2F071 CDC URE

(022) When selecting a site for bladder operations, the site should have less than what degree of slope? a. 2°. b. 3°. c. 4°. d. 5°.

3°.

(013) Crew members conducting in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed should be limited to what maximum number of operations per duty day? a. 2. b. 3. c. 4. d. 6.

4.

(201) When posting changes and supplements to publications, within what maximum number of work days of receipt should you file technical order (TO) changes and supplements? a. 1. b. 5. c. 7. d. 10.

5.

(019) When performing transfer operations with an R-18 pumping unit, what reading should the oil pressure gauge indicate if the unit is operating properly? a. 25 ± 5 pounds per square inch (psi). b. 50 ± 10 psi. c. 85 ± 5 psi. d. 90 ± 10 psi.

50 ± 10 psi.

(017) What type of hose should be used on the discharge side of the R-18 for transfer operations? a. 4-inch hard hose. b. 4-inch collapsible hose. c. 6-inch hard hose. d. 6-inch collapsible hose.

6-inch hard hose.

(018) What is the proper tire pressure setting for the R-18 pumping unit? a. 30 pounds per square inch (psi). b. 65 psi. c. 75 psi. d. 100 psi.

75 psi.

(018) What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing unit indicate when the fueling system is not operating? a. 45 psi. b. 75 psi. c. 90 psi. d. 150 psi.

90 psi.

(207) When you are reconciling accounts, what is the allowable tolerance for motor (automotive) gasoline (MOGAS)? a. .0025 b. .003 c. .005 d. .0075

.005

(017) Each R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how many feet of communication wire? a. 1,000. b. 1,500. c. 3,000. d. 4,500.

1,500.

(006) To what pressure range should source tank pressure be set for cryogenic issuing? a. 10-15 psi. b. 15-20 psi. c. 20-30 psi. d. 30-40 psi.

10-15 psi.

(018) The micronic filter elements on the R-20multi-aircraft servicing unit should be replaced when the differential pressure (DP) reading exceeds a. 10 psid. b. 15 psid. c. 20 psid. d. 25 psid.

15 psid.

(019) When performing fuel servicing operations with an R-18 pumping unit, the throttle control should manually be set to what revolution per minute (rpm) setting? a. 1,550. b. 1,850. c. 1,950. d. 2,250.

2,250.

(017) How many fillstand assemblies are included in the Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) system? a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4.

2.

(013) During in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed, fuel servicing vehicle engines should not be allowed to operate for more than what maximum number of minutes? a. 15. b. 20. c. 30. d. 40.

20.

(209) The Tank Group window in the FuelsManager Defense product movement tracker allows operators to create tabular lists of up to how many tanks? a. 5. b. 10. c. 15. d. 20.

20.

(007) Approximately what size sample should be taken for an odor test? a. 100 milliliter (ml). b. 200 ml. c. 300 ml. d. 400 ml.

200 ml.

(012) During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come with in a minimum of how many feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet? a. 10. b. 20. c. 25. d. 50.

25.

(202) At a minimum, underground storage tanks should be monitored to detect releases every a. 30 days. b. 60 days. c. 90 days. d. 120 days.

30 days.

(021) What is the maximum number of gallons an Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) carries per sortie? a. 3,000. b. 6,000. c. 15,000. d. 30,000.

30,000.

(018) Which condition does not require replacement of filter elements on the R-19 filter separator unit? a. A reading of 16 psid on the differential pressure (DP) gauge. b. A reading of 22 psid on the DP gauge. c. Elements that have been in use for 36 months. d. Filter separator vessel performance is questionable.

A reading of 16 psid on the differential pressure (DP) gauge.

(023) What software database is used to identify a unit type code's (UTC) ability to perform its mission capabilities (MISCAP) statement and identify shortages? a. AEF reporting tool (ART). b. Logistics Module (LOGMOD). c. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES). d. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

AEF reporting tool (ART).

