143 Mod 4 - HIV/AIDS (PRACTICE QUESTIONS)

A nurse is caring for a client with HIV who inquires about a CD4 level. The best response from the nurse would be: A) CD4 cells fight infection and the level is used to check the health of the immune system in people who are HIV positive. B) The CD4 level measures how much HIV is in a drop of blood. C) This level is the amount of specific genetic mutations that are known to cause resistance to certain drugs. D) This level is used to confirm HIV infection when the antibody screen test is positive.

A. CD4 cells (also known as T-cells or helper cells) are white blood cells that fight infection. Therapeutic range for CD4 level is between 500-1200 cells/mm3. When the CD4 level drops below 200 cells/mm3, this means that the virus has progressed into AIDS. The higher the CD4 count or level, the better the immunity is of the client. A CD4 count of less than 200 cells/mm3 causes the client to become vulnerable to opportunistic infections and the client is diagnosed with AIDS.

A client with HIV will be started on a medication regimen of three medications. What class of drugs will the nurse instruct the client about? A. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors B. Hydroxyurea C. Anticholinergics D. Disinhibitors

A. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors are drugs that interfere with the virus' ability to make a genetic blueprint. A protease inhibitor is a drug that inhibits the ability of virus particles to leave the host cell. The integrase inhibitors are a class of drug that prevents the incorporation of viral DNA into the host cell's DNA. Hydroxyurea is a drug that is used as an adjunct therapy that tries to halt the progression of AIDS.

In regards to HIV education, which is the most important objective for the nurse? A) Prevention B) Interventions against opportunistic infection C) Treatment regimen compliance D) Determine at-risk behaviors

A. The primary goal is preventing the spread of the virus since there is no cure and it can be transmitted at all stages. The ways to prevent transmission of HIV are straightforward. Utilizing safe sex practices with use of condoms or through abstinence is the most effective way to prevent the spread. Ensuring universal precautions are in effect while working as a healthcare worker is another way to prevent contracting HIV. Another means of prevention of HIV is staying sober-minded not to participate in risky drug use behavior. The Centers for Disease Control (CDC) mentions HIV testing and preexposure prophylaxis as well.

A public health nurse is preparing an educational campaign to address a recent local increase in the incidence of HIV infection. The nurse should prioritize what intervention? A. Educational programs that focus on control and prevention B. Lifestyle actions that improve immune function C. Appropriate use of standard precautions D. Screening programs for youth and young adults

A. Until an effective vaccine is developed, preventing HIV by eliminating and reducing risk behaviors is essential. Educational interventions are the primary means by which behaviors can be influenced. Screening is appropriate, but education is paramount. Enhancing immune function does not prevent HIV infection. Ineffective use of standard precautions applies to very few cases of HIV infection.

What test will the nurse assess to determine the client's response to antiretroviral therapy? A. Viral load B. Complete blood count C. Enzyme immunoassay D. Western blotting

A. Viral load should be measured at baseline and on a regular basis thereafter because viral load is the most important indicator of response to ART. The other tests are not used in this way.

A nurse is planning the care of a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who is admitted to the unit with Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP). Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for this client? A. Ineffective airway clearance B. Impaired oral mucous membranes C. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements D. Activity intolerance

ANS: A Rationale: Although all these nursing diagnoses are appropriate for a client with AIDS, Ineffective Airway Clearance is the priority nursing diagnosis for the client with PCP. Airway and breathing take top priority over the other listed concerns because of the immediacy of the health consequences.

A home health nurse is caring for a client who has an immunodeficiency. What is the nurse's priority action to help ensure successful outcomes and a favorable prognosis? A. Encourage the client and family to be active partners in the management of the immunodeficiency. B. Encourage the client and family to manage the client's activity level and activities of daily living effectively. C. Make sure that the client and family understand the importance of monitoring fluid balance. D. Make sure that the client and family know how to adjust dosages of the medications used in treatment.

ANS: A Rationale: Encouraging the client and family to be active partners in the management of the immunodeficiency is the key to successful outcomes and a favorable prognosis. This transcends the client's activity and functional status. Medications should not be adjusted without consultation from the primary provider. Fluid balance is not normally a central concern.

