28, Bio_Ch.30, Biology, chapter 29, Harding.

the tube that connects the urinary bladder to the outside of the human body is the

urethra

when the concentration of solutes in fluid is higher outside the cell than inside,

water moves out of the cell by osmosis

3. The diploid first cell of a new organism is a(n) A. gamete. B. sperm. C. polar body. D. zygote. E. ovum.

zygote.

a diuretic is

a substance that increase volume of urine

cells often use_____to move ions against their concentration gradient

active transport

which of the following beings to be digested by saliva

carbohydrates

21. In females, nearly all cases of ______ cancer are associated with the human papillomavirus. A. ovarian B. lung C. breast D. cervical E. All answers are correct.

cervical

a primary source of vitamin D in our diets is

citrus fruits

28. The gland that forms from ruptured follicle cells in the ovary and secretes estrogen and progesterone is the A. labia majora. B. prostate gland. C. seminal vesicle. D. clitoris. E. corpeus luteum.

corpeus luteum. pg. 617

diuretics are commonly prescribed drugs for patients with hypertension because they

decrease blood volume and blood pressure

the function of bile is to

emulsify fats

which of the following is not considered to be a primary organ in the human digestive system?

esophagus

the chemical composition of urine reflects the process of

filtration, absorption, and secretion

which is a disadvantage of intracellular digestion that does not affect ectracellular digestion?

food must be smaller than a cell

animals that eat only plants are

herbivores

a reptile

is ectothermic and has a body temperature that fluctuates as the animal derives its heart from the enviornment

a mammal

is endothermic and has a body temperature maintained by its own metabolism

fresh water is much more dilute than the cells of a fish, so the animal constantly takes in water at its gills. How would a freshwater fish osmoregulate?

it would produce dilute urine and use active transport at the gills to take up from the water

B cells or T cells are A. basophils. B. invaders. C. lymphocytes. D. allergies. E. vaccines.

lymphocytes.

the process used to control the level of water and ions in body fluids is termed

osmoregulation

enzyme that breaks down protein

pepsin

kidney stones are calcium-rich crystals that form inside the kidney and can be triggered by dehydration for which reason?

salt concentrations increase as blood volume drops

the human large intestine is about____in length

1.5m

the hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary that causes the reabsorption of more water by the kidney is

ADH

62. Why does the expulsion of the placenta not occur until the final stage of labor? A. to remove waste from the fetus during labor B. to provide nourishment to the fetus during labor C. to provide oxygen to the fetus during labor D. to remove carbon dioxide from the fetus during labor E. All answers are correct.

All??

37. In the late 1950s, some women took ______ as a tranquilizer to relieve morning sickness and it caused deformed limbs in developing embryos. A. acetaminophen B. acutane C. erythromycin D. thalidomide E. penicillin

thalidomide 623

the control of an organisms body temperature is

thermoregulation

31. The stage of human development in which the endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm form is the A. zygote. B. gastrula. C. embryonic stage. D. ovum. E. fetal stage.

Embryonic stage. See: http://highered.mcgraw-hill.com/sites/0073405515/student_view0/chapter2/multiple_choice_quiz.html

most multivitamins should be taken with a meal for which reason?

to help with the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins

A patient can have antibodies against many strains of HIV. Which of the following is the main reason that an effective vaccine has not been produced for the HIV virus that causes AIDS? A. The virus reproduces very rapidly. B. It takes 2-3 months to raise antibodies against the virus. C. The virus is transmitted sexually. D. The virus mutates rapidly, changing its outer coat. E. The virus is not technically alive.

...

In the section "Investigating Life: The Hidden Cost of Hygiene", which of the following would a person in a less-developed country be less likely to have than a person in a more-developed country, according to the hygiene hypothesis? A. bacterial infection B. parasites C. asthma D. viral infection E. fungal infection

...

Which of the following correctly describes B cells and T cells? A. B cells and T cells are lymphocytes. B. B cells and T cells attack cancerous cells in the body. C. B cells and T cells attack foreign particles in the body. D. B cells and T cells are not innate defenses. E. All answers are correct.

...

Physical and chemical barriers that form the first line of innate defense include A. the acidity of the stomach. B. tear fluid from the eye. C. an un-punctured skin. D. mucus and cilia of the respiratory tract. E. All answers are correct.

All answers are correct.

1. In organisms that reproduce sexually, ________ are the sex cells that carry the genetic information from each parent. A. diploid zygotes B. haploid zygotes C. haploid gametes D. diploid gametes E. diploid hormones

haploid gametes

The innate chemical substance produced by basophils that causes blood vessels to dilate is A. interleukin. B. complement protein. C. interferon. D. epinephrine. E. histamine.

histamine.

epithelial cells of the small intestine can have about 500 microvilli on them. what is the purpose of these microvilli?

increase surface area for food absorbption

the functional unit of a kidney is a

nephron

Hyponatremia is low sodium in the blood. This is a concer for a marathon runners who drink too much water, and can cause life-threatening pressure on the brain. why would this occur

neurons would swell by osmosis

Which of the following is not considered to be a major part of the immune system? A. thymus B. bone marrow C. spleen D. pancreas E. lymph node

pancreas

which of the following disease is caused by a deficiency of vitamin D?

