18, 19, 21
Antiviral drugs that have become useful are usually associated with which of the following properties? A) ability to remove all viruses from the infected host B) interference with viral replication C) prevention of the host from becoming infected D) removal of viral proteins E) removal of viral mRNAs
B) interference with viral replication
A bacterium is infected with an experimentally constructed bacteriophage composed of the T2 phage protein coat and T4 phage DNA. The new phages produced would have A) T2 protein and T4 DNA. B) T2 protein and T2 DNA. C) a mixture of the DNA and proteins of both phages. D) T4 protein and T4 DNA. E) T4 protein and T2 DNA.
D) T4 protein and T4 DNA.
Which of the following is most closely identical to the formation of twins? A) cell cloning B) therapeutic cloning C) use of adult stem cells D) embryo transfer E) organismal cloning
E) organismal cloning
Which viruses have single-stranded RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis? A) lytic phages B) proviruses C) viroids D) bacteriophages E) retroviruses
E) retroviruses
Which of the following mechanisms is (are) used to coordinate the expression of multiple, related genes in eukaryotic cells? A) Genes are organized into clusters, with local chromatin structures influencing the expression of all the genes at once. B) The genes share a common intragenic sequence, and allow several activators to turn on their transcription, regardless of location. C) The genes are organized into large operons, allowing them to be transcribed as a single unit. D) A single repressor is able to turn off several related genes. E) Environmental signals enter the cell and bind directly to promoters.
A) Genes are organized into clusters, with local chromatin structures influencing the expression of all the genes at once.
Which of the following is characteristic of the product of the p53 gene? A) It is an activator for other genes. B) It speeds up the cell cycle. C) It causes cell death via apoptosis. D) It allows cells to pass on mutations due to DNA damage. E) It slows down the rate of DNA replication by interfering with the binding of DNA polymerase.
A) It is an activator for other genes.
The phenomenon in which RNA molecules in a cell are destroyed if they have a sequence complementary to an introduced double-stranded RNA is called A) RNA interference. B) RNA obstruction. C) RNA blocking. D) RNA targeting. E) RNA disposal.
A) RNA interference.
Which of the following is most likely to have a small protein called ubiquitin attached to it? A) a cyclin that usually acts in G₁, now that the cell is in G₂ B) a cell surface protein that requires transport from the ER C) an mRNA that is leaving the nucleus to be translated D) a regulatory protein that requires sugar residues to be attached E) an mRNA produced by an egg cell that will be retained until after fertilization
A) a cyclin that usually acts in G₁, now that the cell is in G₂
Which of the following best describes siRNA? A) a short double-stranded RNA, one of whose strands can complement and inactivate a sequence of mRNA B) a single-stranded RNA that can, where it has internal complementary base pairs, fold into cloverleaf patterns C) a double-stranded RNA that is formed by cleavage of hairpin loops in a larger precursor D) a portion of rRNA that allows it to bind to several ribosomal proteins in forming large or small subunits E) a molecule, known as Dicer, that can degrade other mRNA sequences
A) a short double-stranded RNA, one of whose strands can complement and inactivate a sequence of mRNA
Which of the following is the best predictor of how much damage a virus causes? A) ability of the infected cell to undergo normal cell division B) ability of the infected cell to carry on translation C) whether the infected cell produces viral protein D) whether the viral mRNA can be transcribed E) how much toxin the virus produces
A) ability of the infected cell to undergo normal cell division
A mutation that inactivates the regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an E. coli cell would result in A) continuous transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator. B) complete inhibition of transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator. C) irreversible binding of the repressor to the operator. D) inactivation of RNA polymerase by alteration of its active site. E) continuous translation of the mRNA because of alteration of its structure.
A) continuous transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator.
Most repressor proteins are allosteric. Which of the following binds with the repressor to alter its conformation? A) inducer B) promoter C) RNA polymerase D) transcription factor E) cAMP
A) inducer
Most human-infecting viruses are maintained in the human population only. However, a zoonosis is a disease that is transmitted from other vertebrates to humans, at least sporadically, without requiring viral mutation. Which of the following is the best example of a zoonosis? A) rabies B) herpesvirus C) smallpox D) HIV E) hepatitis virus
A) rabies
The difference between vertical and horizontal transmission of plant viruses is that A) vertical transmission is transmission of a virus from a parent plant to its progeny, and horizontal transmission is one plant spreading the virus to another plant. B) vertical transmission is the spread of viruses from upper leaves to lower leaves of the plant, and horizontal transmission is the spread of a virus among leaves at the same general level. C) vertical transmission is the spread of viruses from trees and tall plants to bushes and other smaller plants, and horizontal transmission is the spread of viruses among plants of similar size. D) vertical transmission is the transfer of DNA from one type of plant virus to another, and horizontal transmission is the exchange of DNA between two plant viruses of the same type. E) vertical transmission is the transfer of DNA from a plant of one species to a plant of a different species, and horizontal transmission is the spread of viruses among plants of the same species.