(203) When reporting monthly assessments results, what form do Quality Control evaluators use? a. AF Form 2419, Routing and Review of Quality Control Reports. b. AF Form 2420, Quality Control Inspection Summary. c. AF Form 4420, Quality Control Inspection Summary. d. AF Form 4421, Logistics Readiness Squadron Quality Assurance Assessment Form.

AF Form 4421, Logistics Readiness Squadron Quality Assurance Assessment Form.

(204) What outside agency collects, analyzes, and publishes base fuel mishap reports and develops trend analysis on reports affecting fuel operations? a. Major command (MAJCOM). b. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA). c. Defense Logistics Agency-Energy (DLA-Energy). d. Headquarters (HQ) USAF.

Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

(016) Which of the following operations requires a fuels expediter be used? a. Return-to-bulk (RTB). b. Ground fuel servicing. c. Aircraft fueling. d. Fillstand.

Aircraft fueling.

(005) When performing a periodic cryotainer inspection, which items listed in Technical Order (TO) 37C2-8-1-116WC-1 should you complete? a. All items. b. All items preceded by an asterisk (*). c. All items listed under the "Periodic Inspection" heading. d. All items followed by an ampersand (&).

All items preceded by an asterisk (*).

(009) How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling operations? a. Monthly. b. Quarterly. c. Semiannually. d. Annually.

Annually.

(008) When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the AFTO Form 134, how should odor test results be annotated in block 2, column D? a. As either "+" or "-" in column A. b. As either "SAT" of "UNSAT" in column B. c. As either "GO" or "NO GO" in column C. d. As either "FAIL" of "PASS" in column D.

As either "FAIL" of "PASS" in column D

(011) Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO) are not authorized on what aircraft? a. A-10. b. B-2. c. F-15. d. F-22.

B-2.

(204) What agency should the fuels management team (FMT) consult with on all matters regarding the provision of or changes to personal protective equipment (PPE) for workers? a. Base environmental manager. b. Base bioenvironmental engineer. c. Group environmental coordinator. d. Environmental protection committee.

Base bioenvironmental engineer.

(015) When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) user interface terminal (UIT), what tab allows you to enter information about the fuels management flight to which the equipment is assigned? a. PDA. b. Wireless. c. Device info. d. Base.

Base.

(012) Who is responsible for controlling and monitoring all concurrent servicing of cargo/passenger aircraft operations to include cargo/baggage loading/unloading, maintenance, fuel or oxygen servicing, and fleet servicing? a. Passenger compartment monitor. b. Fuels servicing supervisor. c. Chief servicing supervisor. d. Refueling panel monitor.

Chief servicing supervisor

(011) Who is responsible for on-site supervision during all aspects of a concurrent servicing operations supporting combat sortie generation (CSO/CSG)? a. Concurrent servicing supervisor. b. Aircraft servicing supervisor. c. Chief servicing supervisor. d. Fuels operator

Concurrent servicing supervisor.

(210) Which method of payment is not authorized for a cash sale purchase? a. Cash. b. Check. c. Credit card. d. Money order.

Credit card.

(008) When documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the DLA Form 2046, from which of the following documents is the vendors invoice obtained? a. DD Form 250. b. DD Form 250-1. c. DD Form 1348. d. DD Form 1348-1.

DD Form 250.

(018) How often should the sump tank on the R-19 filter separator unit be drained? a. Daily. b. Weekly. c. Monthly. d. Quarterly.

Daily.

(207) When you are performing fuels controller duties, how often should you reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects? a. Daily. b. Weekly. c. Monthly. d. Quarterly.

Daily.

(021) What organization is responsible for the procurement of fuel at deployed locations? a. Major command (MAJCOM). b. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA). c. Joint Petroleum Office (JPO). d. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)-Energy.

Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)-Energy.

(205) What agency serves as the link between the Defense Logistics Agency-Energy (DLA- Energy) and its customers? a. Fuels management team (FMT). b. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA). c. Defense Logistics Agency-Energy (DLA-Energy) regions. d. Headquarters (HQ) USAF.