rickets

which is caused by vitamin C deficiency?

scurvy

36. A gene called the ______ must be activated at week seven of embryonic development for male sex organs and glands to develop. A. sex-determining gene on the Y chromosome B. GnRH C. FSH D. sex-determining gene on the X chromosome E. GH

sex-determining gene on the Y chromosome 624

rings of muscle in the digestive tract that can open and close, regulating the movement of food into or out of parts of the digestive system, are

sphincters

the only animals the rely soley on intracellular digestion are

sponges

antacids would be effective in which part of the digestive system?

stomach

in humans, the muscular tube into which urine from the kidney first drains is the

ureter

46. Birth control pills contain a combination of estrogen and progesterone. What effect would this have on the anterior pituitary? A. It would secrete less FSH and LH. B. It would secrete less gonadotrophin-releasing hormone. C. It would secrete more gonadotrophin-releasing hormone. D. It would secrete more FSH and LH. E. There would be no effect on the anterior pituitary.

Maybe A. - please check this. It would secrete less FSH and LH.

20. The tube-like structure that serves as the birth canal in the human female is the A. cervix. B. vulva. C. vagina. D. uterus. E. uterine tube.

vagina.

54. What does the human reproductive system create? A. a new gamete B. a genetically-identical copy of an existing human C. a genetically-identical cell D. a genetically-different cell E. a genetically-unique offspring

a genetically-unique offspring This also could be A. Not sure. They do both obviously.

13. The cap-like __________________ covers the head of the sperm and releases enzymes that will help the sperm penetrate the egg. A. epididymis B. vas deferens C. acrosome D. mitochondria E. nucleus

acrosome

the steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex tha raises blood pressue is

aldosterone

34. In humans, the transparent sac that contains fluid that cushions the embryo and maintains a constant temperature and pressure is the A. amnion. B. yolk sac. C. embryonic disc. D. chorionic villus. E. chorion.

amnion. 622

14. In human males, the different types of male sex hormones are collectively called A. estrogens. B. growth hormones. C. progesterones. D. androgens. E. follicle-stimulating hormones.

androgens.

the enzyme that breaks down fats is

bile

animals that hunt and eat essentially only other animals are

carnivores

A phagocyte is a A. cell that engulfs other cells and debris. B. cell that primarily is used to produce antibodies. C. cell that produces white blood cells. D. cell that produces platelets. E. cell that transports oxygen to tissues.

cell that engulfs other cells and debris.

In a process called ______, an army of plasma cells and memory cells are produced from properly-stimulated B cells. A. conjugation B. meiotic regeneration C. recombination D. clonal selection E. artificial selection

clonal selection

The substance that when activated triggers a chain reaction that punctures bacterial cell membranes is A. histamine. B. interleukin. C. plasma. D. complement protein. E. epinephrine.

complement protein.

animals that consume decaying organic matter as their main source of food are

detritivores

what effect would drinking salt water have in a human

deydration as the extra salt pulls water out of the blood into the urine

41. A baby turtle growing into an adult that appears similar is an example of A. direct development. B. external fertilization. C. internal fertilization. D. indirect development. E. differentiation.

direct development. 610

an organism that manages its temperature by its own metabolism is termed an

endoterm

which of the following is an advantage of enothermy over ectothermy

endotherms can move quickly even if it is cold

7. The tightly coiled tube that receives and stores sperm from one testis is a(n) A. scrotum. B. vas deferens. C. epididymis. D. prostate gland. E. seminal vesicle.

epididymis.

22. Fertilization of a secondary oocyte normally occurs in the A. ovary. B. vagina. C. fallopian tube. D. uterus. E. cervix.

fallopian tube.

when the concentration of solute in the cell is higher than the environment,

water cells move into the cell by osmosis

the major artery that delivers blood to the kidney is the

renal artery

5. In the male, the sac-like structure that contains the testes is the A. epididymis. B. vas deferens. C. scrotum. D. ureter. E. seminal vesicle.

scrotum.

A disease-causing agent that does not usually infect and cause disease in a person with a healthy immune system is termed a(n) A. pathogen. B. subtle pathogen. C. secondary pathogen. D. opportunistic pathogen. E. unlikely pathogen.

secondary pathogen.

48. A diaphragm is a shallow, dome-shaped rubber disk with a flexible rim that fits within the vagina and covers the cervix. How does this act as a contraceptive to prevent pregnancy? A. It would prevent sperm from reaching the egg. B. It would prevent ovulation. C. It would cause the embryo to die. D. It would prevent implantation on the uterine wall. E. If would act as a spermicide, killing sperm.

If would act as a spermicide, killing sperm. 619

47. How does a birth control pill containing estrogen and progesterone prevent pregnancy? A. It would prevent sperm from reaching the egg. B. It would cause the embryo to die. C. It would prevent implantation on the uterine wall. D. If would act as a spermicide, killing sperm. E. It would prevent ovulation.