A) vertical transmission is transmission of a virus from a parent plant to its progeny, and horizontal transmission is one plant spreading the virus to another plant.
Allolactose, an isomer of lactose, is formed in small amounts from lactose. An E. coli cell is presented for the first time with the sugar lactose (containing allolactose) as a potential food source. Which of the following occurs when the lactose enters the cell? A) The repressor protein attaches to the regulator. B) Allolactose binds to the repressor protein. C) Allolactose binds to the regulator gene. D) The repressor protein and allolactose bind to RNA polymerase. E) RNA polymerase attaches to the regulator.
B) Allolactose binds to the repressor protein.
Reproductive cloning of human embryos is generally considered unethical. However, on the subject of therapeutic cloning there is a wider divergence of opinion. Which of the following is a likely explanation? A) Use of adult stem cells is likely to produce more cell types than use of embryonic stem cells. B) Cloning to produce embryonic stem cells may lead to great medical benefits for many. C) Cloning to produce stem cells relies on a different initial procedure than reproductive cloning. D) A clone that lives until the blastocyst stage does not yet have human DNA. E) No embryos would be destroyed in the process of therapeutic cloning.
B) Cloning to produce embryonic stem cells may lead to great medical benefits for many.
What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses? A) It hydrolyzes the host cell's DNA. B) It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis. C) It converts host cell RNA into viral DNA. D) It translates viral RNA into proteins. E) It uses viral RNA as a template for making complementary RNA strands.
B) It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis.
Why do RNA viruses appear to have higher rates of mutation? A) RNA nucleotides are more unstable than DNA nucleotides. B) Replication of their genomes does not involve proofreading. C) RNA viruses replicate faster. D) RNA viruses can incorporate a variety of nonstandard bases. E) RNA viruses are more sensitive to mutagens.
B) Replication of their genomes does not involve proofreading.
Which of the following describes plant virus infections? A) They can be controlled by the use of antibiotics. B) They are spread via the plasmodesmata. C) They have little effect on plant growth. D) They are seldom spread by insects. E) They can never be passed vertically.
B) They are spread via the plasmodesmata.
Which of the following represents a difference between viruses and viroids? A) Viruses infect many types of cells, whereas viroids infect only prokaryotic cells. B) Viruses have capsids composed of protein, whereas viroids have no capsids. C) Viruses contain introns, whereas viroids have only exons. D) Viruses always have genomes composed of DNA, whereas viroids always have genomes composed of RNA. E) Viruses cannot pass through plasmodesmata, whereas viroids can.
B) Viruses have capsids composed of protein, whereas viroids have no capsids.
In response to chemical signals, prokaryotes can do which of the following? A) turn off translation of their mRNA B) alter the level of production of various enzymes C) increase the number and responsiveness of their ribosomes D) inactivate their mRNA molecules E) alter the sequence of amino acids in certain proteins
B) alter the level of production of various enzymes
Viral envelopes can best be analyzed with which of the following techniques? A) transmission electron microscopy B) antibodies against specific proteins not found in the host membranes C) staining and visualization with the light microscope D) use of plaque assays for quantitative measurement of viral titer E) immunofluorescent tagging of capsid proteins
B) antibodies against specific proteins not found in the host membranes
In eukaryotes, general transcription factors A) are required for the expression of specific protein-encoding genes. B) bind to other proteins or to a sequence element within the promoter called the TATA box. C) inhibit RNA polymerase binding to the promoter and begin transcribing. D) usually lead to a high level of transcription even without additional specific transcription factors. E) bind to sequences just after the start site of transcription.
B) bind to other proteins or to a sequence element within the promoter called the TATA box.
