3 Airports, Air Traffic Control and Airspace

31. (Refer to Figure 50 on page 96) The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the A. south of the airport. B. north of the airport. C. southeast of the airport.

(C) is correct the Answer DISCÚSSION: The traffic patterns have been indicated in segmented circle depicted in Fig. 50 arranged to avoid flights over an area to the southeast of the airport. All departures from the runways are to the north or west. All approaches to the airport indicate a pattern of arrival from 180° clockwise to 90°, leaving the southeastern quadrant free of flight. Answer (A) is incorrect. Arrivals on Runway 36 and departures on Runway 18 result in traffic to the south. Answer (B) is incorrect. Runway 9-27 produces traffic to the north in addition to Runway 36 departures and Runway 18 arrivals.

3. (Refer to Figure 48 on page 89) What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted? A. "A" may be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun. B. "A" may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings; "E" may be used only as an overrun. C. "A" may be used only for taxiing; "E" may used for all operations except landings.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Area A in Fig. 48 is the paved area behind a displaced runway threshold, as identified by the ww symbol pointed to by B. This area may be used for taxiing, the landing rollout, and the takeoff of aircraft. Area E is a stopway area, as identified by the lighter shade. This area, due to the nature of its structure, is unusable except as an overrun. Answer (B) is incorrect. Area A cannot be used by any aircraft for landing. Answer (C) is incorrect. Area A can also be used for takeoff and landing rollout. Area E cannot be used for any type of operation, except as an overrun.

10. (Refer to Figure 65 on page 90) (Refer to F.) This sign confirms your position on A. runway 22. B. routing to runway 22. C. taxiway 22.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCUSSION: A runway location sign has a black background with a yellow inscription and a yellow border. The inscription on the sign informs the pilot (s)he is located on Runway 22. Answer (B) is incorrect. A direction sign with a yellow background and black inscription would be required to inform a pilot (s)he is routing to Runway 22. Answer (C) is incorrect. Only runways are numbered. Taxiways are always identified by a letter.

57. During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft? A. The other aircraft is flying away from you. B. The other aircraft is crossing to the left. C. The other aircraft is crossing to the right.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCUSSION: A steady white light (the tail light) indicates the other airplane is moving away from you. The flashing red light is the beacon light. Answer (B) is incorrect. You would observe a red light if another plane were crossing to your left. Answer (C) is incorrect. You would observe a green light if another airplane were crossing to your right.

56. During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft? A. The other aircraft is crossing to the left. B. The other aircraft is crossing to the right. C. The other aircraft is approaching head-on.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCUSSION: Airplane position lights consist of a steady red light on the left wing (looking forward), a green light on the right wing, and a white light on the tail. Accordingly, if you observe a steady red light, you are looking at the tip of a left wing, which means the other plane is traveling from your right to left (crossing to the left). The red flashing light is the beacon. Answer (B) is incorrect. If the airplane were crossing to the right, you would see a steady green light. Answer (C) is incorrect. If the airplane were approaching head-on, you would see both the red and the green lights.

84. Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace? A. Class C. B. Class E. C. Class G.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCUSSION: No person may operate an aircraft in Class C airspace unless two-way radio communication is established with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the airspace prior to entering that area. Answer (B) is incorrect. While a Class E airspace area is controlled airspace, two-way radio communication is not required to be established with ATC prior to entering VFR weather conditions. Answer (C) is incorrect. Two-way radio communication with ATC is not required for any operations in Class G airspace.

87. What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace? A. Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements. B. Commercial Pilot Certificate. C. Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCUSSION: No person may take off or land aircraft at an airport within Class B airspace or operate an aircraft within Class B airspace unless (s)he is at least a private pilot or, if a student pilot, (s)he has the appropriate logbook endorsement required by 14 CFR 61.95. Answer (B) is incorrect. The minimum pilot certification to operate in Class B airspace is a private pilot certificate or student pilot certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements, not a commercial pilot certificate. Answer (C) is incorrect. An instrument rating is not required to operate in Class B airspace.

76. Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs at all towered airports A. regardless of weather conditions. B. only when weather conditions are less than VFR. C. within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCUSSION: Two-way radio communications with air traffic control (ATC) are required for landing and taking off at all tower controlled airports, regardless of weather conditions. However, light signals from the tower may be used during radio failure. Answer (B) is incorrect. Radio communication is also required in VFR weather as well as IFR weather at all tower- controlled airports. Answer (C) is incorrect. Radio communication is required in both VFR and IFR weather when landing at or taking off at all tower-controlled airports within Class D airspace.

64. What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway? A. Execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace. B. Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes. C. Fly away from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCUSSION: When climbing airway, you should execute priority and especially pertinent to climbs and descents on scanning for other aircraft. Collision avoidance is a constant gentle banks left and right to facilitate (descending) VFR on an airways where other traffic is expected. Answer (B) is incorrect. An FSS provides no en route traffic to leave the service. Answer (C) is incorrect. It is not necessary center of the airway, only to scan for other aircraft.

18. The 'yellow demarcation bar' marking indicates A. runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway. B. a hold line from a taxiway to a runway. C. the beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: A demarcation bar is a 3-ft.-wide yellow stripe that separates a runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway, or taxiway that precedes the runway. Answer (B) is incorrect. A set of solid yellow and dashed yellow lines represents the hold lines between a taxiway and runway. Answer (C) is incorrect. The yellow demarcation bar delineates the beginning of the displaced threshold, which is not a landing surface.

20. A lighted heliport may be identified by a A. green, yellow, and white rotating beacon. B. flashing yellow light. C. blue lighted square landing area.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: A lighted heliport may be identified by a green, yellow, and white rotating beacon. Answer (B) is incorrect. A flashing yellow light is sometimes used to help a pilot locate a lighted water airport. It is used in conjunction with the lighted water airport's white and yellow rotating beacon. Answer (C) is incorrect. A lighted heliport may be identified by a green, yellow, and white rotating beacon, not a blue lighted square landing area.

30. (Refer to Figure 50 on page 96) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is A. left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18. B. left-hand for Runway 18 and right-hand for Runway 36. C. right-hand for Runway 9 and left-hand for Runway 27.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: A segmented circle (Fig. 50) is installed at uncontrolled airports to provide traffic pattern information. The landing runway indicators are shown coming out of the segmented circle to show the alignment of landing runways. In Fig. 50 (given the answer choices), the available runways are 18-36 and 9-27. The traffic pattern indicators are at the end of the landing indicators and are angled out at 90°, These indicate the runway direction of turn from base to final. Thus, the airport traffic is left- hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18. It is also left- hand for Runway 9 and right-hand for Runway 27. Answer (B) is incorrect. Runway 18 is right, not left, and Runway 36 is left, not right. Answer (C) is incorrect. Runway 9 is left, not right, and Runway 27 is right, not left.