Since the emergence of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), there have been significant changes in epidemiologic trends. At present, members of which group are most affected by new cases of HIV? A. Male-to-male sexual contact B. Heterosexual contact C. Male-to-male sexual contact with injection drug use D. People 25 to 29 years of age

ANS: A Rationale: In the United States from 2012 to 2016, male-to-male sexual contact accounted for approximately 67% of new cases, male-to-male contact with injection use 3%, heterosexual contact 24%, and people 25 to 29 years of age 32.9%.

A nurse is assessing the skin integrity of a client who has AIDS. When performing this inspection, the nurse should prioritize assessment of what skin surfaces? A. Perianal region and oral mucosa B. Sacral region and lower abdomen C. Scalp and skin over the scapulae D. Axillae and upper thorax

ANS: A Rationale: The nurse should inspect all the client's skin surfaces and mucous membranes, but the oral mucosa and perianal region are particularly vulnerable to skin breakdown and fungal infection.

A nurse is performing the admission assessment of a client who has AIDS. What components should the nurse include in this comprehensive assessment? Select all that apply. A. Current medication regimen B. Identification of client's support system C. Immune system function D. Genetic risk factors for HIV E. History of sexual practices

ANS: A, B, C, E Rationale: Nursing assessment includes numerous focuses, including identification of medication use, support system, immune function, and sexual history. HIV does not have a genetic component.

A health care provider is taking post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) medications for exposure to a client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which topics will the health care provider need to understand regarding PEP administration prior to beginning this regimen? Select all that apply. A. Potential drug toxicities B. Needed dietary changes C. Potential drug interactions D. Sleep pattern disturbances E. Adherence requirements

ANS: A, C, E Rationale: The health care provider will need to understand potential drug toxicities, such as rashes and hypersensitivity reactions, which could imitate acute HIV seroconversion and require monitoring. The health care provider will also need to understand potential drug interactions, such as with supplements and vitamins, which could change the effectiveness of PEP. The health care provider will also need to understand adherence requirements, as adherence to the daily use of the PEP is paramount to its effectiveness. Typically, for most of PEP, there are no specific dietary changes needed. Sleep pattern disturbances generally do not happen with administration of these medications.

A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client with stage 3 human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). After assessing the client's gastrointestinal system and analyzing the data, which nursing diagnosis is most likely to be the priority? A. Acute abdominal pain B. Diarrhea C. Bowel incontinence D. Constipation

ANS: B Rationale: Diarrhea is a problem in many clients with HIV and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. As such, this nursing diagnosis is more likely than abdominal pain, incontinence, or constipation, though none of these diagnoses is guaranteed not to apply.

A nurse is assessing a client with HIV who has been admitted with pneumonia. In assessing the client, which of the following observations takes immediate priority? A. Oral temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) B. Tachypnea and restlessness C. Frequent loose stools D. Weight loss of 0.45 kg (1 lb) since yesterday

ANS: B Rationale: In prioritizing care, tachypnea and restlessness are symptoms of altered respiratory status and need immediate priority. Weight loss of 1 lb is probably fluid related; frequent loose stools would not take short-term precedence over a temperature or tachypnea and restlessness. An oral temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) is not considered a fever and would not be the first issue addressed.

A client with HIV will be receiving care in the home setting. What aspect of self-care should the nurse emphasize during discharge education? A. Appropriate use of prophylactic antibiotics B. Importance of personal hygiene C. Signs and symptoms of wasting syndrome D. Strategies for adjusting antiretroviral dosages

ANS: B Rationale: Infection control is of high importance in clients living with HIV, thus personal hygiene is paramount. This is a more important topic than signs and symptoms of one specific complication (wasting syndrome). Drug dosages should never be independently adjusted. Prophylactic antibiotics are not normally prescribed unless the client's CD4+ count is below 50.