In positive control of several sugar-metabolism-related operons, the catabolite activator protein (CAP) binds to DNA to stimulate transcription. What causes an increase in CAP? A) increase in glucose and increase in cAMP B) decrease in glucose and increase in cAMP C) increase in glucose and decrease in cAMP D) decrease in glucose and increase in repressor E) decrease in glucose and decrease in repressor
B) decrease in glucose and increase in cAMP
Which of the following can be effective in preventing the onset of viral infection in humans? A) taking vitamins B) getting vaccinated C) taking antibiotics D) applying antiseptics E) taking nucleoside analogs that inhibit transcription
B) getting vaccinated
RNA viruses require their own supply of certain enzymes because A) host cells rapidly destroy the viruses. B) host cells lack enzymes that can replicate the viral genome. C) these enzymes translate viral mRNA into proteins. D) these enzymes penetrate host cell membranes. E) these enzymes cannot be made in host cells.
B) host cells lack enzymes that can replicate the viral genome.
Which of the following, when taken up by the cell, binds to the repressor so that the repressor no longer binds to the operator? A) ubiquitin B) inducer C) promoter D) repressor E) corepressor
B) inducer
When DNA is compacted by histones into 10-nm and 30-nm fibers, the DNA is unable to interact with proteins required for gene expression. Therefore, to allow for these proteins to act, the chromatin must constantly alter its structure. Which processes contribute to this dynamic activity? A) DNA supercoiling at or around H1 B) methylation and phosphorylation of histone tails C) hydrolysis of DNA molecules where they are wrapped around the nucleosome core D) accessibility of heterochromatin to phosphorylating enzymes E) nucleotide excision and reconstruction
B) methylation and phosphorylation of histone tails
Among the newly discovered small noncoding RNAs, one type reestablishes methylation patterns during gamete formation and block expression of some transposons. These are known as A) miRNA. B) piRNA. C) snRNA. D) siRNA. E) RNAi.
B) piRNA.
Which of the following experimental procedures is most likely to hasten mRNA degradation in a eukaryotic cell? A) enzymatic shortening of the poly-A tail B) removal of the 5' cap C) methylation of C nucleotides D) methylation of histones E) removal of one or more exons
B) removal of the 5' cap
Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon A) occurs continuously in the cell. B) starts when the pathway's substrate is present. C) starts when the pathway's product is present. D) stops when the pathway's product is present. E) does not result in the production of enzymes.
B) starts when the pathway's substrate is present.
Which of the following is a protein produced by a regulatory gene? A) operon B) inducer C) promoter D) repressor E) corepressor
D) repressor
There is a mutation in the repressor that results in a molecule known as a super-repressor because it represses the lac operon permanently. Which of these would characterize such a mutant? A) It cannot bind to the operator. B) It cannot make a functional repressor. C) It cannot bind to the inducer. D) It makes molecules that bind to one another. E) It makes a repressor that binds CAP.
C) It cannot bind to the inducer.
Which of the following characteristics, structures, or processes is common to both bacteria and viruses? A) metabolism B) ribosomes C) genetic material composed of nucleic acid D) cell division E) independent existence
C) genetic material composed of nucleic acid
In a series of experiments, the enzyme Dicer has been inactivated in cells from various vertebrates so that the centromere is abnormally formed from chromatin. Which of the following is most likely to occur? A) The usual mRNAs transcribed from centromeric DNA will be missing from the cells. B) Tetrads will no longer be able to form during meiosis I. C) Centromeres will be euchromatic rather than heterochromatic and the cells will soon die in culture. D) The cells will no longer be able to resist bacterial contamination. E) The DNA of the centromeres will no longer be able to replicate.
C) Centromeres will be euchromatic rather than heterochromatic and the cells will soon die in culture.
Gene expression might be altered at the level of post-transcriptional processing in eukaryotes rather than prokaryotes because of which of the following? A) Eukaryotic mRNAs get 5' caps and 3' tails. B) Prokaryotic genes are expressed as mRNA, which is more stable in the cell. C) Eukaryotic exons may be spliced in alternative patterns. D) Prokaryotes use ribosomes of different structure and size. E) Eukaryotic coded polypeptides often require cleaving of signal sequences before localization.
C) Eukaryotic exons may be spliced in alternative patterns.
For a repressible operon to be transcribed, which of the following must occur? A) A corepressor must be present. B) RNA polymerase and the active repressor must be present. C) RNA polymerase must bind to the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive. D) RNA polymerase cannot be present, and the repressor must be inactive. E) RNA polymerase must not occupy the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive.
C) RNA polymerase must bind to the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive.
Which of the following statements describes the lysogenic cycle of lambda (λ) phage? A) After infection, the viral genes immediately turn the host cell into a lambda-producing factory, and the host cell then lyses. B) Most of the prophage genes are activated by the product of a particular prophage gene. C) The phage genome replicates along with the host genome. D) Certain environmental triggers can cause the phage to exit the host genome, switching from the lytic to the lysogenic. E) The phage DNA is incorporated by crossing over into any nonspecific site on the host cell's DNA.