96. What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours? A. 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds. B. 1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds. C. 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Below 1,200 feet AGL in Class G airspace during daylight hours, the VFR weather minimum is 1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds. Answer (B) is incorrect. One statute mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds is the minimum visibility and clearance from clouds 10,000 feet MSL, in Class G airspace at more than 1,200 feet AGL but less than not at 700 feet AGL. At night the requirement is 3 statute miles and 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and Three statute miles 2,000 feet horizontal from clouds. Answer (C) is incorrect. visibility and clear of clouds are the visibility in Class B, not Class G, and clearance from clouds requirements airspace.

92. VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of A. 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace. B. 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes. C. 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Controlled airspace is the generic term for Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace. Only in Class C, D, or below 10,000 feet MSL in Class E airspace are the minimum flight visibility and vertical distance from cloud for VFR flight required to be 3 statute miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds. NOTE: AGL altitudes are not used in controlled airspace. In Class E airspace, the visibility and distance from clouds are given for (1) below 10,000 feet MSL and (2) at or above 10,000 feet MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect. Five statute miles and 1,000 feet above and below the clouds is the minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance in Class E airspace at altitudes at or above, not below, 10,000 feet MSL. Answer (C) is incorrect. VFR flight in Class A airspace is prohibited.

26. (Refer to Figure 49 on page 95) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on A. Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right. B. Runway 22 directly into the wind. C. Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Given a wind as shown by the landing direction indicator in Fig. 49, the pilot should land to the south on Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right. The tetrahedron points to the wind that is from the southwest. Answer (B) is incorrect. Runways 4 and 22 are closed, as indicated by the X at each end of the runway. Answer (C) is incorrect. The wind is from the southwest (not the northeast). The landing should be into the wind.

8. (Refer to Figure 65 on page 90) Which sign identifies where aircraft are prohibited from entering? A. D. B. G. C. B.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Mandatory instruction signs have a red background with a white inscription and are used to denote an entrance to a runway or critical area and areas where an aircraft is prohibited from entering. Answer (B) is incorrect. "G" is a runway boundary sign. Answer (C) is incorrect. "B" is a holding position sign for a runway approach area.

12. (Refer to Figure 65 on page 90) Which of the signs in the figure is a mandatory instruction sign? A. D. B. G. С. Н.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Mandatory with a white inscription and are used to signs have a red background denote an entrance to a area and areas where an aircraft is prohibited runway or critical from entering. "D" is a "No Entry" sign. Answer (B) is incorrect. "G" is a runway boundary sign. It is located on taxiways on the back side of certain runway/taxiway holding position signs or runway approach area signs. Answer (C) is incorrect. The ILS critical area sign has a yellow background and black lines drawn that looks like a sideways ladder. This sign identifies the ILS critical area exit boundary. If an aircraft is on this line and instrument approaches are in be blocked. Do not cross or block the ILS signal may progress, this during IMC unless clearance is given.

98. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR flight is A. 1 mile. B. 3 miles. C. 5 miles.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: One statute mile is the minimum day flight visibility in Class G airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect. The minimum flight visibility is 3 statute miles when operating outside controlled airspace (i.e., Class G airspace) at night at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL. Answer (C) is incorrect. Five statute miles is for operations more than 1.200 feet AGL and at or above, not below, 10,000 feet MSL in Class G airspace.

82. Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace? A. Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency. B. Contact the tower and request permission to enter. C. Contact the FSS for traffic advisories.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Prior to entering Class C airspace, a pilot must contact and establish communication with approach control on the appropriate frequency. Answer (B) is incorrect. The tower normally controls the air traffic in the traffic pattern, not the aircraft entering the Class C airspace area. Answer (C) is incorrect. The pilot should contact approach control, not FSS, prior to entering Class C airspace.

60. Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should A. not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second. B. be 30 degrees and view each sector at least 3 seconds. C. use peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The most effective way to scan for other aircraft during daylight hours is to use a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into your central visual field. Each movement should not exceed 10°, and each area should be observed for at least 1 second to enable detection. Only a very small center area of the has eye the ability to send clear, sharply focused messages to the brain. Answer (B) is incorrect. The spacing for the scan between positions should be 10°, not 30°. Answer (C) is incorrect. At night, collision avoidance scanning must use the off-center portions of the eyes. These portions are most effective at seeing objects at night. Accordingly, peripheral vision should be used, scanning small sectors and using off-screen viewing. This is in contrast to daytime searching for air traffic when center viewing should be used.

9. (Refer to Figure 65 on page 90) (Refer to E.) This sign is a visual clue that A. confirms the aircraft's location to be on taxiway "B." B. warns the pilot of approaching taxiway "B." C. indicates "B" holding area is ahead.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The taxiway location sign consists of a yellow letter on a black background with a yellow border. This sign confirms the pilot is on taxiway "B." Answer (B) is incorrect. A direction sign with a yellow background, a black letter, and an arrow pointing to taxiway "B" would be required to warn a pilot that (s)he is approaching taxiway "B." Answer (C) is incorrect. A taxiway location sign defines a position on a taxiway, not a holding area.

54. When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance? A. Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown. B. Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath. C. Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: When landing behind a large aircraft, stay above its final approach flight path all the way to touchdown; i.e., touch down beyond the touchdown point of the large aircraft. Answer (B) is incorrect. You should stay at or above, not below, its flight path. Answer (C) is incorrect. You should stay at or above, not below, its flight path, and land beyond, not behind, its touchdown point.

48. When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying A. above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point. B. below the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point. C. above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point.

Answer (A) is correct. DISCÚSSION: When landing behind a large aircraft, your flight path should be above the other aircraft's flight path since the vortices sink. When the aircraft touches down, the vortices will stop, so you should thus touch down beyond where the large aircraft did. Answer (B) is incorrect. Below the flight path, you will fly through the sinking vortices generated by the large aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect. By landing before the large aircraft's will have to fly below the preceding touchdown point, you aircraft's flight path.

46. (Refer to Figure 48 on page 100) With winds reported as from 300° at 4 knots, you are given instructions to taxi to runway 30 for departure and to expect to take off after an airliner, which is departing 35L. What effect would you expect from from runway the airliner's vortices? A. The winds will push the vortices into your takeoff path. B. The crosswind will prevent lateral movement of the vortices. C. The downwind vortex will rapidly dissipate.

Answer (A) is correct. DISČÚSSION: A light wind between 1 to 5 knots could result in the upwind vortex remaining over the runway and hasten the drift of the downwind vortex toward your runway of intended departure. Answer (B) is incorrect. A crosswind will decrease the lateral movement of the upwind vortex and increase the movement of the downwind vortex. Thus, with a light crosswind of 4 knots for runway 35L, you can expect the airliner's upwind vortex to remain over runway 35L and the downwind vortex to hasten your runway in drift toward of intended departure. Answer (C) is incorrect. With a light crosswind of 4 knots, the wind will not rapidly dissipate the downwind vortex and, in this instance, the of intended downwind vortex will move toward your runway departure.