Defense Logistics Agency-Energy (DLA-Energy) regions.

(205) What agency acts as the Department of Defense (DOD) central procurement agent for bulk petroleum, natural gas, coal, and associated services? a. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA). b. Air Force Logistics Management Agency (AFLMA). c. Defense Logistics Agency-Energy (DLA-Energy). d. Headquarters (HQ) USAF.

Defense Logistics Agency-Energy (DLA-Energy).

(006) When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any, should you take if a receiving tank's AFTO Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition? a. No action is required. b. Do not fill the receiving tank. c. Notify the fuels control center (FCC) and request line expediter assistance. d. Inform the fuels management team and await further instructions.

Do not fill the receiving tank.

(006) When preparing to issue liquid oxygen (LOX), what action, if any, should be taken if a review of a receiving tank's AFTO Form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out? a. No action is required. b. Do not service the receiving tank. c. Inform aircraft maintenance of the discrepancy. d. Contact the fuels service center and await further instructions.

Do not service the receiving tank

(018) At a minimum, how often should the R-18 pumping unit oil filter be changed? a. Every 250 hours of operation or semiannually, whichever comes first. b. Every 500 hours of operation or semiannually, whichever comes first. c. Every 250 hours of operation or annually, whichever comes first. d. Every 500 hours of operation or annually, whichever comes first.

Every 500 hours of operation or semiannually, whichever comes first.

(009) Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad? a. B-1. b. F-15. c. F-16. d. F-22.

F-15.

(015) When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) truck interface module (TIM), what settings screen allows you to add and edit information regarding the fueling unit to which the TIM is assigned? a. Basic configuration. b. Device configuration. c. Fuel point configuration. d. Meter configuration.

Fuel point configuration.

(205) Who ensures complete accountability and responsibility for the handling of bulk petroleum and missile fuels at each Air Force base? a. Fuels management team (FMT). b. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander. c. Major command (MAJCOM). d. Defense Logistics Agency-Energy (DLA-Energy).

Fuels management team (FMT).

(210) Who must establish procedures for the collection, safekeeping, and deposit of funds received for cash sales of aviation fuels? a. Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) Fuels Service Center (FSC). b. Fuels Information Service Center (FISC) superintendent. c. Fuels management team (FMT). d. Major command (MAJCOM).

Fuels management team (FMT).

(207) Who is responsible for reviewing aircraft flying schedules and organizing work shifts to meet fuel support requirements? a. Fuels operations superintendent. b. NCOIC fuels distribution. c. Mobile refueling supervisor. d. Fuels expediter.

Fuels operations superintendent.

(205) Who is responsible for maintaining the fuels account as outlined according to DLA-Energy policies? a. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA). b. Major command (MAJCOM). c. Fuels management team (FMT). d. Fuels service center (FSC).

Fuels service center (FSC).

(016) While performing expediter duties, what action must you take if you notice an unsafe fueling operation? a. Immediately terminate the operation. b. Correct the deficiency and allow the operation to continue. c. Closely monitor the operation and notify the fuels service center. d. Allow the operation to continue and report the discrepancy to the noncommissioned officer in charge (NCIOC) of fuels distribution.

Immediately terminate the operation.

(006) What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment? a. No action is required. b. Contact Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) for disposition instructions. c. Inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance. d. Notify the fuels management team (FMT) and obtain an odor sample.

Inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance.

(022) With which of the following alternate fuels should special precautions be taken due to its high volatility? a. JP-5. b. JP-8. c. Jet A-1. d. Jet B.

Jet B.

(208) Which agency can initiate a Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) REPOL report? a. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)-Energy. b. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA). c. Major command (MAJCOM). d. Joint staff.

Joint staff.

(205) Which Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) division develops and evaluates emerging laboratory testing technology? a. Technical Division. b. Laboratory Division. c. Resource Management Division. d. Science and Technology Division.