C) The phage genome replicates along with the host genome.
A researcher lyses a cell that contains nucleic acid molecules and capsomeres of tobacco mosaic virus (TMV). The cell contents are left in a covered test tube overnight. The next day this mixture is sprayed on tobacco plants. Which of the following would be expected to occur? A) The plants would develop some but not all of the symptoms of the TMV infection. B) The plants would develop symptoms typically produced by viroids. C) The plants would develop the typical symptoms of TMV infection. D) The plants would not show any disease symptoms. E) The plants would become infected, but the sap from these plants would be unable to infect other plants.
C) The plants would develop the typical symptoms of TMV infection.
Which of the following problems with animal cloning might result in premature death of the clones? A) use of pluripotent instead of totipotent stem cells B) use of nuclear DNA as well as mtDNA C) abnormal regulation due to variant methylation D) the indefinite replication of totipotent stem cells E) abnormal immune function due to bone marrow dysfunction
C) abnormal regulation due to variant methylation
Altering patterns of gene expression in prokaryotes would most likely serve the organism's survival in which of the following ways? A) organizing gene expression so that genes are expressed in a given order B) allowing each gene to be expressed an equal number of times C) allowing the organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions D) allowing young organisms to respond differently from more mature organisms E) allowing environmental changes to alter the prokaryote's genome
C) allowing the organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions
To cause a human pandemic, the H5N1 avian flu virus would have to A) spread to primates such as chimpanzees. B) develop into a virus with a different host range. C) become capable of human-to-human transmission. D) arise independently in chickens in North and South America. E) become much more pathogenic.
C) become capable of human-to-human transmission.
Tumor-suppressor genes A) are frequently overexpressed in cancerous cells. B) are cancer-causing genes introduced into cells by viruses. C) can encode proteins that promote DNA repair or cell-cell adhesion. D) often encode proteins that stimulate the cell cycle. E) do all of the above.
C) can encode proteins that promote
In many ways, the regulation of the genes of a particular group of viruses will be similar to the regulation of the host genes. Therefore, which of the following would you expect of the genes of the bacteriophage? A) regulation via acetylation of histones B) positive control mechanisms rather than negative C) control of more than one gene in an operon D) reliance on transcription activators E) utilization of eukaryotic polymerases
C) control of more than one gene in an operon
If you were to observe the activity of methylated DNA, you would expect it to A) be replicating nearly continuously. B) be unwinding in preparation for protein synthesis. C) have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription. D) be very actively transcribed and translated. E) induce protein synthesis by not allowing repressors to bind to it.
C) have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription.
In the figure, at the arrow marked II, what enzyme(s) are being utilized? A) reverse transcriptase B) viral DNA polymerase C) host cell DNA polymerase D) host cell RNA polymerase E) host cell DNA and RNA polymerases
C) host cell DNA polymerase
During DNA replication, A) all methylation of the DNA is lost at the first round of replication. B) DNA polymerase is blocked by methyl groups, and methylated regions of the genome are therefore left uncopied. C) methylation of the DNA is maintained because methylation enzymes act at DNA sites where one strand is already methylated and thus correctly methylates daughter strands after replication. D) methylation of the DNA is maintained because DNA polymerase directly incorporates methylated nucleotides into the new strand opposite any methylated nucleotides in the template. E) methylated DNA is copied in the cytoplasm, and unmethylated DNA is copied in the nucleus.
C) methylation of the DNA is maintained because methylation enzymes act at DNA sites where one strand is already methylated and thus correctly methylates daughter strands after replication.
One way scientists hope to use the recent knowledge gained about noncoding RNAs lies with the possibilities for their use in medicine. Of the following scenarios for future research, which would you expect to gain most from RNAs? A) exploring a way to turn on the expression of pseudogenes B) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal recessive disease C) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal dominant disease D) creating knock-out organisms that can be useful for pharmaceutical drug design E) looking for a way to prevent viral DNA from causing infection in humans
C) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal dominant disease
Which of the three types of viruses shown above would you expect to include glycoproteins? A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II only E) all three
D) I and II only
Which of the following is characteristic of the lytic cycle? A) Many bacterial cells containing viral DNA are produced. B) Viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome. C) The viral genome replicates without destroying the host. D) A large number of phages are released at a time. E) The virus-host relationship usually lasts for generations.
