessmentMSC: Integrated Process: Communication and DocumentationNOT: Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance

The evening following surgery for esophageal cancer, the nurse notes that there has been no drainage from the NGT for the past 3 hours. What should the nurse of first? A chart the finding B notify the surgeon C reposition the NGT D gently irrigate the rube with NS

B don't move NGT, irrigating can manipulate tube, and charting done last

The nurse teaches senior citizens at a community center how to prevent food poisoning at social events. Which community member statement reflects accurate understanding? a. "Pasteurized juices and milk are safe to drink." b. "Alfalfa sprouts are safe if rinsed before eating." c. "Fresh fruits do not need to be washed before eating." d. "Ground beef is safe to eat if cooked until it is brown."

Correct answer: a Drink only pasteurized milk, juice, or cider. Ground beef should be cooked thoroughly. Browned meat can still harbor live bacteria. Cook ground beef until a thermometer reads at least 160° F. If a thermometer is unavailable, decrease the risk of illness by cooking the ground beef until there is no pink color in the middle. Fruits and vegetables should be washed thoroughly, especially those that will not be cooked. Persons who are immunocompromised or older should avoid eating alfalfa sprouts until the safety of the sprouts can be ensured.

The patient is having an esophagoenterostomy with anastomosis of a segment of the colon to replace the resected portion. What initial postoperative care should the nurse expect when this patient returns to the nursing unit? a Turn, deep breathe, cough, and use spirometer every 4 hours. b Maintain an upright position for at least 2 hours after eating. c NG will have bloody drainage and it should not be repositioned. d Keep in a supine position to prevent movement of the anastomosis.

c The patient will have bloody drainage from the nasogastric (NG) tube for 8 to 12 hours, and it should not be repositioned or reinserted without contacting the surgeon. Turning and deep breathing will be done every 2 hours, and the spirometer will be used more often than every 4 hours. Coughing would put too much pressure in the area and should not be done. Because the patient will have the NG tube, the patient will not be eating yet. The patient should be kept in a semi-Fowler's or Fowler's position, not supine, to prevent reflux and aspiration of secretions.

The patient who is admitted with a diagnosis of diverticulitis and a history of irritable bowel disease and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has received a dose of Mylanta 30 mL PO. The nurse will determine the medication was effective when which symptom has been resolved? a Diarrhea b Heartburn c Constipation d Lower abdominal pain

correct answer:b Mylanta is an antacid that contains both aluminum and magnesium. It is indicated for the relief of gastrointestinal discomfort, such as heartburn associated with GERD. Mylanta can cause both diarrhea and constipation as a side effect. Mylanta does not affect lower abdominal pain.

A patient is seeking emergency care after choking on a piece of steak. The nursing assessment reveals a history of alcoholism, cigarette smoking, and hemoptysis. Which diagnostic study is most likely to be performed on this patient? a Barium swallow b Endoscopic biopsy c Capsule endoscopy d Endoscopic ultrasonography

correct answer:b Because of this patient's history of excessive alcohol intake, smoking, and hemoptysis and the current choking episode, cancer may be present. A biopsy is necessary to make a definitive diagnosis of carcinoma, so an endoscope will be used to obtain a biopsy and observe other abnormalities as well. A barium swallow may show narrowing of the esophagus, but it is more diagnostic for achalasia. An endoscopic ultrasonography may be used to stage esophageal cancer. Capsule endoscopy can show alterations in the esophagus but is more often used for small intestine problems. A barium swallow, capsule endoscopy, and endoscopic ultrasonography cannot provide a definitive diagnosis for

The nurse is teaching a group of college students how to prevent food poisoning. Which comment shows an understanding of foodborne illness protection? a "Eating raw cookie dough from the package is a great snack when you do not have time to bake." b "Since we only have one cutting board, we can cut up chicken and salad vegetables at the same time." c "To save refrigerator space, leftover food can be kept on the counter if it is in sealed containers." d "When the cafeteria gave me a pink hamburger, I sent it back and asked for a new bun and clean plate."

d The student who did not accept the pink hamburger and asked for a new bun and clean plate understood that the pink meat may not have reached 160°F and could be contaminated with bacteria. Improperly storing cooked foods, eating raw cookie dough from a refrigerated package, and only using one cutting board without washing it with hot soapy water between the chicken and salad vegetables could all lead to food poisoning from contamination.