Week 7 Quiz

What do short acting nitro do?

increase flow by dilating

Where is angiotension located?

kidneys release renin-- angiot 1 goes to the lungs where ace is at to be changed to 2. LUNGS-- dry hacking cough

What is the last resort medicine?

sodium current inhibitors

Calcium channel blockers do what?

substitute for beta blockers-- relax smooth muscles in the heart, by blocking calcium that would normally stiffen it

beta blockers mask what problem in diabetic pts?

tachycardia that is due to hypoglycemia

Topical nitrates are used for what problems?

Nocturnal angina

If we are decreasing blood volume and pressure, what do we look for?

orthostatic hypotension

The nurse provides discharge teaching to a patient who is newly diagnosed with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which statement made by the patient indicates understanding of the dietary modifications that need to be implemented after discharge home? 1. "I will not eat bacon or any pork products." 2. "I will eat only fried eggs instead of boiled eggs." 3. "I may continue to enjoy French fries with hot dogs." 4. "I will drink no more than one glass of whole milk per day."

1. "I will not eat bacon or any pork products." Nutritional guidelines recommended for the patient with CAD include a low-cholesterol and low-fat diet; therefore the patient has to avoid bacon and any pork products. Egg yolk is high in cholesterol and the patient with CAD has to avoid fried food. French fries are high in fat because of their preparation process. Low-fat or nonfat milk is recommended for the patient with CAD.

Which drug prevents platelet aggregation by inhibiting cyclooxygenase? 1. Aspirin 2. Heparin 3. Abciximab 4. Clopidogrel

1. Aspirin Aspirin produces antiplatelet activity by inhibiting cyclooxygenase, which in turn produces thromboxane A 2, a potent platelet activator. Heparin prevents the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and prothrombin to thrombin. Abciximab prevents binding of fibrinogen to platelets, thereby blocking platelet aggregation. Clopidogrel acts by inhibiting the adenosine diphosphate receptor on the platelet cell membrane. Test-Taking Tip: You have at least a 25 percent chance of selecting the correct response in multiple-choice items. If you are uncertain about a question, eliminate the choices that you believe are wrong and then call on your knowledge, skills, and abilities to choose from the remaining responses.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a myocardial infarction. The health care provider prescribes an intravenous infusion of alteplase. What is the priority nursing intervention during the administration of this medication? 1. Assess neurologic status. 2. Observe for bleeding gums. 3. Monitor blood pressure for orthostatic changes. 4. Apply a pressure dressing to intravenous (IV) insertion site.

1. Assess neurologic status. Assessment for changes in neurologic status is the priority nursing intervention because this may indicate a cerebral bleed. Gingival or bleeding gums are expected with thrombolytic therapy and are controlled by applying ice packs. Application of a pressure dressing to the IV insertion site is not done until evidence of bleeding is noted. Monitoring blood pressure for orthostatic changes is necessary with the use of short-acting nitrates.

Cardiac biomarker levels are being evaluated for a patient who is suspected of having a myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse recognizes that which biomarker lacks specificity and that its role in diagnosing an MI is limited? 1. Myoglobin 2. Creatine kinase-MB (CKMB) 3. Cardiac-specific troponin I (cTnI) 4. Cardiac-specific troponin T (cTnT)

1. Myoglobin Myoglobin is a serum cardiac marker that is released into the circulation within two hours after a myocardial infarction (MI). Myoglobin's role in diagnosing MI is limited because it lacks cardiac specificity. Creatine kinase-MB (CKMB) levels begin to rise about six hours after an MI, are specific to myocardial cells, and help quantify myocardial damage. Cardiac-specific troponin T (cTnT) and cardiac-specific troponin I (cTnI) are highly specific indicators of MI.

During the 48 hours after a myocardial infarction (MI), a nurse should assign the highest priority to monitoring the patient for what complication? 1. Dysrhythmias 2. Anxiety and fear 3. Metabolic acidosis 4. Medication side effects

1. Dysrhythmias The nurse must be most alert for dysrhythmias, which may signal another MI or impending complications. The nurse should also be alert for increased anxiety, which may cause pain and lead to a secondary infarction. Anxiety and fear are highly likely but secondary in importance to monitoring the patient for dysrhythmias. Metabolic acidosis and reactions to new medications are not likely but should still be included as part of overall assessment of the patient.

A nurse teaches a patient about strategies to prevent angina caused by coronary artery disease. The nurse tells the patient that if a heavy meal is eaten, to rest for 1 to 2 hours after the meal. What is the rationale for this instruction? 1. Eating a heavy meal would divert more blood to the gastrointestinal system. 2. Heavy meals cause obesity and increase the susceptibility to myocardial ischemia. 3. Eating a heavy meal can cause physical inactivity, which could precipitate angina. 4. Heavy meals cause excessive heat production, which leads to peripheral vasodilation.

1. Eating a heavy meal would divert more blood to the gastrointestinal system. The digestive system requires more blood supply for a longer period of time to digest heavy meals. Therefore blood is diverted to the gastrointestinal system, which causes reduced blood supply to the myocardium. Physical inactivity does not cause an anginal attack; angina can be precipitated by physical exertion. Eating heavy meals causes obesity in due course of time, and this increases the susceptibility of an individual to have coronary artery disease. This is not a valid reason here, because the patient already has coronary artery disease. Eating heavy meals does not cause peripheral pooling of blood.

The nurse is preparing an initial care plan for a patient that presents with chest pain. What is the priority nursing intervention? 1. Monitoring the patient's ECG 2. Discussing the losses associated with chronic illness 3. Encouraging verbalization of feelings, perceptions, and fears 4. Advising the patient to avoid heavy meals and extreme weather conditions

1. Monitoring the patient's ECG A patient with chest pain may have acute coronary syndrome. The priority is to stabilize the patient, determine the plan of care, and prevent complications. Ongoing care should include continuous ECG monitoring. The nurse should help the patient with anxiety and stress to work on the losses due to chronic illness to prevent sudden depression-related cardiac workload. A patient with chronic stable angina is advised to avoid heavy meals and extreme weather to reduce the probability of symptoms. The nurse should encourage verbalization of feelings, perceptions, and fears that increases workload on heart. Test-Taking Tip: Be alert for details. Details provided in the stem of the item, such as behavioral changes or clinical changes (or both) within a certain time period, can provide a clue to the most appropriate response or, in some cases, responses.

The nurse assesses an older patient for risk factors for coronary artery disease (CAD). What question should the nurse ask the patient? 1. What is your BMI number? 2. Did you receive a pneumococcal vaccine? 3. When did you last have a bowel movement? 4. Did you travel abroad within the last 12 months?

1. What is your BMI number? Risk for CAD increases with obesity, which is defined as a BMI more than 30 kg/m 2. Constipation is not a risk factor for CAD. Traveling abroad to underdeveloped countries is a risk factor for infectious disease, but not for CAD. Pneumococcal vaccine protects the elderly patient from pneumonia, but not from CAD.

When planning emergent care for a patient with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI), what should the nurse anticipate administrating? 1. Oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin, and morphine 2. Aspirin, nitroprusside, dopamine, and oxygen 3. Nitroglycerin, lorazepam, oxygen, and warfarin 4. Oxygen, furosemide, nitroglycerin, and meperidine

1. Oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin, and morphine The American Heart Association's guidelines for emergency care of the patient with chest pain include the administration of oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin, and morphine. These interventions serve to relieve chest pain, improve oxygenation, decrease myocardial workload, and prevent further platelet aggregation. Furosemide, meperidine, nitroprusside, dopamine, lorazepam, and warfarin may be used later in the patient's treatment. STUDY TIP: Determine whether you are a "lark" or an "owl." Larks, day people, do best getting up early and studying during daylight hours. Owls, night people, are more alert after dark and can remain up late at night studying, catching up on needed sleep during daylight hours. It is better to work with natural biorhythms than to try to conform to an arbitrary schedule. You will absorb material more quickly and retain it better if you use your most alert periods of each day for study. Of course, it is necessary to work around class and clinical schedules. Owls should attempt to register in afternoon or evening lectures and clinical sections; larks do better with morning lectures and day clinical sections.

A patient experiences anginal pain. What is an appropriate nursing intervention? 1. Position the patient upright and supply oxygen. 2. Encourage the patient to perform isometric exercises. 3. Place the patient in recumbent position during the attack. 4. Recommend a salt-rich diet to prevent orthostatic hypotension.

1. Position the patient upright and supply oxygen. A patient with angina should be placed in an upright position and supplied oxygen to provide comfort and to attain an appropriate amount of oxygen in blood unless contraindicated. A recumbent positioning of the patient may precipitate the attack. Isometric exercises are stressful and may exacerbate the symptoms by increasing the cardiac workload. Salt and saturated fat foods are restricted in the patient to prevent further complications.

The community health nurse is planning health promotion teaching targeted at preventing coronary artery disease (CAD). Which population has the highest incidence of CAD? 1. White male 2. Hispanic male 3. African American male 4. Native American female

1. White male The incidence of CAD and myocardial infarction (MI) is highest among white, middle-aged men. Hispanic individuals have lower rates of CAD than non-Hispanic whites or African Americans. African Americans have an earlier age of onset and more severe CAD than whites and more than twice the mortality rate of whites of the same age. Native Americans have increased mortality in 35-year-old and under people, and have major modifiable risk factors, such as diabetes.

Patients must be scheduled 8 hours of off time for what med?

10-14 hours on for long acting nitrates

After teaching a patient with chronic stable angina about nitroglycerin, the nurse recognizes the need for further teaching when the patient makes which statement? 1. "I will replace my nitroglycerin supply every six months." 2. "I can take up to five tablets every three minutes for relief of my chest pain." 3. "I will take acetaminophen (Tylenol) to treat the headache caused by nitroglycerin." 4. "I will take the nitroglycerin 10 minutes before a planned activity that usually causes chest pain."

2. "I can take up to five tablets every three minutes for relief of my chest pain." The recommended dose of nitroglycerin is one tablet taken sublingually (SL) or one metered spray for symptoms of angina. If symptoms are unchanged or worse after five minutes, the patient should be instructed to activate the emergency medical services (EMS) system. If symptoms are improved, repeat the nitroglycerin every five minutes for a maximum of three doses and contact EMS if symptoms have not resolved completely.

A nurse provides discharge teaching to a patient prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets for the treatment of chronic stable angina. Which statement made by the patient indicates the need for further teaching? 1. "The sublingual tablets will expire six months from the time the bottle is opened." 2. "I will put the bottle in my front or back pant pockets before I leave the house." 3. "I can use this medication before exercising to prevent angina from occurring." 4. "Possible side effects include a warm feeling, headache, or lightheadedness.

2. "I will put the bottle in my front or back pant pockets before I leave the house." Sublingual nitroglycerin should not be stored in pant pockets because body heat can cause degradation of the nitroglycerin tablets. Flushing (warm feeling), headache, or dizziness (lightheadedness) may occur following sublingual nitroglycerin administration. Sublingual nitroglycerin can be used prophylactically before starting an activity that is known to cause an anginal attack. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets tend to lose potency once the bottle has been opened; therefore it should be replaced every six months.

The nurse provides information to a patient about preventing coronary artery disease (CAD) by maintaining healthy serum low-density lipoproteins (LDL) and high-density lipoprotein (HDL) levels. The nurse should include what goals? 1. Decreased LDLs; decreased HDLs 2. Decreased LDLs; increased HDLs 3. Increased LDLs; increased HDLs 4. Increased LDLs; decreased HDLs

2. Decreased LDLs; increased HDLs Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) contain more cholesterol than any other lipoprotein and have an attraction to arterial walls, whereas high-density lipoproteins carry lipids away from the arteries to the liver for metabolism and prevent lipid accumulation within the arterial walls. Therefore increasing high-density lipoprotein (HDL) levels and decreasing low-density lipoprotein (LDL) levels are most helpful in lowering the patient's risk of coronary artery disease. The nurse should not advise the patient to decrease high-density lipoproteins or increase low-density lipoprotein levels, because these actions would be counterproductive. STUDY TIP: In the first pass through the exam, answer what you know and skip what you do not know. Answering the questions you are sure of increases your confidence and saves time. This is buying you time to devote to the questions with which you have more difficulty.

The nurse recognizes indications of unstable angina if a patient experiences what symptoms? 1. Dyspnea, hyperglycemia, and polyuria 2. Nausea, indigestion, and shortness of breath 3. Peripheral edema and decreased urinary output 4. Confusion, dysrhythmias, and difficulty breathing

2. Nausea, indigestion, and shortness of breath A patient experiencing fatigue, indigestion, and shortness of breath may be experiencing an unstable anginal attack. A patient experiencing dyspnea, hyperglycemia and polyuria may have diabetes. A patient with peripheral edema and a decreased urine output may have right ventricular dysfunction or heart failure due to UA or coronary artery disease. Altered mental status (confusion), difficulty in breathing, dizziness, and dysrhythmias are observed in elder patients with UA. Test-Taking Tip: A patient should never neglect any signs of myocardial infarction. Educating the public, especially females, is important, to identify the complications early.

Which statement made by the student nurse indicates effective learning regarding the instructions to be given to a patient that receives a prescription for nitroglycerin? 1. "I should direct the patient to inhale the spray containing medication." 2. "I should ask the patient to change position rapidly after the medication use." 3. "I should instruct the patient to report changes in the pattern of pain to the health care provider." 4. "I should encourage the patient to administer the medication every 30 minutes sublingually if symptoms persist."

3. "I should instruct the patient to report changes in the pattern of pain to the health care provider." Short-acting nitrates such as nitroglycerin (NTG) are first-line medications for angina. The nurse has to instruct the patient on NTG to report any changes in the pattern of pain, frequency of attack, or nocturnal angina to the health care provider. The nurse must direct the patient to spray the medication on his or her tongue. The nurse should ask the patient to slowly change positions after NTG use to avoid the effects of orthostatic hypotension. The nurse should ask the patient to take NTG every five minutes for a maximum of three doses if symptoms are not resolved.

The nurse is providing postoperative care to a patient that underwent coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. The nurse should monitor the patient for what common complication? 1. Dehydration 2. Paralytic ileus 3. Atrial dysrhythmias 4. Acute respiratory distress syndrome

3. Atrial dysrhythmias Postoperative dysrhythmias, specifically atrial dysrhythmias, are common in the first three days following CABG surgery. Although dehydration, paralytic ileus, and acute respiratory distress syndrome could occur, they are not common complications. STUDY TIP: The old standbys of enough sleep and adequate nutritional intake also help keep excessive stress at bay. Although nursing students learn about the body's energy needs in anatomy and physiology classes, somehow they tend to forget that glucose is necessary for brain cells to work. Skipping breakfast or lunch or surviving on junk food puts the brain at a disadvantage.

The nurse reviews a patient's medical record and notes documentation of what condition that refers to arterial anastomoses or connections? 1. Atheromas 2. Angiogenesis 3. Collateral circulation 4. Coronary artery disease

3. Collateral circulation Collateral circulation occurs when arterial anastomoses or connections are formed. Coronary artery disease is a type of blood vessel disorder that is included in the general category of atherosclerosis. Atheromas are fatty deposits that are formed in coronary arteries. Angiogenesis is an inherited disposition to develop new blood vessels.

The nurse assesses a patient with papillary muscle dysfunction. Which observation supports the patient's diagnosis? 1. Crackles 2. S3 heart sound 3. Murmur at the cardiac apex 4. Deep sound noted while auscultating at the lower sternal border

3. Murmur at the cardiac apex Papillary muscle dysfunction occurs if the papillary muscles attached to the mitral valves are involved in infarction. A patient may have papillary muscle infraction if a murmur is heard upon auscultation at the cardiac apex. The presence of crackles of breath sounds and S 3 and S 4 sounds of the heart indicate heart failure. The deep sound heard at the lower left sternal border upon auscultation indicates acute pericarditis.

Which is a characteristic of a complicated lesion? 1. Formation of a fibrous plaque 2. Lipid-filled smooth muscle cells 3. Platelet aggregation and adhesion 4. Transport of lipids into arterial intima

3. Platelet aggregation and adhesion A complicated lesion is characterized by accumulation of platelets leading to thrombus formation. Formation of a fibrous plaque is the beginning of progressive changes in the endothelium of the arterial wall. It is called the fibrous plaque stage. Fatty streaks are the earliest lesions of atherosclerosis and are characterized by lipid-filled smooth muscle cells. Transport of lipids into the arterial intima occurs in the fibrous plaque stage.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a newly admitted patient who presented to the emergency department with reports of chest pain. Which assessment data would indicate that the patient has stable angina? 1. The patient developed chest pain shortly after going to bed. 2. The patient developed chest pain while sitting and reading a book. 3. The pain developed when the patient was jogging and subsided after the patient rested. 4. The pain starts approximately the same time every day without regard to activity level.

3. The pain developed when the patient was jogging and subsided after the patient rested. Pain associated with stable angina is precipitated by increased demand of myocardial muscle for oxygen that happens with exercising or other activity and subsides with rest in 5 to 15 minutes. Prinzmetal's angina (variant angina) occurs at rest. Nocturnal angina occurs when patient is supine in bed. Prinzmetal's angina (variant angina) is characterized by pain that occurs at the same time of the day. Test-Taking Tip: Because few things in life are absolute without exceptions, avoid selecting answers that include words such as always, never, all, every, and none. Answers containing these key words are rarely correct.

A patient is scheduled for drug-eluting stent (DES) placement after balloon angioplasty. The nurse recalls that the reason the DES is coated with paclitaxel is what? 1. To avoid patient noncompliance to oral drugs 2. To promote patency of the affected blood vessel 3. To reduce the risk of overgrowth of the intimal lining within the stent 4. To decrease the dose of dual antiplatelet drugs that are taken to prevent stent thrombosis

3. To reduce the risk of overgrowth of the intimal lining within the stent Stents may be coated with certain medications such as paclitaxel. These medications help check the overgrowth of new intima over the stent wall, thus preventing restenosis. Drug-eluting stents do not help in promoting drug compliance or promoting the patency of the affected blood vessel. The dose of dual antiplatelet therapy is not dependent on the type of stent used.

Which type of angina occurs in the absence of significant coronary artery disease (CAD)? 1. Silent angina 2. Unstable angina 3. Prinzmetal's angina 4. Microvascular angina

4. Microvascular angina Microvascular angina occurs in the absence of coronary atherosclerosis or vasospasm. It is mainly associated with abnormalities of coronary microcirculation. Silent ischemia mostly occurs in patients with diabetes because diabetic neuropathy affects the nerves that innervate the cardiovascular system. Unstable angina occurs due to the rupture of thickened plaque. Prinzmetal's angina often occurs at rest in response to spasms of a major coronary artery. Test-Taking Tip: Identify option components as correct or incorrect. This may help you identify a wrong answer.

Which drug acts by direct inhibition of the clotting factor thrombin? 1. Heparin 2. Felodipine 3. Enoxaparin 4. Argatroban

4. Argatroban Argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor, which directly inhibits the clotting factor thrombin. Heparin is an anticoagulant, which acts by preventing conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and prothrombin to thrombin. Felodipine is a calcium channel blocker, which prevents the entry of calcium into vascular smooth muscles and myocytes. Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin, which binds to antithrombin III and enhances its effects.

When evaluating a patient's knowledge regarding a low-sodium, low-fat cardiac diet, the nurse recognizes additional teaching is needed when the patient selects which food item? 1. Baked flounder 2. Angel food cake 3. Baked potato with margarine 4. Canned chicken noodle soup

4. Canned chicken noodle soup Canned soups are very high in sodium content. Patients need to be taught to read food labels for sodium and fat content. Baked flounder, angel food cake, and baked potato with margarine are all low in sodium and low in fat and would be appropriate for this diet. STUDY TIP: Rest is essential to the body and brain for good performance; think of it as recharging the battery. A run-down battery provides only substandard performance. For most students, it is better to spend 7 hours sleeping and 3 hours studying than to cut sleep to 6 hours and study 4 hours. The improvement in the rested mind's efficiency will balance out the difference in the time spent studying. Knowing your natural body rhythms is necessary when it comes to determining the amount of sleep needed for personal learning efficiency.

