261 final
The nurse is caring for a patient who has a calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL. Which nursing action should the nurse include on the care plan? a. Maintain the patient on bed rest. b. Auscultate lung sounds every 4 hours. c. Monitor for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs. d. Encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day
d. Encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day
A patient with osteomyelitis is to receive vancomycin (Vancocin) 500 mg IV every 6 hours. The vancomycin is diluted in 100 mL of normal saline and needs to be administered over 1 hour. The nurse will set the IV pump for how many milliliters per minute? (Round to the nearest hundredth.)
1.67 mL/hr
A patient is to receive an infusion of 250 mL of platelets over 2 hours through tubing that is labeled: 1 mL equals 10 drops. How many drops per minute will the nurse infuse?
21 gtts/min
An 80-kg patient with burns over 30% of total body surface area (TBSA) is admitted to the burn unit. Using the Parkland formula of 4 mL/kg/%TBSA, what is the IV infusion rate (mL/hour) for lactated Ringer's solution that the nurse will give during the first 8 hours?
600 mL
A patient with suspected neurogenic shock after a diving accident has arrived in the emergency department. A cervical collar is in place. Which actions should the nurse take (select all that apply)? a. Prepare to administer atropine IV. b. Obtain baseline body temperature. c. Infuse large volumes of lactated Ringer's solution. d. Provide high-flow O2 (100%) by nonrebreather mask. e. Prepare for emergent intubation and mechanical ventilation.
A, B, D, E
Which preventive actions by the nurse will help limit the development of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) in patients admitted to the hospital (select all that apply)? a. Ambulate postoperative patients as soon as possible after surgery. b. Use aseptic technique when manipulating invasive lines or devices. c. Remove indwelling urinary catheters as soon as possible after surgery. d. Administer prescribed antibiotics within 1 hour for patients with possible sepsis. e. Advocate for parenteral nutrition for patients who cannot take in adequate calories.
A, B, C, D
A nurse is teaching a patient with contact dermatitis of the arms and legs about ways to decrease pruritus. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching plan (select all that apply)? a. Cool, wet cloths or compresses can be used to reduce itching. b. Take cool or tepid baths several times daily to decrease itching. c. Add oil to your bath water to aid in moisturizing the affected skin. d. Rub yourself dry with a towel after bathing to prevent skin maceration. e. Use of an over-the-counter (OTC) antihistamine can reduce scratching.
A, B, E
After an unimmunized individual is exposed to hepatitis B through a needle-stick injury, which actions will the nurse plan to take (select all that apply)? a. Administer hepatitis B vaccine. b. Test for antibodies to hepatitis B. c. Teach about α-interferon therapy. d. Give hepatitis B immune globulin. e. Teach about choices for oral antiviral therapy.
A,B,D
The nurse plans a presentation for community members about how to decrease the risk for antibiotic-resistant infections. Which information will the nurse include in the teaching plan (select all that apply)? a. Antibiotics may sometimes be prescribed to prevent infection. b. Continue taking antibiotics until all of the prescription is gone. c. Unused antibiotics that are more than a year old should be discarded. d. Antibiotics are effective in treating influenza associated with high fevers. e. Hand washing is effective in preventing many viral and bacterial infections.
A,B,E
A patient develops neutropenia after receiving chemotherapy. Which information about ways to prevent infection will the nurse include in the teaching plan (select all that apply)? a. Cook food thoroughly before eating. b. Choose low fiber, low residue foods. c. Avoid public transportation such as buses. d. Use rectal suppositories if needed for constipation. e. Talk to the oncologist before having any dental work
A,C,E
Which actions should the nurse start to reduce the risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) (select all that apply)? a. Obtain arterial blood gases daily. b. Provide a "sedation holiday" daily. c. Give prescribed pantoprazole (Protonix). d. Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30°. e. Provide oral care with chlorhexidine (0.12%) solution daily.
B, C, D, E
During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns that a patient with a head injury has decorticate posturing to noxious stimulation. Which positioning shown in the accompanying figure will the nurse expect to observe? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
a. 1
An unresponsive patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) after falling through the ice while ice skating. Which assessment will the nurse obtain first? a. Pulse b. Heart rhythm c. Breath sounds d. Body temperature
a. Pulse
An unresponsive 79-yr-old patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) during a summer heat wave. The patient's core temperature is 105.4° F (40.8° C), blood pressure (BP) is 88/50 mm Hg, and pulse is 112 beats/min. The nurse will plan to a. apply wet sheets and a fan to the patient. b. provide O2 at 2 L/min with a nasal cannula. c. start lactated Ringer's solution at 1000 mL/hr. d. give acetaminophen (Tylenol) rectal suppository.
a. apply wet sheets and a fan to the patient.
The nurse will anticipate preparing an older patient who is vomiting "coffee-ground" emesis for a. endoscopy. b. angiography. c. barium studies. d. gastric analysis.
a. endoscopy.
The nurse notes crackling sounds and a grating sensation with palpation of an older patient's elbow. How will this finding be documented? a. Torticollis b. Crepitation c. Subluxation d. Epicondylitis
b. Crepitation
A patient who has been receiving IV heparin infusion and oral warfarin (Coumadin) for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) when the platelet level drops to 110,000/µL. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Prepare for platelet transfusion. b. Discontinue the heparin infusion. c. Administer prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). d. Use low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH).
b. Discontinue the heparin infusion.
An 81-yr-old patient who has been in the intensive care unit (ICU) for a week is now stable and transfer to the progressive care unit is planned. On rounds, the nurse notices that the patient has new onset confusion. The nurse will plan to a. give PRN lorazepam (Ativan) and cancel the transfer. b. inform the receiving nurse and then transfer the patient. c. notify the health care provider and postpone the transfer. d. obtain an order for restraints as needed and transfer the patient.
b. inform the receiving nurse and then transfer the patient.
A patient's heart monitor shows sinus rhythm, rate 64. The PR interval is 0.18 seconds at 1:00 AM, 0.22 seconds at 2:30 PM, and 0.28 seconds at 4:00 PM. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Place the transcutaneous pacemaker pads on the patient. b. Give atropine sulfate 1 mg IV per agency dysrhythmia protocol. c. Call the health care provider before giving scheduled metoprolol (Lopressor). d. Document the patient's rhythm and assess the patient's response to the rhythm.
c. Call the health care provider before giving scheduled metoprolol (Lopressor).
A patient with diabetes who has bacterial pneumonia is being treated with IV gentamicin 60 mg IV BID. The nurse will monitor for adverse effects of the medication by evaluating the patient's a. blood glucose b. urine osmolality.. c. serum creatinine. d. serum potassium.
c. serum creatinine.
A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation develops a right pneumothorax. Which collaborative action will the nurse anticipate next? a. Increase the tidal volume and respiratory rate. b. Decrease the fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2). c. Perform endotracheal suctioning more frequently. d. Lower the positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP).
d. Lower the positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP).
The nurse responds to a ventilator alarm and finds the patient lying in bed gasping and holding the endotracheal tube (ET) in her hand. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Activate the rapid response team. b. Provide reassurance to the patient. c. Call the health care provider to reinsert the tube. d. Manually ventilate the patient with 100% oxygen.
d. Manually ventilate the patient with 100% oxygen.
During the emergent phase of burn care, which assessment will be most useful in determining whether the patient is receiving adequate fluid infusion? a. Check skin turgor. b. Monitor daily weight. c. Assess mucous membranes. d. Measure hourly urine output.
d. Measure hourly urine output.