It would prevent ovulation. 618

45. Birth control pills contain a combination of estrogen and progesterone. What effect would this have on the hypothalamus? A. It would secrete less FSH and LH. B. It would secrete more gonadotrophin-releasing hormone. C. It would secrete more FSH and LH. D. It would secrete less gonadotrophin-releasing hormone. E. There would be no effect on the hypothalamus.

It would secrete less gonadotrophin-releasing hormone. 617

27. The surge of the hormone _______________ in the bloodstream of the female triggers ovulation. A. FSH B. LH C. estrogen D. progesterone E. GnRH

LH pg. 617

26. The hormone released by the anterior pituitary that stimulates the development of the corpeus luteum is A. GnRH. B. FSH. C. LH. D. ATP. E. progesterone.

LH. pg. 617

10. The structure that secretes most of the fluid found in the semen and opens into the vas deferens is the A. epididymis. B. urethra. C. ejaculatory duct. D. seminal vesicle. E. seminiferous tubule.

seminal vesicle.

6. The tightly coiled structure (structures) inside the testes that produce the sperm cells is (are) the A. seminiferous tubules. B. epididymis. C. vas deferens. D. scrotum. E. ureters.

seminiferous tubules.

51. Often a woman may first suspect she is pregnant when she misses a period or menstrual cycle. What causes a pregnant woman to miss a period? A. Chorionic gonadotropin causes the corpus luteum to produce progesterone. B. Chorionic gonadotropin blocks the corpus luteum from producing progesterone. C. Follicle-stimulating hormone causes the corpus luteum to produce progesterone. D. Follicle-stimulating hormone blocks the corpus luteum from producing progesterone. E. Luteinizing hormone blocks the corpus luteum from producing progesterone.

Maybe A - according to an online quiz.

50. Often a woman may first suspect she is pregnant when she misses a period or menstrual cycle. Why is it important for the menstrual cycle to be blocked during a pregnancy? A. to prevent additional fertilizations B. to conserve eggs C. to avoid having twins D. to prevent the blastocyst from being lost E. to prevent the loss of the corpus luteum

Maybe D - according to an online quiz.

49. A tubal ligation is a surgical procedure in which the fallopian tubes are severed, and then tied. How would this cause sterility? A. Oocytes cannot be produced by meiosis. B. Oocytes cannot move to the uterus. C. Oocytes cannot be produced by mitosis. D. A woman cannot have an orgasm. E. The ovary stops producing estrogen.

Oocytes cannot move to the uterus. 619

52. If a woman does not know she is pregnant and undergoes a diagnostic medical procedure involving exposure of her abdomen to radiation, then the developing baby may be at risk. Why would the risk of birth defects be highest if the woman received the radiation during weeks 2-8 of her pregnancy? A. Organs first begin to develop during the preembryonic stage. B. Organs first begin to develop during the embryonic stage. C. Organs first begin to develop during the fetal stage. D. Organs first begin to develop during the zygotic stage. E. Organs first begin to develop during the ovum stage.

Organs first begin to develop during the embryonic stage. 622

the main site of food absorbtion in the human digestive system is the

small intestine

the main site of water and mineral absorption in the human digestive system is the

small intestine

58. Which of the following statements about sexually-transmitted diseases is wrong? A. STDs are unique to humans. B. The most common STD in the United States is genital warts. C. An individual with one STD can obtain another STD. D. STDs spread through vaginal, oral, and anal sex. E. Many STDs do not show initial symptoms, especially in men.

STDs are unique to humans. 619

44. How does a vasectomy cause sterility? A. Sperm cannot be produced by meiosis. B. Sperm cannot be produced by mitosis. C. Sperm cannot move to the urethra. D. A man cannot get an erection. E. The testes stop producing testosterone.

Sperm cannot move to the urethra. 619

acid reflux would occur under which of the following conditions?

stomach contents leak into esophagus

Why do lymph nodes often become swollen during an infection? A. T cells reproduce in lymph nodes after being exposed to pathogens. B. B cells reproduce in lymph nodes after being exposed to pathogens. C. Macrophages move to lymph nodes after engulfing pathogens. D. Cytotoxic T cells attack pathogens in the lymph nodes, triggering inflammation. E. Vasodilation increases blood flow in the lymph nodes.

T cells reproduce in lymph nodes after being exposed to pathogens.

Homeostasis is defined as

the ability of an organism to maintain a stable internal environment

42. Athletes who take synthetic steroids can become sterile due to lack of sperm production. This is because of negative feedback on which of the following? A. the epididymis B. the testes C. the vas deferens D. the prostate E. the hypothalamus

the testes 613

57. Which of the following is correct about sexually-transmitted diseases? A. All STDs are treatable with antibiotics if caught early enough. B. Viruses, bacteria, protists, and fungi can cause STDs. C. STDs cannot be contracted through oral sex. D. All answers are correct. E. All STDs can kill a human if left untreated.