D) A large number of phages are released at a time.
Two potential devices that eukaryotic cells use to regulate transcription are A) DNA methylation and histone amplification. B) DNA amplification and histone methylation. C) DNA acetylation and methylation. D) DNA methylation and histone modification. E) histone amplification and DNA acetylation.
D) DNA methylation and histone modification.
In prophase I of meiosis in female Drosophila, studies have shown that there is phosphorylation of an amino acid in the tails of histones of gametes. A mutation in flies that interferes with this process results in sterility. Which of the following is the most likely hypothesis? A) These oocytes have no histones. B) Any mutation during oogenesis results in sterility. C) All proteins in the cell must be phosphorylated. D) Histone tail phosphorylation prohibits chromosome condensation. E) Histone tails must be removed from the rest of the histones.
D) Histone tail phosphorylation prohibits chromosome condensation.
Which of the following describes the function of an enzyme known as Dicer? A) It degrades single-stranded DNA. B) It degrades single-stranded mRNA. C) It degrades mRNA with no poly-A tail. D) It trims small double-stranded RNAs into molecules that can block translation. E) It chops up single-stranded DNAs from infecting viruses.
D) It trims small double-stranded RNAs into molecules that can block translation.
In animals, what is the difference between reproductive cloning and therapeutic cloning? A) Reproductive cloning uses totipotent cells, whereas therapeutic cloning does not. B) Reproductive cloning uses embryonic stem cells, whereas therapeutic cloning does not. C) Therapeutic cloning uses nuclei of adult cells transplanted into enucleated nonfertilized eggs. D) Therapeutic cloning supplies cells for repair of diseased or injured organs.
D) Therapeutic cloning supplies cells for repair of diseased or injured organs.
Which of the following statements describes proto-oncogenes? A) Their normal function is to suppress tumor growth. B) They are introduced to a cell initially by retroviruses. C) They are produced by somatic mutations induced by carcinogenic substances. D) They can code for proteins associated with cell growth. E) They are underexpressed in cancer cells.
D) They can code for proteins associated with cell growth.
Steroid hormones produce their effects in cells by A) activating key enzymes in metabolic pathways. B) activating translation of certain mRNAs. C) promoting the degradation of specific mRNAs. D) binding to intracellular receptors and promoting transcription of specific genes. E) promoting the formation of looped domains in certain regions of DNA.
D) binding to intracellular receptors and promoting transcription of specific genes.
Which of the following accounts for someone who has had a herpesvirus-mediated cold sore or genital sore getting flare-ups for the rest of his or her life? A) re-infection by a closely related herpesvirus of a different strain B) re-infection by the same herpesvirus strain C) co-infection with an unrelated virus that causes the same symptoms D) copies of the herpesvirus genome permanently maintained in host nuclei E) copies of the herpesvirus genome permanently maintained in host cell cytoplasm
D) copies of the herpesvirus genome permanently maintained in host nuclei
Genomic imprinting, DNA methylation, and histone acetylation are all examples of A) genetic mutation. B) chromosomal rearrangements. C) karyotypes. D) epigenetic phenomena. E) translocation.
D) epigenetic phenomena.
What are prions? A) mobile segments of DNA B) tiny molecules of RNA that infect plants C) viral DNA that has had to attach itself to the host genome D) misfolded versions of normal brain protein E) viruses that invade bacteria
D) misfolded versions of normal brain protein
Emerging viruses arise by A) mutation of existing viruses. B) the spread of existing viruses to new host species. C) the spread of existing viruses more widely within their host species. D) mutation of existing viruses, the spread of existing viruses to new host species, and the spread of existing viruses more widely within their host species. E) none of these.
D) mutation of existing viruses, the spread of existing viruses to new host species, and the spread of existing viruses more widely within their host species.