To determine whether there is a delay in impulse conduction through the ventricles, the nurse will measure the duration of the patient's a. P wave. b. Q wave. c. PR interval. d. QRS complex.
d. QRS complex
An older adult patient with a squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) on the lower arm has a Mohs procedure in the dermatology clinic. Which nursing action will be included in the postoperative plan of care? a. Schedule daily appointments for dressing changes. b. Describe the use of topical fluorouracil on the incision. c. Teach how to use sterile technique to clean the suture line. d.Teach the use of cold packs to reduce bruising and swelling.
d. Teach the use of cold packs to reduce bruising and swelling.
A 78-kg patient with septic shock has a pulse rate of 120 beats/min with low central venous pressure and pulmonary artery wedge pressure. Urine output has been 30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. Which order by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV. b. Increase normal saline infusion to 250 mL/hr. c. Give hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV. d. Titrate norepinephrine to keep systolic blood pressure (BP) above 90 mm Hg.
a. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV.
Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who is experiencing pain from trigeminal neuralgia? a. Assess fluid and dietary intake. b. Apply ice packs for 20 minutes. c. Teach facial relaxation techniques. d. Spend time talking with the patient.
a. Assess fluid and dietary intake.
Admission vital signs for a brain-injured patient are blood pressure of 128/68 mm Hg, pulse of 110 beats/min, and of respirations 26 breaths/min. Which set of vital signs, if taken 1 hour later, will be of most concern to the nurse? a. Blood pressure of 154/68 mm Hg, pulse of 56 beats/min, respirations of 12 breaths/min b. Blood pressure of 134/72 mm Hg, pulse of 90 beats/min, respirations of 32 breaths/min c. Blood pressure of 148/78 mm Hg, pulse of 112 beats/min, respirations of 28 breaths/min d. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, pulse of 120 beats/min, respirations of 30 breaths/min
a. Blood pressure of 154/68 mm Hg, pulse of 56 beats/min, respirations of 12 breaths/min
A patient is admitted to the emergency department with possible renal trauma after an automobile accident. Which prescribed intervention will the nurse implement first? a. Check blood pressure and heart rate. b. Administer morphine sulfate 4 mg IV. c. Transport to radiology for an intravenous pyelogram. d. Insert a urethral catheter and obtain a urine specimen.
a. Check blood pressure and heart rate.
The nurse admits a terminally ill patient to the hospital. What is the first action that the nurse should complete when planning this patient's care? a. Determine the patient's wishes regarding end-of-life care. b. Emphasize the importance of addressing any family issues. c. Discuss the normal grief process with the patient and family. d. Encourage the patient to talk about any fears or unresolved issues
a. Determine the patient's wishes regarding end-of-life care
A nurse is caring for a patient who is orally intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. To decrease the risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia, which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Elevate head of bed to 30 to 45 degrees. b. Give enteral feedings at no more than 10 mL/hr. c. Suction the endotracheal tube every 2 to 4 hours. d. Limit the use of positive end-expiratory pressure.
a. Elevate head of bed to 30 to 45 degrees.
A chemotherapy drug that causes alopecia is prescribed for a patient. Which action should the nurse take to support the patient's self-esteem? a. Encourage the patient to purchase a wig or hat to wear when hair loss begins. b. Suggest that the patient limit social contacts until regrowth of the hair occurs. c. Teach the patient to wash hair gently with mild shampoo to minimize hair loss. d. Inform the patient that hair usually grows back once chemotherapy is complete
a. Encourage the patient to purchase a wig or hat to wear when hair loss begins
A patient arrives in the emergency department (ED) several hours after taking "25 to 30" acetaminophen (Tylenol) tablets. Which action will the nurse plan to take? a. Give N-acetylcysteine. b. Discuss the use of chelation therapy. c. Start oxygen using a non-rebreather mask. d. Have the patient drink large amounts of water.
a. Give N-acetylcysteine.
A patient with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg, pulse of 136 beats/min, respirations of 32 breaths/min, temperature of 104°F, and blood glucose of 246 mg/dL. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Give normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr. b. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally. c. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL. d. Start norepinephrine to keep systolic blood pressure above 90 mm Hg.
a. Give normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr.
A patient with terminal cancer is being admitted to a family-centered inpatient hospice. The patient's spouse visits daily and cheerfully talks with the patient about wedding anniversary plans for the next year. When the nurse asks about any concerns, the spouse says, "I'm busy at work, but otherwise things are fine." Which provisional nursing diagnosis is appropriate for the patient's spouse? a. Ineffective coping related to lack of grieving b. Anxiety related to complicated grieving process c. Hopelessness related to knowledge deficit about cancer d. Caregiver role strain related to spouse's complex care needs
a. Ineffective coping related to lack of grieving
A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis is brought to the emergency department. Which prescribed action should the nurse implement first? a. Infuse 1 L of normal saline per hour. b. Give sodium bicarbonate 50 mEq IV push. c. Administer regular insulin 10 U by IV push. d. Start a regular insulin infusion at 0.1 units/kg/hr.
a. Infuse 1 L of normal saline per hour.
A 76-yr-old with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is agitated and confused, with a markedly distended bladder. Which intervention prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Insert a urinary retention catheter. b. Draw blood for a serum creatinine level. c. Schedule an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). d. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 0.5 mg PO.
a. Insert a urinary retention catheter.
Which nursing action is correct when performing the straight-leg raising test for an ambulatory patient with back pain? a. Lift the patient's leg to a 60-degree angle from the bed. b. Place the patient in the prone position on the exam table. c. Ask the patient to dangle both legs over the edge of the exam table. d. Instruct the patient to elevate the legs and tense the abdominal muscles.
a. Lift the patient's leg to a 60-degree angle from the bed.
A patient who has diabetes is admitted for an exploratory laparotomy for abdominal pain. When planning interventions to promote wound healing, what is the nurse's highest priority? a. Maintaining the patient's blood glucose within a normal range b. Ensuring that the patient has an adequate dietary protein intake c. Giving antipyretics to keep the temperature less than 102° F (38.9° C) d. Redressing the surgical incision with a dry, sterile dressing twice daily
a. Maintaining the patient's blood glucose within a normal range
A patient who is lethargic and exhibits deep, rapid respirations has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.32, PaO2 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 37 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results? a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis
a. Metabolic acidosis
After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient with a urethral stricture who has not voided for 12 hours b. Patient who has cloudy urine after orthotopic bladder reconstruction c. Patient with polycystic kidney disease whose blood pressure is 186/98 mm Hg d. Patient who voided bright red urine immediately after returning from lithotripsy
a. Patient with a urethral stricture who has not voided for 12 hours
The nurse is caring for a terminally ill patient who is experiencing continuous and severe pain. How should the nurse schedule the administration of opioid pain medications? a. Plan around-the-clock routine administration of analgesics. b. Provide PRN doses of medication whenever the patient requests them. c. Suggest small analgesic doses to avoid decreasing the respiratory rate. d. Offer enough pain medication to keep the patient sedated and unaware of stimuli
a. Plan around-the-clock routine administration of analgesics.
A college athlete is seen in the clinic 6 weeks after a concussion. Which assessment information will the nurse collect to determine whether the patient is developing postconcussion syndrome? a. Short-term memory b. Muscle coordination c. Glasgow Coma Scale d. Pupil reaction to light
a. Short-term memory
A patient is being evaluated for a possible spinal cord tumor. Which finding by the nurse requires the most immediate action? a. The patient has new-onset weakness of both legs. b. The patient complains of chronic severe back pain. c. The patient starts to cry and says, "I feel hopeless." d. The patient expresses anxiety about having surgery.
a. The patient has new-onset weakness of both legs.