Viruses, bacteria, protists, and fungi can cause STDs. 619

43. Athletes who take synthetic steroids can become sterile due to lack of sperm production. This is because the synthetic steroids cause which of the following? A. a decrease in FSH and LH production B. an increase in FSH and LH production C. a decrease in FSH and an increase in LH production D. an increase in FSH and a decrease in LH production

a decrease in FSH and LH production - Not sure

Which of the following are examples of passive immunity? A. antibodies produced from a vaccine, or a person receiving an injection of antibodies B. a fetus acquiring antibodies through the placenta, or a person receiving an injection of antibodies C. only a fetus acquiring antibodies through the placenta D. only a person receiving an injection of antibodies E. only antibodies produced from a vaccine

a fetus acquiring antibodies through the placenta, or a person receiving an injection of antibodies.

morbid obesity is defined by having a BMI of at least

thirty

a nutrient is a substance that an organism uses for

all answers are correct

the homestastis of water in organisms is affected by

all answers are correct

why must organisms eat?

all answers are corrects

An exaggerated attack on a harmless antigen by an overly-sensitive immune system is termed a(n) A. autoimmune disease. B. primary immune response. C. secondary immune response. D. allergy. E. innate defense stimulator.

allergy.

the enzyme that breaks down starch is

amylase

Which of the following are examples of humoral immunity? A. a cytotoxic T cell destroying a virus-infected cell B. a self-attack from an autoimmune disease C. antibodies produced that create an immunodeficiency D. antibodies produced that clone a pathogen E. antibodies produced that destroy an invading pathogen

antibodies produced that destroy an invading pathogen.

Which of the following is not part of the innate defense response? A. cilia that sweep bacteria out of the respiratory tract B. the process of inflammation C. antibody production D. fever production E. the complement-protein system

antibody production

A Y-shaped protein that is produced in response to a specific antigen and recognizes these antigens is a(n) A. interferon. B. antibody. C. complement protein. D. phagocyte. E. B cell.

antibody.

A molecule that stimulates an immune-system reaction by B cells and T cells is termed a(n) A. antibody. B. antigen. C. substrate. D. phagocyte. E. complement protein.

antigen.

11. Mature human sperm cells A. are haploid. B. are secondary spermatocytes. C. contain 46 chromosomes. D. are primary spermatocytes. E. undergo meiosis.

are haploid.

Every year the common flu vaccine is designed to protect against three different strains of the influenza virus. Why do scientists typically have to make a new vaccine every year? A. because our bodies develop resistance to the vaccine and it becomes less effective B. because the virus develops resistance to the vaccine C. because the virus cannot mutate into new strains D. because people change their habits each year and become susceptible to different strains of the virus E. because the common influenza virus can come from many species of animals, including cats and dogs

because the virus develops resistance to the vaccine.

if a person has their gall bladder removed, they are typically put on a low fat diet. which of the following would explain the recommendation?

bile acids cannot be released following a meal

like the kidney, a dialysis machine filters all but which of the following out of the blood?

blood cells

HIV-positive people track the progress of their disease with blood tests that measure the number of A. blood platelets. B. B cells. C. helper T cells. D. cytotoxic T cells. E. plasma cells.

blood platelets.

which of the following are endothermic?

both birds and mammals

humans may conserve or generate heat in cold weather by

both blood vessels near the surface of the skin constricting and shivering

humans may decrease their body temperature in hot weather by

both blood vessels near the surface of the skin dilating and sweating

the a person eats large quntities of food and then intentionally vomits, constantly going through what are called binge and purge patterns, they are most likely to suffer from the eating disorder known as

bulimia

in herbivores, cellulose is primarily broken down

by bacteria living within the herbivores gastrointestinal tract

in animals, the pouch that forms the entrance to the large intestine is the

cecum

18. The end of the uterus that opens to the vagina is the A. labia minora. B. cervix. C. vaginal orifice. D. clitoris. E. labia majora.

cervix.

the semisolid mass of food and gastric juice in the human stomach is termed

chyme

12. Which of the following is NOT a component of a sperm cell? A. flagellum B. cilia C. nucleus D. acrosome E. mitochondria

cilia

19. The 2 cm-long structure in the human female that stimulates her to experience orgasm is the A. clitoris. B. cervix. C. labia majora. D. uterus. E. labia minora.

clitoris.

The region of an antibody molecule that recognizes and binds to an antigen is the A. hinge region. B. variable region. C. constant region. D. base of the antibody molecule. E. heavy chain only.

constant region.

unlike humans cows emit up to 200L of methane each day through belching. which of the following explains this difference?

cows have a rumen

The primary function of a vaccine is to A. introduce antibodies into a person. B. create immunological memory without causing disease. C. introduce synthetic drugs into a person. D. give a person a mild disease. E. stimulate the production of blood platelets.

create immunological memory without causing disease.