69. After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control? A. When advised by the tower to do so. B. Prior to turning off the runway. C. After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area.

Answer (A) is correct. DISČÚSSION: After landing at a tower-controlled airport, you should contact ground control on the appropriate frequency only when instructed by the tower. Answer (B) is incorrect. A pilot should not change frequencies unless instructed to do so by the tower. Sometimes the tower controller will be handling both tower and ground frequencies. Switching without permission may be confusing to ATC. Answer (C) is incorrect. A pilot should not change frequencies unless instructed to do so by the tower. Sometimes the tower controller will be handling both tower and ground frequencies. Switching without permission may be confusing to ATC.

90. In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C.

Answer (A) is correct. DISČÚSSION: Class A airspace (from 18,000 ft. MSL up to and including FL 600) requires operation under IFR at specific flight levels assigned by ATC. Accordingly, VFR flights are prohibited. Answer (B) is incorrect. VFR flights are prohibited in Class A, not Class B, airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect. VFR flights are prohibited in Class A, not Class C, airspace.

89. You would like to enter Class B airspace and contact the approach controller. The controller responds to your initial radio call with "N125HF standby." May you enter the Class B airspace? A. You must remain outside Class B airspace until controller gives you a specific clearance. B. You may continue into the Class B airspace and wait for further instructions. C. You may continue into the Class B airspace without a specific clearance, if the aircraft is ADS-B equipped.

Answer (A) is correct. DISČÚSSION: In order to operate an aircraft within a Class B airspace, pilots must receive an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that area before entering the Class B airspace. Answer (B) is incorrect. An ATC clearance is required prior to entering a Class B airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect. An ATC clearance is required prior to entering a Class B airspace.

32. (Refer to Figure 50 on page 96) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a A. right-quartering headwind. B. left-quartering headwind. C. right-quartering tailwind.

Answer (A) is correct. DISČÚSSION: The wind cone at the center of thes segmented circle depicted in Fig. 50 indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a right-quartering headwind. The large end of the wind cone is pointing to the direction from which the wind is coming, i.e., a northwest headwind on the right quarter of an airplane landing from the east to the west. Answer (B) is incorrect. A left-quartering headwind would be encountered landing on Runway 35. Answer (C) is incorrect. A right-quartering tailwind would be encountered landing on Runway 17.

49. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. sink below the aircraft generating turbulence. B. rise into the traffic pattern. C. rise into the takeoff or landing path of crossing runway.

Answer (A) is correct. DISČÚSSION: Wingtip vortices created by large airplanes tend to sink below the airplane generating the turbulence. Answer (B) is incorrect. Wingtip vortices sink, not rise. Answer (C) is incorrect. Wingtip vortices do not rise or gain altitude, but sink toward the ground. However, they may move horizontally left or right depending on crosswind conditions.

70. If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed A. via taxiways and across runways to, but not onto, Runway 9. B. to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required. C. via taxiways and across runways to Runway 9, where an immediate takeoff may be made.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: A taxi clearance from ATC authorizes the pilot to utilize taxiways along the taxi route, but a specific crossing clearance must be issued for all runways along the route. Answer (A) is incorrect. A clearance to taxi to the active runway means a pilot has been given permission to taxi via taxiways to, but not onto, the active runway. ATC must issue a specific clearance to cross any runway along the taxi route. Answer (C) is incorrect. The clearance to taxi to a runway does not permit taxiing onto the active runway.

95. The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is A. remain clear of clouds. B. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally. C. 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: An airway includes that Class E airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet AGL to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL. The minimum distance from clouds below 10,000 feet MSL in Class E airspace is 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally. Answer (A) is incorrect. Clear of clouds is the minimum distance from clouds required in Class B, not Class E, airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect. The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations in Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL is 500 feet below, not above; 1,000 feet above, not below; and 2,000 feet horizontally.

94. What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL? A. 1 mile. B. 3 miles. C. 4 miles.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: An airway includes that Class E airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet AGL to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL. The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight operations in Class E airspace less than 10,000 feet MSL is 3 statute miles. Answer (A) is incorrect. One statute mile is the minimum daytime visibility for a VFR flight below 10,000 feet MSL in Class G, not Class E, airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect. The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight operations in Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL is 3, not 4, statute miles.

37. (Refer to Figure 47 on page 98) Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is A. below the glide slope. B. on the glide slope. C. above the glide slope.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: Illustration A indicates that the airplane is on the glide path (glide slope). The basic principle of the VASI is that of color differentiation between red and white. Each light unit projects a beam of light having a white segment in the upper part and a red segment in the lower part of the beam. Thus, to be on the glide slope you need to be on the lower part of the far light (red) and on the upper part of the near light (white). Answer (A) is incorrect. If the airplane is below the glide path, both rows of lights will be red, as indicated in illustration D. Answer (C) is incorrect. If the aircraft is above the glide path, both lights will be white, as indicated in illustration C.

23. How can a military airport be identified at night? A. Alternate white and green light flashes. B. Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes. C. White flashing lights with steady green at the same location.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: Military airport beacons flash alternately white and green but are differentiated from civil beacons by two quick white flashes between the green flashes. Answer (A) is incorrect. Alternating white and green beacon light flashes indicate lighted civil land airports. Answer (C) is incorrect. There is no such airport signal.

86. What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace? A. Recreational Pilot Certificate. B. Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements. C. Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: No person may take off or land aircraft at an airport within Class B airspace or operate an aircraft within Class B airspace unless (s)he is at least a private pilot or, if a student pilot, (s)he has the appropriate logbook endorsement required by 14 CFR 61.95. Answer (A) is incorrect. A recreational pilot is restricted from operating in airspace (e.g., Class B airspace) that requires communication with ATC. Answer (C) is incorrect. An instrument rating is not required to operate in Class B airspace.

63. Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should A. check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications. B. visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance. C. announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: Prior to each maneuver, a pilot should visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance. Many maneuvers require a clearing turn, which should be used for this purpose. Answer (A) is incorrect. Altitude, speed, and heading may not all be critical to every maneuver. Collision avoidance is! Answer (C) is incorrect. CTAF is used for operations at an uncontrolled airport, not for pilots doing maneuvers away from an airport.

24. Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by A. white directional lights. B. blue omnidirectional lights. C. alternate red and green lights.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: Taxiway edge lights are used to outline the edges of taxiways during periods of darkness or restricted visibility conditions. These lights are identified at night by blue omnidirectional lights. Answer (A) is incorrect. White lights are standard runway edge lights. Ànswer (C) is incorrect. Alternate red and green lights are a light gun signal, which means exercise extreme caution to all aircraft.

88. The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are A. 500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility. B. 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility. C. clear of clouds and 2 miles visibility.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are a 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility. Answer (A) is incorrect. The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft in Class D airspace are a 1,000-foot, not 500-foot, ceiling and 3 (not 1) statute miles visibility. Answer (C) is incorrect. The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft in Class D airspace are a 1,000-foot ceiling, not clear of clouds, and 3 (not 2) statute miles visibility.

62. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use A. regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions. B. a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector. C. peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: The most effective way to scan for other aircraft during daylight hours is to use a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into your central visual field. Each movement should not exceed 10°, and each area should be observed for at least 1 second to enable detection. Only a very small center area of the eye has the ability to send clear, sharply focused messages to the brain. All other areas provide less detail. Answer (A) is incorrect. The spacing between the positions should be 10°, not 90°. Answer (C) is incorrect. This is the recommended nighttime scanning procedure.

53. When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft A. below and downwind from the heavy aircraft. B. above and upwind from the heavy aircraft. C. below and upwind from the heavy aircraft.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCUSSION: The proper procedure for departing behind a large aircraft is to rotate prior to the large aircraft's rotation point, then fly above and upwind of the large aircraft. Since vortices sink and drift downwind, this should keep you clear. Answer (A) is incorrect. You should remain above and upwind from the heavy aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect. You should fly above the flight path of the large aircraft to avoid the sinking vortices.

79. The radius of the procedural outer area of Class C airspace is normally A. 10 NM. B. 20 NM. C. 30 NM.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: A 20-NM radius procedural outer area surrounds the primary airport in Class C airspace. This area is not charted and generally does not require action from the pilot. Answer (A) is incorrect. Each Class C airspace is individually tailored to the specific area; however, most Class C airspace consists of a charted 5-NM radius core area that extends from the surface to 4,000 ft. AGL and a charted 10-NM radius shelf that extends from 1,200 ft. AGL to 4,000 ft. AGL. Answer (C) is incorrect. A 30-NM outer area does not surround Class C airspace; however, a 30-NM Mode C veil does surround Class B airspace.

68. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. B. 500 feet or less to another aircraft. C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: A near midair collision is defined as an incident associated with the operation of an airplane in which a possibility of collision occurs as a result of proximity of less than 500 feet to another airplane. It is the responsibility of the pilot and/or flight crew to determine whether a near midair collision did actually occur and to initiate a near midair collision report. Answer (A) is incorrect. A near midair collision is reported if the possibility of a collision occurs as a result of proximity of less than 500 feet, not 50 feet, to another airplane. Answer (C) is incorrect. Proximity of greater than 500 feet is not considered a near midair collision and would not be reported as such.

35. When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall A. maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold. B. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope. C. remain on the glide slope and land between the two-light bar.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: An airplane approaching to land on a runway served by a VASI shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. Answer (A) is incorrect. A VASI should not be used for descent until the airplane is visually lined with the up runway. Answer (C) is incorrect. It is unsafe to concentrate on the VASI after nearing the approach end of the runway; i.e., turn your attention to landing the airplane.

99. During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is A. 500 feet. B. 1,000 feet. C. 1,500 feet.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Controlled airspace is the generic term for Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace. Only in Class C, D, or below 10,000 feet MSL in Class E airspace are the minimum flight visibility and vertical distance from clouds for VFR flight required to be 3 SM, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds. NOTE: AGL altitudes are not used in controlled airspace. In Class E airspace, the visibility and distance from clouds are given for (1) below 10,000 feet MSL and (2) at or above 10,000 feet MSL. Answer (A) is incorrect. Five hundred feet is the minimum distance below, not above, clouds requirement for VFR flight in Class E airspace at altitudes of less than 10,000 feet MSL. Answer (C) is incorrect. The minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight in Class E airspace at altitudes of less than 10,000 feet MSL is 1,000 feet, not 1,500 feet.

38. (Refer to Figure 47 on page 98) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is A. above the glide path. B. below the glide path. C. on the glide path.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: In illustration D of Fig. 47, both rows of lights are red. Thus, the aircraft is below the glide path. Remember, red means dead." Answer (A) is incorrect. If the airplane is above the glide path,the lights would both show white as indicated by illustration C. Answer (C) is incorrect. If the airplane is glide path, the lights would be red over white, as indicated by on the illustration A.

21. A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits A. white and green alternating flashes. B. two quick, white flashes between green flashes. C. green, yellow, and white flashes.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Lighted land airports are distinguished by white and green airport beacons. To further distinguish it as a military airport, there are two quick white flashes between each green. Answer (A) is incorrect. White and green alternating flashes designate a lighted civilian land airport. Answer (C) is incorrect. Green, yellow, and white flashes designate a lighted heliport.

22. An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates A. there are obstructions on the airport. B. that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums. C. the Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Operation of the airport beacon during daylight hours often indicates that weather at the airport located in controlled airspace (e.g., Class D airspace) VFR weather minimums, i.e., less than 1,000 ft. ceiling is below basic or 3 SM visibility. Note that there is no regulatory requirement for daylight operation of an airport's rotating beacon. Answer (A) is incorrect. The obstructions near or on airports are usually listed in NOTAMS or the Chart Supplement as appropriate to their hazard. Answer (C) is incorrect. There is no visual signal of tower operation/non-operation.

2. (Refer to Figure 48 page 89) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true? A. Position E on Runway 30 is available for landing. B. Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B. C. The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position B.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Position A indicates a displaced threshold by the arrows located along the centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and displaced threshold. Arrow heads are located across the width of the runway just prior to the threshold bar. A displaced threshold is located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway. The portion of runway behind a displaced threshold is available for takeoffs in either direction and landings from the opposite direction. These markings are white in the real environment. Answer (A) is incorrect. Position E contains blast pad or stopway markings as indicated by the chevrons. These markings are used to show pavement areas aligned with the runway that are unusable for landing, takeoff, and taxiing. Chevrons are yellow in the real environment. Answer (C) is incorrect. Only the landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position B. The takeoff threshold (i.e., position A). may be started in the paved area behind the displaced runway

67. The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating A. in Class B airspace. B. in conditions of reduced visibility. C. within 15 miles of a towered airport.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The FAA has a voluntary pilot safety program known as "Operation Lights On" to enhance the see-and-avoid concept. Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, especially when operating within 10 miles of any airport or in conditions of reduced visibility. Answer (A) is incorrect. The AIM does not indicate any specific airspace. Pilots should turn on their landing lights in conditions of reduced visibility, regardless of the airspace in which they are operating. Answer (C) is incorrect. Lights should be used within 10 miles of any airport, towered or not.

5. (Refer to Figure 48 on page 89) That portion of the runway may identified by the letter A be used for A. landing. B. taxiing and takeoff. C. taxiing and landing.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The portion of the runway identified by the letter A is a displaced threshold. A displaced runway can be distinguished from a regular runway by the arrow heads that run across the width of the displaced runway (just before the white threshold bar) as identified on the diagram by the ww symbol indicated by B. A displaced threshold means the runway may be used for taxiing or takeoffs but not for landings. Answer (A) is incorrect. Area A may be used for the landing rollout or taxi but not the actual landing. Answer (C) is incorrect. Area A may be used for taxiing and takeoff but not for landing.

41. Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI? A. Continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR. B. Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area. C. Course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The visual approach slope indicator (VASI) provides safe obstruction clearance within ± 10° of the extended runway centerline out to 4 NM. Pilots are advised to remain on the VASI-directed glide path throughout the entire approach to ensure obstruction clearance. Answer (A) is incorrect. The VASI provides visual descent guidance, not course guidance. Course guidance implies lateral as well as vertical guidance. Answer (C) is incorrect. The VASI provides visual descent guidance, not course guidance. Course guidance implies lateral as well as vertical guidance.

43. Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI? A. Runway identification and course guidance. B. Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area. C. Lateral course guidance to the runway.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The visual approach slope indicator (VASI) provides safe obstruction clearance within ±10° of the extended runway centerline out to 4 NM. Pilots are advised to remain on the VASI-directed glide path throughout the entire approach to ensure obstruction clearance. Answer (A) is incorrect. The VASI provides visual descent guidance, not course guidance and runway identification. Course guidance implies lateral as well as vertical guidance. Answer (C) is incorrect. The VASI provides visual descent guidance, not lateral course guidance.

19. (Refer to Figure 64 on page 93) Which marking indicates a vehicle lane? A. A. B. C. C. E.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Vehicle roadway markings define a route of travel for vehicles to cross areas intended for use by aircraft. The roadway is defined by solid white lines, with a dashed line in the middle to separate traffic traveling in opposite directions. White zipper markings may be used instead of solid white lines to define the edge of the roadway at some airports. Answer (A) is incorrect. This marking represents a surface painted holding position sign, not a vehicle lane. In this instance, the marking indicates the aircraft is holding short of Runway 19. Answer (C) is incorrect. This marking represents a standard taxiway holding position and is used by ATC to hold aircraft short of an intersecting taxiway.

13. When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot A. may continue taxiing. B. should not cross the lines without ATC clearance. C. should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: When approaching taxiway holding lines, the solid (continuous) lines are always on the side where the aircraft is to hold. Therefore, do not cross the hold line without ATC clearance. Answer (A) is incorrect. You cannot cross the hold line without ATC clearance. Answer (C) is incorrect. No part of the aircraft can cross the hold line without ATC clearance.

40. While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall A. maintain a 3° glide until approximately 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the VASI. B. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. C. stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: When approaching to land on a runway served by a VASI, each pilot of an airplane must fly at or above the VASI glide path until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. Answer (A) is incorrect. A VASI may be adjusted to provide a glide slope more or less than 3°. Answer (C) is incorrect. Higher than the VASI glide path is not required.

42. Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall A. maintain a 3° glide to the runway. B. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope. C. stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: When approaching to land on a runway served by a VASI, each pilot of an airplane must fly at or above the VASI glide path until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. Answer (A) is incorrect. A VASI may be adjusted to provide a glide slope more or less than 3°. Answer (C) is incorrect. Higher than the VASI glide path is not required.

97. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is A. 1 mile. B. 3 miles. C. 5 miles.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: When operating outside controlled airspace (i.e., Class G airspace) at night at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility is 3 statute miles. Answer (A) is incorrect. One statute mile is the minimum day, not night, flight visibility in Class G airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL. Answer (C) is incorrect. Five statute miles is for operations more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above, not below, 10,000 feet MSL in Class G airspace.

11. (Refer to Figure 65 on page 90)(Refer to G.) From the flight deck, this marking confirms the aircraft to be A. on a taxiway, about to enter runway zone. B. on a runway, about to clear. C. near an instrument approach clearance zone.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: When the runway holding position line is viewed from the runway side, the pilot is presented with two dashed bars. The PIC must ensure the entire aircraft has cleared the runway holding position line prior to coming to a stop. Answer (A) is incorrect. A pilot entering a runway from a taxiway is presented with the two solid bars on the runway holding position marking, not the dashed lines. Answer (C) is incorrect. The marking depicted is a runway holding position marking and is not related to any form of clearance zone.

77. Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only A. when the weather minimums are below basic VFR. B. when the associated control tower is in operation. C. when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.

Answer (B) is correct. DISČÚSSION: A Class D airspace area is automatically in effect when and only when the associated part-time control tower is in operation regardless of weather conditions, availability of radar services, or time of day. Airports with part-time operating towers only have a part-time Class D airspace area. Answer (A) is incorrect. A Class D airspace area is automatically in effect when the tower is in operation, regardless of the weather conditions. Answer (C) is incorrect. A Class D airspace area is in effect when the associated control tower, not FSS, is in operation.

44. A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is A. four white lights. B. three white lights and one red light. C. two white lights and two red lights.

Answer (B) is correct. DISČÚSSION: A precision approach path indicator (PAPI) has a row of four lights, each of which is similar to a VASI in that they emit a red or white light. Above the glide slope (more than 3.5°) is indicated by four white lights, a slightly above glide slope (3.2°) is indicated by three white lights and one red light, on glide slope (3°) is indicated by two white and two red lights, slightly below glide slope (2.8°) is indicated by one white and three red lights, and below (too low) the glide slope (less than 2.5°) is indicated by four red lights. Answer (A) is incorrect. Four white lights is a high or more than 3.5° glide slope. Answer (C) is incorrect. Two white and two red lights is an on glide slope (3°).

39. (Refer to Figure 47 on page 98) VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is A. off course to the left. B. above the glide slope. C. below the glide slope.

Answer (B) is correct. DISČÚSSION: In illustration C of Fig. 47, both rows of lights are white, which means the airplane is above the glide path. Answer (A) is incorrect. The VASI does not alert a pilot as to runway alignment, but a pilot who is excessively to the left or right may not be able to see the VASI lights at all. Answer (C) is incorrect. If the airplane is below the glide path, both rows of lights would show red, as indicated by illustration D.

65. Most midair collision accidents occur during A. hazy days. B. clear days. C. cloudy nights.

Answer (B) is correct. DISČÚSSION: Most midair collision accidents and reported near midair collision incidents occur during good VFR weather conditions (i.e., clear days) and during the hours of daylight. This is when more aircraft are likely to be flying. Answer (A) is incorrect. During hazy days, fewer pilots will be flying, and those who are will be more vigilant in their scanning for other traffic. Answer (C) is incorrect. During cloudy nights, fewer pilots will be flying, and those who are will be more vigilant in their scanning for other traffic.

50. The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a A. light, quartering headwind. B. light, quartering tailwind. C. strong headwind.

Answer (B) is correct. DISČÚSSION: The most dangerous wind condition when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a light, quartering tailwind. The tailwind can push the vortices forward, which could put it in the touchdown zone of aircraft even if you used your proper procedures and landed beyond the touchdown point of the preceding aircraft. Also, the quartering wind may push the upwind vortices to the middle of the runway. Answer (A) is incorrect. Headwinds push the vortices out of zone if you land beyond the touchdown point of your touchdown the preceding aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect. Strong winds help diffuse wake turbulence vortices.