To reduce a patient's risk of coronary artery disease (CAD), the nurse recognizes that dietary teaching is needed when the patient's high density lipoprotein (HDL) and low-density lipoprotein (LDL) profile reveals what two abnormal results? 1. Increased HDLs; increased LDLs 2. Decreased HDLs; decreased LDLs 3. Increased HDLs; decreased LDLs 4. Decreased HDLs; increased LDLs

4. Decreased HDLs; increased LDLs The risk of CAD is associated with increased LDLs (> 160 mg/dL) and decreased HDLs (< 40 mg/dL).

Which is considered a nonmodifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease? 1. Obesity 2. Diabetes 3. Tobacco use 4. Family history of heart disease

4. Family history of heart disease Family history of heart disease is a nonmodifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease. Diabetes, obesity, and tobacco use are all considered modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease.

A patient survived an episode of sudden cardiac death (SCD) and is recovering in the intensive care unit (ICU). The nurse anticipates which intervention to prevent a recurrence? 1. Drug therapy with beta-blocker 2. Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) 3. Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) 4. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)

4. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) The most common approach to preventing a recurrence is the use of an ICD. It has been shown that an ICD improves survival compared with drug therapy alone. Drug therapy and a PCI will not prevent a recurrence of SCD. A coronary artery bypass graft is not necessary.

A patient who has received a maximum dose of nitroglycerin continues to report chest pain. What is the next medication that the nurse should administer to the patient? 1. Esmolol 2. Docusate 3. Ticagrelor 4. Morphine sulfate

4. Morphine sulfate Morphine sulfate is the drug of choice for a patient with unrelieved chest pain even after the administration of nitroglycerin. Esmolol is a beta blocker used to slow down the heart during minimally invasive direct coronary artery bypass (MIDCAB). Docusate is a stool softener that facilitates bowel movements. Ticagrelor is used in dual antiplatelet therapy on a patient with ongoing angina and negative cardiac markers.

The nurse is reviewing a plan of care for emergency treatment of a patient with chest pain. The nurse should question which item listed on the plan? 1. Give a high-dose statin. 2. Give 162 to 325 mg aspirin (chewable). 3. Start O 2 by nasal cannula to keep O 2 saturation above 93%. 4. Provide the patient with instructions related to cough and deep breathing exercises.

4. Provide the patient with instructions related to cough and deep breathing exercises. Rapid diagnosis and providing treatment to a patient with acute coronary syndrome help preserve cardiac muscle function. The initial treatment is to manage chest pain; therefore the patient needs to rest and limit activities (including breathing exercises) for 12 to 24 hours. The nurse should make sure that the oxygen saturation stays at an acceptable level by initiating supplemental oxygen. Aspirin is part of the antiplatelet therapy. Statins are lipid-lowering drugs. They block synthesis of cholesterol and increase LDL receptors in the liver.

How long does short acting nitro last?

6 months, if it tingles it is still good

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a 72-year-old woman admitted with multiple myeloma? a. Monitor fluid intake and output. b. Administer calcium supplements. c. Assess lymph nodes for enlargement. d. Limit weight bearing and ambulation.

A high fluid intake and urine output helps prevent the complications of kidney stones caused by hypercalcemia and renal failure caused by deposition of Bence-Jones protein in the renal tubules. Weight bearing and ambulation are encouraged to help bone retain calcium. Lymph nodes are not enlarged with multiple myeloma. Calcium supplements will further increase the patient's calcium level and are not used

A patient is to receive an infusion of 250 mL of platelets over 2 hours through tubing that is labeled: 1 mL equals 10 drops. How many drops per minute will the nurse infuse?

ANS: 21 To infuse 250 mL over 2 hours, the calculated drip rate is 20.8 drops/minute or 21 drops/minute

29. When caring for a patient who has just arrived on the medical-surgical unit after having cardiac catheterization, which nursing intervention should the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Give the scheduled aspirin and lipid-lowering medication. b. Perform the initial assessment of the catheter insertion site. c. Teach the patient about the usual postprocedure plan of care. d. Titrate the heparin infusion according to the agency protocol.

ANS: A Administration of oral medications is within the scope of practice for LPNs/LVNs. The initial assessment of the patient, patient teaching, and titration of IV anticoagulant medications should be done by the registered nurse (RN).

An appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma whose platelet count drops to 18,000/µL during chemotherapy is to a. check all stools for occult blood. b. encourage fluids to 3000 mL/day. c. provide oral hygiene every 2 hours. d. check the temperature every 4 hours.

ANS: A Because the patient is at risk for spontaneous bleeding, the nurse should check stools for occult blood. A low platelet count does not require an increased fluid intake. Oral hygiene is important, but it is not necessary to provide oral care every 2 hours. The low platelet count does not increase risk for infection, so frequent temperature monitoring is not indicated

34. Which information about a patient who has been receiving thrombolytic therapy for an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. No change in the patient's chest pain b. An increase in troponin levels from baseline c. A large bruise at the patient's IV insertion site d. A decrease in ST-segment elevation on the electrocardiogram

ANS: A Continued chest pain suggests that the thrombolytic therapy is not effective and that other interventions such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) may be needed. Bruising is a possible side effect of thrombolytic therapy, but it is not an indication that therapy should be discontinued. The decrease of the ST-segment elevation indicates that thrombolysis is occurring and perfusion is returning to the injured myocardium. An increase in troponin levels is expected with reperfusion and is related to the washout of cardiac markers into the circulation as the blocked vessel is opened.

25. The nurse is caring for a patient who was admitted to the coronary care unit following an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) and percutaneous coronary intervention the previous day. Teaching for this patient would include a. when cardiac rehabilitation will begin. b. the typical emotional responses to AMI. c. information regarding discharge medications. d. the pathophysiology of coronary artery disease.

ANS: A Early after an AMI, the patient will want to know when resumption of usual activities can be expected. At this time, the patient's anxiety level or denial will interfere with good understanding of complex information such as the pathophysiology of coronary artery disease (CAD). Teaching about discharge medications should be done closer to discharge. The nurse should support the patient by decreasing anxiety rather than discussing the typical emotional responses to myocardial infarction (MI).

Which menu choice indicates that the patient understands the nurse's teaching about best dietary choices for iron-deficiency anemia? a. Omelet and whole wheat toast b. Cantaloupe and cottage cheese c. Strawberry and banana fruit plate d. Cornmeal muffin and orange juice

ANS: A Eggs and whole grain breads are high in iron. The other choices are appropriate for other nutritional deficiencies but are not the best choice for a patient with iron-deficiency anemia

Which information obtained by the nurse assessing a patient admitted with multiple myeloma is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Serum calcium level is 15 mg/dL. b. Patient reports no stool for 5 days. c. Urine sample has Bence-Jones protein. d. Patient is complaining of severe back pain.

ANS: A Hypercalcemia may lead to complications such as dysrhythmias or seizures, and should be addressed quickly. The other patient findings will also be discussed with the health care provider, but are not life threatening

Which patient statement to the nurse indicates a need for additional instruction about taking oral ferrous sulfate? a. "I will call my health care provider if my stools turn black." b. "I will take a stool softener if I feel constipated occasionally." c. "I should take the iron with orange juice about an hour before eating." d. "I should increase my fluid and fiber intake while I am taking iron tablets."

ANS: A It is normal for the stools to appear black when a patient is taking iron, and the patient should not call the doctor about this. The other patient statements are correct

26. A patient who has recently started taking pravastatin (Pravachol) and niacin (Nicobid) reports the following symptoms to the nurse. Which is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Generalized muscle aches and pains b. Dizziness when changing positions quickly c. Nausea when taking the drugs before eating d. Flushing and pruritus after taking the medications

ANS: A Muscle aches and pains may indicate myopathy and rhabdomyolysis, which have caused acute kidney injury and death in some patients who have taken the statin medications. These symptoms indicate that the pravastatin may need to be discontinued. The other symptoms are common side effects when taking niacin, and although the nurse should follow-up with the health care provider, they do not indicate that a change in medication is needed.

Which patient should the nurse assign as the roommate for a patient who has aplastic anemia? a. A patient with chronic heart failure b. A patient who has viral pneumonia c. A patient who has right leg cellulitis d. A patient with multiple abdominal drains

ANS: A Patients with aplastic anemia are at risk for infection because of the low white blood cell production associated with this type of anemia, so the nurse should avoid assigning a roommate with any possible infectious process

A 19-year-old woman with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) has an order for a platelet transfusion. Which information indicates that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before obtaining and administering platelets? a. The platelet count is 42,000/mL. b. Petechiae are present on the chest. c. Blood pressure (BP) is 94/56 mm Hg. d. Blood is oozing from the venipuncture site.

ANS: A Platelet transfusions are not usually indicated until the platelet count is below 10,000 to 20,000/mL unless the patient is actively bleeding. Therefore the nurse should clarify the order with the health care provider before giving the transfusion. The other data all indicate that bleeding caused by ITP may be occurring and that the platelet transfusion is appropriate

The nurse caring for a patient with type A hemophilia being admitted to the hospital with severe pain and swelling in the right knee will a. immobilize the joint. b. apply heat to the knee. c. assist the patient with light weight bearing. d. perform passive range of motion to the knee.

ANS: A The initial action should be total rest of the knee to minimize bleeding. Ice packs are used to decrease bleeding. Range of motion (ROM) and weight-bearing exercise are contraindicated initially, but after the bleeding stops, ROM and physical therapy are started

27. A patient who is being admitted to the emergency department with intermittent chest pain gives the following list of medications to the nurse. Which medication has the most immediate implications for the patient's care? a. Sildenafil (Viagra) b. Furosemide (Lasix) c. Captopril (Capoten) d. Warfarin (Coumadin)

ANS: A The nurse will need to avoid giving nitrates to the patient because nitrate administration is contraindicated in patients who are using sildenafil because of the risk of severe hypotension caused by vasodilation. The other home medications also should be documented and reported to the health care provider but do not have as immediate an impact on decisions about the patient's treatment.

19. Three days after experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI), a patient who is scheduled for discharge asks for assistance with hygiene activities, saying, "I am too nervous to take care of myself." Based on this information, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate? a. Ineffective coping related to anxiety b. Activity intolerance related to weakness c. Denial related to lack of acceptance of the MI d. Disturbed personal identity related to understanding of illness

ANS: A The patient data indicate that ineffective coping after the MI caused by anxiety about the impact of the MI is a concern. The other nursing diagnoses may be appropriate for some patients after an MI, but the data for this patient do not support denial, activity intolerance, or disturbed personal identity.

21. A few days after experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI) and successful percutaneous coronary intervention, the patient states, "I just had a little chest pain. As soon as I get out of here, I'm going for my vacation as planned." Which reply would be most appropriate for the nurse to make? a. "What do you think caused your chest pain?" b. "Where are you planning to go for your vacation?" c. "Sometimes plans need to change after a heart attack." d. "Recovery from a heart attack takes at least a few weeks."

ANS: A When the patient is experiencing denial, the nurse should assist the patient in testing reality until the patient has progressed beyond this step of the emotional adjustment to MI. Asking the patient about vacation plans reinforces the patient's plan, which is not appropriate in the immediate post-MI period. Reminding the patient in denial about the MI is likely to make the patient angry and lead to distrust of the nursing staff.

Which patient requires the most rapid assessment and care by the emergency department nurse? a. The patient with hemochromatosis who reports abdominal pain b. The patient with neutropenia who has a temperature of 101.8° F c. The patient with sickle cell anemia who has had nausea and diarrhea for 24 hours d. The patient with thrombocytopenia who has oozing after having a tooth extracted

ANS: B A neutropenic patient with a fever is assumed to have an infection and is at risk for rapidly developing sepsis. Rapid assessment, cultures, and initiation of antibiotic therapy are needed. The other patients also require rapid assessment and care but not as urgently as the neutropenic patient

After receiving change-of-shift report for several patients with neutropenia, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. 56-year-old with frequent explosive diarrhea b. 33-year-old with a fever of 100.8° F (38.2° C) c. 66-year-old who has white pharyngeal lesions d. 23-year old who is complaining of severe fatigue

ANS: B Any fever in a neutropenic patient indicates infection and can quickly lead to sepsis and septic shock. Rapid assessment and (if prescribed) initiation of antibiotic therapy within 1 hour are needed. The other patients also need to be assessed but do not exhibit symptoms of potentially life-threatening problems

33. When admitting a patient with a non-ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) to the intensive care unit, which action should the nurse perform first? a. Obtain the blood pressure. b. Attach the cardiac monitor. c. Assess the peripheral pulses. d. Auscultate the breath sounds.

ANS: B Because dysrhythmias are the most common complication of myocardial infarction (MI), the first action should be to place the patient on a cardiac monitor. The other actions also are important and should be accomplished as quickly as possible.

39. To improve the physical activity level for a mildly obese 71-year-old patient, which action should the nurse plan to take? a. Stress that weight loss is a major benefit of increased exercise. b. Determine what kind of physical activities the patient usually enjoys. c. Tell the patient that older adults should exercise for no more than 20 minutes at a time. d. Teach the patient to include a short warm-up period at the beginning of physical activity.

ANS: B Because patients are more likely to continue physical activities that they already enjoy, the nurse will plan to ask the patient about preferred activities. The goal for older adults is 30 minutes of moderate activity on most days. Older adults should plan for a longer warm-up period. Benefits of exercises, such as improved activity tolerance, should be emphasized rather than aiming for significant weight loss in older mildly obese adults.

Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia? a. Potential complication: seizures b. Potential complication: infection c. Potential complication: neurogenic shock d. Potential complication: pulmonary edema

ANS: B Because the patient with aplastic anemia has pancytopenia, the patient is at risk for infection and bleeding. There is no increased risk for seizures, neurogenic shock, or pulmonary edema

A routine complete blood count indicates that an active 80-year-old man may have myelodysplastic syndrome. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about a. blood transfusion b. bone marrow biopsy. c. filgrastim (Neupogen) administration. d. erythropoietin (Epogen) administration.

ANS: B Bone marrow biopsy is needed to make the diagnosis and determine the specific type of myelodysplastic syndrome. The other treatments may be necessary if there is progression of the myelodysplastic syndrome, but the initial action for this asymptomatic patient will be a bone marrow biopsy.

3. Which assessment data collected by the nurse who is admitting a patient with chest pain suggest that the pain is caused by an acute myocardial infarction (AMI)? a. The pain increases with deep breathing. b. The pain has lasted longer than 30 minutes. c. The pain is relieved after the patient takes nitroglycerin. d. The pain is reproducible when the patient raises the arms.

ANS: B Chest pain that lasts for 20 minutes or more is characteristic of AMI. Changes in pain that occur with raising the arms or with deep breathing are more typical of musculoskeletal pain or pericarditis. Stable angina is usually relieved when the patient takes nitroglycerin.

20. When caring for a patient who is recovering from a sudden cardiac death (SCD) event and has no evidence of an acute myocardial infarction (AMI), the nurse will anticipate teaching the patient that a. sudden cardiac death events rarely reoccur. b. additional diagnostic testing will be required. c. long-term anticoagulation therapy will be needed. d. limited physical activity after discharge will be needed to prevent future events.

ANS: B Diagnostic testing (e.g., stress test, Holter monitor, electrophysiologic studies, cardiac catheterization) is used to determine the possible cause of the SCD and treatment options. SCD is likely to recur. Anticoagulation therapy will not have any effect on the incidence of SCD, and SCD can occur even when the patient is resting.

Which information obtained by the nurse caring for a patient with thrombocytopenia should be immediately communicated to the health care provider? a. The platelet count is 52,000/µL. b. The patient is difficult to arouse. c. There are purpura on the oral mucosa. d. There are large bruises on the patient's back.

ANS: B Difficulty in arousing the patient may indicate a cerebral hemorrhage, which is life threatening and requires immediate action. The other information should be documented and reported but would not be unusual in a patient with thrombocytopenia

Which intervention will be included in the nursing care plan for a patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)? a. Assign the patient to a private room. b. Avoid intramuscular (IM) injections. c. Use rinses rather than a soft toothbrush for oral care. d. Restrict activity to passive and active range of motion.

ANS: B IM or subcutaneous injections should be avoided because of the risk for bleeding. A soft toothbrush can be used for oral care. There is no need to restrict activity or place the patient in a private room

The nurse notes scleral jaundice in a patient being admitted with hemolytic anemia. The nurse will plan to check the laboratory results for the a. Schilling test. b. bilirubin level. c. stool occult blood test. d. gastric analysis testing.

ANS: B Jaundice is caused by the elevation of bilirubin level associated with red blood cell (RBC) hemolysis. The other tests would not be helpful in monitoring or treating a hemolytic anemia

Which problem reported by a patient with hemophilia is most important for the nurse to communicate to the physician? a. Leg bruises b. Tarry stools c. Skin abrasions d. Bleeding gums

ANS: B Melena is a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding and requires collaborative actions such as checking hemoglobin and hematocrit and administration of coagulation factors. The other problems indicate a need for patient teaching about how to avoid injury, but are not indicators of possible serious blood loss

A patient who is receiving methotrexate for severe rheumatoid arthritis develops a megaloblastic anemia. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about increasing oral intake of a. iron. b. folic acid. c. cobalamin (vitamin B12). d. ascorbic acid (vitamin C).

ANS: B Methotrexate use can lead to folic acid deficiency. Supplementation with oral folic acid supplements is the usual treatment. The other nutrients would not correct folic acid deficiency, although they would be used to treat other types of anemia

An appropriate nursing intervention for a hospitalized patient with severe hemolytic anemia is to a. provide a diet high in vitamin K. b. alternate periods of rest and activity. c. teach the patient how to avoid injury. d. place the patient on protective isolation.

ANS: B Nursing care for patients with anemia should alternate periods of rest and activity to encourage activity without causing undue fatigue. There is no indication that the patient has a bleeding disorder, so a diet high in vitamin K or teaching about how to avoid injury is not needed. Protective isolation might be used for a patient with aplastic anemia, but it is not indicated for hemolytic anemia

It is important for the nurse providing care for a patient with sickle cell crisis to a. limit the patient's intake of oral and IV fluids. b. evaluate the effectiveness of opioid analgesics. c. encourage the patient to ambulate as much as tolerated. d. teach the patient about high-protein, high-calorie foods.

ANS: B Pain is the most common clinical manifestation of a crisis and usually requires large doses of continuous opioids for control. Fluid intake should be increased to reduce blood viscosity and improve perfusion. Rest is usually ordered to decrease metabolic requirements. Patients are instructed about the need for dietary folic acid, but high-protein, high-calorie diets are not emphasized

10. The nurse will suspect that the patient with stable angina is experiencing a side effect of the prescribed metoprolol (Lopressor) if the a. patient is restless and agitated. b. blood pressure is 90/54 mm Hg. c. patient complains about feeling anxious. d. cardiac monitor shows a heart rate of 61 beats/minute.

ANS: B Patients taking β-adrenergic blockers should be monitored for hypotension and bradycardia. Because this class of medication inhibits the sympathetic nervous system, restlessness, agitation, hypertension, and anxiety will not be side effects.

7. After the nurse teaches the patient about the use of carvedilol (Coreg) in preventing anginal episodes, which statement by a patient indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "Carvedilol will help my heart muscle work harder." b. "It is important not to suddenly stop taking the carvedilol." c. "I can expect to feel short of breath when taking carvedilol." d. "Carvedilol will increase the blood flow to my heart muscle."

ANS: B Patients who have been taking β-adrenergic blockers can develop intense and frequent angina if the medication is suddenly discontinued. Carvedilol (Coreg) decreases myocardial contractility. Shortness of breath that occurs when taking β-adrenergic blockers for angina may be due to bronchospasm and should be reported to the health care provider. Carvedilol works by decreasing myocardial oxygen demand, not by increasing blood flow to the coronary arteries.