55. What is the ideal outcome of the human reproductive system? A. to create individuals better suited to the environment than the existing individuals B. to create diploid gametes C. to break down foreign invaders and pathogens in any location in the body D. to remove foreign invaders and pathogens entering through the genitals E. All answers are correct.

to create individuals better suited to the environment than the existing individuals

ocean water is much saltier than a fish's cells, so the animal loses water by osmosis, mostly at the gills. how would a salt water fish osmoregulate?

drink seawater and use active transport at the gills rid of excess salts

which of the following is an advantage of the ectothermy

ecotherms require less food and energy

an organism that alters its behavior to manage the gain of heat from or loss of heat to the environment is termed an

ectotherm

53. Thalidomide was given to pregnant women from 1957-1961 to help relieve the symptoms of morning sickness. Thalidomide binds to and inactivates the protein cereblon, which is important in limb formation. If a woman took thalidomide during the _____ period of her baby's development, it could result in stunted growth of their limbs. A. preembryonic B. fetal C. prezygotic D. embryonic E. delivery

embryonic 624

30. The stage of human development that occurs from implantation to about eight weeks after fertilization is the A. zygote. B. preembryonic stage. C. gastrula. D. fetal stage. E. embryonic stage.

embryonic stage.

the structure that covers the opening to the trachea during swallowing, thereby preventing food from entering the air passage, is the

epiglottis

the muscular tube leading from the pharynx to the stomach is the

esophagus

38. A female salmon laying unfertilized eggs in a nest is preparing them for ____ by a male salmon. A. external fertilization B. internal fertilization C. indirect development D. direct development E. differentiation

external fertilization 609

23. In a secondary oocyte, meiosis is arrested in metaphase II until A. ovulation. B. FSH is present. C. fertilization occurs. D. LH is secreted by the anterior pituitary. E. puberty.

fertilization occurs. pg.616

2. Male gametes unite with the female gametes in organisms that reproduce sexually during A. conjugation. B. fertilization. C. crossing over. D. gastrulation. E. recombination.

fertilization.

ammonia is toxic and must be secreted as a dilute solution. why do most freshwater fish secrete ammonia,, but mammals do not?

fresh water fish can release ammonia without becoming dehydrated by drinking water

White blood cells are produced A. by mitotic division of other white blood cells. B. from platelets. C. from chondrocytes. D. from bone marrow stem cells. E. from plasma proteins.

from bone marrow stem cells.

25. The hormone released from the hypothalamus that stimulates release of LH and FSH in both the male and female is A. human growth hormone. B. testosterone. C. gonadotropin-releasing hormone. D. estrogen hormone. E. human chorionic gonadotropin.

gonadotropin-releasing hormone. pg. 613, 617

4. In the human male and female reproductive systems, each system contains paired primary sex organs called ______, which contain ______ that give rise to gametes. A. testes; sperm cells B. gonads; germ cells C. ovaries; egg cells D. germ cells; hormones E. All answers are correct.

gonads; germ cells

The "master cells" of the immune system that initiate and coordinate the adaptive immune response are A. basophils. B. helper T cells. C. mast cells. D. cytotoxic T cells. E. B cells.

helper T cells.

the cecum is the largest in

herbivores

32. The hormone that is the basis of most pregnancy tests is A. follicle-stimulating hormone. B. luteinizing hormone. C. human chorionic gonadotropin. D. estrogen. E. progesterone.

human chorionic gonadotropin. 622

which of the following organisms is incorrectly matched with its digestive tract?

humans hace incomplete digestive tracts

the part of the brain that is primarily involved in regulating the human body temperature is the

hypothalmus

33. If a preembryo splits before day 12 of development in humans, then ______ are usually formed. A. polar bodies B. secondary oocytes C. fraternal twins D. identical twins E. embryonic discs

identical twins 622

hibernating mammals accumulate large stores of brown fat containing many mitochondria. These mitochondria can burn fat without generating ATP. What effect would burning fat without generating ATP have on the hibernating mammal?

increased body temperature

40. A caterpillar turning into a butterfly is an example of A. external fertilization. B. internal fertilization. C. indirect development. D. direct development. E. reproduction.

indirect development. 610

in sequence of their occurance, the 4 major steps that vertebrate organisms use to obtain and use food are

ingestion, digestion, absorption, elimination

The innate chemical substance that alerts other cells and components of the immune system to a viral infection is A. histamine. B. interleukin. C. complement protein. D. interferon. E. epinephrine.

interferon.

The innate chemical defense substance that activates T cells and B cells is A. histamine. B. complement protein. C. interleukin. D. all of the answers. E. epinephrine.

interleukin.

39. A female chicken laying a fertilized egg has undergone ____ with a rooster. A. differentiation B. external fertilization C. indirect development D. direct development E. internal fertilization

internal fertilization 610

24. Menopause A. is the cessation of menstruation. B. is the cessation of sperm production. C. is the beginning of menstruation. D. begins in most females at puberty. E. begins in most males at puberty.

is the cessation of menstration. pg. 618

alcohol reduces ADH secretion which in turn does which of the following?

it decreases tubule permeability to water anf thus increases urine volume

the major excretory organ of the human urinary system is the

kidney

enzyme that breaks down the main sugar found in milk is

lactase

which of the following produces bile?

liver

60. Why does the surface of the oocyte change when the first sperm cell touches the secondary oocyte? A. to prevent the first sperm from further entering the egg before more of the outer layer of follicle cells is penetrated by other sperm B. to prevent the first sperm from fertilizing the egg until the uterus is prepared for implantation C. to allow the first sperm to enter the egg and fertilization to occur D. to allow up to 200 sperm to enter the egg, though only one sperm will fertilize the egg E. to prevent more than one sperm from entering the egg

to prevent more than one sperm from entering the egg 620

35. The structure that connects the embryo to the placenta is the A. chorionic villus. B. umbilical cord. C. uterine tube. D. fallopian tube. E. embryonic disc.

umbilical cord. 624

mammals excrete nitrogen wastes in which of the following

urea

16. Cilia sweep the released mature oocytes from ovaries into the A. cervix. B. uterine tubes. C. labia majora. D. uterus. E. vagina.

uterine tubes.