34. The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is A. 45° to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude. B. to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude. C. to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg.

Answer (B) is correct. DISČÚSSION: The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude. Answer (A) is incorrect. The recommended entry to an airport traffic pattern is to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind, not base, leg and at traffic pattern altitude, not below. Answer (C) is incorrect. The recommended entry to an airport traffic pattern is to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind, not to cross directly over the airport and join the downwind leg. Also, flying at traffic pattern altitude directly over an airport is an example of poor judgment in collision avoidance precautions.

28. (Refer to Figure 49 on page 95) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing. A. Left-hand traffic and Runway 18. B. Right-hand traffic and Runway 18. C. Left-hand traffic and Runway 22.

Answer (B) is correct. DISČÚSSION: The tetrahedron indicates wind direction by pointing into the wind. On Fig. 49, Runways 4 and 22 are closed, as indicated by the X at each end of the runway. Accordingly, with the wind from the southwest, the landing should be made on Runway 18. Runway 18 has right-hand traffic, as indicated by the traffic pattern indicator at a 90° angle to the landing runway indicator in the segmented circle. Answer (A) is incorrect. Runway 18 uses a right-hand (not left-hand) pattern. Answer (C) is incorrect. The X markings indicate that Runways 4 and 22 are closed.

66. Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with A. the controlling agency. B. all pilots. C. Air Traffic Control.

Answer (B) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Alert areas may contain a high volume of pilot training or other unusual activity. Pilots using the area as well as pilots crossing the area are equally responsible for collision avoidance. Answer (A) is incorrect. Pilots are responsible for collision avoidance, not controlling agencies. Answer (C) is incorrect. Pilots are responsible for collision avoidance, not ATC.

75. The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on A. the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace. B. 5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport. C. the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.

Answer (C) is correct. DISČÚSSION: The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based upon the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established. Answer (A) is incorrect. While the FAA will attempt to exclude satellite airports as much as possible from Class D airspace, the major criteria for the lateral dimension will be based on the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established. Answer (B) is incorrect. The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on the instrument procedures for which the Class D airspace is established, not a specified radius from the primary airport.

80. Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace? A. The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure. B. The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace. C. The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: Aircraft departing from a satellite airport within Class C airspace with an operating control tower must establish and maintain two-way radio communication with the control tower and thereafter as instructed by ATC. When departing a satellite airport without an operating control tower, the pilot must contact and maintain two-way radio communication with ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff. Answer (A) is incorrect. Flight plans are not required in Class C airspace. Answer (B) is incorrect. The pilot must maintain communication with ATC, not only monitor ATC, in Class C airspace.

59. How can you determine if another aircraft is on collision course with your aircraft? A. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate. B. The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space. C. There will be no apparent relative motion your between aircraft and the other aircraft.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: Any aircraft that appears to have no relative motion and stays in one scan quadrant is likely to be on a collision course. Also, if a target shows no lateral or vertical motion but increases in size, take evasive action. Answer (A) is incorrect. Aircraft on collision courses may not always appear to grow larger and/or to close at a rapid rate. Frequently, the degree of proximity cannot be detected. Answer (B) is incorrect. You may not be able to tell in exactly which direction the other airplane is pointed. Even if you could determine the direction of other airplane, you may not be able to accurately project the flight paths of the two airplanes to and will determine if they indeed point to the same point in space arrive there at the same time (i.e., collide).

58. During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft? A. The other aircraft is crossing to the left. B. The other aircraft is flying away from you. C. The other aircraft is approaching head-on.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: If you observe steady red and green lights at the same altitude, the other airplane is approaching head-on. You should take evasive action to the right. Answer (A) is incorrect. If the airplane were crossing to the left, you would observe only a red light. Answer (B) is incorrect. If the other airplane were headed away from you, you would observe a white (tail) light.

100. No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the A. flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile. B. ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile. C. ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: No person may take off or land an aircraft at any airport that lies within Class D airspace under basic VFR unless the ground visibility is 3 statute miles. If ground visibility is not reported, flight visibility during landing or takeoff, or while operating in the traffic pattern, must be at least 3 statute miles. Answer (A) is incorrect. Flight visibility during landing or takeoff under basic VFR must be at least 3, not 1, statute miles. Answer (B) is incorrect. Ground visibility during landing or takeoff under basic VFR must be at least 3, not 1, statute miles.

15. What does the outbound destination sign identify? A. Identifies entrance to the runway from taxiway. B. Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located. C. Identifies direction to take-off runways.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: Outbound destination signs define taxiing directions to takeoff runways. Destination signs have a yellow background with a black inscription. Outbound destination signs always have an arrow showing the direction of the taxiing route to the takeoff runway. Answer (A) is incorrect. A runway holding position sign, not an outbound destination sign, identifies the entrance to a runway from a taxiway. Runway holding position signs consist of a red background with white inscription. Answer (B) is incorrect. A runway location sign, not an outbound destination sign, identifies the runway on which the aircraft is currently located. Runway location signs consist of a black background with a yellow inscription and a yellow border.

1. The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately A. 008° and 026° true. B. 080° and 260° true. C. 080° and 260° magnetic.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: Runway numbers are determined from the approach direction. The runway number is the whole number nearest one-tenth the magnetic direction of the centerline. Thus, the numbers 8 and 26 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately 080° and 260° magnetic. Answer (A) is incorrect. The ending digit, not a leading zero, is dropped. Answer (B) is incorrect. Runways are numbered based on magnetic, not true, direction.

7. (Refer to Figure 65 on page 90.) Which sign is a designation and direction of an exit taxiway from a runway? A. J. B. F. C. K.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: Sign K designates the direction of taxiway B; while both J and K are destination signs, only K designates the route to a taxiway. Answer (A) is incorrect. Though a destination sign, Sign J designates the direction of Runway 22, not the direction of a taxiway. Answer (B) is incorrect. Sign F is a location sign indicating that the aircraft is located on Runway 22.

29. (Refer to Figure 50 on page 96) Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle? A. Right-hand traffic on Runway 9. B. Right-hand traffic on Runway 18. C. Left-hand traffic on Runway 36.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: The appropriate traffic pattern and runway, given a wind from the northwest (Fig. 50), is left-hand traffic on Runway 36, which would have a quartering headwind. Answer (A) is incorrect. Runway 9 uses a left-hand pattern. Also, this would be a tailwind landing. Answer (B) is incorrect. Even though there is right traffic on Runway 18, this would be a tailwind landing.

4. (Refer to Figure 48 on page 89) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a A. stabilized area. B. multiple heliport. C. closed runway.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: The runway marked by the arrow C in Fig. has Xs on the runway, indicating it is closed. Answer (A) is incorrect. Stabilized areas are designed to be load bearing but may be limited to emergency use only. Area E on the airport indicates a stabilized area. Answer (B) is incorrect. Heliports are marked by Hs, not Xs.