A client who has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has been admitted for the treatment of Kaposi sarcoma. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse associate with this complication of AIDS? A. Risk for disuse syndrome related to Kaposi sarcoma B. Impaired skin integrity related to Kaposi sarcoma C. Diarrhea related to Kaposi sarcoma D. Impaired swallowing related to Kaposi sarcoma

ANS: B Rationale: Kaposi sarcoma is a type of cancer caused by human herpesvirus-8 that involves the epithelial layer of blood and lymphatic vessels. It exhibits a variable and aggressive course, ranging from localized cutaneous lesions to disseminated disease involving multiple organ systems. Cutaneous signs, which may be the first manifestation of HIV, can appear anywhere on the body and are usually brownish pink to deep purple. They may be flat or raised and surrounded by ecchymosis (hemorrhagic patches) and edema. This malignancy does not directly affect swallowing or bowel motility and it does not constitute a risk for disuse syndrome.

A client is in the primary infection stage of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which statement regarding this client's current health status is most accurate? A. The client's HIV antibodies are successfully, but temporarily, killing the virus. B. The client is infected with HIV but lacks HIV-specific antibodies. C. The client's risk for opportunistic infections is at its peak. D. The client may or may not develop long-standing HIV infection.

ANS: B Rationale: The period from infection with HIV to the development of HIV-specific antibodies is known as primary infection. The virus is not being eradicated and infection is certain. Opportunistic infections emerge much later in the course of the disease.

A nurse is working with a client who was diagnosed with HIV several months earlier. This client will be considered to have AIDS when the CD4+ T-lymphocyte cell count drops below what threshold? A. 75 cells/mm3 of blood B. 200 cells/mm3 of blood C. 325 cells/mm3 of blood D. 450 cells/mm3 of blood

ANS: B Rationale: When CD4+ T-cell levels drop below 200 cells/mm3 of blood, the person is said to have AIDS.

A nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with AIDS. A friend comes to visit the client and privately asks the nurse about the risk of contracting HIV when visiting the client. What is the nurse's best response? A. Do you think that you might already have HIV? B. Your immune system is likely very healthy. C. AIDS isn't transmitted by casual contact. D. You can't normally contract AIDS in a hospital setting.

ANS: C Rationale: AIDS is commonly transmitted by contact with blood and body fluids. Clients, family, and friends must be reassured that HIV is not spread through casual contact. A healthy immune system is not necessarily a protection against HIV. A hospital setting does not necessarily preclude HIV infection.

A nurse caring for a client who has an immunosuppressive disorder knows that continual monitoring of the client is critical. What is the primary rationale behind the need for continual monitoring? A. So that the client's functional needs can be met immediately B. So that medications can be given as prescribed and signs of adverse reactions noted C. So that early signs of impending infection can be detected and treated D. So that the nurse's documentation can be thorough and accurate

ANS: C Rationale: Continual monitoring of the client's condition is critical, so that early signs of impending infection may be detected and treated before they seriously compromise the client's status. Continual monitoring is not primarily motivated by the client's functional needs or medication schedule. The nurse's documentation is important, but less so than infection control.

A client underwent an antibody test for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) as part of a screening process and has just been told that the results were positive. Which anticipatory guidance regarding the next step should the nurse provide to the client? A. The client will be started on fluoxetine in 1 month. B. Antiretroviral therapy will begin within 3 months. C. Follow-up testing will be promptly performed to confirm the result. D. The client will be monitored for signs and symptoms of HIV to determine the need for treatment.

ANS: C Rationale: Follow-up testing is performed if the initial test result is positive to ensure a correct diagnosis. These tests include antibody differentiation tests, which distinguish HIV-1 from antibodies, and HIV-1 nucleic acid tests, which look for the virus RNA directly. Antiretroviral therapy may be needed, but the next step would be to confirm the diagnosis. Fluoxetine, an antidepressant, would be prescribed if the client developed severe depression, which is not evident in this scenario. The client would not simply be monitored for signs and symptoms of HIV to determine treatment; the client would undergo follow-up testing to determine the need for treatment.

A client has a diagnosis of AIDS complicated by chronic diarrhea. What nursing intervention would be appropriate? A. Position the client in the high Fowler position whenever possible. B. Temporarily eliminate animal protein from the client's diet. C. Make sure the client eats at least two servings of raw fruit each day. D. Obtain a stool culture to identify possible pathogens.

ANS: D Rationale: A stool culture should be obtained to determine the possible presence of microorganisms that cause diarrhea. Clients should generally avoid raw fruit when having diarrhea. There is no need to avoid animal protein or increase the height of the bed.