17. The muscular sac-like organ of the human female in which the fetus develops is the A. ovary. B. labia majora. C. vagina. D. uterus. E. vulva.

uterus.

A preparation that "teaches" the immune system to recognize a disease-causing agent without actually causing disease is termed a(n) A. antibiotic. B. virus. C. antiviral. D. vaccination. E. injection.

vaccination.

8. In the male, the tube that extends from the scrotum to the point of connection with the urethra is the A. ejaculatory duct. B. ureter. C. urethra. D. seminiferous tubule. E. vas deferens.

vas deferens. Not certain; others check. -Ian

tiny finger like projections along the small intestine that are used to absorb nutrients are

villi

29. The correct sequence for the stages in development from conception to birth is A. preembryonic stage, zygote, embryonic stage, fetal stage. B. fetal stage, zygote, preembryonic stage, embryonic stage. C. preembryonic stage, embryonic stage, zygote, fetal stage. D. zygote, preembryonic stage, embryonic stage, fetal stage. E. fetal stage, embryonic stage, preembryonic stage, zygote.

zygote, preembryonic stage, embryonic stage, fetal stage. 620-624

A primary "antigen presenting cell," a cell that presents an antigen to a helper T cell, is a A. B cell. B. T cell. C. macrophage. D. plasma cell. E. chondrocyte.

macrophage.

61. Although impossible in humans, what is the result if two sperm fertilized an egg? A. a haploid zygote with one third of the total chromosomes from each gamete B. a diploid zygote with one half of the total chromosomes from each gamete C. a diploid zygote with all of the chromosomes from each gamete D. a triploid zygote with all of the chromosomes from each gamete E. identical twins

...

Although the lymphatic system has many similarities to the circulatory system, what can the lymphatic system accomplish which the circulatory system cannot? A. generate white blood cells B. collect bacteria, viruses, cancer cells, and other large particles from body tissues C. generate red blood cells D. destroy bacteria, viruses, cancer cells, and other large particles from body tissues E. generate new body tissues during recovery

...

Antibodies are made against a very small portion of an antigen called an epitope. An epitope is often just 5-6 amino acids from a protein on an antigen. Which of the following explains how antibodies could be produced against just a small part of an antigen? A. T helper cells secrete enzymes that digest the pathogen. B. B cells produce antibodies that bind directly to a single epitope on the antigen. C. Cytotoxic T cells poke holes in the antigen. D. Complement protein pokes holes in the antigen. E. Macrophages engulf and digest the pathogen.

...

Each year there are an estimated 250,000 people who could benefit from a bone marrow transplant. A major challenge is finding a donor with the matching complex of Major Histocompatibility (MHC) proteins a person needs. Why is it important that the MHC proteins match between the donor and recipient? A. If they don't match, the donor's immune system will see the recipient's bone marrow as foreign. B. MHC proteins make antibodies which could attack the recipient's immune system. C. MHC proteins serve as inhibitors of the immune system. D. If they don't match, the recipient's immune system will see the donor's bone marrow as foreign. E. MHC proteins are used by cytotoxic T cells to kill bacteria, and if they don't match they won't work properly.

...

Each year there are an estimated 250,000 people who could benefit from a bone marrow transplant. What would happen to a patient who no longer had active bone marrow? A. They would be paralyzed. B. They could not filter their blood and would require dialysis. C. They would be immunocompromised. D. They could not produce bile. E. Their bones would degenerate.

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Every year the common flu vaccine is designed to protect against three different strains of the influenza virus. How is your body able to raise antibodies against so many new forms of the flu virus? A. Each B cell can make antibodies against all antigens. B. The vaccine contains the antibodies against the strains of flu virus so your body does not need to make them. C. Viruses are destroyed by the passive immune system. D. Clonal deletion of B and T cells that recognize the virus occurs. E. Recombination of the gene used to make antibodies occurs.

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Histamine triggers vasodilation and leakiness in blood vessels during inflammation. Why would this be beneficial in fighting an infection by a pathogen? A. increased number of white blood cells only. B. increased migration of white blood cells to site of infection only. C. both increased number of white blood cells and their migration to site of infection. D. increased accessibility of the pathogen to the blood only. E. both increased accessibility of the pathogen to the blood and number of white blood cells.