Which finding indicates to the nurse that lactulose is effective for an older adult who has advanced cirrhosis? a. The patient is alert and oriented. b. The patient denies nausea or anorexia. c. The patient's bilirubin level decreases. d. The patient has at least one stool daily.
a. The patient is alert and oriented.
When prone positioning is used for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), which information obtained by the nurse indicates that the positioning is effective? a. The patient's PaO2 is 89 mm Hg, and the SaO2 is 91%. b. Endotracheal suctioning results in clear mucous return. c. Sputum and blood cultures show no growth after 48 hours. d. The skin on the patient's back is intact and without redness.
a. The patient's PaO2 is 89 mm Hg, and the SaO2 is 91%.
Which data collected by the nurse caring for a patient who has cardiogenic shock indicate that the patient may be developing multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a. The patient's serum creatinine level is elevated. b. The patient complains of intermittent chest pressure. c. The patient's extremities are cool and pulses are weak. d. The patient has bilateral crackles throughout lung fields.
a. The patient's serum creatinine level is elevated.
A patient who underwent a gastroduodenostomy (Billroth I) 12 hours ago complains of increasing abdominal pain. The patient has no bowel sounds and 200 mL of bright red nasogastric (NG) drainage in the past hour. The highest priority action by the nurse is to a. contact the surgeon. b. irrigate the NG tube. c. monitor the NG drainage. d. administer the prescribed morphine.
a. contact the surgeon.
During administration of a hypertonic IV solution, the mechanism involved in equalizing the fluid concentration between ECF and the cells is a. osmosis. b. diffusion. c. active transport. d. facilitated diffusion.
a. osmosis.
The standard policy on the cardiac unit states, "Notify the health care provider for mean arterial pressure (MAP) less than 70 mm Hg." The nurse will need to call the health care provider about the a. postoperative patient with a BP of 116/42 mm Hg. b. newly admitted patient with a BP of 150/87 mm Hg. c. patient with left ventricular failure who has a BP of 110/70 mm Hg. d. patient with a myocardial infarction who has a BP of 140/86 mm Hg.
a. postoperative patient with a BP of 116/42 mm Hg.
The nurse is caring for an adolescent patient who is dying. The patient's parents are interested in organ donation and ask the nurse how the health care providers determine brain death. Which response by the nurse accurately describes brain death determination? a. "If CPR does not restore a heartbeat, the brain cannot function." b. "Brain death has occurred if there is not any breathing or brainstem reflexes." c. "Brain death has occurred if a person has flaccid muscles and does not awaken." d. "If respiratory efforts cease and no apical pulse is audible, brain death is present."
b. "Brain death has occurred if there is not any breathing or brainstem reflexes."
A patient admitted with an abrupt onset of jaundice and nausea has abnormal liver function studies but serologic testing is negative for viral causes of hepatitis. Which question by the nurse is appropriate? a. "Do you have a history of IV drug use?" b. "Do you use any over-the-counter drugs?" c. "Have you used corticosteroids for any reason?" d. "Have you recently traveled to a foreign country?"
b. "Do you use any over-the-counter drugs?"
The nurse recognizes that teaching a patient following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy has been effective when the patient makes which statement? a. "I can expect yellow-green drainage from the incision for a few days." b. "I can remove the bandages on my incisions tomorrow and take a shower." c. "I should plan to limit my activities and not return to work for 4 to 6 weeks." d. "I will need to maintain a low-fat diet for life because I no longer have a gallbladder."
b. "I can remove the bandages on my incisions tomorrow and take a shower."
Which statement by the nurse when explaining the purpose of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to the patient's caregiver is accurate? a. "PEEP will push more air into the lungs during inhalation." b. "PEEP prevents the lung air sacs from collapsing during exhalation." c. "PEEP will prevent lung damage while the patient is on the ventilator." d. "PEEP allows the breathing machine to deliver 100% O2 to the lungs."
b. "PEEP prevents the lung air sacs from collapsing during exhalation."
A patient has a parenteral nutrition infusion of 25% dextrose. A student nurse asks the nurse why a peripherally inserted central catheter was inserted. Which response by the nurse is accurate? a. "The prescribed infusion can be given more rapidly when the patient has a centralline." b. "The hypertonic solution will be more rapidly diluted when given through a centralline." c. "There is a decreased risk for infection when 25% dextrose is infused through acentral line." d. "The required blood glucose monitoring is based on samples obtained from acentral line."
b. "The hypertonic solution will be more rapidly diluted when given through a centralline."
A patient in hospice is manifesting a decrease in all body system functions except for a heart rate of 124 beats/min and a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min. Which statement, if made by the nurse to the patient's family member, is most appropriate? a. "These vital signs will continue to increase until death finally occurs." b. "These vital signs are an expected response now but will slow down later." c. "These vital signs may indicate an improvement in the patient's condition." d. "These vital signs are a helpful response to the slowing of other body systems."
b. "These vital signs are an expected response now but will slow down later."
A patient with a head injury opens his eyes to verbal stimulation, curses when stimulated, and does not respond to a verbal command to move but attempts to push away a painful stimulus. The nurse records the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale score as a. 9. b. 11. c. 3. d. 15.
b. 11.
Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A patient with burns who is complaining of level 8 (0 to 10 scale) pain b. A patient with smoke inhalation who has wheezes and altered mental status c. A patient with full-thickness leg burns who is scheduled for a dressing change d. A patient with partial thickness burns who is receiving IV fluids at 500 mL/hr
b. A patient with smoke inhalation who has wheezes and altered mental status
A patient who has diabetes and reported burning foot pain at night receives a new prescription. Which information should the nurse teach the patient about amitriptyline ? a. Amitriptyline decreases the depression caused by your foot pain. b. Amitriptyline helps prevent transmission of pain impulses to the brain. c. Amitriptyline corrects some of the blood vessel changes that cause pain. d. Amitriptyline improves sleep and makes you less aware of nighttime pain.
b. Amitriptyline helps prevent transmission of pain impulses to the brain.
A patient who has been diagnosed with inoperable lung cancer and has a poor prognosis plans a trip across the country "to settle some issues with family members." The nurse recognizes that the patient is manifesting which psychosocial response to death? a. Protesting the unfairness of death b. Anxiety about unfinished business c. Fear of having lived a meaningless life d. Restlessness about the uncertainty of prognosis
b. Anxiety about unfinished business
Which action is most important for the nurse to take to ensure culturally competent care for an alert, terminally ill Filipino patient? a. Let the family decide how to tell the patient about the terminal diagnosis. b. Ask the patient and family about their preferences for care during this time. c. Obtain information from Filipino staff members about possible cultural needs. d. Remind family members that dying patients prefer to have someone at the bedside
b. Ask the patient and family about their preferences for care during this time.
A patient with muscular dystrophy is hospitalized with pneumonia. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Logroll the patient every 2 hours. b. Assist the patient with ambulation. c. Discuss the need for genetic testing with the patient. d. Teach the patient about the muscle biopsy procedure.
b. Assist the patient with ambulation.
Gastric lavage and administration of activated charcoal are ordered for an unconscious patient who has been admitted to the emergency department (ED) after ingesting 30 lorazepam (Ativan) tablets. Which prescribed action should the nurse plan to do first? a. Insert a large-bore orogastric tube. b. Assist with intubation of the patient. c. Prepare a 60-mL syringe with saline. d. Give first dose of activated charcoal.
b. Assist with intubation of the patient.