An 18-year-old client who is pregnant has tested positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and asks the nurse if her baby is going to be born with HIV. Which response by the nurse is the best? A. Your baby has a one in four chance of being born with HIV. B. Your health care provider is likely the best one to answer that question. C. If the baby is HIV-positive, we can't do anything until after the birth, so try not to worry. D. Your baby could contract HIV before, during, or after delivery.

ANS: D Rationale: Mother-to-child transmission of HIV-1 is possible and may occur in utero, at the time of delivery, or through breastfeeding. There is no evidence that the infant's risk is 25%. Deferral to the health care provider is not a substitute for responding appropriately to the client's concern. Downplaying the client's concerns is inappropriate.

A client has come into the free clinic asking to be tested for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. The client asks the nurse how the test works. The nurse responds that if the testing shows that antibodies to the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) virus are present in the blood, this indicates that the client has which of the following? A. Immunity to HIV B. An intact immune system C. An AIDS-related complication D. An HIV infection

ANS: D Rationale: Positive test results indicate that antibodies to the AIDS virus are present in the blood. The presence of antibodies does not imply an intact immune system or specific immunity to HIV. This finding does not indicate the presence of AIDS-related complications.

During a code blue, a nurse sustained a needlestick injury from a client whose human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) status was unknown. The nursing supervisor is notified, an incident report is generated, and a post-HIV exposure prophylaxis checklist is started for this nurse. In which order would the checklist be implemented? A. Administer post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) medication. B. Advise exposed health care providers to use precautions. C. Get counseling at the time of exposure. D. Undergo early reevaluation after exposure. E. Determine the HIV status of the client.

ANS: E, C, B, A, D Rationale : It is important to determine the client's HIV status through rapid testing (if possible) to help guide the appropriate use of PEP medications (as needed). The nurse should receive counseling at the time of exposure. Part of that counseling is to advise the nurse (health care provider) to use precautions (barrier conception, avoid blood donation, pregnancy and breastfeeding) to prevent secondary transmission. PEP medication (if needed) then is given. And the nurse (in this case) is recommended to undergo early reevaluation within 72 hours after exposure.

The nurse is assessing a patient for altered immunocompetence. Which findings would indicate that the patient is at risk for developing an immunocompetence-associated illness? Select all that apply. 1. Slow wound healing and easy bruising 2. Bursitis and muscle cramps 3. Heart palpitations 4. Heartburn and increased flatus 5. Mouth sores and oral patches

Answer: 1, 5 Explanation: 1. Assessment data that could indicate an immunocompetence-associated illness includes slow wound healing and easy bruising. 2. Bursitis and muscle cramps have little association with altered immunocompetence. 3. Heart palpitations have little association with altered immunocompetence. 4. Heartburn and increased flatus are not associated with altered immunocompetence. 5. Mouth sores and oral patches are related to immunocompetence.

A patient infected with HIV is being monitored for the development of AIDS. Which characteristics would the nurse monitor? Select all that apply. 1. White blood count 2. CD4+ T-cell count 3. Presence of recurrent E. coli urinary tract infection 4. Presence of Pneumocystis jiroveci (PJP) infection 5. Presence of cytomegalovirus (CMV)

Answer: 2, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. White blood count does not indicate whether or not AIDS has developed. 2. An HIV-seropositive patients CD4+ T-cell count is monitored. If this count is less than 200 cells/mL, a diagnosis of AIDS is made. 3. E. coli urinary tract infections are not associated with AIDS. 4. PJP is an AIDS-defining illness. 5. CMV is an AIDS-defining illness

The nurse is instructing a patient with a compromised immune status on the signs and symptoms of infections. What should be included in these instructions? 1. Increased sputum production 2. Cloudy urine 3. Irritated oral mucosa 4. Purulent wound drainage

Answer: 3 Explanation: 1. The immunocompromised patient will not demonstrate a normal immune response, so clinical findings will be different. These patients will not be able to form pus, so common infection findings such as increased sputum production will not occur. 2. Cloudy urine occurs because of pus. The immunocompromised patient will not demonstrate a normal immune response and may not be able to produce pus. 3. Monitoring for infection should focus on the mucous membranes, skin, and lungs, which are the most common sites of infection in this patient population. The nurse should instruct the patient to suspect irritated oral mucosa as a sign of infection. 4. Purulent wound drainage is due to the production of pus. The immunocompromised patient may not be able to mount an immune response that will produce pus.