9. Diltiazem (Cardizem) is ordered for a patient with newly diagnosed Prinzmetal's (variant) angina. When teaching the patient, the nurse will include the information that diltiazem will a. reduce heart palpitations. b. decrease spasm of the coronary arteries. c. increase the force of the heart contractions. d. help prevent plaque from forming in the coronary arteries.

ANS: B Prinzmetal's angina is caused by coronary artery spasm. Calcium channel blockers (e.g., diltiazem, amlodipine [Norvasc) are a first-line therapy for this type of angina. Lipid-lowering drugs help reduce atherosclerosis (i.e., plaque formation), and β-adrenergic blockers decrease sympathetic stimulation of the heart (i.e., palpitations). Medications or activities that increase myocardial contractility will increase the incidence of angina by increasing oxygen demand.

23. A patient who is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) asks the nurse about when sexual intercourse can be resumed. Which response by the nurse is best? a. "Most patients are able to enjoy intercourse without any complications." b. "Sexual activity uses about as much energy as climbing two flights of stairs." c. "The doctor will provide sexual guidelines when your heart is strong enough." d. "Holding and cuddling are good ways to maintain intimacy after a heart attack."

ANS: B Sexual activity places about as much physical stress on the cardiovascular system as most moderate-energy activities such as climbing two flights of stairs. The other responses do not directly address the patient's question or may not be accurate for this patient.

A patient with a history of a transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is to receive a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Which action by the nurse will decrease the risk for TRALI for this patient? a. Infuse the PRBCs slowly over 4 hours. b. Transfuse only leukocyte-reduced PRBCs. c. Administer the scheduled diuretic before the transfusion. d. Give the PRN dose of antihistamine before the transfusion.

ANS: B TRALI is caused by a reaction between the donor and the patient leukocytes that causes pulmonary inflammation and capillary leaking. The other actions may help prevent respiratory problems caused by circulatory overload or by allergic reactions, but they will not prevent TRALI

A 28-year-old man with von Willebrand disease is admitted to the hospital for minor knee surgery. The nurse will review the coagulation survey to check the a. platelet count. b. bleeding time. c. thrombin time. d. prothrombin time.

ANS: B The bleeding time is affected by von Willebrand disease. Platelet count, prothrombin time, and thrombin time are normal in von Willebrand disease

28. Which assessment finding by the nurse caring for a patient who has had coronary artery bypass grafting using a right radial artery graft is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Complaints of incisional chest pain b. Pallor and weakness of the right hand c. Fine crackles heard at both lung bases d. Redness on both sides of the sternal incision

ANS: B The changes in the right hand indicate compromised blood flow, which requires immediate evaluation and actions such as prescribed calcium channel blockers or surgery. The other changes are expected and/or require nursing interventions.

Which action will the admitting nurse include in the care plan for a 30-year old woman who is neutropenic? a. Avoid any injections. b. Check temperature every 4 hours. c. Omit fruits or vegetables from the diet. d. Place a "No Visitors" sign on the door.

ANS: B The earliest sign of infection in a neutropenic patient is an elevation in temperature. Although unpeeled fresh fruits and vegetables should be avoided, fruits and vegetables that are peeled or cooked are acceptable. Injections may be required for administration of medications such as filgrastim (Neupogen). The number of visitors may be limited and visitors with communicable diseases should be avoided, but a "no visitors" policy is not needed

13. When titrating IV nitroglycerin (Tridil) for a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI), which action will the nurse take to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication? a. Monitor heart rate. b. Ask about chest pain. c. Check blood pressure. d. Observe for dysrhythmias.

ANS: B The goal of IV nitroglycerin administration in MI is relief of chest pain by improving the balance between myocardial oxygen supply and demand. The nurse also will monitor heart rate and blood pressure (BP) and observe for dysrhythmias, but these parameters will not indicate whether the medication is effective.

40. Which patient at the cardiovascular clinic requires the most immediate action by the nurse? a. Patient with type 2 diabetes whose current blood glucose level is 145 mg/dL b. Patient with stable angina whose chest pain has recently increased in frequency c. Patient with familial hypercholesterolemia and a total cholesterol of 465 mg/dL d. Patient with chronic hypertension whose blood pressure today is 172/98 mm Hg

ANS: B The history of more frequent chest pain suggests that the patient may have unstable angina, which is part of the acute coronary syndrome spectrum. This will require rapid implementation of actions such as cardiac catheterization and possible percutaneous coronary intervention. The data about the other patients suggest that their conditions are stable.

A 30-year-old man with acute myelogenous leukemia develops an absolute neutrophil count of 850/µL while receiving outpatient chemotherapy. Which action by the outpatient clinic nurse is most appropriate? a. Discuss the need for hospital admission to treat the neutropenia. b. Teach the patient to administer filgrastim (Neupogen) injections. c. Plan to discontinue the chemotherapy until the neutropenia resolves. d. Order a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter for the patient's home.

ANS: B The patient may be taught to self-administer filgrastim injections. Although chemotherapy may be stopped with severe neutropenia (neutrophil count less than 500/µL), administration of filgrastim usually allows the chemotherapy to continue. Patients with neutropenia are at higher risk for infection when exposed to other patients in the hospital. HEPA filters are expensive and are used in the hospital, where the number of pathogens is much higher than in the patient's home environment

Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first? a. 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says "my eyes always look sort of yellow" b. 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla c. 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue d. 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement

ANS: B The patient's age and presence of a nontender axillary lump suggest possible lymphoma, which needs rapid diagnosis and treatment. The other patients have questions about treatment or symptoms that are consistent with their diagnosis but do not need to be seen urgently

A patient with septicemia develops prolonged bleeding from venipuncture sites and blood in the stools. Which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Avoid venipunctures. b. Notify the patient's physician. c. Apply sterile dressings to the sites. d. Give prescribed proton-pump inhibitors.

ANS: B The patient's new onset of bleeding and diagnosis of sepsis suggest that disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may have developed, which will require collaborative actions such as diagnostic testing, blood product administration, and heparin administration. The other actions also are appropriate, but the most important action should be to notify the physician so that DIC treatment can be initiated rapidly

A 68-year-old woman with acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) asks the nurse whether the planned chemotherapy will be worth undergoing. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "If you do not want to have chemotherapy, other treatment options include stem cell transplantation." b. "The side effects of chemotherapy are difficult, but AML frequently goes into remission with chemotherapy." c. "The decision about treatment is one that you and the doctor need to make rather than asking what I would do." d. "You don't need to make a decision about treatment right now because leukemias in adults tend to progress quite slowly."

ANS: B This response uses therapeutic communication by addressing the patient's question and giving accurate information. The other responses either give inaccurate information or fail to address the patient's question, which will discourage the patient from asking the nurse for information

The nurse is planning to administer a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a patient with blood loss from gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Which action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Verify the patient identification (ID) according to hospital policy. b. Obtain the temperature, blood pressure, and pulse before the transfusion. c. Double-check the product numbers on the PRBCs with the patient ID band. d. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath or chest pain during the transfusion.

ANS: B UAP education includes measurement of vital signs. UAP would report the vital signs to the registered nurse (RN). The other actions require more education and a larger scope of practice and should be done by licensed nursing staff members

22. When evaluating the effectiveness of preoperative teaching with a patient scheduled for coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery using the internal mammary artery, the nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the patient says which of the following? a. "They will circulate my blood with a machine during the surgery." b. "I will have small incisions in my leg where they will remove the vein." c. "They will use an artery near my heart to go around the area that is blocked." d. "I will need to take an aspirin every day after the surgery to keep the graft open."

ANS: B When the internal mammary artery is used there is no need to have a saphenous vein removed from the leg. The other statements by the patient are accurate and indicate that the teaching has been effective.

15. Following an acute myocardial infarction (AMI), a patient ambulates in the hospital hallway. When the nurse is evaluating the patient's response to the activity, which assessment data would indicate that the exercise level should be decreased? a. Blood pressure (BP) changes from 118/60 to 126/68 mm Hg. b. Oxygen saturation drops from 99% to 95%. c. Heart rate increases from 66 to 92 beats/minute. d. Respiratory rate goes from 14 to 20 breaths/minute.

ANS: C A change in heart rate of more than 20 beats over the resting heart rate indicates that the patient should stop and rest. The increases in BP and respiratory rate, and the slight decrease in oxygen saturation, are normal responses to exercise.

Which action for a patient with neutropenia is appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of infection b. Teaching the patient the purpose of neutropenic precautions c. Administering subcutaneous filgrastim (Neupogen) injection d. Developing a discharge teaching plan for the patient and family

ANS: C Administration of subcutaneous medications is included in LPN/LVN education and scope of practice. Patient education, assessment, and developing the plan of care require RN level education and scope of practice

32. A patient admitted to the coronary care unit (CCU) with an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is restless and anxious. The blood pressure is 86/40 and heart rate is 123. Based on this information, which nursing diagnosis is a priority for the patient? a. Acute pain related to myocardial infarction b. Anxiety related to perceived threat of death c. Stress overload related to acute change in health d. Decreased cardiac output related to cardiogenic shock

ANS: C All the nursing diagnoses may be appropriate for this patient, but the hypotension and tachycardia indicate decreased cardiac output and shock from the damaged myocardium. This will result in decreased perfusion to all vital organs (e.g., brain, kidney, heart) and is a priority.

When a patient with splenomegaly is scheduled for splenectomy, which action will the nurse include in the preoperative plan of care? a. Discourage deep breathing to reduce risk for splenic rupture. b. Teach the patient to use ibuprofen (Advil) for left upper quadrant pain. c. Schedule immunization with the pneumococcal vaccine (Pneumovax). d. Avoid the use of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for 2 weeks prior to surgery.

ANS: C Asplenic patients are at high risk for infection with Pneumococcus and immunization reduces this risk. There is no need to avoid acetaminophen use before surgery, but nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may increase bleeding risk and should be avoided. The enlarged spleen may decrease respiratory depth and the patient should be encouraged to take deep breaths

A 52-year-old patient has a new diagnosis of pernicious anemia. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching about the disorder when the patient states, "I a. need to start eating more red meat and liver." b. will stop having a glass of wine with dinner." c. could choose nasal spray rather than injections of vitamin B12." d. will need to take a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole (Prilosec)."

ANS: C Because pernicious anemia prevents the absorption of vitamin B12, this patient requires injections or intranasal administration of cobalamin. Alcohol use does not cause cobalamin deficiency. Proton pump inhibitors decrease the absorption of vitamin B12. Eating more foods rich in vitamin B12 is not helpful because the lack of intrinsic factor prevents absorption of the vitamin

Which instruction will the nurse plan to include in discharge teaching for the patient admitted with a sickle cell crisis? a. Take a daily multivitamin with iron. b. Limit fluids to 2 to 3 quarts per day. c. Avoid exposure to crowds when possible. d. Drink only two caffeinated beverages daily.

ANS: C Exposure to crowds increases the patient's risk for infection, the most common cause of sickle cell crisis. There is no restriction on caffeine use. Iron supplementation is generally not recommended. A high-fluid intake is recommended

12. Heparin is ordered for a patient with a non-ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). What is the purpose of the heparin? a. Heparin enhances platelet aggregation. b. Heparin decreases coronary artery plaque size. c. Heparin prevents the development of new clots in the coronary arteries. d. Heparin dissolves clots that are blocking blood flow in the coronary arteries.

ANS: C Heparin helps prevent the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and decreases coronary artery thrombosis. It does not change coronary artery plaque, dissolve already formed clots, or enhance platelet aggregation.

2. Which nursing intervention will be most effective when assisting the patient with coronary artery disease (CAD) to make appropriate dietary changes? a. Give the patient a list of low-sodium, low-cholesterol foods that should be included in the diet. b. Emphasize the increased risk for heart problems unless the patient makes the dietary changes. c. Help the patient modify favorite high-fat recipes by using monosaturated oils when possible. d. Inform the patient that a diet containing no saturated fat and minimal salt will be necessary.

ANS: C Lifestyle changes are more likely to be successful when consideration is given to the patient's values and preferences. The highest percentage of calories from fat should come from monosaturated fats. Although low-sodium and low-cholesterol foods are appropriate, providing the patient with a list alone is not likely to be successful in making dietary changes. Completely removing saturated fat from the diet is not a realistic expectation. Up to 7% of calories in the therapeutic lifestyle changes (TLC) diet can come from saturated fat. Telling the patient about the increased risk without assisting further with strategies for dietary change is unlikely to be successful.

A 54-year-old woman with acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) is considering treatment with a hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT). The best approach for the nurse to assist the patient with a treatment decision is to a. emphasize the positive outcomes of a bone marrow transplant. b. discuss the need for adequate insurance to cover post-HSCT care. c. ask the patient whether there are any questions or concerns about HSCT. d. explain that a cure is not possible with any other treatment except HSCT.

ANS: C Offering the patient an opportunity to ask questions or discuss concerns about HSCT will encourage the patient to voice concerns about this treatment and also will allow the nurse to assess whether the patient needs more information about the procedure. Treatment of AML using chemotherapy is another option for the patient. It is not appropriate for the nurse to ask the patient to consider insurance needs in making this decision

Which finding about a patient with polycythemia vera is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit 55% b. Presence of plethora c. Calf swelling and pain d. Platelet count 450,000/mL

ANS: C The calf swelling and pain suggest that the patient may have developed a deep vein thrombosis, which will require diagnosis and treatment to avoid complications such as pulmonary embolus. The other findings will also be reported to the health care provider but are expected in a patient with this diagnosis

16. During the administration of the thrombolytic agent to a patient with an acute myocardial infarction (AMI), the nurse should stop the drug infusion if the patient experiences a. bleeding from the gums. b. increase in blood pressure. c. a decrease in level of consciousness. d. a nonsustained episode of ventricular tachycardia.

ANS: C The change in level of consciousness indicates that the patient may be experiencing intracranial bleeding, a possible complication of thrombolytic therapy. Some bleeding of the gums is an expected side effect of the therapy but not an indication to stop infusion of the thrombolytic medication. A decrease in blood pressure could indicate internal bleeding. A nonsustained episode of ventricular tachycardia is a common reperfusion dysrhythmia and may indicate that the therapy is effective.

35. The nurse obtains the following data when assessing a patient who experienced an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) 2 days previously. Which information is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The troponin level is elevated. b. The patient denies ever having a heart attack. c. Bilateral crackles are auscultated in the mid-lower lobes. d. The patient has occasional premature atrial contractions (PACs).

ANS: C The crackles indicate that the patient may be developing heart failure, a possible complication of myocardial infarction (MI). The health care provider may need to order medications such as diuretics or angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors for the patient. Elevation in troponin level at this time is expected. PACs are not life-threatening dysrhythmias. Denial is a common response in the immediate period after the MI.

5. After the nurse has finished teaching a patient about the use of sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat), which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "I can expect some nausea as a side effect of nitroglycerin." b. "I should only take the nitroglycerin if I start to have chest pain." c. "I will call an ambulance if I still have pain after taking 3 nitroglycerin 5 minutes apart." d. "Nitroglycerin helps prevent a clot from forming and blocking blood flow to my heart."

ANS: C The emergency medical services (EMS) system should be activated when chest pain or other symptoms are not completely relieved after 3 sublingual nitroglycerin tablets taken 5 minutes apart. Nitroglycerin can be taken to prevent chest pain or other symptoms from developing (e.g., before intercourse). Gastric upset (e.g., nausea) is not an expected side effect of nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin does not impact the underlying pathophysiology of coronary artery atherosclerosis.

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has thalassemia major? a. Teach the patient to use iron supplements. b. Avoid the use of intramuscular injections. c. Administer iron chelation therapy as needed. d. Notify health care provider of hemoglobin 11g/dL.

ANS: C The frequent transfusions used to treat thalassemia major lead to iron toxicity in patients unless iron chelation therapy is consistently used. Iron supplementation is avoided in patients with thalassemia. There is no need to avoid intramuscular injections. The goal for patients with thalassemia major is to maintain a hemoglobin of 10 g/dL or greater

42. After reviewing information shown in the accompanying figure from the medical records of a 43-year-old, which risk factor modification for coronary artery disease should the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Importance of daily physical activity b. Effect of weight loss on blood pressure c. Dietary changes to improve lipid levels d. Ongoing cardiac risk associated with history of tobacco use

ANS: C The patient has an elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol and low high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, which will increase the risk of coronary artery disease. Although the blood pressure is in the prehypertensive range, the patient's waist circumference and body mass index (BMI) indicate an appropriate body weight. The risk for coronary artery disease a year after quitting smoking is the same as a nonsmoker. The patient's occupation indicates that daily activity is at the levels suggested by national guidelines.

30. Which electrocardiographic (ECG) change is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider when caring for a patient with chest pain? a. Inverted P wave b. Sinus tachycardia c. ST-segment elevation d. First-degree atrioventricular block

ANS: C The patient is likely to be experiencing an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). Immediate therapy with percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or thrombolytic medication is indicated to minimize myocardial damage. The other ECG changes may also suggest a need for therapy, but not as rapidly.

18. In preparation for discharge, the nurse teaches a patient with chronic stable angina how to use the prescribed short-acting and long-acting nitrates. Which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "I will check my pulse rate before I take any nitroglycerin tablets." b. "I will put the nitroglycerin patch on as soon as I get any chest pain." c. "I will stop what I am doing and sit down before I put the nitroglycerin under my tongue." d. "I will be sure to remove the nitroglycerin patch before taking any sublingual nitroglycerin."

ANS: C The patient should sit down before taking the nitroglycerin to decrease cardiac workload and prevent orthostatic hypotension. Transdermal nitrates are used prophylactically rather than to treat acute pain and can be used concurrently with sublingual nitroglycerin. Although the nurse should check blood pressure before giving nitroglycerin, patients do not need to check the pulse rate before taking nitrates.

Which laboratory result will the nurse expect to show a decreased value if a patient develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)? a. Prothrombin time b. Erythrocyte count c. Fibrinogen degradation products d. Activated partial thromboplastin time

ANS: D Platelet aggregation in HIT causes neutralization of heparin, so that the activated partial thromboplastin time will be shorter and more heparin will be needed to maintain therapeutic levels. The other data will not be affected by HIT

A patient with possible disseminated intravascular coagulation arrives in the emergency department with a blood pressure of 82/40, temperature 102° F (38.9° C), and severe back pain. Which physician order will the nurse implement first? a. Administer morphine sulfate 4 mg IV. b. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg. c. Infuse normal saline 500 mL over 30 minutes. d. Schedule complete blood count and coagulation studies.

ANS: C The patient's blood pressure indicates hypovolemia caused by blood loss and should be addressed immediately to improve perfusion to vital organs. The other actions also are appropriate and should be rapidly implemented, but improving perfusion is the priority for this patient

A postoperative patient receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells develops chills, fever, headache, and anxiety 35 minutes after the transfusion is started. After stopping the transfusion, what action should the nurse take? a. Draw blood for a new crossmatch. b. Send a urine specimen to the laboratory. c. Administer PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol). d. Give the PRN diphenhydramine (Benadryl).

ANS: C The patient's clinical manifestations are consistent with a febrile, nonhemolytic transfusion reaction. The transfusion should be stopped and antipyretics administered for the fever as ordered. A urine specimen is needed if an acute hemolytic reaction is suspected. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is used for allergic reactions. This type of reaction does not indicate incorrect crossmatching

17. A patient is recovering from a myocardial infarction (MI) and develops chest pain on day 3 that increases when taking a deep breath and is relieved by leaning forward. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Assess the feet for pedal edema. b. Palpate the radial pulses bilaterally. c. Auscultate for a pericardial friction rub. d. Check the heart monitor for dysrhythmias.

ANS: C The patient's symptoms are consistent with the development of pericarditis, a possible complication of MI. The other assessments listed are not consistent with the description of the patient's symptoms.