A 38-yr-old patient who had a kidney transplant 8 years ago is receiving the immunosuppressants tacrolimus (Prograf), cyclosporine (Sandimmune), and prednisone . Which assessment data will be of most concern to the nurse? a. Skin is thin and fragile. c. A nontender axillary lump. b. Blood pressure is 150/92. d. Blood glucose is 144 mg/dL.
b. Blood pressure is 150/92.
The nurse is caring for a patient with a massive burn injury and possible hypovolemia. Which assessment data will be of most concern to the nurse? a. Urine output is 30 mL/hr. b. Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg. c. Oral fluid intake is 100 mL for the past 8 hours. d. There is prolonged skin tenting over the sternum
b. Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg
A patient admitted with a peptic ulcer has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place. When the patient develops sudden, severe upper abdominal pain, diaphoresis, and a firm abdomen, which action should the nurse take? a. Irrigate the NG tube. b. Check the vital signs. c. Give the ordered antacid. d. Elevate the foot of the bed.
b. Check the vital signs.
A patient who has been in the intensive care unit for 4 days has disturbed sensory perception from sleep deprivation. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Administer prescribed sedatives or opioids at bedtime to promote sleep. b. Cluster nursing activities so that the patient has uninterrupted rest periods. c. Silence the alarms on the cardiac monitors to allow 30- to 40-minute naps. d. Eliminate assessments between 2200 and 0600 to allow uninterrupted sleep.
b. Cluster nursing activities so that the patient has uninterrupted rest periods.
The nurse caring for a patient admitted with burns over 30% of the body surface assesses that urine output has dramatically increased. Which action by the nurse would best support maintaining kidney function? a. Monitor white blood cells (WBCs). b. Continue to measure the urine output. c. Assess that blisters and edema have subsided. d. Encourage the patient to eat an adequate number of calories.
b. Continue to measure the urine output.
A hospice nurse who has become close to a terminally ill patient is present in the home when the patient dies and feels saddened and tearful as the family members begin to cry. Which action should the nurse take at this time? a. Contact a grief counselor as soon as possible. b. Cry along with the patient's family members. c. Leave the home quickly to allow the family to grieve privately. d. Consider leaving hospice work because patient losses are common
b. Cry along with the patient's family members.
A patient with multiple draining wounds is admitted for hypovolemia. Which assessment would be the most accurate way for the nurse to evaluate fluid balance? a. Skin turgor b. Daily weight c. Urine output d. Edema presence
b. Daily weight
An older adult patient who is malnourished presents to the emergency department with a serum protein level of 5.2 g/dL. The nurse would expect which clinical manifestation? a. Pallor b. Edema c. Confusion d. Restlessness
b. Edema
A patient with respiratory failure has a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min and an oxygen saturation (SpO2) of 88%. The patient is increasingly lethargic. Which intervention will the nurse anticipate? a. Administration of 100% O2 by non-rebreather mask b. Endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation c. Insertion of a mini-tracheostomy with frequent suctioning d. Initiation of continuous positive pressure ventilation (CPAP)
b. Endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation
A 58-yr-old male patient who is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome has ascites and 4+ leg edema. Which patient problem is present based on these findings? a. Activity intolerance b. Excess fluid volume c. Disturbed body image d. Altered nutrition: less than required
b. Excess fluid volume
A patient who had a transverse colectomy for diverticulosis 18 hours ago has nasogastric suction. The patient complains of anxiety and incisional pain. The patient's respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min, and the arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicate respiratory alkalosis. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Check to make sure the nasogastric tube is patent. b. Give the patient the PRN IV morphine sulfate 4 mg. c. Notify the health care provider about the ABG results. d. Teach the patient how to take slow, deep breaths when anxious
b. Give the patient the PRN IV morphine sulfate 4 mg.
A patient with massive trauma and possible spinal cord injury is admitted to the emergency department (ED). Which assessment finding by the nurse will help confirm a diagnosis of neurogenic shock? a. Inspiratory crackles b. Heart rate 45 beats/min c. Cool, clammy extremities d. Temperature 101.2°F (38.4°C)
b. Heart rate 45 beats/min
After surgery for an abdominal aortic aneurysm, a patient's central venous pressure (CVP) monitor indicates low pressures. Which action should the nurse take? a. Administer IV diuretic medications. b. Increase the IV fluid infusion per protocol. c. Increase the infusion rate of IV vasodilators. d. Elevate the head of the patient's bed to 45 degrees.
b. Increase the IV fluid infusion per protocol.
A patient in the emergency department has just been diagnosed with peritonitis caused by a ruptured diverticulum. Which prescribed intervention will the nurse implement first? a. Insert a urinary catheter to drainage. b. Infuse metronidazole (Flagyl) 500 mg IV. c. Send the patient for a computerized tomography scan. d. Place a nasogastric (NG) tube to intermittent low suction.
b. Infuse metronidazole (Flagyl) 500 mg IV.
IV potassium chloride (KCl) 60 mEq is prescribed for treatment of a patient with severe hypokalemia. Which action should the nurse take? a. Administer the KCl as a rapid IV bolus. b. Infuse the KCl at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. c. Only give the KCl through a central venous line. d. Discontinue cardiac monitoring during the infusion
b. Infuse the KCl at a rate of 10 mEq/hour.
Which patient assessment will help the nurse identify potential complications of trigeminal neuralgia? a. Have the patient clench the jaws. b. Inspect the oral mucosa and teeth. c. Palpate the face to compare skin temperature bilaterally. d. Identify trigger zones by lightly touching the affected side.
b. Inspect the oral mucosa and teeth.
Which laboratory value reported to the nurse by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) indicates an urgent need for the nurse's assessment of the patient? a. Bedtime glucose of 140 mg/dL b. Noon blood glucose of 52 mg/dL c. Fasting blood glucose of 130 mg/dL d. 2-hr postprandial glucose of 220 mg/dL
b. Noon blood glucose of 52 mg/dL
A patient with circumferential burns of both legs develops a decrease in dorsalis pedis pulse strength and numbness in the toes. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Monitor the pulses every hour. b. Notify the health care provider. c. Elevate both legs above heart level with pillows. d. Encourage the patient to flex and extend the toes.
b. Notify the health care provider.
The nurse is planning to administer a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a patient with blood loss from gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Which action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Verify the patient identification (ID) according to hospital policy. b. Obtain the temperature, blood pressure, and pulse before the transfusion. c. Double-check the product numbers on the PRBCs with the patient ID band. d. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath or chest pain during the transfusion.
b. Obtain the temperature, blood pressure, and pulse before the transfusion.
The nurse is planning to administer a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a patient with blood loss from gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Which action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Verify the patient identification (ID) according to hospital policy. b. Obtain the temperature, blood pressure, and pulse before the transfusion. c. Double-check the product numbers on the PRBCs with the patient ID band. d. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath or chest pain during the transfusion.
b. Obtain the temperature, blood pressure, and pulse before the transfusion.
A patient with burns covering 40% total body surface area (TBSA) is in the acute phase of burn treatment. Which snack would be best for the nurse to offer to this patient? a. Bananas b. Orange gelatin c. Vanilla milkshake d. Whole grain bagel
b. Orange gelatin
After change-of-shift report in the progressive care unit, who should the nurse care for first? a. Patient who had an inferior myocardial infarction 2 days ago and has crackles in the lung bases b. Patient with suspected urosepsis who has new orders for urine and blood cultures and antibiotics c. Patient who had a T5 spinal cord injury 1 week ago and currently has a heart rate of 54 beats/minute d. Patient admitted with anaphylaxis 3 hours ago who now has clear lung sounds and a blood pressure of 108/58 mm Hg
b. Patient with suspected urosepsis who has new orders for urine and blood cultures and antibiotics
A patient with extensive electrical burn injuries is admitted to the emergency department. Which prescribed intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Assess pain level. b. Place on heart monitor. c.Check potassium level. d.Assess oral temperature.
b. Place on heart monitor.