73. When a control tower located on an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation? A. The airspace designation normally will not change. B. The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available. C. The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: When a tower ceases operation, the Class D airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class G and Class E. Answer (A) is incorrect. Class D airspace is designated when there is an operating control tower. When the tower ceases operation for the day, the airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class G and Class E airspace. Answer (B) is incorrect. The airspace reverts to Class E, not Class D, when the tower ceases operation for the day and an approved weather observer or automated weather system is available.

45. Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is A. operating at high airspeeds. B. heavily loaded. C. developing lift.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCUSSION: Wingtip vortices are the result of the pressure differential over and under wing when that wing is producing lift. Wingtip vortices do not develop when an airplane is taxiing, although prop blast or jet thrust turbulence can be experienced near the rear of a large airplane that is taxiing. Answer (A) is incorrect. The greatest turbulence is produced from an airplane operating at a slow airspeed. Answer (B) is incorrect. Even though a heavily loaded airplane may produce greater turbulence, an airplane does not have to be heavily loaded in order to produce wingtip vortices. Wingtip vortices are produced only when an airplane is developing lift.

36. A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a A. pulsating white light. B. steady white light. C. pulsating red light.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: A pulsating VASI indicator normally consists of a single light unit projecting a two-color visual approach path into the final approach area of the runway upon which the indicator is installed. The below glide slope indication is a pulsating red, the above glide slope is pulsating white, and the on glide slope is a steady white light. The useful of this range system is about 4 mi. during the day and up to 10 mi. at night. Answer (A) is incorrect. A pulsating white light is an above glide slope indication. Answer (B) is incorrect. Steady white is the on glide slope indication.

85. With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with A. an operable VOR or TACAN receiver. B. instruments and equipment required for IFR operations. C. an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: All aircraft within 30 nautical miles of a Class B primary airport must be equipped with an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability. The exception is any aircraft that was not originally certificated with an engine- driven electrical system or that has not subsequently been certified with such a system installed, balloon, or glider may conduct operations in the airspace within 30 nautical miles of a Class B airspace primary airport provided such operations are conducted (1) outside any Class A, Class B, or Class C airspace area; and (2) below the altitude of the ceiling of a Class B or Class C airspace area or 10,000 feet MSL, whichever is lower. Answer (A) is incorrect. An operable VOR or TACAN receiver is not required within 30 nautical miles of a Class B primary airport, only an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability. Answer (B) is incorrect. An operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability is required within 30 nautical miles of a Class B primary airport, not instruments and equipment required for IFR operations.

91. The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is A. 1 mile. B. 3 miles. C. 5 miles.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Controlled airspace is the generic term for Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace. Of these, only in Class E airspace is the minimum flight visibility 5 statute miles for VFR flights at or above 10,000 feet MSL. NOTE: In Class E airspace, the visibility and distance from clouds are given for (1) below 10,000 feet MSL and (2) at or above 10,000 feet MSL. Answer (A) is incorrect. This is the visibility in Class G, not Class E, airspace when more than 1,200 feet AGL but less, not more, than 10,000 feet MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect. This is the minimum visibility in Class E airspace when below, not at or above, 10,000 feet MSL.

16. When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign? A. Indicates direction to take-off runway. B. Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway. C. Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Direction signs consist of black lettering on a yellow background. These signs identify the designations of taxiways leading out of an intersection. An arrow next to each taxiway designation indicates the direction that an aircraft must turn in order to taxi onto that taxiway. Answer (A) is incorrect. Outbound destination signs, not direction signs, indicate the direction that must be taken out of an intersection in order to follow the preferred taxi route to a runway. Answer (B) is incorrect. The question specifies that you are turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, not from a runway.

33. Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport? A. Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary. B. Make all turns to the left. C. Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Each person operating an airplane to or from an airport without an operating control tower shall (1) in the case of an airplane approaching to land, make all turns of that airplane to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which case the pilot shall make all turns to the right, and (2) in the case of an airplane departing the airport, comply with any FAA traffic pattern for that airport. Answer (A) is incorrect. The correct traffic pattern departure procedure at a noncontrolled airport is to comply with any FAA established traffic pattern, not to depart in any direction after crossing the airport boundary. Answer (B) is incorrect. The FAA may establish right- or left-hand traffic patterns, not only left-hand traffic.

93. For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is A. 1,000 feet. B. 2,000 feet. C. 1 mile.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: For VFR flight operations in Class G airspace at altitudes more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is 1 statute mile. NOTE: The FAA question fails to specify what type of airspace. Since AGL altitudes are not used in controlled airspace (Class A, B, C, D, or E), that implies Class G airspace. Answer (A) is incorrect. The figure of 1,000 feet is the minimum vertical, not horizontal, distance from the clouds. Answer (B) is incorrect. The figure of 2,000 feet is the minimum horizontal distance from clouds in Class G airspace at night below, not above, 10,000 feet MSL and when at altitudes more than 1,200 feet AGL but less, not more, than 10,000 feet MSL.

78. When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff? A. When visibility is less than 1 mile. B. When parallel runways are in use. C. When departing from a runway intersection.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Intersection departures are often performed at busy, tower-controlled airports. When notifying the tower that you are ready for departure, you must inform the controller of location so that (s)he can positively identify you before clearing you for your takeoff. Answer (A) is incorrect. When visibility is less than 1 mile, the field will be operating under instrument flight rules. As a private pilot without an instrument rating, you will not be operating in these conditions. Answer (B) is incorrect. Controllers only require that you notify them of your position when departing from a runway intersection.

6. The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately A. 009° and 027° true. B. 090° and 270° true. C. 090° and 270° magnetic.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Runway numbers are determined from the approach direction. The runway number is the whole number nearest one-tenth the magnetic direction of the centerline. Thus, the numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately 090° and 270° magnetic. Answer (A) is incorrect. The ending digit, not a leading zero, is dropped. Answer (B) is incorrect. Runways are numbered based on magnetic (not true) direction.

14. What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign? A. Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway. B. Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway. C. Denotes intersecting runways.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Runway/runway hold position signs are a type of mandatory instruction sign used to denote intersecting runways. These are runways that intersect and are being used for "Land, Hold Short" operations or are normally used for taxiing. These signs have a red background with white lettering. Runway hold position signs are identical to the signs used for runway taxiway/runway intersections. Answer (A) is incorrect. A runway/runway hold position sign is located on a runway and denotes an intersecting runway, not the entrance to a runway from a taxiway. Answer (B) is incorrect. A runway approach area holding position sign protects an area or departing from approaching aircraft.

27. (Refer to Figure 49 on page 95) The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area A. may be used only for taxiing. B. is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing. C. cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway (displaced thresholds) as shown in Fig. 49 indicate that the area cannot be used for landing but may be used for taxiing, takeoff, and the landing rollout. Answer (A) is incorrect. Takeoffs as well as taxiing are permitted. Answer (B) is incorrect. Landings are not permitted on the area before the displaced threshold.

52. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is A. light, dirty, and fast. B. heavy, dirty, and fast. C. heavy, clean, and slow.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: Vortices are the greatest when the wingtips are at high angles of attack. This occurs at high gross weight, flaps up, and low airspeed (heavy, clean, and slow). Answer (A) is incorrect. Light aircraft produce less vortex turbulence than heavy aircraft. The use of flaps, spoilers, etc., (i.e., dirty) diminishes vortex turbulence. Answer (B) is incorrect. Being dirty and/or fast causes the wingtip to be at a lower angle of attack, presenting less of a danger than when clean and/or slow.

55. Your flight takes you in the path of a large aircraft. In order to avoid the vortices you should fly A. at the same altitude as the large aircraft. B. below the altitude of the large aircraft. C. above the flight path of the large aircraft.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: When flying behind a large aircraft, stay at or above the other aircraft's flight path. Wingtip vortex turbulence tends to sink into the flight path of airplanes operating below the airplane generating the turbulence. Answer (A) is incorrect. In order to avoid the vortices. avoid flying through another aircraft's flight path. Answer (B) is incorrect. Wingtip vortex turbulence tends to sink into the flight path of airplanes operating below the airplane generating the turbulence.

47. When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to A. rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path. B. rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport. C. sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

Answer (C) is correct. DISCÚSSION: When taking off or landing at a busy airport where large, heavy airplanes are operating, you should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to sink into the flight paths of airplanes operating below the airplane generating the turbulence. Wingtip vortices are caused by a differential in high and low pressure at the wingtip of an airplane, creating a spiraling effect trailing behind the wingtip, similar to a horizontal tornado. Answer (A) is incorrect. Wingtip vortices always trail behind an airplane and descend toward the ground. However, they do drift with the wind and will not stay directly behind an airplane if there is a crosswind. Answer (B) is incorrect. Wingtip vortices sink, not rise.

61. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use A. regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions. B. a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 30-degree sector. C. peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing.

Answer (C) is correct. DISČUSSION: At night, collision avoidance scanning must use the off-center portions of the eyes; these portions are most effective at seeing objects at night. Accordingly, in order to perceive a very dim lighted object in a certain direction (i.e., another aircraft), you should use peripheral vision and scan small sectors adjacent to the object; short stops of a few seconds in each scan area will help to detect the light and its movement. This is in contrast to daytime searching for air traffic, when center viewing should be used. Answer (A) is incorrect. All areas (up, below, and on all sides) should be scanned for other air traffic. Do not concentrate only on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions. Answer (B) is incorrect. Smaller than 30° sectors should be scanned.

83. The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally A. 1,200 feet AGL. B. 3,000 feet AGL. C. 4,000 feet AGL

Answer (C) is correct. DISČUSSION: The vertical limit (ceiling) of Class C airspace is normally 4,000 feet above the primary airport elevation. Answer (A) is incorrect. This is the floor, not the vertical limit, of the Class C airspace shelf area (5 to 10 NM from primary airport). Answer (B) is incorrect. The vertical limit of Class C airspace is normally 4,000 feet AGL, not 3,000 feet AGL, above the elevation of the primary airport.

74. A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the A. satellite airport's UNICOM. B. associated Flight Service Station. C. primary airport's control tower.

Answer (C) is correct. DISČÚSSION: Each pilot departing a non-tower satellite airport, within Class D airspace, must establish and maintain two- way radio communications with the primary airport's control tower as soon as practicable after departing. Answer (A) is incorrect. When departing a satellite airport without an operating control tower in Class D airspace, you must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the primary airport's control tower, not the satellite airport's UNICOM. Answer (B) is incorrect. When departing a satellite airport without an operating control tower in Class D airspace, you must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the primary airport's control tower, not the associated FSS.

51. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A. Inward, upward, and around each tip. B. Inward, upward, and counterclockwise. C. Outward, upward, and around each tip.

Answer (C) is correct. DISČÚSSION: Since the pressure differential is caused by a lower pressure above the wing and a higher pressure below the wing, the air from the bottom moves out, up, and around each wingtip. Answwer (A) is incorrect. The air moves out around the edge of the wing, not in underneath the wing. Answer (B) is incorrect. The air moves out around the edge of the wing. From behind, the left wingtip vortex is clockwise and the right wingtip vortex is counterclockwise.

17. What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve? A. Provides general taxiing direction to named runway. B. Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway. C. Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located.

Answer (C) is correct. DISČÚSSION: Taxiway location signs are used to identify a taxiway on which the aircraft is currently located. Taxiway location signs consist of a black background with a yellow inscription and yellow border. Answer (A) is incorrect. A runway destination sign, not a taxiway location sign, provides general taxiing information to a named runway. Answer (B) is incorrect. A runway holding position sign, not a taxiway location sign, identifies the entrance to a runway from a taxiway. Runway holding position signs consist of a red background with white inscription.

72. Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that A. weather conditions are at or above VFR minimums. B. the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted. C. the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

Answer (C) is correct. DISČÚSSION: The ceiling/sky condition, visibility, and obstructions to vision may be omitted from the ATIS broadcast if the ceiling is above 5,000 ft. with visibility more than 5 SM. Answer (A) is incorrect. The absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast implies that the ceiling is above 5,000 ft. and the visibility is more than 5 SM. Answer (B) is incorrect. The absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast implies that the ceiling is above 5,000 ft., not clear, and the visibility is more than 5 SM, not unrestricted.

71. Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning A. pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction. B. nonessential information to reduce frequency congestion. C. noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas.

Answer (C) is correct. DISČÚSSION: The continuous broadcast of recorded noncontrol information is known as the Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS). ATIS includes weather, active and other information that arriving and departing pilots runway, need to know. Answer (A) is incorrect. A controller who has a radar- identified aircraft under his or her control will issue a terrain or obstruction alert to an aircraft that is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction. Answer (B) is incorrect. ATIS is considered essential (not nonessential) information, but routine i.e., noncontrol.

25. To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it A. one time within 4 seconds. B. three times within 3 seconds. C. five times within 5 seconds.

Answer (C) is correct. DISČÚSSION: To turn on and set the runway lights on medium intensity, the recommended procedure is to key the mic seven times; this ensures that all the lights are on and at high intensity. Next, key the mic five times to get the medium-intensity setting. Lighting systems are activated by keying the mic within 5-second interval. Answer (A) is incorrect. Keying only one time will not adjust or turn the lights on at all. Answer (B) is incorrect. Three additional microphone clicks will give the low-intensity setting.

81. All operations within Class C airspace must be in A. accordance with instrument flight rules. B. compliance with ATC clearances and instructions. C. an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability.

Answer (C) is correct. DISČÚSSION: Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, an operable radar beacon transponder with altitude reporting equipment is required. Answer (A) is incorrect. IFR operations are not required within Class C airspace, and there is no minimum pilot certification required; i.e., student pilots may operate within Class C airspace. Answer (B) is incorrect. Clearances are not required to operate within Class C airspace areas.