37. A patient who has chest pain is admitted to the emergency department (ED) and all of the following are ordered. Which one should the nurse arrange to be completed first? a. Chest x-ray b. Troponin level c. Electrocardiogram (ECG) d. Insertion of a peripheral IV

ANS: C The priority for the patient is to determine whether an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) is occurring so that reperfusion therapy can begin as quickly as possible. ECG changes occur very rapidly after coronary artery occlusion, and an ECG should be obtained as soon as possible. Troponin levels will increase after about 3 hours. Data from the chest x-ray may impact the patient's care but are not helpful in determining whether the patient is experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI). Peripheral access will be needed but not before the ECG.

41. A patient with diabetes mellitus and chronic stable angina has a new order for captopril (Capoten). The nurse should teach the patient that the primary purpose of captopril is to a. lower heart rate. b. control blood glucose levels. c. prevent changes in heart muscle. d. reduce the frequency of chest pain.

ANS: C The purpose for angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors in patients with chronic stable angina who are at high risk for a cardiac event is to decrease ventricular remodeling. ACE inhibitors do not directly impact angina frequency, blood glucose, or heart rate.

14. A patient with ST-segment elevation in three contiguous electrocardiographic (ECG) leads is admitted to the emergency department (ED) and diagnosed as having an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). Which question should the nurse ask to determine whether the patient is a candidate for thrombolytic therapy? a. "Do you have any allergies?" b. "Do you take aspirin on a daily basis?" c. "What time did your chest pain begin?" d. "Can you rate your chest pain using a 0 to 10 scale?"

ANS: C Thrombolytic therapy should be started within 6 hours of the onset of the myocardial infarction (MI), so the time at which the chest pain started is a major determinant of the appropriateness of this treatment. The other information will also be needed, but it will not be a factor in the decision about thrombolytic therapy.

After change-of-shift report on the Alzheimer's disease/dementia unit, which patient will the nurse assess first? a. Patient who has not had a bowel movement for 5 days b. Patient who has a stage II pressure ulcer on the coccyx c. Patient who is refusing to take the prescribed medications d. Patient who developed a new cough after eating breakfast

ANS: D A new cough after a meal in a patient with dementia suggests possible aspiration and the patient should be assessed immediately. The other patients also require assessment and intervention, but not as urgently as a patient with possible aspiration or pneumonia.

A patient who has been receiving a heparin infusion and warfarin (Coumadin) for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) when her platelet level drops to 110,000/µL. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Use low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) only. b. Administer the warfarin (Coumadin) at the scheduled time. c. Teach the patient about the purpose of platelet transfusions. d. Discontinue heparin and flush intermittent IV lines using normal saline.

ANS: D All heparin is discontinued when the HIT is diagnosed. The patient should be instructed to never receive heparin or LMWH. Warfarin is usually not given until the platelet count has returned to 150,000/µL. The platelet count does not drop low enough in HIT for a platelet transfusion, and platelet transfusions increase the risk for thrombosis

6. Which statement made by a patient with coronary artery disease after the nurse has completed teaching about therapeutic lifestyle changes (TLC) diet indicates that further teaching is needed? a. "I will switch from whole milk to 1% milk." b. "I like salmon and I will plan to eat it more often." c. "I can have a glass of wine with dinner if I want one." d. "I will miss being able to eat peanut butter sandwiches."

ANS: D Although only 30% of the daily calories should come from fats, most of the fat in the TLC diet should come from monosaturated fats such as are found in nuts, olive oil, and canola oil. The patient can include peanut butter sandwiches as part of the TLC diet. The other patient comments indicate a good understanding of the TLC diet.

1. When developing a teaching plan for a 61-year-old man with the following risk factors for coronary artery disease (CAD), the nurse should focus on the a. family history of coronary artery disease. b. increased risk associated with the patient's gender. c. increased risk of cardiovascular disease as people age. d. elevation of the patient's low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level.

ANS: D Because family history, gender, and age are nonmodifiable risk factors, the nurse should focus on the patient's LDL level. Decreases in LDL will help reduce the patient's risk for developing CAD.

Which statement by a patient indicates good understanding of the nurse's teaching about prevention of sickle cell crisis? a. "Home oxygen therapy is frequently used to decrease sickling." b. "There are no effective medications that can help prevent sickling." c. "Routine continuous dosage narcotics are prescribed to prevent a crisis." d. "Risk for a crisis is decreased by having an annual influenza vaccination."

ANS: D Because infection is the most common cause of a sickle cell crisis, influenza, Haemophilus influenzae, pneumococcal pneumonia, and hepatitis immunizations should be administered. Although continuous dose opioids and oxygen may be administered during a crisis, patients do not receive these therapies to prevent crisis. Hydroxyurea (Hydrea) is a medication used to decrease the number of sickle cell crises

Which patient information is most important for the nurse to monitor when evaluating the effectiveness of deferoxamine (Desferal) for a patient with hemochromatosis? a. Skin color b. Hematocrit c. Liver function d. Serum iron level

ANS: D Because iron chelating agents are used to lower serum iron levels, the most useful information will be the patient's iron level. The other parameters will also be monitored, but are not the most important to monitor when determining the effectiveness of deferoxamine

11. Nadolol (Corgard) is prescribed for a patient with chronic stable angina and left ventricular dysfunction. To determine whether the drug is effective, the nurse will monitor for a. decreased blood pressure and heart rate. b. fewer complaints of having cold hands and feet. c. improvement in the strength of the distal pulses. d. the ability to do daily activities without chest pain.

ANS: D Because the medication is ordered to improve the patient's angina, effectiveness is indicated if the patient is able to accomplish daily activities without chest pain. Blood pressure and heart rate may decrease, but these data do not indicate that the goal of decreased angina has been met. The noncardioselective β-adrenergic blockers can cause peripheral vasoconstriction, so the nurse would not expect an improvement in distal pulse quality or skin temperature.

4. Which information given by a patient admitted with chronic stable angina will help the nurse confirm this diagnosis? a. The patient states that the pain "wakes me up at night." b. The patient rates the pain at a level 3 to 5 (0 to 10 scale). c. The patient states that the pain has increased in frequency over the last week. d. The patient states that the pain "goes away" with one sublingual nitroglycerin tablet.

ANS: D Chronic stable angina is typically relieved by rest or nitroglycerin administration. The level of pain is not a consistent indicator of the type of angina. Pain occurring at rest or with increased frequency is typical of unstable angina.

Which laboratory test will the nurse use to determine whether filgrastim (Neupogen) is effective for a patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy? a. Platelet count b. Reticulocyte count c. Total lymphocyte count d. Absolute neutrophil count

ANS: D Filgrastim increases the neutrophil count and function in neutropenic patients. Although total lymphocyte, platelet, and reticulocyte counts also are important to monitor in this patient, the absolute neutrophil count is used to evaluate the effects of filgrastim

36. A patient had a non-ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) 3 days ago. Which nursing intervention included in the plan of care is most appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Evaluation of the patient's response to walking in the hallway b. Completion of the referral form for a home health nurse follow-up c. Education of the patient about the pathophysiology of heart disease d. Reinforcement of teaching about the purpose of prescribed medications

ANS: D LPN/LVN education and scope of practice include reinforcing education that has previously been done by the RN. Evaluating the patient response to exercise after a NSTEMI requires more education and should be done by the RN. Teaching and discharge planning/ documentation are higher level skills that require RN education and scope of practice.

A patient who has non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is receiving combination treatment with rituximab (Rituxan) and chemotherapy. Which patient assessment finding requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Anorexia b. Vomiting c. Oral ulcers d. Lip swelling

ANS: D Lip swelling in angioedema may indicate a hypersensitivity reaction to the rituximab. The nurse should stop the infusion and further assess for anaphylaxis. The other findings may occur with chemotherapy, but are not immediately life threatening

A critical action by the nurse caring for a patient with an acute exacerbation of polycythemia vera is to a. place the patient on bed rest. b. administer iron supplements. c. avoid use of aspirin products. d. monitor fluid intake and output.

ANS: D Monitoring hydration status is important during an acute exacerbation because the patient is at risk for fluid overload or underhydration. Aspirin therapy is used to decrease risk for thrombosis. The patient should be encouraged to ambulate to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Iron is contraindicated in patients with polycythemia vera

43. After reviewing a patient's history, vital signs, physical assessment, and laboratory data, which information shown in the accompanying figure is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Q waves on ECG b. Elevated troponin levels c. Fever and hyperglycemia d. Tachypnea and crackles in lungs

ANS: D Pulmonary congestion and tachypnea suggest that the patient may be developing heart failure, a complication of myocardial infarction (MI). Mild fever and hyperglycemia are common after MI because of the inflammatory process that occurs with tissue necrosis. Troponin levels will be elevated for several days after MI. Q waves often develop with ST-segment-elevation MI.

24. A patient with hyperlipidemia has a new order for colesevelam (Welchol). Which nursing action is most appropriate when giving the medication? a. Have the patient take this medication with an aspirin. b. Administer the medication at the patient's usual bedtime. c. Have the patient take the colesevelam with a sip of water. d. Give the patient's other medications 2 hours after the colesevelam.

ANS: D The bile acid sequestrants interfere with the absorption of many other drugs, and giving other medications at the same time should be avoided. Taking an aspirin concurrently with the colesevelam may increase the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects such as heartburn. An increased fluid intake is encouraged for patients taking the bile acid sequestrants to reduce the risk for constipation. For maximum effect, colesevelam should be administered with meals.

Following successful treatment of Hodgkin's lymphoma for a 55-year-old woman, which topic will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Potential impact of chemotherapy treatment on fertility b. Application of soothing lotions to treat residual pruritus c. Use of maintenance chemotherapy to maintain remission d. Need for follow-up appointments to screen for malignancy

ANS: D The chemotherapy used in treating Hodgkin's lymphoma results in a high incidence of secondary malignancies; follow-up screening is needed. The fertility of a 55-year-old woman will not be impacted by chemotherapy. Maintenance chemotherapy is not used for Hodgkin's lymphoma. Pruritus is a clinical manifestation of lymphoma, but should not be a concern after treatment

31. When caring for a patient with acute coronary syndrome who has returned to the coronary care unit after having angioplasty with stent placement, the nurse obtains the following assessment data. Which data indicate the need for immediate action by the nurse? a. Heart rate 102 beats/min b. Pedal pulses 1+ bilaterally c. Blood pressure 103/54 mm Hg d. Chest pain level 7 on a 0 to 10 point scale

ANS: D The patient's chest pain indicates that restenosis of the coronary artery may be occurring and requires immediate actions, such as administration of oxygen and nitroglycerin, by the nurse. The other information indicates a need for ongoing assessments by the nurse.

A 62-year old man with chronic anemia is experiencing increased fatigue and occasional palpitations at rest. The nurse would expect the patient's laboratory findings to include a. a hematocrit (Hct) of 38%. b. an RBC count of 4,500,000/mL. c. normal red blood cell (RBC) indices. d. a hemoglobin (Hgb) of 8.6 g/dL (86 g/L).

ANS: D The patient's clinical manifestations indicate moderate anemia, which is consistent with a Hgb of 6 to 10 g/dL. The other values are all within the range of normal

A patient in the emergency department complains of back pain and difficulty breathing 15 minutes after a transfusion of packed red blood cells is started. The nurse's first action should be to a. administer oxygen therapy at a high flow rate. b. obtain a urine specimen to send to the laboratory. c. notify the health care provider about the symptoms. d. disconnect the transfusion and infuse normal saline.

ANS: D The patient's symptoms indicate a possible acute hemolytic reaction caused by the transfusion. The first action should be to disconnect the transfusion and infuse normal saline. The other actions also are needed but are not the highest priority

38. After receiving change-of-shift report about the following four patients, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. 39-year-old with pericarditis who is complaining of sharp, stabbing chest pain b. 56-year-old with variant angina who is to receive a dose of nifedipine (Procardia) c. 65-year-old who had a myocardial infarction (MI) 4 days ago and is anxious about the planned discharge d. 59-year-old with unstable angina who has just returned to the unit after having a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)

ANS: D This patient is at risk for bleeding from the arterial access site for the PCI, so the nurse should assess the patient's blood pressure, pulse, and the access site immediately. The other patients should also be assessed as quickly as possible, but assessment of this patient has the highest priority.

8. A patient who has had chest pain for several hours is admitted with a diagnosis of rule out acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to help determine whether the patient has had an AMI? a. Myoglobin b. Homocysteine c. C-reactive protein d. Cardiac-specific troponin

ANS: D Troponin levels increase about 4 to 6 hours after the onset of myocardial infarction (MI) and are highly specific indicators for MI. Myoglobin is released within 2 hours of MI, but it lacks specificity and its use is limited. The other laboratory data are useful in determining the patient's risk for developing coronary artery disease (CAD) but are not helpful in determining whether an acute MI is in progress.

Blood pressure = ______ x _______

CO x SVR

What is given to control prinzmetal's angina?

Calcium Channel Blockers and or nitrates

Chronic stable angina DX

Cardiac Catherization Stent

Nitro drug alert?

DON'T TAKE With erectile dysfunction drugs

What happens when we dilate the arteries with short acting nitro?

Decrease resistance, preload, and decreases oxygen demand

What is a rare form of angina frequently seen in patients with a history of headaches and what?

Raynaud's phenomen

CO = __________ x _________

SV x HR

What is your first line defense therapy for Chronic Stable angina? (when you go to mow the lawn)

Short acting nitro

What are examples of short acting nitrates?

Sublingual and Spray-- onset time is 1-3 minutes and last 30-40 minutes. One spray and one tab is one dose. Wait 5 minutes in-between and up to 3 times

What do you want to take with nitrates?

Tylenol

What is prinzmetal's angina?

Variant angina often occurs at rest usually in response to spasm of a major coronary artery.

Which individuals would the nurse identify as having the highest risk for CAD? a) A 45-year-old depressed male with a high-stress job b) A 60-year-old male with below normal homocysteine levels c) A 54-year-old female vegetarian with elevated high-density lipoprotein (HDL) levels d) A 62-year-old female who has a sedentary lifestyle and body mass index (BMI) of 23 kg/m2

a) A 45-year-old depressed male with a high-stress job The 45-year-old depressed male with a high-stress job is at the highest risk for CAD. Studies demonstrate that depression and stressful states can contribute to the development of CAD. Elevated HDL levels and low homocysteine levels actually help to prevent CAD. Although a sedentary lifestyle is a risk factor, a BMI of 23 kg/m2 depicts normal weight, and thus the patient with two risk factors is at greatest risk for developing CAD.

When planning emergent care for a patient with a suspected MI, what should the nurse anticipate administrating? a) Oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin, and morphine b) Oxygen, furosemide (Lasix), nitroglycerin, and meperidine c) Aspirin, nitroprusside (Nipride), dopamine (Intropin), and oxygen d) Nitroglycerin, lorazepam (Ativan), oxygen, and warfarin (Coumadin)

a) Oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin, and morphine The American Heart Association's guidelines for emergency care of the patient with chest pain include the administration of oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin, and morphine. These interventions serve to relieve chest pain, improve oxygenation, decrease myocardial workload, and prevent further platelet aggregation. The other medications may be used later in the patient's treatment.

The community health nurse is planning health promotion teaching targeted at preventing coronary artery disease (CAD). Which ethnic group would the nurse select as the highest priority for this intervention? a) White male b) Hispanic male c) African American male d) Native American female

a) White male The incidence of CAD and myocardial infarction (MI) is highest among white, middle-aged men. Hispanic individuals have lower rates of CAD than non-Hispanic whites or African Americans. African Americans have an earlier age of onset and more severe CAD than whites and more than twice the mortality rate of whites of the same age. Native Americans have increased mortality in less than 35-year-olds and have major modifiable risk factors such as diabetes.

When providing nutritional counseling for patients at risk for CAD, which foods would the nurse encourage patients to include in their diet (select all that apply)? a) Tofu b) Walnuts c) Tuna fish d) Whole milk e) Orange juice

a, b, & c Tuna fish, tofu, and walnuts are all rich in omega-3 fatty acids, which have been shown to reduce the risks associated with CAD when consumed regularly.

A patient is admitted to the ICU with a diagnosis of unstable angina. Which medication(s) would the nurse expect the patient to receive (select all that apply)? a. ACE Inhibitor b. Antiplatelet Therapy c. Thrombolytic therapy d. Prophylactic antibiotics e. Intravenous nitroglycerin

a, b, & e

After teaching about ways to decrease risk factors for CAD, the nurse recognizes that additional instruction is needed when the patient says: a. "I would like to add weight lifting to my exercise program." b. "I can only keep my blood pressure normal with medication." c. "I can change my diet to decrease my intake of saturated fats." d. "I will change my lifestyle to reduce activities that increase my stress."

a. "I would like to add weight lifting to my exercise program."

23. When the nurse is screening patients for possible peripheral arterial disease, indicate where the posterior tibial artery will be palpated.

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANS: C The posterior tibial site is located behind the medial malleolus of the tibia.

Which antilipemic medications should the nurse question for a patient with cirrhosis of the liver (select all that apply)? a) Niacin (Nicobid) b) Ezetimibe (Zetia) c) Gemfibrozil (Lopid) d) Atorvastatin (Lipitor) e) Cholestyramine (Questran)

b & d Ezetimibe (Zetia) should not be used by patients with liver impairment. Adverse effects of atorvastatin (Lipitor), a statin drug, include liver damage and myopathy. Liver enzymes must be monitored frequently and the medication stopped if these enzymes increase. Niacin's side effects subside with time, although decreased liver function may occur with high doses. Cholestyramine is safe for long-term use.

8. While assessing a patient who was admitted with heart failure, the nurse notes that the patient has jugular venous distention (JVD) when lying flat in bed. Which action should the nurse take next?

a. Document this finding in the patient's record. b. Obtain vital signs, including oxygen saturation. c. Have the patient perform the Valsalva maneuver. d. Observe for JVD with the patient upright at 45 degrees. ANS: D When the patient is lying flat, the jugular veins are at the level of the right atrium, so JVD is a common (but not a clinically significant) finding. Obtaining vital signs and oxygen saturation is not warranted at this point. JVD is an expected finding when a patient performs the Valsalva maneuver because right atrial pressure increases. JVD that persists when the patient is sitting at a 30- to 45-degree angle or greater is significant. The nurse will document the JVD in the medical record if it persists when the head is elevated.

12. When assessing a newly admitted patient, the nurse notes a murmur along the left sternal border. To document more information about the murmur, which action will the nurse take next?

a. Find the point of maximal impulse. b. Determine the timing of the murmur. c. Compare the apical and radial pulse rates. d. Palpate the quality of the peripheral pulses. ANS: B Murmurs are caused by turbulent blood flow, such as occurs when blood flows through a damaged valve. Relevant information includes the position in which the murmur is heard best (e.g., sitting and leaning forward), the timing of the murmur in relation to the cardiac cycle (e.g., systole, diastole), and where on the thorax the murmur is heard best. The other information is also important in the cardiac assessment but will not provide information that is relevant to the murmur.

15. Which action will the nurse implement for a patient who arrives for a calcium-scoring CT scan?

a. Insert an IV catheter. b. Administer oral sedative medications. c. Teach the patient about the procedure. d. Confirm that the patient has been fasting. ANS: C The nurse will need to teach the patient that the procedure is rapid and involves little risk. None of the other actions are necessary.

17. When the nurse is monitoring a patient who is undergoing exercise (stress) testing on a treadmill, which assessment finding requires the most rapid action by the nurse?

a. Patient complaint of feeling tired b. Pulse change from 87 to 101 beats/minute c. Blood pressure (BP) increase from 134/68 to 150/80 mm Hg d. Newly inverted T waves on the electrocardiogram ANS: D ECG changes associated with coronary ischemia (such as T-wave inversions and ST segment depression) indicate that the myocardium is not getting adequate oxygen delivery and that the exercise test should be terminated immediately. Increases in BP and heart rate (HR) are normal responses to aerobic exercise. Feeling tired is also normal as the intensity of exercise increases during the stress testing.

22. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for newly admitted patients on the cardiovascular unit. Which patient laboratory result is most important to communicate as soon as possible to the health care provider?

a. Patient whose triglyceride level is high b. Patient who has very low homocysteine level c. Patient with increase in troponin T and troponin I level d. Patient with elevated high-sensitivity C-reactive protein level ANS: C The elevation in troponin T and I indicates that the patient has had an acute myocardial infarction. Further assessment and interventions are indicated. The other laboratory results are indicative of increased risk for coronary artery disease but are not associated with acute cardiac problems that need immediate intervention.

1. While listening at the mitral area, the nurse notes abnormal heart sounds at the patient's fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line. After listening to the audio clip, describe how the nurse will document the assessment finding

a. S3 gallop heard at the aortic area b. Systolic murmur noted at mitral area c. Diastolic murmur noted at tricuspid area d. Pericardial friction rub heard at the apex ANS: B The mitral area location is at the intersection of the fifth intercostal space and the midclavicular line. The murmur is a pansystolic murmur.

20. A transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) is ordered for a patient with possible endocarditis. Which action included in the standard TEE orders will the nurse need to accomplish first?

a. Start an IV line. b. Place the patient on NPO status. c. Administer O2 per nasal cannula. d. Give lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg IV. ANS: B The patient will need to be NPO for 6 hours preceding the TEE, so the nurse should place the patient on NPO status as soon as the order is received. The other actions also will need to be accomplished but not until just before or during the procedure.

13. The nurse hears a murmur between the S1 and S2 heart sounds at the patient's left fifth intercostal space and midclavicular line. How will the nurse record this information?

a. Systolic murmur heard at mitral area b. Systolic murmur heard at Erb's point c. Diastolic murmur heard at aortic area d. Diastolic murmur heard at the point of maximal impulse ANS: A The S1 signifies the onset of ventricular systole. S2 signifies the onset of diastole. A murmur occurring between these two sounds is a systolic murmur. The mitral area is the intersection of the left fifth intercostal space and the midclavicular line. The other responses describe murmurs heard at different landmarks on the chest and/or during the diastolic phase of the cardiac cycle.

6. While doing the admission assessment for a thin 76-year-old patient, the nurse observes pulsation of the abdominal aorta in the epigastric area. Which action should the nurse take?

a. Teach the patient about aneurysms. b. Notify the hospital rapid response team. c. Instruct the patient to remain on bed rest. d. Document the finding in the patient chart. ANS: D Visible pulsation of the abdominal aorta is commonly observed in the epigastric area for thin individuals. The nurse should simply document the finding in the admission assessment. Unless there are other abnormal findings (such as a bruit, pain, or hyper/hypotension) associated with the pulsation, the other actions are not necessary.

21. The nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) on the telemetry unit are caring for four patients. Which nursing action can be delegated to the UAP?

a. Teaching a patient scheduled for exercise electrocardiography about the procedure b. Placing electrodes in the correct position for a patient who is to receive ECG monitoring c. Checking the catheter insertion site for a patient who is recovering from a coronary angiogram d. Monitoring a patient who has just returned to the unit after a transesophageal echocardiogram ANS: B UAP can be educated in standardized lead placement for ECG monitoring. Assessment of patients who have had procedures where airway maintenance (transesophageal echocardiography) or bleeding (coronary angiogram) is a concern must be done by the registered nurse (RN). Patient teaching requires RN level education and scope of practice.

2. When reviewing the 12-lead electrocardiograph (ECG) for a healthy 79-year-old patient who is having an annual physical examination, what will be of most concern to the nurse?

a. The PR interval is 0.21 seconds. b. The QRS duration is 0.13 seconds. c. There is a right bundle-branch block. d. The heart rate (HR) is 42 beats/minute. ANS: D The resting HR does not change with aging, so the decrease in HR requires further investigation. Bundle-branch block and slight increases in PR interval or QRS duration are common in older individuals because of increases in conduction time through the AV node, bundle of His, and bundle branches.

16. Which information obtained by the nurse who is admitting the patient for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) will be most important to report to the health care provider before the MRI?

a. The patient has an allergy to shellfish. b. The patient has a history of atherosclerosis. c. The patient has a permanent ventricular pacemaker. d. The patient took all the prescribed cardiac medications today. ANS: C MRI is contraindicated for patients with implanted metallic devices such as pacemakers. The other information also will be reported to the health care provider but does not impact on whether or not the patient can have an MRI.

19. When admitting a patient for a cardiac catheterization and coronary angiogram, which information about the patient is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider?

a. The patient's pedal pulses are +1. b. The patient is allergic to shellfish. c. The patient had a heart attack a year ago. d. The patient has not eaten anything today. ANS: B The contrast dye used for the procedure is iodine based, so patients who have shellfish allergies will require treatment with medications such as corticosteroids and antihistamines before the angiogram. The other information is also communicated to the health care provider but will not require a change in the usual precardiac catheterization orders or medications.

5. To determine the effects of therapy for a patient who is being treated for heart failure, which laboratory result will the nurse plan to review?

a. Troponin b. Homocysteine (Hcy) c. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) d. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) ANS: D Increased levels of BNP are a marker for heart failure. The other laboratory results would be used to assess for myocardial infarction (troponin) or risk for coronary artery disease (Hcy and LDL).

3. During a physical examination of a 74-year-old patient, the nurse palpates the point of maximal impulse (PMI) in the sixth intercostal space lateral to the left midclavicular line. The most appropriate action for the nurse to take next will be to

a. ask the patient about risk factors for atherosclerosis. b. document that the PMI is in the normal anatomic location. c. auscultate both the carotid arteries for the presence of a bruit. d. assess the patient for symptoms of left ventricular hypertrophy. ANS: D The PMI should be felt at the intersection of the fifth intercostal space and the left midclavicular line. A PMI located outside these landmarks indicates possible cardiac enlargement, such as with left ventricular hypertrophy. Cardiac enlargement is not necessarily associated with atherosclerosis or carotid artery disease.

4. To auscultate for S3 or S4 gallops in the mitral area, the nurse listens with the

a. bell of the stethoscope with the patient in the left lateral position. b. diaphragm of the stethoscope with the patient in a supine position. c. bell of the stethoscope with the patient sitting and leaning forward. d. diaphragm of the stethoscope with the patient lying flat on the left side. ANS: A Gallop rhythms generate low-pitched sounds and are most easily heard with the bell of the stethoscope. Sounds associated with the mitral valve are accentuated by turning the patient to the left side, which brings the heart closer to the chest wall. The diaphragm of the stethoscope is best to use for the higher-pitched sounds such as S1 and S2.

9. The nurse teaches the patient being evaluated for rhythm disturbances with a Holter monitor to

a. connect the recorder to a computer once daily. b. exercise more than usual while the monitor is in place. c. remove the electrodes when taking a shower or tub bath. d. keep a diary of daily activities while the monitor is worn. ANS: D The patient is instructed to keep a diary describing daily activities while Holter monitoring is being accomplished to help correlate any rhythm disturbances with patient activities. Patients are taught that they should not take a shower or bath during Holter monitoring and that they should continue with their usual daily activities. The recorder stores the information about the patient's rhythm until the end of the testing, when it is removed and the data are analyzed.

1. After noting a pulse deficit when assessing a 74-year-old patient who has just arrived in the emergency department, the nurse will anticipate that the patient may require

a. emergent cardioversion. b. a cardiac catheterization. c. hourly blood pressure (BP) checks. d. electrocardiographic (ECG) monitoring. ANS: D Pulse deficit is a difference between simultaneously obtained apical and radial pulses. It indicates that there may be a cardiac dysrhythmia that would best be detected with ECG monitoring. Frequent BP monitoring, cardiac catheterization, and emergent cardioversion are used for diagnosis and/or treatment of cardiovascular disorders but would not be as helpful in determining the immediate reason for the pulse deficit.

7. A patient is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization with coronary angiography. Before the test, the nurse informs the patient that

a. it will be important to lie completely still during the procedure. b. a flushed feeling may be noted when the contrast dye is injected. c. monitored anesthesia care will be provided during the procedure. d. arterial pressure monitoring will be required for 24 hours after the test. ANS: B A sensation of warmth or flushing is common when the contrast material is injected, which can be anxiety-producing unless it has been discussed with the patient. The patient may receive a sedative drug before the procedure, but monitored anesthesia care is not used. Arterial pressure monitoring is not routinely used after the procedure to monitor blood pressure. The patient is not immobile during cardiac catheterization and may be asked to cough or take deep breaths.

11. The nurse has received the laboratory results for a patient who developed chest pain 4 hours ago and may be having a myocardial infarction. The most important laboratory result to review will be

a. myoglobin. b. low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol. c. troponins T and I. d. creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB). ANS: C Cardiac troponins start to elevate 4 to 6 hours after myocardial injury and are highly specific to myocardium. They are the preferred diagnostic marker for myocardial infarction. Myoglobin rises in response to myocardial injury within 30 to 60 minutes. It is rapidly cleared from the body, thus limiting its use in the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. LDL cholesterol is useful in assessing cardiovascular risk but is not helpful in determining whether a patient is having an acute myocardial infarction. Creatine kinase (CK-MB) is specific to myocardial injury and infarction and increases 4 to 6 hours after the infarction occurs. It is often trended with troponin levels.

18. The standard policy on the cardiac unit states, "Notify the health care provider for mean arterial pressure (MAP) less than 70 mm Hg." The nurse will need to call the health care provider about the

a. postoperative patient with a BP of 116/42. b. newly admitted patient with a BP of 150/87. c. patient with left ventricular failure who has a BP of 110/70. d. patient with a myocardial infarction who has a BP of 140/86. ANS: A The mean arterial pressure (MAP) is calculated using the formula MAP = (systolic BP + 2 diastolic BP)/3. The MAP for the postoperative patient in answer 3 is 67. The MAP in the other three patients is higher than 70 mm Hg.

14. A registered nurse (RN) is observing a student nurse who is doing a physical assessment on a patient. The RN will need to intervene immediately if the student nurse

a. presses on the skin over the tibia for 10 seconds to check for edema. b. palpates both carotid arteries simultaneously to compare pulse quality. c. documents a murmur heard along the right sternal border as a pulmonic murmur. d. places the patient in the left lateral position to check for the point of maximal impulse. ANS: B The carotid pulses should never be palpated at the same time to avoid vagal stimulation, dysrhythmias, and decreased cerebral blood flow. The other assessment techniques also need to be corrected. However, they are not dangerous to the patient.

10. When auscultating over the patient's abdominal aorta, the nurse hears a humming sound. The nurse documents this finding as a

a. thrill. b. bruit. c. murmur. d. normal finding. ANS: B A bruit is the sound created by turbulent blood flow in an artery. Thrills are palpable vibrations felt when there is turbulent blood flow through the heart or in a blood vessel. A murmur is the sound caused by turbulent blood flow through the heart. Auscultating a bruit in an artery is not normal and indicates pathology.

what are ACE inhibitors?

angiotension 1 to angiotension2

After teaching a patient with chronic stable angina about nitroglycerin, the nurse recognizes the need for further teaching when the patient makes which statement? a) "I will replace my nitroglycerin supply every 6 months." b) "I can take up to five tablets every 3 minutes for relief of my chest pain." c) "I will take acetaminophen (Tylenol) to treat the headache caused by nitroglycerin." d) "I will take the nitroglycerin 10 minutes before planned activity that usually causes chest pain."

b) "I can take up to five tablets every 3 minutes for relief of my chest pain." The recommended dose of nitroglycerin is one tablet taken sublingually (SL) or one metered spray for symptoms of angina. If symptoms are unchanged or worse after 5 minutes, the patient should be instructed to activate the emergency medical services (EMS) system. If symptoms are improved, repeat the nitroglycerin every 5 minutes for a maximum of three doses and contact EMS if symptoms have not resolved completely.

The patient comes to the ED with severe, prolonged angina that is not immediately reversible. The nurse knows that if the patient once had angina related to a stable atherosclerotic plaque and the plaque ruptures, there may be occlusion of a coronary vessel and this type of pain. How will the nurse document this situation related to pathophysiology, presentation, diagnosis, prognosis, and interventions for this disorder? a) Unstable angina b) Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) c) ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) d) Non-ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI)

b) Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) The pain with ACS is severe, prolonged, and not easy to relieve. ACS is associated with deterioration of a once-stable atherosclerotic plaque that ruptures, exposes the intima to blood, and stimulates platelet aggregation and local vasoconstriction with thrombus formation. The unstable lesion, if partially occlusive, will be manifest as unstable angina or NSTEMI. If there is total occlusion, it is manifest as a STEMI.

The nurse is providing teaching to a patient recovering from an MI. How should resumption of sexual activity be discussed? a) Delegated to the primary care provider b) Discussed along with other physical activities c) Avoided because it is embarrassing to the patient d) Accomplished by providing the patient with written material

b) Discussed along with other physical activities Although some nurses may not feel comfortable discussing sexual activity with patients, it is a necessary component of patient teaching. It is helpful to consider sex as a physical activity and to discuss or explore feelings in this area when other physical activities are discussed. Although providing the patient with written material is appropriate, it should not replace a verbal dialogue that can address the individual patient's questions and concerns.

The nurse is examining the ECG of a patient who has just been admitted with a suspected MI. Which ECG change is most indicative of prolonged or complete coronary occlusion? a) Sinus tachycardia b) Pathologic Q wave c) Fibrillatory P waves d) Prolonged PR interval

b) Pathologic Q wave The presence of a pathologic Q wave, as often accompanies STEMI, is indicative of complete coronary occlusion. Sinus tachycardia, fibrillatory P waves (e.g., atrial fibrillation), or a prolonged PR interval (first-degree heart block) are not direct indicators of extensive occlusion.

In teaching a patient about coronary artery disease, the nurse explains that the changes that occur in this disorder include (select all that apply): a. diffuse involvement of plaque formation in coronary veins b. abnormal levels of cholesterol, especially low-density lipoproteins c. accumulation of lipid and fibrous tissue within the coronary arteries d. development of angina due to a decreased blood supply to the heart muscle e. chronic vasoconstriction of coronary arteries leading to permanent vasospasm

b, c, & d

The nurse would assess a patient with complaints of chest pain for which clinical manifestations associated with a myocardial infarction (MI) (select all that apply)? a) Flushing b) Ashen skin c) Diaphoresis d) Nausea and vomiting e) S3 or S4 heart sounds

b, c, d, & e During the initial phase of an MI, catecholamines are released from the ischemic myocardial cells, causing increased sympathetic nervous system (SNS) stimulation. This results in the release of glycogen, diaphoresis, and vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels. The patient's skin may be ashen, cool, and clammy (not flushed) as a result of this response. Nausea and vomiting may result from reflex stimulation of the vomiting center by severe pain. Ventricular dysfunction resulting from the MI may lead to the presence of the abnormal S3 and S4 heart sounds.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is 2 days post-MI. The patient reports that she is experiencing chest pain. She states, "It hurts when I take a deep breath." Which action would be a priority? a. Notify the physician STAT and obtain a 12-lead ECG. b. Obtain vital signs and auscultate for a pericardial friction rub. c. Apply high-flow oxygen by face mask and auscultate breath sounds. d. Medicate the patient with PRN analgesic and reevaluate in 30 minutes.

b. Obtain vital signs and auscultate for a pericardial friction rub.

A hospitalized patient with a history of chronic stable angina tells the nurse that she is having chest pain. The nurse bases his actions on the knowledge that ischemia: a. will always progress to myocardial infarction b. will be relieved by rest, nitroglycerin, or both c. indicates that irreversible myocardial damage is occurring d. is frequently associated with vomiting and extreme fatigue

b. will be relieved by rest, nitroglycerin, or both

In caring for the patient with angina, the patient said, "I walked to the bathroom. While I was having a bowel movement, I started having the worst chest pain ever, like before I was admitted. I called for a nurse, but the pain is gone now." What further assessment data should the nurse obtain from the patient? a) "What precipitated the pain?" b) "Has the pain changed this time?" c) "In what areas did you feel this pain?" d) "Rate the pain on a scale from 0 to 10, with 0 being no pain and 10 being the worst pain you can imagine."

c) "In what areas did you feel this pain?" Using PQRST, the assessment data not volunteered by the patient is the radiation of pain, the area the patient felt the pain, and if it radiated. The precipitating event was going to the bathroom and having a bowel movement. The quality of the pain was "like before I was admitted," although a more specific description may be helpful. Severity of the pain was the "worst chest pain ever," although an actual number may be needed. Timing is supplied by the patient describing when the pain occurred and that he had previously had this pain.

Postoperative care of a patient undergoing coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery includes monitoring for what common complication? a) Dehydration b) Paralytic ileus c) Atrial dysrhythmias d) Acute respiratory distress syndrome

c) Atrial dysrhythmias Postoperative dysrhythmias, specifically atrial dysrhythmias, are common in the first 3 days following CABG surgery. Although the other complications could occur, they are not common complications.

The nurse assesses the right femoral artery puncture site as soon as the patient arrives after having a stent inserted into a coronary artery. The insertion site is not bleeding or discolored. What should the nurse do next to ensure the femoral artery is intact? a) Palpate the insertion site for induration. b) Assess peripheral pulses in the right leg. c) Inspect the patient's right side and back. d) Compare the color of the left and right legs.

c) Inspect the patient's right side and back. The best method to determine that the right femoral artery is intact after inspection of the insertion site is to logroll the patient to inspect the right side and back for retroperitoneal bleeding. The artery can be leaking and blood is drawn into the tissues by gravity. The peripheral pulses, color, and sensation of the right leg will be assessed per agency protocol.

A patient is recovering from an uncomplicated MI. Which rehabilitation guideline is a priority to include in the teaching plan? a. Refrain from sexual activity for a minimum of 3 weeks b. Plan a diet program that aims for a 1 to 2 pound weight loss per week c. Begin an exercise program that aims for at least five 30-minute sessions per week d. Consider the use of erectile agents and prophylactic NTG before engaging in sexual activity

c. Begin an exercise program that aims for at least five 30-minute sessions per week

The most common finding in individuals at risk for sudden cardiac death is: a. aortic valve disease b. mitral valve disease c. left ventricular dysfunction d. atherosclerotic heart disease

c. left ventricular dysfunction

What do you use with prinzmetals angina?

calcium channel blockers

The patient is being dismissed from the hospital after ACS and will be attending rehabilitation. What information does the patient need to be taught about the early recovery phase of rehabilitation? a) Therapeutic lifestyle changes should become lifelong habits. b) Physical activity is always started in the hospital and continued at home. c) Attention will focus on management of chest pain, anxiety, dysrhythmias, and other complications. d) Activity level is gradually increased under cardiac rehabilitation team supervision and with ECG monitoring.

d) Activity level is gradually increased under cardiac rehabilitation team supervision and with ECG monitoring. In the early recovery phase after the patient is dismissed from the hospital, the activity level is gradually increased under supervision and with ECG monitoring. The late recovery phase includes therapeutic lifestyle changes that become lifelong habits. In the first phase of recovery, activity is dependent on the severity of the angina or MI, and attention is focused on the management of chest pain, anxiety, dysrhythmias, and other complications. With early recovery phase, the cardiac rehabilitation team may suggest that physical activity be initiated at home, but this is not always done.

For which problem is percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) most clearly indicated? a) Chronic stable angina b) Left-sided heart failure c) Coronary artery disease d) Acute myocardial infarction

d) Acute myocardial infarction PCI is indicated to restore coronary perfusion in cases of myocardial infarction. Chronic stable angina and CAD are normally treated with more conservative measures initially. PCI is not relevant to the pathophysiology of heart failure, such as left-sided heart failure.