At the beginning of this century there was a general announcement regarding the sequencing of the human genome and the genomes of many other multicellular eukaryotes. There was surprise expressed by many that the number of protein-coding sequences was much smaller than they had expected. Which of the following could account for most of the rest? A) "junk" DNA that serves no possible purpose B) rRNA and tRNA coding sequences C) DNA that is translated directly without being transcribed D) non-protein-coding DNA that is transcribed into several kinds of small RNAs with biological function E) non-protein-coding DNA that is transcribed into several kinds of small RNAs without biological function
D) non-protein-coding DNA that is transcribed into several kinds of small RNAs with biological function
Transcription factors in eukaryotes usually have DNA binding domains as well as other domains that are also specific for binding. In general, which of the following would you expect many of them to be able to bind? A) repressors B) ATP C) protein-based hormones D) other transcription factors E) tRNA
D) other transcription factors
Viral genomes vary greatly in size and may include from four genes to several hundred genes. Which of the following viral features is most apt to correlate with the size of the genome? A) size of the viral capsomeres B) RNA versus DNA genome C) double- versus single-strand genomes D) size and shape of the capsid E) glycoproteins of the envelope
D) size and shape of the capsid
The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when A) there is more glucose in the cell than lactose. B) the cyclic AMP levels are low. C) there is glucose but no lactose in the cell. D) the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell. E) the cAMP level is high and the lactose level is low.
D) the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell.
Which of the following series best reflects what we know about how the flu virus moves between species? A) An avian flu virus undergoes several mutations and rearrangements such that it is able to be transmitted to other birds and then to humans. B) The flu virus in a pig is mutated and replicated in alternate arrangements so that humans who eat the pig products can be infected. C) A flu virus from a human epidemic or pandemic infects birds; the birds replicate the virus differently and then pass it back to humans. D) An influenza virus gains new sequences of DNA from another virus, such as a herpesvirus; this enables it to be transmitted to a human host. E) An animal such as a pig is infected with more than one virus, genetic recombination occurs, the new virus mutates and is passed to a new species such as a bird, the virus mutates and can be transmitted to humans.
E) An animal such as a pig is infected with more than one virus, genetic recombination occurs, the new virus mutates and is passed to a new species such as a bird, the virus mutates and can be transmitted to humans.
Which of the following is the most probable fate of a newly emerging virus that causes high mortality in its host? A) It is able to spread to a large number of new hosts quickly because the new hosts have no immunological memory of them. B) The new virus replicates quickly and undergoes rapid adaptation to a series of divergent hosts. C) A change in environmental conditions such as weather patterns quickly forces the new virus to invade new areas. D) Sporadic outbreaks will be followed almost immediately by a widespread pandemic. E) The newly emerging virus will die out rather quickly or will mutate to be far less lethal.
E) The newly emerging virus will die out rather quickly or will mutate to be far less lethal.
Most molecular biologists think that viruses originated from fragments of cellular nucleic acid. Which of the following observations supports this theory? A) Viruses contain either DNA or RNA. B) Viruses are enclosed in protein capsids rather than plasma membranes. C) Viruses can reproduce only inside host cells. D) Viruses can infect both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. E) Viral genomes are usually similar to the genome of the host cell.
E) Viral genomes are usually similar to the genome of the host cell.
A lack of which molecule would result in the cell's inability to "turn off" genes? A) operon B) inducer C) promoter D) ubiquitin E) corepressor
E) corepressor
Which of the three types of viruses shown above would you expect to include a capsid(s)? A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II only E) all three
E) all three
The role of a metabolite that controls a repressible operon is to A) bind to the promoter region and decrease the affinity of RNA polymerase for the promoter. B) bind to the operator region and block the attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter. C) increase the production of inactive repressor proteins. D) bind to the repressor protein and inactivate it. E) bind to the repressor protein and activate it.
E) bind to the repressor protein and activate it.
If glucose is available in the environment of E. coli, the cell responds with a very low concentration of cAMP. When the cAMP increases in concentration, it binds to CAP. Which of the following would you expect to be a measurable effect? A) decreased concentration of the lac enzymes B) increased concentration of the trp enzymes C) decreased binding of the RNA polymerase to sugar metabolism-related promoters D) decreased concentration of alternative sugars in the cell E) increased concentrations of sugars such as arabinose in the cell
E) increased concentrations of sugars such as arabinose in the cell
In the figure, when new viruses are being assembled (IV), what mediates the assembly? A) host cell chaperones B) assembly proteins coded for by the host nucleus C) assembly proteins coded for by the viral genes D) viral RNA intermediates E) nothing; they self-assemble
E) nothing; they self-assemble
The host range of a virus is determined by A) the enzymes carried by the virus. B) whether its nucleic acid is DNA or RNA. C) the proteins in the host's cytoplasm. D) the enzymes produced by the virus before it infects the cell. E) the proteins on its surface and that of the host.
E) the proteins on its surface and that of the host.
The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is A) permanently turned on. B) turned on only when tryptophan is present in the growth medium. C) turned off only when glucose is present in the growth medium. D) turned on only when glucose is present in the growth medium. E) turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium.
E) turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium.