A 42-yr-old patient admitted with acute kidney injury due to dehydration has oliguria, anemia, and hyperkalemia. Which prescribed action should the nurse take first? a. Insert a urinary retention catheter. b. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor. c. Administer epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit). d. Give sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).
b. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor.
A patient who is suspected of having an epidural hematoma is admitted to the emergency department. Which action will the nurse expect to take? a. Administer IV furosemide (Lasix). b. Prepare the patient for craniotomy. c. Initiate high-dose barbiturate therapy. d. Type and crossmatch for blood transfusion.
b. Prepare the patient for craniotomy.
A 58-yr-old patient with blunt abdominal trauma from a motor vehicle crash undergoes peritoneal lavage. If the lavage returns brown fecal drainage, which action will the nurse plan to take next? a. Auscultate the bowel sounds. b. Prepare the patient for surgery. c. Check the patient's oral temperature. d. Obtain information about the accident.
b. Prepare the patient for surgery.
A patient who has been involved in a motor vehicle crash arrives in the emergency department (ED) with cool, clammy skin; tachycardia; and hypotension. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Insert two large-bore IV catheters. b. Provide O2 at 100% per non-rebreather mask. c. Draw blood to type and crossmatch for transfusions. d. Initiate continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring.
b. Provide O2 at 100% per non-rebreather mask.
A 56-yr-old female patient is admitted to the hospital with new-onset nephrotic syndrome. Which assessment data will the nurse expect? a. Poor skin turgor b. Recent weight gain c. Elevated urine ketones d. Decreased blood pressure
b. Recent weight gain
A patient is admitted to the emergency department with severe fatigue and confusion. Laboratory studies are done. Which laboratory value will require the most immediate action by the nurse? a. Arterial blood pH is 7.32. b. Serum calcium is 18 mg/dL. c. Serum potassium is 5.1 mEq/L. d. Arterial oxygen saturation is 91%
b. Serum calcium is 18 mg/dL.
A patient who has a small cell carcinoma of the lung develops syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse should notify the health care provider about which assessment finding? a. Serum hematocrit of 42% b. Serum sodium level of 120 mg/dL c. Reported weight gain of 2.2 lb (1 kg) d. Urinary output of 280 mL during past 8 hours
b. Serum sodium level of 120 mg/dL
A patient whose heart monitor shows sinus tachycardia, rate 132, is apneic, and has no palpable pulses. What action should the nurse take next? a. Perform synchronized cardioversion. b. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). c. Give atropine per agency dysrhythmia protocol. d. Provide supplemental O2 via non-rebreather mask.
b. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
After evacuation of an epidural hematoma, a patient's intracranial pressure (ICP) is being monitored with an intraventricular catheter. Which information obtained by the nurse requires urgent communication with the health care provider? a. Pulse of 102 beats/min b. Temperature of 101.6° F c. Intracranial pressure of 15 mm Hg d. Mean arterial pressure of 90 mm Hg
b. Temperature of 101.6° F
Which information in a patient's history indicates to the nurse that the patient is not an appropriate candidate for kidney transplantation? a. The patient has type 1 diabetes. b. The patient has metastatic lung cancer. c. The patient has a history of chronic hepatitis C infection. d. The patient is infected with human immunodeficiency virus.
b. The patient has metastatic lung cancer.
A nurse is caring for a patient with ARDS who is being treated with mechanical ventilation and high levels of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). Which assessment finding by the nurse indicates that the PEEP may need to be reduced? a. The patient's PaO2 is 50 mm Hg and the SaO2 is 88%. b. The patient has subcutaneous emphysema on the upper thorax. c. The patient has bronchial breath sounds in both the lung fields. d. The patient has a first-degree atrioventricular heart block with a rate of 58 beats/min.
b. The patient has subcutaneous emphysema on the upper thorax.
When admitting a patient with stage III pressure ulcers on both heels, which information obtained by the nurse will have the most impact on wound healing? a. The patient has had the heel ulcers for 6 months. b. The patient takes oral hypoglycemic agents daily. c. The patient states that the ulcers are very painful. d. The patient has several incisions that formed keloids.
b. The patient takes oral hypoglycemic agents daily
A hospitalized patient who has received chemotherapy for leukemia develops neutropenia. Which observation by the nurse would indicate a need for further teaching? a. The patient ambulates around the room. b. The patient's visitors bring in fresh peaches. c. The patient cleans with a warm washcloth after having a stool. d. The patient uses soap and shampoo to shower every other day
b. The patient's visitors bring in fresh peaches.
A 33-yr-old male patient with a gunshot wound to the abdomen undergoes surgery, and a colostomy is formed as shown in the accompanying figure. Which information will be included in patient teaching? a. Stool will be expelled from both stomas. b. This type of colostomy is usually temporary. c. Soft, formed stool can be expected as drainage. d. Irrigations can regulate drainage from the stomas.
b. This type of colostomy is usually temporary.
The nurse is titrating the IV fluid infusion rate immediately after a patient has had kidney transplantation. Which parameter will be most important for the nurse to consider? a. Heart rate b. Urine output c. Creatinine clearance d. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level
b. Urine output
Which finding is the best indicator that the fluid resuscitation for a 90-kg patient with hypovolemic shock has been effective? a. Hemoglobin is within normal limits. b. Urine output is 65 mL over the past hour. c. Central venous pressure (CVP) is normal. d. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 72 mm Hg.
b. Urine output is 65 mL over the past hour.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has a central venous access device (CVAD). Which action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Avoid using friction when cleaning around the CVAD insertion site. b. Use the push-pause method to flush the CVAD after giving medications. c. Obtain an order from the health care provider to change CVAD dressing. d. Position the patient's face toward the CVAD during injection cap changes
b. Use the push-pause method to flush the CVAD after giving medications.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has a central venous access device (CVAD). Which action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Avoid using friction when cleaning around the CVAD insertion site. b. Use the push-pause method to flush the CVAD after giving medications. c. Obtain an order from the health care provider to change CVAD dressing. d. Position the patient's face toward the CVAD during injection cap changes.
b. Use the push-pause method to flush the CVAD after giving medications.
A young adult arrives in the emergency department with ankle swelling and severe pain after twisting an ankle playing basketball. Which of these prescribed interprofessional interventions will the nurse implement first? a. Send the patient for ankle x-rays. b. Wrap the ankle and apply an ice pack. c. Administer naproxen (Naprosyn) 500 mg PO. d. Give acetaminophen with codeine (Tylenol #3).
b. Wrap the ankle and apply an ice pack.
Before administering botulinum antitoxin to a patient in the emergency department, it is most important for the nurse to a. obtain the patient's temperature. b. administer an intradermal test dose. c. document the neurologic symptoms. d. ask the patient about an allergy to eggs.
b. administer an intradermal test dose.
A patient has a sinus rhythm and a heart rate of 72 beats/min. The nurse determines that the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. The most appropriate intervention by the nurse would be to a. notify the health care provider immediately. b. document the finding and monitor the patient. c. give atropine per agency dysrhythmia protocol. d. prepare the patient for temporary pacemaker insertion.
b. document the finding and monitor the patient.
Before administration of captopril to a patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse will check the patient's a. glucose. b. potassium. c. creatinine. d. phosphate.
b. potassium.