Laboratory Division.

(009) Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling? a. HQ USAF Deputy Chief of Staff for Installations & Logistics (A4/7). b. Major command (MAJCOM) commander. c. Wing commander. d. Fuels management flight commander (FMFC).

Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

(205) What agency is responsible for formulating and disseminating instructions and other directives that cover operations not specified in detail in DLA-Energy policy or command policies? a. Major command (MAJCOM) fuels office. b. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA). c. Defense Logistics Agency-Energy (DLA-Energy). d. Headquarters (HQ) USAF.

Major command (MAJCOM) fuels office.

(212) What agency prepares the war consumables distribution objective (WCDO) document? a. Air Staff. b. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA). c. Defense Logistics Agency-Energy (DLA-Energy). d. Major command (MAJCOM).

Major command (MAJCOM).

(023) What component of a unit type code (UTC) defines the basic mission the UTC is capable of accomplishing? a. Mission capabilities (MISCAP) statement. b. Manpower force element listing (MFEL). c. Logistics detail (LOGDET). d. Title.

Mission capabilities (MISCAP) statement.

(019) When performing off load operations with the Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) system, the deadman switch on the communications panel of the R-18 pumping unit should be placed in what position? a. ON. b. OFF. c. OFFLOAD. d. NO DEADMAN.

NO DEADMAN.

(206) When an operator is dispatched to complete a fueling operation, which information is not provided? a. Name of requester (crew chief). b. Grade of fuel. c. Authorized delivery point. d. Refueling vehicle/equipment registration number.

Name of requester (crew chief).

(004) Approximately how long will the nitrogen supply last when an automated tank gauging (ATG) tank control unit (TCU) displays an alarm indicating the supply has dropped below 200 pounds per square inch (psi)? a. One week. b. One month. c. Three months. d. Six months.

One month.

(203) What organization may authorize bases to use computer products in lieu of AF Forms 2419 and 2420? a. Fuels management team (FMT). b. Parent major command (MAJCOM). c. Air Force petroleum agency (AFPA). d. Defense Logistics Agency-Energy (DLA-Energy).

Parent major command (MAJCOM).

(203) All spot-checks are rated as a. Positive or Negative. b. Pass or Fail. c. Satisfactory or Unsatisfactory. d. Satisfactory, Marginal, or Unsatisfactory.

Pass or Fail.

(211) When investigating fuel gains and losses, you determine an excessive variance was caused by a pipeline rupture. This variance should fall into what category? a. Major disaster. b. Combat losses. c. Peacetime losses. d. Determinable losses.

Peacetime losses.

(007) Which step should be taken if a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart fails an odor test? a. Conduct another odor test. b. Inform aircraft maintenance. c. Perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart. d. Contact the fuels lab and request a correlation sample be taken.

Perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart.

(213) When entering an order in the Paperless Ordering and Receipt Tracking Screens (PORTS) system, you can identify capitalized contracts as those listed in what color text? a. Blue. b. Black. c. Green. d. Purple.

Purple.

(019) When performing fuel servicing operations with an R-20multi-aircraft servicing platform, in what position should the manual/remote control switch on the communications panel be placed? a. ON. b. OFF. c. REMOTE. d. MANUAL.

REMOTE.

(008) What symbol should you enter on the AFTO Form 244/245 if a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue? a. Red X. b. Red dash. c. Red cross. d. Red diagonal.

Red dash.

(202) What environmental regulation establishes "cradle to grave" control of hazardous substances? a. Technical Order (TO) 42B-1-23. b. 40 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 280. c. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA). d. Department of Defense (DOD) Directive 4140.25M.

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA).

(205) Which Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) division performs contracting support for all AFPA contracted and cost recovery programs? a. Technical Division. b. Plans and Programs Division. c. Resource Management Division. d. Science and Technology Division.

Resource Management Division.

(022) When performing fuels mobility site planning, what organization should be your first source of information for infrastructure availability? a. Responsible major command (MAJCOM). b. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA). c. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)-Energy. d. National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency (NGA).