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How does the immune system recognize pathogens it has fought before? A. The primary immune response creates memory B and memory T cells which are activated in a secondary immune response. B. The primary immune response creates antigens which are activated in a secondary immune response. C. The secondary immune response creates antigens which are activated in a primary immune response. D. The secondary immune response creates memory B and memory T cells which are activated in a primary immune response. E. The primary immune response creates memory B cells, the secondary immune response creates memory T cells, and these are both activated in a tertiary immune response.

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If a human fetus is ___________ and the pregnant woman is ______________, an incompatibility that destroys the red blood cells of the fetus may occur. A. Rh-negative; Rh-positive B. Type "AB"; Type "O" C. Type "O"; Type "AB" D. Rh-positive; Rh-negative E. Rh-positive; Type "AB"

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If a tumor metastasizes, this means that it has moved to another part of the body. Doctors often look in lymph nodes near a tumor for signs of metastasis. Why might cancer cells be found in lymph nodes? A. because the tumor started in the lymph node B. because the lymphatic system collects fluids and cells from tissues C. because white blood cells are formed in lymph nodes in response to the tumor D. because the tumor is recognized as a foreign antigen and is being attacked E. because the tumor cells may have moved from the blood into the lymph with the plasma

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If you transfuse type AB blood into a patient with type A blood, the patient will raise antibodies against the B antigen on the donor's blood, but will not raise antibodies against the A antigen. Why not? A. B and T cells that recognize the A antigen will have been removed by clonal deletion. B. Antibodies that recognize the A antigen will have been removed by the spleen. C. Antibodies that recognize the A antigen will have been removed by the bone marrow. D. Macrophages will not present the A antigen to T cells. E. Recombination of the gene for antibodies cannot produce self-reactive clones.

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In many autoimmune diseases such as lupus and rheumatoid arthritis, antibody complexes form in the blood. Kidney failure is a common consequence of these diseases for which reason? A. Antibodies attack the kidney. B. The antibody complexes become trapped in the lymph. C. The antibody complexes become trapped in the kidney. D. The kidney is a part of the lymphatic system and becomes full of lymphocytes. E. The kidney is part of the immune system and becomes full of leukocytes.

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In the section "Investigating Life: The Hidden Cost of Hygiene", flatworms are very thin and lack a specialized respiratory or circulatory system. How does oxygen reach their cells? A. through spiracles B. diffusion through the wall of their body C. through gills D. through lungs E. through capillaries

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In the section "Investigating Life: The Hidden Cost of Hygiene", what is the hygiene hypothesis? A. People who have more infections will have an overactive immune system. B. People who have better hygiene and are cleaner will have more infections. C. People who have better hygiene and are cleaner will have a weaker immune system. D. People who have fewer infections will have an overactive immune system. E. People who have better hygiene and are cleaner will have fewer infections.

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In the section "Investigating Life: The Hidden Cost of Hygiene", which of the following occurred during the coevolution of humans and pathogens that causes disease? A. The pathogens produce substances that suppress our immune system. B. Our immune system can destroy the pathogens before they cause disease. C. Pathogens have become less infectious. D. Our immune system no longer sees the pathogen as foreign. E. Pathogens have developed their own immune system to counteract ours.

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Many parasites are too large to be engulfed by phagocytosis. Which of the following would be effective in killing parasites? A. complement protein B. T helper cells C. B cells D. macrophages E. basophils

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Rh incompatibility is due to an immune reaction to which of the following by a pregnant woman? A. a self antigen on red blood cells B. a foreign antibody on red blood cells C. a foreign antigen on red blood cells D. a self antibody on red blood cells

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The presence of antibodies against HIV can be used to diagnose an infection that has occurred at least three months earlier. Why couldn't the presence of antibodies against HIV be used to diagnose a more recent infection? A. The virus mutates rapidly, changing its outer coat. B. The virus reproduces very rapidly. C. The virus is transmitted sexually. D. The virus is not technically alive. E. It takes 2-3 months to raise antibodies against the virus.

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The role of B cells in adaptive immunity is ______, versus the role of T cells in adaptive immunity is ______. A. to recognize any antigen; to recognize a specific antigen B. to recognize a specific antigen; to recognize any antigen C. to secrete antibodies in humoral immunity; to attack bad cells in cell-mediated immunity D. to attack bad cells in cell-mediated immunity; to secrete antibodies in humoral immunity; E. to create antigens; to destroy antibodies

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Which of the following descriptions is correctly matched with its term? A. Innate defenses : able to defend against any pathogen B. Adaptive immunity : able to defend against any pathogen C. Innate defenses : unable to fight cancerous cells D. Adaptive immunity : unable to fight cancerous cells E. All answers are correct.

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Which of the following is NOT attacked by the immune system as an intruder in humans? A. ring worm in a foot B. metastasized breast cancer C. brain tumor D. ebola virus E. dead skin cells

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Which of the following is a major difference between adaptive immunity and innate defenses? A. Adaptive immunity includes defense components which are multicellular, such as skin, tears, and mucus; innate defenses include cellular and subcellular components. B. Adaptive immunity responses are the first to attack an invader; innate defenses are the second responses to attack an invader. C. Adaptive immunity responses are produced only on demand; innate defenses are always produced. D. Adaptive immunity responses are similar to most pathogens; innate defenses are always specific for specific pathogens. E. All answers are correct.