The nurse assessing a patient with newly diagnosed trigeminal neuralgia will ask the patient about a. visual problems caused by ptosis. b. triggers leading to facial discomfort. c. poor appetite caused by loss of taste. d. weakness on the affected side of the face.
b. triggers leading to facial discomfort.
To verify the correct placement of an oral endotracheal tube (ET) after insertion, the best initial action by the nurse is to a. obtain a portable chest x-ray. b. use an end-tidal CO2 monitor. c. auscultate for bilateral breath sounds. d. observe for symmetrical chest movement.
b. use an end-tidal CO2 monitor.
Which patient is at greatest risk for developing hypermagnesemia? a. 83-year-old man with lung cancer and hypertension b. 65-year-old woman with hypertension taking β-adrenergic blockers c. 42-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus and renal failure d. 50-year-old man with benign prostatic hyperplasia and a urinary tract infection
c. 42-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus and renal failure
Which patient should the nurse refer for hospice care? a. A 70-yr-old patient with lymphoma whose children are unable to discuss issuesrelated to dying b. A 60-yr-old patient with chronic severe pain as a result of spinal arthritis andvertebral collapse c. A 40-yr-old patient with AIDS-related dementia who needs palliative care and painmanagement d. A 50-yr-old patient with advanced liver failure whose family members can nolonger provide care in the home
c. A 40-yr-old patient with AIDS-related dementia who needs palliative care and pain management
Which prescribed action will the nurse implement first for a patient who has vomited 1100 mL of blood? a. Give an IV H2 receptor antagonist. b. Draw blood for typing and crossmatching. c. Administer 1 L of lactated Ringer's solution. d. Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube and connect to suction.
c. Administer 1 L of lactated Ringer's solution.
Which action for a patient with neutropenia is appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of infection b. Teaching the patient the purpose of neutropenic precautions c. Administering subcutaneous filgrastim (Neupogen) injection d. Developing a discharge teaching plan for the patient and family
c. Administering subcutaneous filgrastim (Neupogen) injection
A patient has peptic ulcer disease that has been associated with Helicobacter pylori. About which medications will the nurse plan to teach the patient? a. Sucralfate (Carafate), nystatin, and bismuth (Pepto-Bismol) b. Metoclopramide (Reglan), bethanechol (Urecholine), and promethazine c. Amoxicillin (Amoxil), clarithromycin (Biaxin), and omeprazole (Prilosec) d. Famotidine (Pepcid), magnesium hydroxide (Mylanta), and pantoprazole (Protonix)
c. Amoxicillin (Amoxil), clarithromycin (Biaxin), and omeprazole (Prilosec)
A 22-yr-old patient who experienced a drowning accident in a local pool, but now is awake and breathing spontaneously, is admitted for observation. Which assessment will be most important for the nurse to take during the observation period? a. Auscultate heart sounds. b. Palpate peripheral pulses. c. Auscultate breath sounds. d. Check mental orientation.
c. Auscultate breath sounds.
Which instruction will the nurse plan to include in discharge teaching for a patient admitted with a sickle cell crisis? a. Take a daily multivitamin with iron. b. Limit fluids to 2 to 3 quarts per day. c. Avoid exposure to crowds when possible. d. Drink only two caffeinated beverages daily.
c. Avoid exposure to crowds when possible.
To evaluate the effectiveness of the pantoprazole (Protonix) ordered for a patient with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), which assessment will the nurse perform? a. Auscultate bowel sounds. b. Ask the patient about nausea. c. Check stools for occult blood. d. Palpate for abdominal tenderness.
c. Check stools for occult blood.
A young adult patient who is receiving antibiotics for an infected leg wound has a temperature of 101.8° F (38.7° C) The patient reports having no discomfort. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Apply a cooling blanket. b. Notify the health care provider. c. Check the patient's temperature again in 4 hours. d. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) prescribed PRN for
c. Check the patient's temperature again in 4 hours.
When assessing a new patient at the outpatient clinic, the nurse notes dry, scaly skin; thin hair; and thick, brittle nails. What is the nurse's most important action? a. Instruct the patient about the importance of nutrition for skin health. b. Make a referral to a podiatrist so that the nails can be safely trimmed. c. Consult with the health care provider about the need for further diagnostic testing. d. Teach the patient about using moisturizing creams and lotions to decrease dry skin.
c. Consult with the health care provider about the need for further diagnostic testing.
Which finding in a patient with a spinal cord tumor requires an immediate report to the health care provider? a. Depression about the diagnosis b. Anxiety about scheduled surgery c. Decreased ability to move the legs d. Back pain that worsens with coughing
c. Decreased ability to move the legs
The long-term care nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of protein supplements for an older resident who has a low serum total protein level. Which assessment finding indicates that the patient's condition has improved? a. Hematocrit 28% b. Absence of skin tenting c. Decreased peripheral edema d. Blood pressure 110/72 mm Hg
c. Decreased peripheral edema
The nurse is caring for an unresponsive terminally ill patient who has 20-second periods of apnea followed by periods of deep and rapid breathing. Which action by the nurse would be appropriate? a. Suction the patient's mouth. b. Administer oxygen via face mask. c. Document Cheyne-Stokes respirations. d. Place the patient in high Fowler's position
c. Document Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
The nurse is caring for a patient with lung cancer in a home hospice program. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Discuss cancer risk factors and appropriate lifestyle modifications. b. Teach the patient about the purpose of chemotherapy and radiation. c. Encourage the patient to discuss past life events and their meanings. d. Accomplish a thorough head-to-toe assessment several times a week
c. Encourage the patient to discuss past life events and their meanings.
A patient has just arrived in the emergency department after an electrical burn from exposure to a high-voltage current. What is the priority nursing assessment? a. Oral temperature b. Peripheral pulses c. Extremity movement d. Pupil reaction to light
c. Extremity movement
The nurse assesses a patient who has been hospitalized for 2 days. The patient has been receiving normal saline IV at 100 mL/hr, has a nasogastric tube to low suction, and is NPO. Which assessment finding would be a priority for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Oral temperature of 100.1°F b. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L (138 mmol/L) c. Gradually decreasing level of consciousness (LOC) d. Weight gain of 2 pounds (1 kg) over the admission weight
c. Gradually decreasing level of consciousness (LOC)
A patient with possible disseminated intravascular coagulation arrives in the emergency department with a blood pressure of 82/40, temperature of 102° F (38.9° C), and severe back pain. Which prescribed action will the nurse implement first? a. Administer morphine sulfate 4 mg IV. b. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg. c. Infuse normal saline 500 mL over 30 minutes. d. Schedule complete blood count and coagulation studies.
c. Infuse normal saline 500 mL over 30 minutes.
A patient who is unconscious has ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion and cerebral tissue swelling. Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. b. Position the patient with knees and hips flexed. c. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees. d. Cluster nursing interventions to provide rest periods.
c. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees.
Which assessment finding may indicate that a patient is experiencing adverse effects to a corticosteroid prescribed after kidney transplantation? a. Postural hypotension b. Recurrent tachycardia c. Knee and hip joint pain d. Increased serum creatinine
c. Knee and hip joint pain
The nurse notes that a patient's endotracheal tube (ET), which was at the 22-cm mark, is now at the 25-cm mark, and the patient is anxious and restless. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Check the O2 saturation. b. Offer reassurance to the patient. c. Listen to the patient's breath sounds. d. Notify the patient's health care provider.
c. Listen to the patient's breath sounds.