A female patient is concerned after learning that a person with whom she had a casual sexual encounter has been diagnosed as being HIV positive. Which other patient statement would the nurse evaluate as significant? 1. I have not felt bad since the possible exposure. 2. We were only together for about a week and had sex 3 or 4 times. 3. I did have a cold and sore throat last week, but it has cleared up without problems. 4. I had a normal period just a few days after we broke up.

Answer: 3 Explanation: 1. There is a clinical latency period or asymptomatic stage that is generally present at the beginning of infection. The fact that the patient has not been symptomatic is not significant. 2. The number of exposures is not significant in that infection can occur with one exposure. 3. Within about 2 to 4 weeks after exposure to the virus, a transient flu-like or mononucleosis-like disease may occur. 4. The presence of normal menses does not decrease the risk of infection.

The nurse is talking with a group of teens about transmission of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). What body fluids does the nurse inform them will transmit the virus? Select all that apply. A. urine B. semen C. vaginal secretions D. blood E. breast milk

B, C, D, E. There are only four known body fluids through which HIV is transmitted: blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and breast milk. HIV may be present in saliva, tears, and conjunctival secretions, but transmission of HIV through these fluids has not been implicated. HIV is not found in urine, stool, vomit, or sweat.

Which of the following indicates that a client with HIV has developed AIDS? A. Weight loss of 10 lb over 3 months B. Herpes simplex ulcer persisting for 2 months C. Severe fatigue at night D. Pain on standing and walking

B. A diagnosis of AIDS cannot be made until the person with HIV meets case criteria established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. The immune system becomes compromised. The CD4 T-cell count drops below 200 cells and develops one of the opportunistic diseases, such as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, candidiasis, cytomegalovirus, or herpes simplex.

The nurse practitioner who is monitoring the patient's progression of HIV is aware that the most debilitating gastrointestinal condition found in up to 90% of all AIDS patients is: A. Anorexia. B. Chronic diarrhea. C. Nausea and vomiting. D. Oral candida.

B. Chronic diarrhea is believed related to the direct effect of HIV on cells lining the intestine. Although all gastrointestinal manifestations of AIDS can be debilitating, the most devastating is chronic diarrhea. It can cause profound weight loss and severe fluid and electrolyte imbalances.

Which client is at highest risk for contracting HIV? A) An ER nurse working in a Level I trauma center B) An individual struggling with IV drug use C) A couple in a monogamous relationship D) The fetus of a mother who is HIV positive

B. HIV is a virus that attacks the immune system and can be transmitted at all stages. There is no cure for HIV. Blood and semen pose the highest risk of transmission. This can include drug use and/or high risk sexual behavior. Vaginal secretions, breast milk, amniotic fluid, and saliva carries the lowest risk for HIV transmission.

A nurse is implementing appropriate infection control precautions for a client who is positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The nurse knows which body fluid is not a means of transmission? A. Semen B. Urine C. Breast milk D. Blood

B. HIV is transmitted in body fluids that contain free virions and infected CD4+ T cells. These fluids include blood, seminal fluid, vaginal secretions, amniotic fluid, and breast milk. Urine is not a body fluid responsible for HIV transmission.

The nurse completes a history and physical assessment on a client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) who was admitted to the hospital with respiratory complications. The nurse knows to assess for what common infection (80% occurrence) in persons with AIDS? A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Pneumocystis pneumonia C. Cytomegalovirus D. Legionnaires disease

B. Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) is one of the first and most common opportunistic infections associated with AIDS. It may be present despite the absence of crackles. If untreated, PCP progresses to cause significant pulmonary impairment and respiratory failure.