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Which of the following is a method in which a pathogen can enter a vertebrate and the immune system defends against it? A. sneezing B. viruses C. parasites D. All answers are correct. E. kissing

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Which of the following is correct about primary and secondary immune responses? A. The primary immune response occurs first. B. The primary immune response is smaller. C. Both respond to foreign antigens. D. All answers are correct. E. Both are responses of adaptive immunity.

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Which of the following vaccines would expose a person to an antigen for the longest time, and thus be the least likely to require repeated booster vaccinations? A. an inactivated pathogen B. inactivated toxins C. subunits of pathogens D. a live weakened pathogen E. individual proteins from pathogens

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Which of the following would occur if the lymphatic system was absent? A. Cancer would not spread as quickly because cancerous cells would not be transported by the lymphatic system, nor stored in lymph nodes. B. Bacteria located in the body would not be destroyed if they were not in the blood. C. Viruses located in the body would not be destroyed if they were not in the blood. D. Cancer cells located in the body would not be destroyed if they were not in the blood. E. All of the choices are correct.

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Why is there potential for a woman's body to recognize her fetus as foreign? A. The fetus and mother are not genetically identical. B. The mother may have an autoimmune disease and recognize self antigens as foreign. C. The mother's immune system may be suppressed. D. The fetus is separated from the mother's blood and immune system. E. By the time the mother produces antibodies, the baby has been born.

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Why would AIDS patients infected with HIV be at risk for opportunistic infections and rare cancers? A. People who contract HIV engage in risky behavior that causes them to get other infections and cancer. B. Their immune systems are suppressed. C. HIV triggers an autoimmune response. D. AIDS is not caused by HIV, so HIV could be causing the other infections. E. An AIDS patient's immune system is very strong since it is fighting the HIV infection.

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Why would HIV infection lead to immunodeficiency? A. All of the antibodies in the body bind to HIV and cannot bind other pathogens. B. HIV infects the bone marrow where immune cells are produced. C. HIV infects T helper cells. D. Antibodies cannot bind to HIV. E. The body cannot make antibodies to HIV.

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A cell that does not circulate in blood, but instead settles in tissues near the skin and in the digestive tract, producing and releasing histamine when tissue is damaged, is a A. basophil. B. mast cell. C. virus. D. macrophage. E. T cell.

mast cell.

56. The structure of reproductive systems is similar between some organisms. What prevents fertilization of gametes from different organisms? A. The sperm is too large or too small to fertilize the egg. B. The large body size of one organism and the small body size of the other organism prevents internal fertilization. C. One organism reproduces externally and the other organism requires internal fertilization. D. Proteins on the surface of the egg and sperm are only recognized by the correct organism. E. All answers are correct.

All answers are correct.

Which of the following is a reason why fever is considered a defense mechanism? A. Fever inactivates (kills) some viruses. B. Fever speeds up the rate of phagocytosis. C. Fever reduces the iron level in the blood, thereby retarding the growth of some bacteria. D. Fever kills some bacteria. E. All answers are correct.

All answers are correct.

59. How can an individual protect himself/herself against sexually transmitted diseases? A. All answers are correct. B. Get tested regularly and treat all STDs. C. Remain in a monogamous relationship with another individual who has been recently tested for STDs. D. Abstain from sexual activity or use latex condom during sexual activity. E. Get vaccinated against HPV and hepatitis B.

All answers are correct. 619-620

animals that eat abroad variety of foods, including plants and animals are

omnivores

the energy needed to raise one kilogram of water from 14.5 degrees centigrade to 15.5 degrees centigrade under controlled conditions is

one kilocalorie

Which of the following are examples of active immunity? A. a fetus acquiring antibodies through the placenta, or a person receiving an injection of antibodies B. antibodies produced from a vaccine, or a person receiving an injection of antibodies C. only antibodies produced from a vaccine D. only a fetus acquiring antibodies through the placenta E. only a person receiving an injection of antibodies

only a fetus acquiring antibodies through the placenta.

15. The cells in the ovary that give rise to the mature egg cells are the A. follicle cells. B. primary spermatocytes. C. endometrial cells. D. polar bodies. E. oocytes.

oocytes.

the diffusion of water across a membrane that is permeable to water but not to ions and other charged solutes is

osmosis

which of the following diseases is caused by a deficiency of niacin?

pellagra

rhythmic smooth muscle contractions occuring along the human digestive system that propel food along the system are termed

peristalsis

Special cells produced by the immune system that are progeny of properly-stimulated B cells and are antibody-producing factories are A. cytotoxic T cells. B. helper T cells. C. plasma cells. D. macrophages. E. all of the answers.

plasma cells.

9. The structure that secretes a thin, milky, alkaline fluid that activates the sperm to swim is the A. urethra. B. seminal vesicle. C. prostate gland. D. vas deferens. E. epididymis.

prostate gland.

Immunological memory results from the production of A. both B and T memory cells. B. both mast and B memory cells. C. mast memory cells only. D. B memory cells only. E. T memory cells only.

B memory cells only.