When the nurse educator is evaluating the skills of a new registered nurse (RN) caring for patients experiencing shock, which action by the new RN indicates a need for more education? a. Placing the pulse oximeter on the ear for a patient with septic shock b. Keeping the head of the bed flat for a patient with hypovolemic shock c. Maintaining a cool room temperature for a patient with neurogenic shock d. Increasing the nitroprusside infusion rate for a patient with a very high SVR
c. Maintaining a cool room temperature for a patient with neurogenic shock
A nurse is assessing a newly admitted patient with chronic heart failure who forgot to take prescribed medications and seems confused. The patient has peripheral edema and shortness of breath. Which assessment should the nurse complete first? a. Skin turgor b. Heart sounds c. Mental status d. Capillary refill
c. Mental status
A patient with septicemia develops prolonged bleeding from venipuncture sites and blood in the stools. Which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Avoid other venipunctures. b. Apply dressings to the sites. c. Notify the health care provider. d. Give prescribed proton-pump inhibitors.
c. Notify the health care provider.
A patient who is complaining of a "racing" heart and feeling "anxious" comes to the emergency department. The nurse places the patient on a heart monitor and obtains the following electrocardiographic (ECG) tracing. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Prepare to perform electrical cardioversion. b. Have the patient perform the Valsalva maneuver. c. Obtain the patient's vital signs including O2 saturation. d. Prepare to give a β-blocker medication to slow the heart rate.
c. Obtain the patient's vital signs including O2 saturation.
The nurse is caring for an older patient who was hospitalized 2 days earlier with community-acquired pneumonia. Which assessment information is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Persistent cough of blood-tinged sputum. b. Scattered crackles in the posterior lung bases. c. Oxygen saturation 90% on 100% O2 by nonrebreather mask. d. Temperature 101.5° F (38.6° C) after 2 days of IV antibiotics.
c. Oxygen saturation 90% on 100% O2 by nonrebreather mask.
After reviewing the information shown in the accompanying figure for a patient with pneumonia and sepsis, which information is most important to report to the health care provider? Physical Assessment Laboratory Data Vital Signs ∙ Petechiae noted on chest and legs ∙ Crackles heard bilaterally in lung bases ∙ No redness or swelling at central line IV site ∙ Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 34 mg/Dl ∙ Hematocrit 30% ∙ Platelets 50,000/µL ∙ Temperature 100°F (37.8°C) ∙ Pulse 102/min ∙ Respirations 26/min ∙ BP 110/60 mm Hg ∙ O2 saturation 93% on 2L O2 via nasal cannula a. Temperature and IV site appearance b. Oxygen saturation and breath sounds c. Platelet count and presence of petechiae d. Blood pressure, pulse rate, respiratory rate.
c. Platelet count and presence of petechiae
A patient who was admitted with a myocardial infarction experiences a 45-second episode of ventricular tachycardia, then converts to sinus rhythm with a heart rate of 98 beats/min. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Immediately notify the health care provider. b. Document the rhythm and continue to monitor the patient. c. Prepare to give IV amiodarone per agency dysrhythmia protocol. d. Perform synchronized cardioversion per agency dysrhythmia protocol.
c. Prepare to give IV amiodarone per agency dysrhythmia protocol.
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving a continuous norepinephrine IV infusion. Which patient assessment finding indicates that the infusion rate may need to be adjusted? a. Heart rate is slow at 58 beats/min. b. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 56 mm Hg. c. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is elevated. d. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is low.
c. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is elevated.
The nurse instructs a patient about application of corticosteroid cream to an area of contact dermatitis on the right leg. Which patient action indicates that further teaching is needed? a. The patient takes a tepid bath before applying the cream. b. The patient spreads the cream using a downward motion. c. The patient applies a thick layer of the cream to the affected skin. d. The patient covers the area with a dressing after applying the cream.
c. The patient applies a thick layer of the cream to the affected skin.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has a head injury and fractured right arm after being assaulted. Which assessment information requires rapid action by the nurse? a. The apical pulse is slightly irregular. b. The patient complains of a headache. c. The patient is more difficult to arouse. d. The blood pressure (BP) increases to 140/62 mm Hg.
c. The patient is more difficult to arouse.
A patient who has type 2 diabetes is being prepared for an elective coronary angiogram. Which information would the nurse anticipate might lead to rescheduling the test? a. The patient's most recent A1C was 6.5%. b. The patient's blood glucose is 128 mg/dL. c. The patient took the prescribed metformin today. d. The patient took the prescribed captopril this morning.
c. The patient took the prescribed metformin today.
A patient who has neurogenic shock is receiving a phenylephrine infusion through a right forearm IV. Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse indicates a need for immediate action? a. The patient's heart rate is 58 beats/min. b. The patient's extremities are warm and dry. c. The patient's IV infusion site is cool and pale. d. The patient's urine output is 28 mL over the past hour.
c. The patient's IV infusion site is cool and pale.
The nurse will anticipate teaching a patient with nephrotic syndrome who develops flank pain about treatment with a. antibiotics. b. antifungals. c. anticoagulants. d. antihypertensives.
c. anticoagulants.
When evaluating outcomes of a glycerol rhizotomy for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia, the nurse will a. assess if the patient is doing daily facial exercises. b. question if the patient is using an eye shield at night. c. ask the patient about social activities with family and friends. d. remind the patient to chew on the unaffected side of the mouth.
c. ask the patient about social activities with family and friends.
During a physical examination of an older patient, the nurse palpates the point of maximal impulse (PMI) in the sixth intercostal space lateral to the left midclavicular line. The best follow-up action for the nurse to take will be to a. ask about risk factors for atherosclerosis. b. determine family history of heart disease. c. assess for symptoms of left ventricular hypertrophy. d. auscultate carotid arteries for the presence of a bruit.
c. assess for symptoms of left ventricular hypertrophy.
When a brain-injured patient responds to nail bed pressure with internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms, the nurse reports the response as a. flexion withdrawal. b. localization of pain. c. decorticate posturing. d. decerebrate posturing.
c. decorticate posturing.
The nurse teaches an adult patient to prevent the recurrence of renal calculi by a. using a filter to strain all urine. b. avoiding dietary sources of calcium. c. drinking 2000 to 3000 mL of fluid each day. d. choosing diuretic fluids such as coffee and tea.
c. drinking 2000 to 3000 mL of fluid each day.
After receiving 2 L of normal saline, the central venous pressure for a patient who has septic shock is 10 mm Hg, but the blood pressure is still 82/40 mm Hg. The nurse will anticipate an order for a. furosemide . b. nitroglycerin . c. norepinephrine . d. sodium nitroprusside .
c. norepinephrine .
When a patient who takes metformin (Glucophage) to manage type 2 diabetes develops an allergic rash from an unknown cause, the health care provider prescribes prednisone. The nurse will anticipate that the patient may a. need a diet higher in calories while receiving prednisone. b. develop acute hypoglycemia while taking the prednisone. c. require administration of insulin while taking prednisone. d. have rashes caused by metformin-prednisone interactions.
c. require administration of insulin while taking prednisone.
To prevent recurrence of uric acid renal calculi, the nurse teaches the patient to avoid eating a. milk and cheese. c. spinach and chocolate. b. sardines and liver. d. legumes and dried fruit.
c. spinach and chocolate.
A patient had an incisional cholecystectomy 6 hours ago. The nurse will place the highest priority on assisting the patient to a. perform leg exercises hourly while awake. b. ambulate the evening of the operative day. c. turn, cough, and deep breathe every 2 hours. d. choose preferred low-fat foods from the menu.
c. turn, cough, and deep breathe every 2 hours.