Responsible major command (MAJCOM).

(207) When you are inputting a transaction in the FMD Dispatch Module, what information should you enter in the Request Type when entering a defuel request? a. Select "Y" in place of the defaulted "N" in the field. b. Enter the reason for the defuel request. c. Select "Defuel" in place of the defaulted "Refuel". d. Enter the estimated gallon amount of the defuel.

Select "Defuel" in place of the defaulted "Refuel".

(014) During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken if backflow is detected? a. No action is required. b. Increase engine revolutions per minute (RPM). c. Decrease the engine RPMs. d. Stop the operation immediately.

Stop the operation immediately.

(004) When obtaining quantity readings with the automated tank gauge (ATG) tank control unit, which key must you press first when switching between tanks? a. ESC. b. NEXT. c. TANK. d. ENTER.

Tank

(008) When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the AFTO Form 134, what information should be entered in block 4? a. The date the cart was filled. b. The quantity issued to the cart. c. The tank number of the issuing cryotainer. d. The initials of the individual that filled the cart.

The initials of the individual that filled the cart.

(021) What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply when operating from a host nation airfield? a. Ocean tanker or barge. b. Inland petroleum distribution system or tank trucks. c. Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery system. d. The same source of supply used by the host airfield.

The same source of supply used by the host airfield.

(213) When entering an order into the Paperless Ordering and Receipt Tracking Screens (PORTS) system, what agencies receive fuel request e-mails from after you have placed the ground products order? a. Fuels service center (FSC) and the fuels management team (FMT). b. FSC and the vendor. c. Defense Logistics Agency-Energy (DLA-Energy) and major command (MAJCOM). d. The vendor and DLA-Energy.

The vendor and DLA-Energy

(019) When setting up the communication panel on an R-18, what action should you take first? a. Turn off the panel power switch. b. Turn on the battery master switch. c. Set the station unit identification (ID) switch to the desired number. d. Place the manual/remote control switch in the MANUAL position.

Turn off the panel power switch.

(021) What organization normally provides management of overland petroleum support, including inland waterways, to US land-based forces of all Department of Defense (DOD) components? a. US Army. b. US Air Force. c. Joint Petroleum Office (JPO). d. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)-Energy.

US Army.

(001) Who is responsible for developing an operating instruction (OI) to specify tool accountability procedures? a. Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) fuels distribution or operations superintendent. b. Vehicle fleet manager or vehicle maintenance superintendent. c. Fuels maintenance supervisor. d. Fuels management flight commander (FMFC).

Vehicle fleet manager or vehicle maintenance superintendent.

(002) Who ensures tools and precision measurement equipment assigned to composite tool kits (CTK) are scheduled for calibration and certification? a. Vehicle maintenance superintendent. b. Vehicle management flight materiel control section. c. Vehicle fleet manager. d. Technician assigned to CTK.

Vehicle management flight materiel control section.

(006) Which of the following cryotainer valves should be in the open position before starting a liquid nitrogen (LIN) receipt? a. Vent valve. b. Service valve. c. Fill/drain valve. d. Pressure build up valve.

Vent valve.

(202) How often should dikes be checked for deterioration? a. Daily. b. Weekly. c. Monthly. d. Quarterly.

Weekly.

(201) When posting changes to publications, when, if ever, are "List of Effective Pages" checks mandatory? a. Never. b. As directed by major command (MAJCOM). c. At the discretion of the technical order (TO) manager. d. When changes and revisions are posted to paper TOs.

When changes and revisions are posted to paper TOs.

(010) When is a rapid defuel operation considered a hot defuel? a. Whenever the provider aircraft has all engines running. b. Whenever the source or provider aircraft has any engine running. C .Whenever the provider aircraft has any engine located on the same side as the refueling receptacle running. d. Whenever the source or provider aircraft has an engine located on the same side as the refueling receptacle running.