When evaluating a patient's knowledge regarding a low-sodium, low-fat cardiac diet, the nurse recognizes additional teaching is needed when the patient selects which food choice? a) Baked flounder b) Angel food cake c) Baked potato with margarine d) Canned chicken noodle soup

d) Canned chicken noodle soup Canned soups are very high in sodium content. Patients need to be taught to read food labels for sodium and fat content.

A patient was admitted to the emergency department (ED) 24 hours earlier with complaints of chest pain that were subsequently attributed to ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). What complication of MI should the nurse anticipate? a) Unstable angina b) Cardiac tamponade c) Sudden cardiac death d) Cardiac dysrhythmias

d) Cardiac dysrhythmias The most common complication after MI is dysrhythmias, which are present in 80% of patients. Unstable angina is considered a precursor to MI rather than a complication. Cardiac tamponade is a rare event, and sudden cardiac death is defined as an unexpected death from cardiac causes. Cardiac dysfunction in the period following an MI would not be characterized as sudden cardiac death.

A patient experienced sudden cardiac death (SCD) and survived. What should the nurse expect to be used as preventive treatment for the patient? a) External pacemaker b) An electrophysiologic study (EPS) c) Medications to prevent dysrhythmias d) Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)

d) Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) An ICD is the most common approach to preventing recurrence of SCD. An external pacemaker may be used in the hospital but will not be used for the patient living daily life at home. An EPS may be done to determine if a recurrence is likely and determine the most effective medication treatment. Medications to prevent dysrhythmias are used but are not the best prevention of SCD.

A female patient who has type 1 diabetes mellitus has chronic stable angina that is controlled with rest. She states that over the past few months she has required increasing amounts of insulin. What goal should the nurse use to plan care that should help prevent cardiovascular disease progression? a) Exercise almost every day. b) Avoid saturated fat intake. c) Limit calories to daily limit. d) Keep Hgb A1C less than 7%.

d) Keep Hgb A1C less than 7%. If the Hgb A1C is kept below 7%, this means that the patient has had good control of her blood glucose over the past 3 months. The patient indicates that increasing amounts of insulin are being required to control her blood glucose. This patient may not be adhering to the dietary guidelines or therapeutic regimen, so teaching about how to maintain diet, exercise, and medications to maintain stable blood glucose levels will be needed to achieve this goal.

A male patient who has coronary artery disease (CAD) has serum lipid values of LDL cholesterol 98 mg/dL and HDL cholesterol 47 mg/dL. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching? a) Consume a diet low in fats. b) Reduce total caloric intake. c) Increase intake of olive oil. d) The lipid levels are normal.

d) The lipid levels are normal. For men, the recommended LDL is less than 100 mg/dL, and the recommended level for HDL is greater than 40mg/dL. His normal lipid levels should be included in the patient teaching and encourage him to continue taking care of himself. Assessing his need for teaching related to diet should also be done.

Arbs dont let angiotension 2 bind to sites so when do I use this?

if interrelated to ace- due to dry cough

3. When administering a mental status examination to a patient with delirium, the nurse should a. medicate the patient first to reduce any anxiety. b. give the examination when the patient is well-rested. c. reorient the patient as needed during the examination. d. choose a place without distracting environmental stimuli.

d. choose a place without distracting environmental stimuli. Because overstimulation by environmental factors can distract the patient from the task of answering the nurse's questions, these stimuli should be avoided. The nurse will not wait to give the examination because action to correct the delirium should occur as soon as possible. Reorienting the patient is not appropriate during the examination. Antianxiety medications may increase the patient's delirium.

What is the risk with calcium channel blockers?

digoxin- s/s of toxicity is a irregular pulse (tachycardia) VISION CHANGES!!!!!!!! confusion

Side effect of all nitrates?

dizziness, flushing, ortho hypotension, headache

Side effects of beta blockers

dont stop abruptly wheezing asthma broncho spasms

When does the pain occur in prinzmetal's angina?

during REM sleep when myocardial oxygen consumption occurs

What do you monitor in nitro?

heart rate below 60 systolic bp below 100

Cyclic, short bursts of pain at a usual time each day may occur with what type of angina?

prinzmetal's angina

What is silent ischemia?

refers to ischemia that occurs during the absence of any subjective symptoms

What are the two types of transdermal patches?

resevior- if popped it gets dose dumping- orthostatic hypotension matrix- slow med delivery through polymere matrix

Transdermal controlled release patch?

therapeutic level achieved in 2 hours lasts 24 hours

What are long acting nitrates?

used prophylactically (patch and ointment)

10. The patient is receiving donepezil (Aricept), lorazepam (Ativan), risperidone (Risperdal), and sertraline (Zoloft) for the management of AD. What benzodiazepine medication is being used to help manage this patient's behavior? a. Sertraline (Zoloft) b. Donepezil (Aricept) c. Lorazepam (Ativan) d. Risperidone (Risperdal)

10. c. Lorazepam (Ativan) is a benzodiazepine used to manage behavior with AD. Sertraline (Zoloft) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used to treat depression. Donepzil (Aricept) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used for decreased memory and cognition. Risperidone (Risperdal) is an antipsychotic used for behavior management.

11. What N-methyl-d-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist is frequently used for a patient with AD who is experiencing decreased memory and cognition? a. Trazodone (Desyrel) b. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) c. Rivastigmine (Exelon) d. Memantine (Namenda)

11. d. Memantine (Namenda) is the N-methyl-d-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist frequently used for AD patients with decreased memory and cognition. Trazodone (Desyrel) is an atypical antidepressant that may help with sleep problems. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is an antipsychotic medication used for behavior management. Rivastigmine (Exelon) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used for decreased memory and cognition.

12. A patient with AD in a long-term care facility is wandering the halls very agitated, asking for her "mommy" and crying. What is the best response by the nurse? a. Ask the patient, "Why are you behaving this way?" b. Tell the patient, "Let's go get a snack in the kitchen." c. Ask the patient, "Wouldn't you like to lie down now?" d. Tell the patient, "Just take some deep breaths and calm down."

12. b. Patients with moderate to severe AD frequently become agitated but because their short-term memory loss is so pronounced, distraction is a very good way to calm them. "Why" questions are upsetting to them because they don't know the answer and they cannot respond to normal relaxation techniques.

13. The sister of a patient with AD asks the nurse whether prevention of the disease is possible. In responding, the nurse explains that there is no known way to prevent AD but there are ways to keep the brain healthy. What is included in the ways to keep the brain healthy (select all that apply)? a. Avoid trauma to the brain. b. Recognize and treat depression early. c. Avoid social gatherings to avoid infections. d. Do not overtax the brain by trying to learn new skills. e. Daily wine intake will increase circulation to the brain. f. Exercise regularly to decrease the risk for cognitive decline

13. a, b, f. Avoiding trauma to the brain, treating depression early, and exercising regularly can maintain cognitive function. Staying socially active, avoiding intake of harmful substances, and challenging the brain to keep its connections active and create new ones also help to keep the brain healthy.

14. The son of a patient with early-onset AD asks if he will get AD. What should the nurse tell this man about the genetics of AD? a. The risk of early-onset AD for the children of parents with it is about 50%. b. Women get AD more often than men do, so his chances of getting AD are slim. c. The blood test for the ApoE gene to identify this type of AD can predict who will develop it. d. This type of AD is not as complex as regular AD, so he does not need to worry about getting AD.

14. a. The risk of early-onset AD for the children of parents with it is 50%. Women do get AD more often than men but that is more likely related to women living longer than men than to the type of AD. ApoE gene testing is used for research with late-onset AD but does not predict who will develop the disease. Late-onset AD is more genetically complex than early-onset AD and is more common in those over age 60 but because his parent has early-onset AD he is at a 50% risk of getting it.

20. A 72-year-old woman is hospitalized in the intensive care unit (ICU) with pneumonia resulting from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). She has a fever, productive cough, and adventitious breath sounds throughout her lungs. In the past 24 hours her fluid intake was 1000 mL and her urine output was 700 mL. She was diagnosed with early-stage AD 6 months ago but has been able to maintain her activities of daily living (ADLs) with supervision. Identify at least six risk factors for the development of delirium in this patient. (Fill in the blanks.) a. b. c. d. e. f.

20. a. Age; b. infection; c. hypoxemia (lung disease); d. intensive care unit (ICU) hospitalization (change in environment, sensory overload); e. preexisting dementia; f. dehydration. Also: hyperthermia and potentially medications to treat chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and pneumonia.

21. A 68-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with multiple blunt trauma following a one-vehicle car accident. He is restless; disoriented to person, place, and time; and agitated. He resists attempts at examination and calls out the name "Janice." Why should the nurse suspect delirium rather than dementia in this patient? a. The fact that he wouldn't have been allowed to drive if he had dementia b. His hyperactive behavior, which differentiates his condition from the hypoactive behavior of dementia c. The report of emergency personnel that he was noncommunicative when they arrived at the accident scene d. The report of his family that although he has heart disease and is "very hard of hearing," this behavior is unlike him

21. d. Delirium is an acute problem that usually has a rapid onset in response to a precipitating event, especially when the patient has underlying health problems, such as heart disease and sensory limitations. In the absence of prior cognitive impairment, a sudden onset of confusion, disorientation, and agitation is usually delirium. Delirium may manifest with both hypoactive and hyperactive symptoms.

What should be included in the management of a patient with delirium? a. The use of restraints to protect the patient from injury b. The use of short-acting benzodiazepines to sedate the patient c. Identification and treatment of underlying causes when possible d. Administration of high doses of an antipsychotic drug such as haloperidol (Haldol)

22. c. Care of the patient with delirium is focused on identifying and eliminating precipitating factors if possible. Treatment of underlying medical conditions, changing environmental conditions, and discontinuing medications that induce delirium are important. Drug therapy is reserved for those patients with severe agitation because the drugs themselves may worsen delirium.

4. For what purpose would the nurse use the Mini-Mental State Examination to evaluate a patient with cognitive impairment? a. It is a good tool to determine the etiology of dementia. b. It is a good tool to evaluate mood and thought processes. c. It can help to document the degree of cognitive impairment in delirium and dementia. d. It is useful for initial evaluation of mental status but additional tools are needed to evaluate changes in cognition over time.

4. c. The Mini-Mental State Examination is a tool to document the degree of cognitive impairment and it can be used to determine a baseline from which changes over time can be evaluated. It does not evaluate mood or thought processes but can detect dementia and delirium and differentiate these from psychiatric mental illness. It cannot help to determine etiology.

NCLEX review questions: The patient has been diagnosed with the mild cognitive impairment stage of Alzheimer's disease. What nursing interventions should the nurse expect to use with this patient? A) Treat disruptive behavior with antipsychotic drugs. B) Use a calendar and family pictures as memory aids. C) Use a writing board to communicate with the patient. D) Use a wander guard mechanism to keep the patient in the area.

B) Use a calendar and family pictures as memory aids. Rationale: The patient with mild cognitive impairment will have problems with memory, language, or another essential cognitive function that is severe enough to be noticeable to others but does not interfere with activities of daily living. A calendar and family pictures for memory aids will help this patient. This patient should not yet have disruptive behavior or get lost easily. Using a writing board will not help this patient with communication.

NCLEX review questions: Benzodiazepines are indicated in the treatment of cases of delirium that have which cause? A) Polypharmacy B) Cerebral hypoxia C) Alcohol withdrawal D) Electrolyte imbalances

C) Alcohol withdrawal Rationale: Benzodiazepines can be used to treat delirium associated with sedative and alcohol withdrawal. However, these drugs may worsen delirium caused by other factors and must be used cautiously. Polypharmacy, cerebral hypoxia, and electrolyte imbalances are not treated with benzodiazepines.

NCLEX review questions: Which nursing intervention is most appropriate when caring for patients with dementia? Avoid direct eye contact. Lovingly call the patient "honey" or "sweetie." Give simple directions, focusing on one thing at a time. Treat the patient according to his or her age-related behavior.

C) Give simple directions, focusing on one thing at a time. Rationale: When dealing with patients with dementia, tasks should be simplified, giving directions using gestures or pictures and focusing on one thing at a time. It is best to treat these patients as adults, with respect and dignity, even when their behavior is childlike. The nurse should use gentle touch and direct eye contact. Calling the patient "honey" or "sweetie" can be condescending and does not demonstrate respect.

6. When administering a mental status examination to a patient, the nurse suspects depression when the patient responds with a. "I don't know." b. "Is that the right answer?" c. "Wait, let me think about that." d. "Who are those people over there?

a. "I don't know." Answers such as "I don't know" are more typical of depression. The response "Who are those people over there?" is more typical of the distraction seen in a patient with delirium. The remaining two answers are more typical of a patient with dementia.

What is angina decubitus?

chest pain that occurs only while the person is lying down and is usually relieved by standing or sitting

15. A patient with moderate AD has a nursing diagnosis of impaired memory related to effects of dementia. What is an appropriate nursing intervention for this patient? a. Post clocks and calendars in the patient's environment. b. Establish and consistently follow a daily schedule with the patient. c. Monitor the patient's activities to maintain a safe patient environment. d. Stimulate thought processes by asking the patient questions about recent activities

15. b. Adhering to a regular, consistent daily schedule helps the patient to avoid confusion and anxiety and is important both during hospitalization and at home. Clocks and calendars may be useful in early AD but they have little meaning to a patient as the disease progresses. Questioning the patient about activities and events they cannot remember is threatening and may cause severe anxiety. Maintaining a safe environment for the patient is important but does not change the disturbed thought processes.

17. The wife of a man with moderate AD has a nursing diagnosis of social isolation related to diminishing social relationships and behavioral problems of the patient with AD. What is a nursing intervention that would be appropriate to provide respite care and allow the wife to have satisfactory contact with significant others? a. Help the wife to arrange for adult day care for the patient. b. Encourage permanent placement of the patient in the Alzheimer's unit of a long-term care facility. c. Refer the wife to a home health agency to arrange daily home nursing visits to assist with the patient's care. d. Arrange for hospitalization of the patient for 3 or 4 days so that the wife can visit out-of-town friends and relatives.

17. a. Adult day care is an option to provide respite for caregivers and a protective environment for the patient during the early and middle stages of AD. There are also in-home respite care providers. The respite from the demands of care allows the caregiver to maintain social contacts, perform normal tasks of living, and be more responsive to the patient's needs. Visits by home health nurses involve the caregiver and cannot provide adequate respite. Institutional placement is not always an acceptable option at earlier stages of AD, nor is hospitalization available for respite care.

18. The health care provider is trying to differentiate the diagnosis of the patient between dementia and dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB). What observations by the nurse support a diagnosis of DLB (select all that apply)? a. Tremors b. Fluctuating cognitive ability c. Disturbed behavior, sleep, and personality d. Symptoms of pneumonia, including congested lung sounds e. Bradykinesia, rigidity, and postural instability without tremor

18. b, e. Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) is diagnosed with dementia plus two of the following symptoms: (1) extrapyramidal signs such as bradykinesia, rigidity, and postural instability but not always a tremor, (2) fluctuating cognitive ability, and (3) hallucinations. The extrapyramidal signs plus tremors would more likely indicate Parkinson's disease. Disturbed behavior, sleep, personality, and eventually memory are characteristics of frontotemporal lobe degeneration (FTLD).

19. Delegation Decision: The RN in charge at a long-term care facility could delegate which activities to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) (select all that apply)? a. Assist the patient with eating. b. Provide personal hygiene and skin care. c. Check the environment for safety hazards. d. Assist the patient to the bathroom at regular intervals. e. Monitor for skin breakdown and swallowing difficulties.

19. a, b, d. All caregivers are responsible for the patient's safety. Basic care activities, such as those associated with personal hygiene and activities of daily living (ADLs) can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). The RN will perform ongoing assessments and develop and revise the plan of care as needed. The RN will assess the patient's safety risk factors, provide education, and make referrals. The licensed practical nurse (LPN) could check the patient's environment for potential safety hazards.

2. Which statement accurately describes dementia? a. Overproduction of β-amyloid protein causes all dementias. b. Dementia resulting from neurodegenerative causes can be prevented. c. Dementia caused by hepatic or renal encephalopathy cannot be reversed. d. Vascular dementia can be diagnosed by brain lesions identified with neuroimaging.

2. d. The diagnosis of vascular dementia can be aided by neuroimaging studies showing vascular brain lesions along with exclusion of other causes of dementia. Overproduction of β-amyloid protein contributes to Alzheimer's disease (AD). Vascular dementia can be prevented or slowed by treating underlying diseases (e.g., diabetes mellitus, cardiovascular disease). Dementia caused by hepatic or renal encephalopathy potentially can be reversed.

23. When caring for a patient in the severe stage of AD, what diversion or distraction activities would be appropriate? a. Watching TV b. Playing games c. Books to read d. Mobiles or dangling ribbons

23. d. In the severe stage of AD, the patient is at a developmental level of 15 months or less; therefore appropriate distractions would be infant toys. Watching TV and playing games are more appropriate in the mild stage. Books to read would need to be at developmentally appropriate levels to be used as a diversion.

3. A patient with Alzheimer's disease (AD) dementia has manifestations of depression. The nurse knows that treatment of the patient with antidepressants will most likely do what? a. Improve cognitive function b. Not alter the course of either condition c. Cause interactions with the drugs used to treat the dementia d. Be contraindicated because of the central nervous system (CNS)-depressant effect of antidepressants

3. a. Depression is often associated with AD, especially early in the disease when the patient has awareness of the diagnosis and the progression of the disease. When dementia and depression occur together, intellectual deterioration may be more extreme. Depression is treatable and use of antidepressants often improves cognitive function.

5. During assessment of a patient with dementia, the nurse determines that the condition is potentially reversible when finding out what about the patient? a. Has long-standing abuse of alcohol b. Has a history of Parkinson's disease c. Recently developed symptoms of hypothyroidism d. Was infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) 10 years ago

5. c. Hypothyroidism can cause dementia but it is a treatable condition if it has not been long standing. The other conditions are causes of irreversible dementia.

6. The husband of a patient is complaining that his wife's memory has been decreasing lately. When asked for examples of her memory loss, the husband says that she is forgetting the neighbors' names and forgot their granddaughter's birthday. What kind of loss does the nurse recognize this to be? a. Delirium b. Memory loss in AD c. Normal forgetfulness d. Memory loss in mild cognitive impairment

6. d. In mild cognitive impairment people frequently forget people's names and begin to forget important events. Delirium changes usually occur abruptly. In Alzheimer's disease the patient may not remember knowing a person and loses the sense of time and which day it is. Normal forgetfulness includes momentarily forgetting names and occasionally forgetting to run an errand.

7. The wife of a patient who is manifesting deterioration in memory asks the nurse whether her husband has AD. The nurse explains that a diagnosis of AD is usually made when what happens? a. A urine test indicates elevated levels of isoprostanes b. All other possible causes of dementia have been eliminated c. Blood analysis reveals increased amounts of β-amyloid protein d. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain indicates brain atrophy

7. b. The only definitive diagnosis of AD can be made on examination of brain tissue during an autopsy but a clinical diagnosis is made when all other possible causes of dementia have been eliminated. Patients with AD may have β-amyloid proteins in the blood, brain atrophy, or isoprostanes in the urine but these findings are not exclusive to those with AD.

9. What is one focus of collaborative care of patients with AD? a. Replacement of deficient acetylcholine in the brain b. Drug therapy for cognitive problems and undesirable behaviors c. The use of memory-enhancing techniques to delay disease progression d. Prevention of other chronic diseases that hasten the progression of AD

9. b. Because there is no cure for AD, collaborative management is aimed at controlling the decline in cognition, controlling the undesirable manifestations that the patient may exhibit, and providing support for the family caregiver. Anticholinesterase agents help to increase acetylcholine (ACh) in the brain but a variety of other drugs are also used to control behavior. Memoryenhancing techniques have little or no effect in patients with AD, especially as the disease progresses. Patients with AD have limited ability to communicate health symptoms and problems, leading to a lack of professional attention for acute and other chronic illnesses.