The nurse has been teaching a patient with type 2 diabetes about managing blood glucose levels and taking glipizide (Glucotrol). Which patient statement indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "If I overeat at a meal, I will still take the usual dose of medication." b. "Other medications besides the Glucotrol may affect my blood sugar." c. "When I am ill, I may have to take insulin to control my blood sugar." d. "My diabetes won't cause complications because I don't need insulin."
d. "My diabetes won't cause complications because I don't need insulin."
Which statement by a patient indicates good understanding of the nurse's teaching about prevention of sickle cell crisis? a. "Home oxygen therapy is frequently used to decrease sickling." b. "There are no effective medications that can help prevent sickling." c. "Routine continuous dosage narcotics are prescribed to prevent a crisis." d. "Risk for a crisis is decreased by having an annual influenza vaccination."
d. "Risk for a crisis is decreased by having an annual influenza vaccination."
After the emergency department nurse has received a status report on the following patients who have been admitted with head injuries, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 20-yr-old patient whose cranial x-ray shows a linear skull fracture b. A 50-yr-old patient who has an initial Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 c. A 30-yr-old patient who lost consciousness for a few seconds after a fall d. A 40-yr-old patient whose right pupil is 10 mm and unresponsive to light
d. A 40-yr-old patient whose right pupil is 10 mm and unresponsive to light
The nurse has received change-of-shift report about the following patients on the progressive care unit. Which patient should the nurse see first? a. A patient with atrial fibrillation, rate 88 and irregular, who has a dose of warfarin (Coumadin) due b. A patient with second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, type 1, rate 60, who is dizzy when ambulating c. A patient who is in a sinus rhythm, rate 98 and regular, recovering from an elective cardioversion 2 hours ago d. A patient whose implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) fired twice today and has a dose of amiodarone (Cordarone) due
d. A patient whose implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) fired twice today and has a dose of amiodarone (Cordarone) due
After receiving change-of-shift report on a medical unit, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A patient with cystic fibrosis who has thick, green-colored sputum b. A patient with pneumonia who has crackles bilaterally in the lung bases c. A patient with emphysema who has an oxygen saturation of 90% to 92% d. A patient with septicemia who has intercostal and suprasternal retractions
d. A patient with septicemia who has intercostal and suprasternal retractions
Which laboratory test will the nurse use to determine whether filgrastim (Neupogen) is effective for a patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy? a. Platelet count b. Reticulocyte count c. Total lymphocyte count d. Absolute neutrophil count
d. Absolute neutrophil count
Which laboratory result will the nurse expect to show a decreased value if a patient develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)? a. Prothrombin time b. Erythrocyte count c. Fibrinogen degradation products d. Activated partial thromboplastin time
d. Activated partial thromboplastin time
A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) due. Which action should the nurse take? a. Withhold both drugs. b. Administer both drugs c. Administer the furosemide. d. Administer the spironolactone.
d. Administer the spironolactone.
A patient has been assigned the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to painful oral ulcers. Which nursing action will be most effective in improving oral intake? a. Offer the patient frequent small snacks between meals. b. Assist the patient to choose favorite foods from the menu. c. Provide teaching about the importance of nutritional intake. d. Apply prescribed anesthetic gel to oral lesions before meals.
d. Apply prescribed anesthetic gel to oral lesions before meals.
A patient who was involved in a motor vehicle crash has had a tracheostomy placed to allow for continued mechanical ventilation. How should the nurse interpret the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.48, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 25 mEq/L? a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis
d. Respiratory alkalosis
Which laboratory result for a patient with multifocal premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Blood glucose of 243 mg/dL b. Serum chloride of 92 mEq/L c. Serum sodium of 134 mEq/L d. Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L
d. Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L
Which assessment should the nurse perform first for a patient who just vomited bright red blood? a. Measuring the quantity of emesis b. Palpating the abdomen for distention c. Auscultating the chest for breath sounds d. Taking the blood pressure (BP) and pulse
d. Taking the blood pressure (BP) and pulse
When rewarming a patient who arrived in the emergency department (ED) with a temperature of 87° F (30.6° C), which finding indicates that the nurse should discontinue active rewarming? a. The patient begins to shiver. b. The BP decreases to 86/42 mm Hg. c. The patient develops atrial fibrillation. d. The core temperature is 94° F (34.4° C).
d. The core temperature is 94° F (34.4° C).
The nurse is reviewing the 12-lead electrocardiograph (ECG) for a healthy 74-yr-old patient who is having an annual physical examination. What finding is of most concern to the nurse? a. A right bundle-branch block. b. The PR interval is 0.21 seconds. c. The QRS duration is 0.13 seconds. d. The heart rate (HR) is 41 beats/min.
d. The heart rate (HR) is 41 beats/min.
Which finding indicates a need to contact the health care provider before the nurse administers metformin (Glucophage)? a. The patient's blood glucose level is 174 mg/dL. b. The patient is scheduled for a chest x-ray in an hour. c. The patient has gained 2 lb (0.9 kg) in the past 24 hours. d. The patient's blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is 52 mg/dL.
d. The patient's blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is 52 mg/dL.
Four hours after mechanical ventilation is initiated, a patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) results include a pH of 7.51, PaO2 of 82 mm Hg, PaCO2 of 26 mm Hg, and HCO3- of 23 mEq/L (23 mmol/L). The nurse will anticipate the need to a. increase the FIO2. b. increase the tidal volume. c. increase the respiratory rate. d. decrease the respiratory rate.
d. decrease the respiratory rate.
A patient complains of leg cramps during hemodialysis. The nurse should a. massage the patient's legs. b. reposition the patient supine. c. give acetaminophen (Tylenol). d. infuse a bolus of normal saline.
d. infuse a bolus of normal saline.
A patient develops increasing dyspnea and hypoxemia 2 days after heart surgery. To determine whether the patient has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) or pulmonary edema caused by heart failure, the nurse will plan to assist with a. obtaining a ventilation-perfusion scan. b. drawing blood for arterial blood gases. c. positioning the patient for a chest x-ray. d. insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter.
d. insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter.
A patient has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.52, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, HCO3− 24 mEq/L. The nurse determines that these results indicate a. metabolic acidosis. b. metabolic alkalosis. c. respiratory acidosis. d. respiratory alkalosis
d. respiratory alkalosis
During the postoperative care of a 76-year-old patient, the nurse monitors the patient's intake and output carefully, knowing that the patient is at risk for fluid and electrolyte imbalances primarily because a. older adults have an impaired thirst mechanism and need reminding to drink fluids. b. water accounts for a greater percentage of body weight in the older adult than in younger adults. c. older adults are more likely than younger adults to lose extracellular fluid during surgical procedures. d. small losses of fluid are significant because body fluids account for 45% to 50% of body weight in older adults.
d. small losses of fluid are significant because body fluids account for 45% to 50% of body weight in older adults.
A patient vomiting blood-streaked fluid is admitted to the hospital with acute gastritis. To determine possible risk factors for gastritis, the nurse will ask the patient about a. the amount of saturated fat in the diet. b. a family history of gastric or colon cancer. c. a history of a large recent weight gain or loss. d. use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
d. use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
The nurse obtains a rhythm strip on a patient who has had a myocardial infarction and makes the following analysis: no visible P waves, PR interval not measurable, ventricular rate of 162, R-R interval regular, and QRS complex wide and distorted, and QRS duration of 0.18 second. The nurse interprets the patient's cardiac rhythm as a. atrial flutter. b. sinus tachycardia. c. ventricular fibrillation. d. ventricular tachycardia.
d. ventricular tachycardia.