Whenever the source or provider aircraft has any engine running.

(209) When viewing the FuelsManager Defense product movement tracker alarm toolbar you see a flashing green color in the alarm indicator box. You know this indicates a. no alarm. b. an unacknowledged alarm. c. an active unacknowledged alarm. d. an unacknowledged alarm condition has returned to normal.

an unacknowledged alarm condition has returned to normal.

(212) The inventory management plan (IMP) is published a. quarterly. b. semiannually. c. annually. d. every two years.

annually.

(211) When investigating fuel gains and losses, you know that variances in inventory levels may be caused by any of the following conditions except a. tank size. b. temperature. c. mode of delivery. d. volume of the product.

tank size.

(203) When conducting internal inspections, at a minimum, the Logistics Readiness Squadron Quality Assurance Office inspects each fuels element at least once a. a month. b. every three months. c. each six months. d. a year.

each six months.

(020) When preparing an R-18 for shipment, dispose of all drained fuel in accordance with a. local environmental regulations. b. local and federal environmental regulations. c. federal environmental regulations. d. local, federal and international environmental regulations.

local and federal environmental regulations.

(020) When reconstituting Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) equipment, all rolling stock (e.g., R-18s, R-19s, and R-20s) should be drained in accordance with a. local transportation guidelines. b. Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM) 23-221, Fuels Logistics Planning. c. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 24-203, Preparation and Movement of Air Force Cargo. d. Technical Order (TO) 37A9-3-5-61, Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE).

local transportation guidelines.

(010) When performing rapid defueling operations into fuel servicing vehicles, the high-level shutoff valve should be tested within the first a. minute of fuel flow. b. two minutes of fuel flow. c. 250 gallons defueled. d. 500 gallons defueled.

minute of fuel flow.

(003) Type III, IV and V hydrant systems will be flushed at least a. monthly. b. quarterly. c. semiannually. d. annually.

monthly.

(014) When multiple source refueling, if multiple refueling units are located on the same side or wing of an aircraft, each vehicle a. can begin fuel flow once positioned. b. may leave the aircraft upon completion of fuel servicing. c. should be positioned directly under the wing of the aircraft. d. must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraft.

must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraft.

(210) At no time will money that is collected for cash sales of aviation products be safeguarded by a. Fuels service center (FSC) personnel. b. shift supervisors. c. off-duty personnel. d. operations expeditors.

off-duty personnel.

(212) The amount of petroleum war reserve requirements (PWRR) a defense fuel supply point (DFSP) is authorized to store is referred to as a. operating stock. b. maximum inventory. c. minimum inventory level. d. petroleum war reserve stock (PWRS).

petroleum war reserve stock (PWRS).

(006) Before beginning a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt, ensure the commercial delivery operator a. reviews the AFTO Forms 244/245 for accuracy. b. performs an odor test on the receiving cryotainer. c. purges the transfer hose to remove potential contaminants. d. signs the DD Form 250 in the quality assurance representative (QAR) block.

purges the transfer hose to remove potential contaminants.

(002) The Vehicle Maintenance Flight Materiel Control section point of contact (POC) coordinates with applicable supervisors or their designees to update and perform inventories on composite tool kits (CTK) on all these occurrences except a. initial issue. b. quarterly. c. semi-annually. d. when responsible individual is transferred and a new one is assigned.

quarterly.

(212) The war consumables distribution objective (WCDO) is derived from the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)-4 and WMP-5 a. weekly. b. monthly. c. quarterly. d. annually.

quarterly.

(210) When determining authorizations for cash sales, you know that cash sales are only authorized when a. products are not normally stocked. b. military exchange facilities are available at the installation. c. adequate commercial facilities are available within reasonable distance. d. sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations.

sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations.

(003) When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure the loop is flushed a. with a minimum of twice the line volume. b. using a minimum of 2,000 gallons of product. c. until a sump sample is obtained. d. for at least 30 minutes.

with a minimum of twice the line volume.