Pre-test practice questions: Although he has been told that ginkgo biloba will probably have no effect, a 58-year-old man with early stage Alzheimer's disease insists on taking the herb because he believes it will slow the disease progression. Which statement, if made by the patient to the nurse, indicates understanding about the side effects of ginkgo? A) "Ginkgo may increase the risk of bruising." B) "Ginkgo may cause leg pain while walking." C) "It is not safe to suddenly stop taking ginkgo." D) "Ringing in the ears is a side effect of ginkgo."

A) "Ginkgo may increase the risk of bruising." Rationale: Ginkgo biloba may increase the risk for bruising and bleeding. There are no indications that sudden withdrawal of ginkgo biloba is unsafe. Ginkgo biloba is possibly effective for treating intermittent claudication (leg pain while walking). There is insufficient evidence to indicate that ginkgo biloba is effective in treatment of tinnitus (ringing in the ears).

NCLEX review questions: Which statement by the wife of a patient with Alzheimer's disease (AD) demonstrates an accurate understanding of her husband's medication regimen? A) "I'm really hoping his medications will slow down his mental losses." B) "We're both holding out hope that this medication will cure his disease." C) "I know that this won't cure him, but we learned that it might prevent a bodily decline while he declines mentally." D) "I learned that if we are vigilant about his medication schedule, he may not experience the physical effects of his disease."

A) "I'm really hoping his medications will slow down his mental losses." Rationale: There is presently no cure for Alzheimer's disease, and drug therapy aims at improving or controlling decline in cognition. Medications do not directly address the physical manifestations of AD.

NCLEX review questions: For which patient should the nurse prioritize an assessment for depression? A) A patient in the early stages of Alzheimer's disease B) A patient who is in the final stages of Alzheimer's disease C) A patient experiencing delirium secondary to dehydration D) A patient who has become delirious following an atypical drug response

A) A patient in the early stages of Alzheimer's disease Rationale: Patients in the early stages of Alzheimer's disease are particularly susceptible to depression, since the patient is acutely aware of his or her cognitive changes and the expected disease trajectory. Delirium is typically a shorter-term health problem that does not typically pose a heightened risk of depression.

NCLEX review questions: The nurse who has administered a dose of risperidone (Risperdal) to a patient with delirium should assess for what intended effect of the medication? A) Lying quietly in bed B) Alleviation of depression C) Reduction in blood pressure D) Disappearance of confusion

A) Lying quietly in bed Rationale: Risperidone is an antipsychotic drug that reduces agitation and produces a restful state in patients with delirium. However, it should be used with caution. Antidepressant medications treat depression, and antihypertensive medications treat hypertension. However, there are no medications that will cause confusion to disappear in a patient with delirium.

Which action will help the nurse determine whether a new patient's confusion is caused by dementia or delirium? a. Administer the Mini-Mental Status Exam. b. Use the Confusion Assessment Method tool. c. Determine whether there is a family history of dementia. d. Obtain a list of the medications that the patient usually takes.

ANS: B The Confusion Assessment Method tool has been extensively tested in assessing delirium. The other actions will be helpful in determining cognitive function or risk factors for dementia or delirium, but they will not be useful in differentiating between dementia and delirium.

Pre-test practice questions: A 78-year-old woman is in the intensive care unit after emergency abdominal surgery. The nurse notes that the patient is disoriented and confused, has incoherent speech, and is restless and agitated. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? A) Reorient the patient. B) Notify the physician. C) Document the findings. D) Administer lorazepam (Ativan).

A) Reorient the patient. Rationale: The patient is exhibiting clinical manifestations of delirium. Care of the patient with delirium is focused on eliminating precipitating factors and protecting the patient from harm. Give priority to creating a calm and safe environment. The nurse should stay at the bedside and provide reassurance and reorienting information as to place, time, and procedures. The nurse should reduce environmental stimuli, including noise and light levels. Avoid the use of chemical and physical restraints if possible.

NCLEX review questions: The patient is having some increased memory and language problems. What diagnostic tests will be done before this patient is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease (select all that apply)? A) Urinalysis B) MRI of the head C) Liver function tests D) Neuropsychologic testing E) Blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine

A) Urinalysis B) MRI of the head C) Liver function tests D) Neuropsychologic testing E) Blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine Rationale: Because there is no definitive diagnostic test for Alzheimer's disease, and many conditions can cause manifestations of dementia, testing must be done to eliminate any other causes of cognitive impairment. These include urinalysis to eliminate a urinary tract infection, an MRI to eliminate brain tumors, liver function tests to eliminate encephalopathy, BUN and serum creatinine to rule out renal dysfunction, and neuropsychologic testing to assess cognitive function.

The day shift nurse at the long-term care facility learns that a patient with dementia experienced sundowning late in the afternoon on the previous two days. Which action should the nurse take? a. Keep blinds open during the daytime hours. b. Provide hourly orientation to time and place. c. Have the patient take a brief mid-morning nap. d. Move the patient to a quieter room late in the afternoon.

ANS: A A likely cause of sundowning is a disruption in circadian rhythms and keeping the patient active and in daylight will help reestablish a more normal circadian pattern. Moving the patient to a different room might increase confusion. Taking a nap will interfere with nighttime sleep. Hourly orientation will not be helpful in a patient with dementia

A 68-year-old patient who is hospitalized with pneumonia is disoriented and confused 3 days after admission. Which information indicates that the patient is experiencing delirium rather than dementia? a. The patient was oriented and alert when admitted. b. The patient's speech is fragmented and incoherent. c. The patient is oriented to person but disoriented to place and time. d. The patient has a history of increasing confusion over several years.

ANS: A The onset of delirium occurs acutely. The degree of disorientation does not differentiate between delirium and dementia. Increasing confusion for several years is consistent with dementia. Fragmented and incoherent speech may occur with either delirium or dementia.

A 68-year-old patient who is hospitalized with pneumonia is disoriented and confused 3 days after admission. Which information indicates that the patient is experiencing delirium rather than dementia? a. The patient was oriented and alert when admitted. b. The patient's speech is fragmented and incoherent. c. The patient is oriented to person but disoriented to place and time. d. The patient has a history of increasing confusion over several years.

ANS: A-The patient was oriented and alert when admitted The onset of delirium occurs acutely. The degree of disorientation does not differentiate between delirium and dementia. Increasing confusion for several years is consistent with dementia. Fragmented and incoherent speech may occur with either delirium or dementia.

The nurse is administering a mental status examination to a 48-year-old patient who has hypertension. The nurse suspects depression when the patient responds to the nurse's questions with a. "Is that right?" b. "I don't know." c. "Wait, let me think about that." d. "Who are those people over there?"

ANS: B Answers such as "I don't know" are more typical of depression than dementia. The response "Who are those people over there?" is more typical of the distraction seen in a patient with delirium. The remaining two answers are more typical of a patient with mild to moderate dementia.

Which nursing action will be most effective in ensuring daily medication compliance for a patient with mild dementia? a. Setting the medications up monthly in a medication box b. Having the patient's family member administer the medication c. Posting reminders to take the medications in the patient's house d. Calling the patient weekly with a reminder to take the medication

ANS: B Because the patient with mild dementia will have difficulty with learning new skills and forgetfulness, the most appropriate nursing action is to have someone else administer the drug. The other nursing actions will not be as effective in ensuring that the patient takes the medications.

A 56-year-old patient in the outpatient clinic is diagnosed with mild cognitive impairment (MCI).Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Suggest a move into an assisted living facility. b. Schedule the patient for more frequent appointments. c. Ask family members to supervise the patient's daily activities. d. Discuss the preventive use of acetylcholinesterase medications.

ANS: B Ongoing monitoring is recommended for patients with MCI. MCI does not interfere with activities of daily living, acetylcholinesterase drugs are not used for MCI, and an assisted living facility is not indicated for MCI.

A patient who has severe Alzheimer's disease (AD) is being admitted to the hospital for surgery. Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Encourage the patient to discuss events from the past. b. Maintain a consistent daily routine for the patient's care. c. Reorient the patient to the date and time every 2 to 3 hours. d. Provide the patient with current newspapers and magazines.

ANS: B Providing a consistent routine will decrease anxiety and confusion for the patient. Reorientation to time and place will not be helpful to the patient with severe AD, and the patient will not be able to read. The patient with severe AD will probably not be able to remember events from the past.

Which action will help the nurse determine whether a new patient's confusion is caused by dementia or delirium? a. Administer the Mini-Mental Status Exam. b. Use the Confusion Assessment Method tool. c. Determine whether there is a family history of dementia. d. Obtain a list of the medications that the patient usually takes.

ANS: B The Confusion Assessment Method tool has been extensively tested in assessing delirium.

Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with moderate dementia who had an appendectomy 2 days ago? a. Provide complete personal hygiene care for the patient. b. Remind the patient frequently about being in the hospital. c. Reposition the patient frequently to avoid skin breakdown. d. Place suction at the bedside to decrease the risk for aspiration.

ANS: B The patient with moderate dementia will have problems with short- and long-term memory and will need reminding about the hospitalization. The other interventions would be used for a patient with severe dementia, who would have difficulty with swallowing, self-care, and immobility.

A patient who has severe Alzheimer's disease (AD) is being admitted to the hospital for surgery. Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Encourage the patient to discuss events from the past. b. Maintain a consistent daily routine for the patient's care. c. Reorient the patient to the date and time every 2 to 3 hours. d. Provide the patient with current newspapers and magazines.

ANS: B Providing a consistent routine will decrease anxiety and confusion for the patient.

Which nursing actions could the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) who is part of the team caring for a patient with Alzheimer's disease (select all that apply)? a. Develop a plan to minimize difficult behavior. b. Administer the prescribed memantine (Namenda). c. Remove potential safety hazards from the patient's environment. d. Refer the patient and caregivers to appropriate community resources. e. Help the patient and caregivers choose memory enhancement methods. f. Evaluate the effectiveness of the prescribed enteral feedings on patient nutrition.

ANS: B, C LPN/LVN education and scope of practice includes medication administration and monitoring for environmental safety in stable patients. Planning of interventions such as ways to manage behavior or improve memory, referrals, and evaluation of the effectiveness of interventions require registered nurse (RN)-level education and scope of practice.

The spouse of a 67-year-old male patient with early stage Alzheimer's disease (AD) tells the nurse, "I am exhausted from worrying all the time. I don't know what to do." Which actions are best for the nurse to take next (select all that apply)? a. Suggest that a long-term care facility be considered. b. Offer ideas for ways to distract or redirect the patient. c. Teach the spouse about adult day care as a possible respite. d. Suggest that the spouse consult with the physician for antianxiety drugs. e. Ask the spouse what she knows and has considered about dementia care options.

ANS: B, C, E The stress of being a caregiver can be managed with a multicomponent approach. This includes respite care, learning ways to manage challenging behaviors, and further assessment of what the spouse may already have considered for care options. The patient is in the early stages and does not need long-term placement. Antianxiety medications may be appropriate, but other measures should be tried first.

The nurse is administering a mental status examination to a 48-year-old patient who has hypertension. The nurse suspects depression when the patient responds to the nurse's questions with a. "Is that right?" b. "I don't know." c. "Wait, let me think about that." d. "Who are those people over there?"

ANS: B-"I don't know." Answers such as "I don't know" are more typical of depression than dementia. The response "Who are those people over there?" is more typical of the distraction seen in a patient with delirium. The remaining two answers are more typical of a patient with mild to moderate dementia.

Which nursing action will be most effective in ensuring daily medication compliance for a patient with mild dementia? a. Setting the medications up monthly in a medication box b. Having the patient's family member administer the medication c. Posting reminders to take the medications in the patient's house d. Calling the patient weekly with a reminder to take the medication

ANS: B-Having the patient's family member administer the medication Because the patient with mild dementia will have difficulty with learning new skills and forgetfulness, the most appropriate nursing action is to have someone else administer the drug.

Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with moderate dementia who had an appendectomy 2 days ago? a. Provide complete personal hygiene care for the patient. b. Remind the patient frequently about being in the hospital. c. Reposition the patient frequently to avoid skin breakdown. d. Place suction at the bedside to decrease the risk for aspiration.

ANS: B-Remind the patient frequently about being in the hospital. The patient with moderate dementia will have problems with short- and long-term memory and will need reminding about the hospitalization. The other interventions would be used for a patient with severe dementia, who would have difficulty with swallowing, self-care, and immobility.

A 56-year-old patient in the outpatient clinic is diagnosed with mild cognitive impairment (MCI).Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Suggest a move into an assisted living facility. b. Schedule the patient for more frequent appointments. c. Ask family members to supervise the patient's daily activities. d. Discuss the preventive use of acetylcholinesterase medications.

ANS: B-Schedule the patient for more frequent appointments

When administering a mental status examination to a patient with delirium, the nurse should a. wait until the patient is well-rested. b. administer an anxiolytic medication. c. choose a place without distracting stimuli. d. reorient the patient during the examination.

ANS: C Because overstimulation by environmental factors can distract the patient from the task of answering the nurse's questions, these stimuli should be avoided. The nurse will not wait to give the examination because action to correct the delirium should occur as soon as possible. Reorienting the patient is not appropriate during the examination. Antianxiety medications may increase the patient's delirium.

When administering the Mini-Cog exam to a patient with possible Alzheimer's disease, which action will the nurse take? a. Check the patient's orientation to time and date. b. Obtain a list of the patient's prescribed medications. c. Ask the person to use a clock drawing to indicate a specific time. d. Determine the patient's ability to recognize a common object such as a pen.

ANS: C In the Mini-Cog, patients illustrate a specific time stated by the examiner by drawing the time on a clock face. The other actions may be included in assessment for Alzheimer's disease, but are not part of the Mini-Cog exam.

The nurse's initial action for a patient with moderate dementia who develops increased restlessness and agitation should be to a. reorient the patient to time, place, and person. b. administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan). c. assess for factors that might be causing discomfort. d. assign unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to stay in the patient's room.

ANS: C Increased motor activity in a patient with dementia is frequently the patient's only way of responding to factors like pain, so the nurse's initial action should be to assess the patient for any precipitating factors. Administration of sedative drugs may be indicated, but this should not be done until assessment for precipitating factors has been completed and any of these factors have been addressed. Reorientation is unlikely to be helpful for the patient with moderate dementia. Assigning UAP to stay with the patient may also be necessary, but any physical changes that may be causing the agitation should be addressed first.

A 68-year-old patient is diagnosed with moderate dementia after multiple strokes. During assessment of the patient, the nurse would expect to find a. excessive nighttime sleepiness. b. difficulty eating and swallowing. c. loss of recent and long-term memory. d. fluctuating ability to perform simple tasks.

ANS: C Loss of both recent and long-term memory is characteristic of moderate dementia

A 68-year-old patient is diagnosed with moderate dementia after multiple strokes. During assessment of the patient, the nurse would expect to find a. excessive nighttime sleepiness. b. difficulty eating and swallowing. c. loss of recent and long-term memory. d. fluctuating ability to perform simple tasks.

ANS: C Loss of both recent and long-term memory is characteristic of moderate dementia. Patients with dementia have frequent nighttime awakening. Dementia is progressive, and the patient's ability to perform tasks would not have periods of improvement. Difficulty eating and swallowing is characteristic of severe dementia.

A 71-year-old patient with Alzheimer's disease (AD) who is being admitted to a long-term care facility has had several episodes of wandering away from home. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Reorient the patient several times daily. b. Have the family bring in familiar items. c. Place the patient in a room close to the nurses' station. d. Ask the patient why the wandering episodes have occurred.

ANS: C Patients at risk for problems with safety require close supervision. Placing the patient near the nurse's station will allow nursing staff to observe the patient more closely. The use of "why" questions can be frustrating for patients with AD because they are unable to understand clearly or verbalize the reason for wandering behaviors. Because of the patient's short-term memory loss, reorientation will not help prevent wandering behavior. Because the patient had wandering behavior at home, familiar objects will not prevent wandering.

A patient is being evaluated for Alzheimer's disease (AD). The nurse explains to the patient's adult children that a. the most important risk factor for AD is a family history of the disorder. b. new drugs have been shown to reverse AD dramatically in some patients. c. a diagnosis of AD is made only after other causes of dementia are ruled out. d. the presence of brain atrophy detected by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) will confirm the diagnosis of AD.

ANS: C The diagnosis of AD is usually one of exclusion. Age is the most important risk factor for development of AD

A patient is being evaluated for Alzheimer's disease (AD). The nurse explains to the patient's adult children that a. the most important risk factor for AD is a family history of the disorder. b. new drugs have been shown to reverse AD dramatically in some patients. c. a diagnosis of AD is made only after other causes of dementia are ruled out. d. the presence of brain atrophy detected by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) will confirm the diagnosis of AD.

ANS: C The diagnosis of AD is usually one of exclusion. Age is the most important risk factor for development of AD. Drugs may slow the deterioration but do not reverse the effects of AD. Brain atrophy is a common finding in AD, but it can occur in other diseases as well and does not confirm a diagnosis of AD.

Which hospitalized patient will the nurse assign to the room closest to the nurses' station? a. Patient with Alzheimer's disease who has long-term memory deficit b. Patient with vascular dementia who takes medications for depression c. Patient with new-onset confusion, restlessness, and irritability after surgery d. Patient with dementia who has an abnormal Mini-Mental State Examination

ANS: C This patient's history and clinical manifestations are consistent with delirium. The patient is at risk for safety problems and should be placed near the nurses' station for ongoing observation. The other patients have chronic symptoms that are consistent with their diagnoses but are not at immediate risk for safety issues.

A 71-year-old patient with Alzheimer's disease (AD) who is being admitted to a long-term care facility has had several episodes of wandering away from home. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Reorient the patient several times daily. b. Have the family bring in familiar items. c. Place the patient in a room close to the nurses' station. d. Ask the patient why the wandering episodes have occurred.

ANS: C-Place the patient in a room close to the nurses' station. Patients at risk for problems with safety require close supervision. Placing the patient near the nurse's station will allow nursing staff to observe the patient more closely

When administering a mental status examination to a patient with delirium, the nurse should a. wait until the patient is well-rested. b. administer an anxiolytic medication. c. choose a place without distracting stimuli. d. reorient the patient during the examination.

ANS: C-choose a place without distracting stimuli. Because overstimulation by environmental factors can distract the patient from the task of answering the nurse's questions, these stimuli should be avoided. The nurse will not wait to give the examination because action to correct the delirium should occur as soon as possible. Reorienting the patient is not appropriate during the examination. Antianxiety medications may increase the patient's delirium.

The nurse is concerned about a postoperative patient's risk for injury during an episode of delirium. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to a. secure the patient in bed using a soft chest restraint. b. ask the health care provider to order an antipsychotic drug. c. instruct family members to remain with the patient and prevent injury. d. assign unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to stay with the patient and offer reorientation.

ANS: D The priority goal is to protect the patient from harm. Having a UAP stay with the patient will ensure the patient's safety. Visits by family members are helpful in reorienting the patient, but families should not be responsible for protecting patients from injury. Antipsychotic medications may be ordered, but only if other measures are not effective because these medications have many side effects. Restraints are not recommended because they can increase the patient's agitation and disorientation.

A 72-year-old female patient is brought to the clinic by the patient's spouse, who reports that she is unable to solve common problems around the house. To obtain information about the patient's current mental status, which question should the nurse ask the patient? a. "Are you sad?" b. "How is your self-image?" c. "Where were you were born?" d. "What did you eat for breakfast?"

ANS: D This question tests the patient's short-term memory, which is decreased in the mild stage of Alzheimer's disease or dementia. Asking the patient about her birthplace tests for remote memory, which is intact in the early stages. Questions about the patient's emotions and self-image are helpful in assessing emotional status, but they are not as helpful in assessing mental state

A 72-year-old female patient is brought to the clinic by the patient's spouse, who reports that she is unable to solve common problems around the house. To obtain information about the patient's current mental status, which question should the nurse ask the patient? a. "Are you sad?" b. "How is your self-image?" c. "Where were you were born?" d. "What did you eat for breakfast?"