A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) comes to the clinic reporting difficulty swallowing. The client says, It hurts so much when I swallow. Inspection reveals creamy white patches in the client's mouth. What will the nurse suspect? A. Wasting syndrome B. Candidiasis C. Clostridium difficile diarrhea D. Cryptococcus neoformans

B. The client's complaints and physical examination suggest oral candidiasis. Wasting syndrome involves involuntary weight loss greater than 10% of the client's baseline body weight and either chronic diarrhea for more than 10 days or chronic weakness and documented intermittent or constant fever in the absence of any concurrent illness that could explain these findings. Cryptococcus neoformans is a fungal infection that affects the neurologic system. Clostridium difficile is a common cause of chronic diarrhea in clients with AIDS.

When assisting the patient to interpret a negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the patient that the results mean which of the following? A. He is immune to HIV. B. He has not been infected with HIV. C. Antibodies to HIV are not present in his blood. D. Antibodies to HIV are present in his blood.

C. A negative test result indicates that antibodies to HIV are not present in the blood at the time the blood sample for the test is drawn. A negative test result should be interpreted as demonstrating that if infected, the body has not produced antibodies (which take from 3 weeks to 6 months or longer). Therefore, subsequent testing of an at-risk patient must be encouraged. The test result does not mean that the patient is immune to the virus, nor does it mean that the patient is not infected. It just means that the body may not have produced antibodies yet. When antibodies to HIV are detected in the blood, the test is interpreted as positive.

Kaposi sarcoma (KS) is diagnosed through A. visual assessment. B. computed tomography. C. biopsy. D. skin scraping.

C. KS is diagnosed through biopsy of the suspected lesions. Visual assessment will not confirm a diagnosis. A computed tomography scan will not assist in determining skin cell changes. Skin scraping is a procedure to collect cells, not to evaluate cells.

During a routine checkup, a nurse assesses a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for signs and symptoms of cancer. What is the most common AIDS-related cancer? A. Multiple myeloma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Kaposi's sarcoma D. Leukemia

C. The CD4 count is the major indicator of immune function. Antiretroviral therapy in HIV targets different stages of the HIV life cycle. Therapy does not prevent opportunistic infections. Medication therapy is effective, and most clients respond well to it.

Which statement best explains the goal of HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy) when used for HIV/AIDS? A) The goal of HAART is to decrease the viral load by restricting CD4 cells B) The purpose of HAART is to activate immune cells that kill infected cells and result in viral replication (that is CD8 cells or cytotoxic cells.) C) The goal of HAART is to halt the replication of the virus to prohibit the increase in viral load (CD4 cells produce cytokines). D) HAART is used to treat HIV by destroying the cells in the body, the good with the bad, in order to keep the virus from spreading within.

C. The goal of HAART is to decrease the viral load by stopping the virus from replicating. HAART utilizes several different classes of drugs that prevent the virus from entering the body's CD4 cells. It also disables the proteins required for the virus to replicate. This results in decreasing the viral load and restoring the CD4 level to help immune function. HAART therapy reduces the complications from HIV, as well as transmissions to others.

The nurse is teaching the client with HIV about therapy. Which elements are essential for the nurse to include in the teaching plan? Select all that apply. A. Clients rarely respond to medication therapy. B. The goal of antiretroviral therapy is to prevent opportunistic infections. C. Medication therapy is rarely effective. D. The CD4 count is the major indicator of immune function and guides therapy. E. Antiretroviral therapy targets different stages of the HIV life cycle.

D, E. The CD4 count is the major indicator of immune function. Antiretroviral therapy in HIV targets different stages of the HIV life cycle. Therapy does not prevent opportunistic infections. Medication therapy is effective, and most clients respond well to it.

The nurse teaches the client that reducing the viral load will have what effect? A. Shorter time to AIDS diagnosis B. Longer immunity C. Shorter survival D. Longer survival

D. The lower the client's viral load, the longer the survival time and the longer the time to AIDS diagnosis.

A client is infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) after sharing needles with another intravenous (IV) drug abuser. Upon infection with HIV, the immune system responds by making antibodies against the virus, usually within how many weeks after infection? A. 6 to 18 weeks B. 1 to 2 weeks C. 3 to 6 weeks D. 3 to 12 weeks

D. When a person is infected with HIV, the immune system responds by producing antibodies against the virus, usually within 3 to 12 weeks after infection.