ANS: D-"What did you eat for breakfast?" This question tests the patient's short-term memory, which is decreased in the mild stage of Alzheimer's disease or dementia

The nurse is concerned about a postoperative patient's risk for injury during an episode of delirium. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to a. secure the patient in bed using a soft chest restraint. b. ask the health care provider to order an antipsychotic drug. c. instruct family members to remain with the patient and prevent injury. d. assign unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to stay with the patient and offer reorientation.

ANS: D-assign unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to stay with the patient and offer reorientation.

NCLEX review questions: Which patient may face the greatest risk of developing delirium? A) A patient with fibromyalgia whose chronic pain has recently worsened B) A patient with a fracture who has spent the night in the emergency department C) An older patient whose recent computed tomography (CT) shows brain atrophy D) An older patient who takes multiple medications to treat various health problems

D) An older patient who takes multiple medications to treat various health problems Rationale: Polypharmacy is implicated in many cases of delirium, and this phenomenon is especially common among older adults. Brain atrophy, if associated with cognitive changes, is indicative of dementia. Alterations in sleep and environment, as well as pain, may cause delirium, but this is less of a risk than in an older adult who takes multiple medications.

NCLEX review questions: A 59-year-old female patient, who has frontotemporal lobar degeneration, has difficulty with verbal expression. One day she walks out of the house and goes to the gas station to get a soda but does not understand that she needs to pay for it. What is the best thing the nurse can suggest to this patient's husband to keep the patient safe during the day while the husband is at work? A) Assisted living B) Adult day care C) Advance directives D) Monitor for behavioral changes

B) Adult day care Rationale: To keep this patient safe during the day while the husband is at work, an adult day care facility would be the best choice. This patient would not need assisted living. Advance directives are important but are not related to her safety. Monitoring for behavioral changes will not keep her safe during the day.

NCLEX review questions: When providing community health care teaching regarding the early warning signs of Alzheimer's disease, which signs should the nurse advise family members to report (select all that apply)? A) Misplacing car keys B) Losing sense of time C) Difficulty performing familiar tasks D) Problems with performing basic calculations E) Becoming lost in a usually familiar environment

B) Losing sense of time C) Difficulty performing familiar tasks D) Problems with performing basic calculations E) Becoming lost in a usually familiar environment Rationale: Difficulty performing familiar tasks, problems with performing basic calculations, losing sense of time, and becoming lost in a usually familiar environment are all part of the early warning signs of Alzheimer's disease. Misplacing car keys is a normal frustrating event for many people.

Pre-test practice questions: The nurse in the long-term care facility cares for a 70-year-old man with severe (late-stage) dementia who is undernourished and has problems chewing and swallowing. What should the nurse include in the plan of care for this patient? A) Turn on the television to provide a distraction during meals. B) Provide thickened fluids and moist foods in bite-size pieces. C) Limit fluid intake during scheduled meals to prevent aspiration. D) Allow the patient to select favorite foods from the menu choices.

B) Provide thickened fluids and moist foods in bite-size pieces. Rationale: If patients with dementia have problems chewing or swallowing, pureed foods, thickened liquids, and nutritional supplements should be provided. Foods that are easy to swallow are moist and should be in bite-size pieces. Distractions at mealtimes, including the television, should be avoided. Fluids should not be limited but offered frequently; fluids should be thickened. Patients with severe (late-stage) dementia have difficulty understanding words and would not have the cognitive ability to select menu choices.

Pre-test practice questions: Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) working for a home care agency report a change in the alertness and language of an 82-year-old female patient. The home care nurse plans a visit to evaluate the patient's cognitive function. Which assessment would be most appropriate? A) Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) B) Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) C) Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) D) National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS)

C) Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) Rationale: The MMSE is a commonly used tool to assess cognitive function. Cognitive testing is focused on evaluating memory, ability to calculate, language, visual-spatial skills, and degree of alertness. The CAM is used to assess for delirium. The GCS is used to assess the degree of impaired consciousness. The NIHSS is a neurologic examination stroke scale used to evaluate the effect of acute cerebral infarction on the levels of consciousness, language, neglect, visual field loss, extraocular movement, motor strength, ataxia, dysarthria, and sensory loss.

Pre-test practice questions: The home care nurse is visiting patients in the community. Which patient is exhibiting an early warning sign of Alzheimer's disease? A) A 65-year-old male does not recognize his family members and close friends. B) A 59-year-old female misplaces her purse and jokes about having memory loss. C) A 79-year-old male is incontinent and not able to perform hygiene independently. D) A 72-year-old female is unable to locate the address where she has lived for 10 years.

D) A 72-year-old female is unable to locate the address where she has lived for 10 years. Rationale: An early warning sign of Alzheimer's disease is disorientation to time and place such as geographic disorientation. Occasionally misplacing items and joking about memory loss are examples of normal forgetfulness. Impaired ability to recognize family and close friends is a clinical manifestation of middle or moderate dementia (or Alzheimer's disease). Incontinence and inability to perform self-care activities are clinical manifestations of severe or late dementia (or Alzheimer's disease).

What manifestations of cognitive impairment are primarily characteristic of delirium (select all that apply)? a. Reduced awareness b. Impaired judgments c. Words difficult to find d. Sleep/wake cycle reversed e. Distorted thinking and perception f. Insidious onset with prolonged duration

a, d, e. Manifestations of delirium include cognitive impairment with reduced awareness, reversed sleep/wake cycle, and distorted thinking and perception. The other options are characteristic of dementia.

Bridge to NCLEX questions: Which patient is most at risk for developing delirium? a. A 50-year-old woman with cholecystitis b. A 19-year-old man with a fractured femur c. A 42-year-old woman having an elective hysterectomy d. A 78-year-old man admitted to the medical unit with complications related to heart failure

d. A 78-year-old man admitted to the medical unit with complications related to heart failure Rationale: Risk factors that can precipitate delirium include age of 65 years or older, male gender, and severe acute illness (e.g., heart failure). The 78-year-old man has the most risk factors for delirium

11. A patient with mild dementia has a new prescription for donepezil (Aricept). Which nursing action will be most effective in ensuring compliance with the medication? a. Having the patient's spouse administer the medication b. Setting the medications up weekly in a medication box c. Calling the patient daily with a reminder to take the medication d. Posting reminders to take the medications in the patient's house

a. Having the patient's spouse administer the medication Because the patient with mild dementia will have difficulty with learning new skills and forgetfulness, the most appropriate nursing action is to have someone else administer the drug. The other nursing actions will not be as effective in ensuring that the patient takes the medications.

13. When assessing a patient with Alzheimer's disease (AD) who is being admitted to a long-term care facility, the nurse learns that the patient has had several episodes of wandering away from home. Which nursing action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Place the patient in a room close to the nurses' station. b. Ask the patient why the wandering episodes have occurred. c. Have the family bring in familiar items from the patient's home. d. Reorient the patient to the new living situation several times daily.

a. Place the patient in a room close to the nurses' station. Patients at risk for problems with safety require close supervision. Placing the patient near the nurse's station will allow nursing staff to observe the patient more closely. The use of "why" questions is frustrating for patients with AD because they are unable to understand clearly or verbalize the reason for wandering behaviors. Because of the patient's short-term memory loss, reorientation will not help prevent wandering behavior. Because the patient had wandering behavior at home, familiar objects will not prevent wandering.

1. A patient who is hospitalized with pneumonia is disoriented and confused 2 days after admission. Which information obtained by the nurse about the patient indicates that the patient is experiencing delirium rather than dementia? a. The patient was oriented and alert when admitted. b. The patient's speech is fragmented and incoherent. c. The patient is disoriented to place and time but oriented to person. d. The patient has a history of increasing confusion over several years.

a. The patient was oriented and alert when admitted. The onset of delirium occurs acutely. The degree of disorientation does not differentiate between delirium and dementia. Increasing confusion for several years is consistent with dementia. Fragmented and incoherent speech may occur with either delirium or dementia.

Bridge to NCLEX questions: A major goal of treatment for the patient with AD is to a. maintain patient safety. b. maintain or increase body weight. c. return to a higher level of self-care. d. enhance functional ability over time.

a. maintain patient safety. Rationale: The overall management goals are that the patient with AD will (1) maintain functional ability for as long as possible, (2) be maintained in a safe environment with a minimum of injuries, (3) have personal care needs met, and (4) have dignity maintained. The nurse should place emphasis on patient safety while planning and providing nursing care.

Bridge to NCLEX questions: Which statement(s) accurately describe(s) mild cognitive impairment (select all that apply)? a. Always progresses to AD b. Caused by variety of factors and may progress to AD c. Should be aggressively treated with acetylcholinesterase drugs d. Caused by vascular infarcts that, if treated, will delay progression to AD e. Patient is usually not aware that there is a problem with his or her memory

b. Caused by variety of factors and may progress to AD Rationale: Although some individuals with mild cognitive impairment (MCI) revert to normal cognitive function or do not go on to develop Alzheimer's disease (AD), those with MCI are at high risk for AD. No drugs have been approved for the treatment of MCI. A person with MCI is often aware of a significant change in memory.

The family caregiver for a patient with AD expresses an inability to make decisions, concentrate, or sleep. The nurse determines what about the caregiver? a. The caregiver is also developing signs of AD. b. The caregiver is manifesting symptoms of caregiver role strain. c. The caregiver needs a period of respite from care of the patient. d. The caregiver should ask other family members to participate in the patient's care.

b. Family caregiver role strain is characterized by such symptoms of stress as the inability to sleep, make decisions, or concentrate. It is frequently seen in family members who are responsible for the care of the patient with AD. Assessment of the caregiver may reveal a need for assistance to increase coping skills, effectively use community resources, or maintain social relationships. Eventually the demands on a caregiver exceed the resources and the person with AD may be placed in an institutional setting.

12. Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has late-stage Alzheimer's disease (AD)? a. Encourage the patient to discuss events from the past. b. Maintain a consistent daily routine for the patient's care. c. Reorient the patient to the date and time every 2 to 3 hours. d. Provide the patient with current newspapers and magazines.

b. Maintain a consistent daily routine for the patient's care. Providing a consistent routine will decrease anxiety and confusion for the patient. In late-stage AD, the patient will not remember events from the past. Reorientation to time and place will not be helpful to the patient with late-stage AD, and the patient will not be able to read.

1. The spouse of a male patient with early stage Alzheimer's disease (AD) tells the nurse, "I am just exhausted from the constant worry. I don't know what to do." Which action is best for the nurse to take next (select all that apply)? a. Suggest that a long-term care facility be considered. b. Offer ideas for ways to distract or redirect the patient. c. Suggest that the spouse consult with the physician for antianxiety drugs. d. Educate the spouse about the availability of adult day care as a respite. e. Ask the spouse what she knows and has considered about dementia care options.

b. Offer ideas for ways to distract or redirect the patient. d. Educate the spouse about the availability of adult day care as a respite. e. Ask the spouse what she knows and has considered about dementia care options. The stress of being a caregiver can be managed with a multicomponent approach. This includes respite care, learning ways to manage challenging behaviors, and further assessment of what the spouse may already have considered. The patient is in the early stages and does not need long-term placement. Antianxiety medications may be appropriate but other measures should be tried first.

2. When developing a plan of care for a hospitalized patient with moderate dementia, which intervention will the nurse include? a. Provide complete personal hygiene care for the patient. b. Remind the patient frequently about being in the hospital. c. Reposition the patient frequently to avoid skin breakdown. d. Place suction at the bedside to decrease the risk for aspiration.

b. Remind the patient frequently about being in the hospital. The patient with moderate dementia will have problems with short- and long-term memory and will need reminding about the hospitalization. The other interventions would be used for a patient with severe dementia, who would have difficulty with swallowing, self-care, and immobility.

5. Which action will the nurse in the outpatient clinic include in the plan of care for a patient with mild cognitive impairment (MCI)? a. Suggest a move into an assisted living facility. b. Schedule the patient for more frequent appointments. c. Ask family members to supervise the patient's daily activities. d. Discuss the preventive use of acetylcholinesterase medications.

b. Schedule the patient for more frequent appointments. Ongoing monitoring is recommended for patients with MCI. MCI does not interfere with activities of daily living, acetylcholinesterase drugs are not used for MCI, and an assisted living facility is not indicated for MCI.

Bridge to NCLEX questions: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is characterized by a. remissions and exacerbations over many years. b. memory impairment, muscle jerks, and blindness. c. parkinsonian symptoms, including muscle rigidity and tremors at rest. d. increased intracranial pressure secondary to decreased CSF drainage.

b. memory impairment, muscle jerks, and blindness. Rationale: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is a fatal brain disorder caused by a prion protein. The earliest symptom of the disease may be memory impairment and behavioral changes. The disease progresses rapidly, with mental deterioration, involuntary movements (i.e., muscle jerks), weakness in the limbs, blindness, and eventually coma

Bridge to NCLEX questions: The early stage of AD is characterized by a. no noticeable change in behavior. b. memory problems and mild confusion. c. increased time spent sleeping or in bed. d. incontinence, agitation, and wandering behavior.

b. memory problems and mild confusion. Rationale: An initial sign of AD is a subtle deterioration in memory.

9. A 62-year-old patient is brought to the clinic by a family member who is concerned about the patient's inability to solve common problems. To obtain information about the patient's current mental status, which question should the nurse ask the patient? a. "Where were you were born?" b. "Do you have any feelings of sadness?" c. "What did you have for breakfast?" d. "How positive is your self-image?"

c. "What did you have for breakfast?" This question tests the patient's recent memory, which is decreased early in Alzheimer's disease (AD) or dementia. Asking the patient about birthplace tests for remote memory, which is intact in the early stages. Questions about the patient's emotions and self-image are helpful in assessing emotional status, but they are not as helpful in assessing mental state.

The newly admitted patient has moderate AD. What does the nurse know this patient will need help with? a. Eating b. Walking c. Dressing d. Self-care activities

c. In the moderate stage of AD, the patient may need help with getting dressed. In the severe stage, patients will be unable to dress or feed themselves and are usually incontinent.

14. During the morning change-of-shift report at the long-term care facility, the nurse learns that the patient with dementia has had sundowning. Which nursing action should the nurse take while caring for the patient? a. Provide hourly orientation to time of day. b. Move the patient to a quieter room at night. c. Keep blinds open during the daytime hours. d. Have the patient take a brief mid-morning nap.

c. Keep blinds open during the daytime hours. The most likely cause of sundowning is a disruption in circadian rhythms and keeping the patient active and in daylight will help to reestablish a more normal circadian pattern. Moving the patient to a different room might increase confusion. Taking a nap will interfere with nighttime sleep. Hourly orientation will not be helpful in a patient with memory difficulties.

10. When teaching the children of a patient who is being evaluated for Alzheimer's disease (AD) about the disorder, the nurse explains that a. the most important risk factor for AD is a family history of the disorder. b. new drugs have been shown to reverse AD dramatically in some patients. c. a diagnosis of AD can be made only when other causes of dementia have been ruled out. d. the presence of brain atrophy detected by MRI confirms the diagnosis of AD in patients with dementia.

c. a diagnosis of AD can be made only when other causes of dementia have been ruled out. The diagnosis of AD is one of exclusion. Age is the most important risk factor for development of AD. Drugs can slow the deterioration but do not dramatically reverse the effects of AD. Brain atrophy is a common finding in AD, but it can occur in other diseases as well and does not confirm an AD diagnosis.

15. A long-term care patient with moderate dementia develops increased restlessness and agitation. The nurse's initial action should be to a. reorient the patient to time, place, and person. b. administer the PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan). c. assess for factors that might be causing discomfort. d. have a nursing assistant stay with the patient to ensure safety.

c. assess for factors that might be causing discomfort. Increased motor activity in a patient with dementia is frequently the patient's only way of responding to factors like pain, so the nurse's initial action should be to assess the patient for any precipitating factors. Administration of sedative drugs may be indicated, but this should not be done until assessment for precipitating factors has been completed and any of these factors have been addressed. Reorientation is unlikely to be helpful for the patient with moderate dementia. Assigning a nursing assistant to stay with the patient also may be necessary, but any physical changes that may be causing the agitation should be addressed first.

Bridge to NCLEX questions: Vascular dementia is associated with a. transient ischemic attacks. b. bacterial or viral infection of neuronal tissue. c. cognitive changes secondary to cerebral ischemia. d. abrupt changes in cognitive function that are irreversible.

c. cognitive changes secondary to cerebral ischemia. Rationale: Vascular dementia is the loss of cognitive function that results from ischemic, ischemic-hypoxic, or hemorrhagic brain lesions caused by cardiovascular disease. In this type of dementia, narrowing and blocking of arteries that supply the brain causes a decrease in blood supply.

8. To determine whether a new patient's confusion is caused by dementia or delirium, which action should the nurse take? a. Assess the patient using the Mini-Mental Status Exam. b. Obtain a list of the medications that the patient usually takes. c. Determine whether there is positive family history of dementia. d. Use the Confusion Assessment Method tool to assess the patient.

d. Use the Confusion Assessment Method tool to assess the patient. The Confusion Assessment Method tool has been extensively tested in assessing delirium. The other actions will be helpful in determining cognitive function or risk factors for dementia or delirium, but they will not be useful in differentiating between dementia and delirium.

4. To protect a patient from injury during an episode of delirium, the most appropriate action by the nurse is to a. secure the patient in bed using a soft chest restraint. b. ask the health care provider about ordering an antipsychotic drug. c. instruct family members to remain with the patient and prevent injury. d. assign a nursing assistant to stay with the patient and offer frequent reorientation.

d. assign a nursing assistant to stay with the patient and offer frequent reorientation. The priority goal is to protect the patient from harm, and a staff member will be most experienced in providing safe care. Visits by family members are helpful in reorienting the patient, but families should not be responsible for protecting patients from injury. Antipsychotic medications may be ordered, but only if other measures are not effective because these medications have multiple side effects. Restraints are sometimes used but tend to increase agitation and disorientation.

7. A 72-year-old patient is diagnosed with moderate dementia as a result of multiple strokes. During assessment of the patient, the nurse would expect to find a. excessive nighttime sleepiness. b. difficulty eating and swallowing. c. variable ability to perform simple tasks. d. loss of both recent and long-term memory.

d. loss of both recent and long-term memory. Loss of both recent and long-term memory is characteristic of moderate dementia. Patients with dementia have frequent nighttime awakening. Dementia is progressive, and the patient's ability to perform tasks would not have periods of improvement. Difficulty eating and swallowing is characteristic of severe dementia.

Bridge to NCLEX questions: The clinical diagnosis of dementia is based on a. CT or MRS. b. brain biopsy. c. electroencephalogram. d. patient history and cognitive assessment.

d. patient history and cognitive assessment. Rationale: The diagnosis of dementia depends on determining the cause. A thorough physical examination is performed to rule out other potential medical conditions. Cognitive testing (e.g., Mini-Mental State Examination) is focused on evaluating memory, ability to calculate, language, visual-spatial skills, and degree of alertness. Diagnosis of dementia related to vascular causes is based on the presence of cognitive loss, the presence of vascular brain lesions demonstrated by neuroimaging techniques, and the exclusion of other causes of dementia. Structural neuroimaging with computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is used in the evaluation of patients with dementia. A psychologic evaluation is also indicated to determine the presence of depression.

Bridge to NCLEX questions: Dementia is defined as a a. syndrome that results only in memory loss. b. disease associated with abrupt changes in behavior. c. disease that is always due to reduced blood flow to the brain. d. syndrome characterized by cognitive dysfunction and loss of memory.

d. syndrome characterized by cognitive dysfunction and loss of memory. Rationale: Dementia is a syndrome characterized by dysfunction in or loss of memory, orientation, attention, language, judgment, and reasoning. Personality changes and behavioral problems such as agitation, delusions, and hallucinations may result.

When a spasm in prinzmetal's angina what happens when the spasm occurs?

experiences angina and transient ST segment elevation