3 FTS AMF-S EP check prep

What does "Takeoff data computed and posted" mean?

V1, Vr, V2, and Vco are set

How should all ground based approached be loaded into the FMS?

Via vectors

What is the S1 equation?

Vmcg, Vcefs <= S1 <= Vr, Vrot, Vb

When will the landing gear warning horn sound?

landing gear not down with either: -flaps at 0 or 10 with both throttles below 70% with gear no -flaps extended beyond 10 degrees regardless of throttle position

What is on the standby bus?

RTU 1 Attitude indicator UHF EFC start

Define Vmca and what are the assumptions with it?

Air minimum control speed, 89 knots in the T-1. -one engine inoperative and the other at TRT -Most critical combinations of asymmetric thrust, light weight, and aft center of gravity -Aircraft trimmed for takeoff, 5 degrees of bank into operating engine, and no more than 180 pounds of rudder force

How many electric pumps are in the fuel system?

Four, two transfer, two boost

Why does standby power need to be armed?

If not armed, it will not automatically be powered with loss of electrical power

When is a takeoff acceleration check required and how many knots less than S1 should it be set at?

Compute take-off acceleration check whenever S1 is less than Vrot. Acceleration check should be at least 10 KIAS less than S1.

What do you do if you encounter a bird strike on takeoff after S1?

Consider leaving the aircraft configuration (climbout permitting), perform controllability check, and return to land.

Who has control of audio when the aux bus is in use?

Copilot only

What is Vcef?

Critical engine failure speed. Speed at which one engine can fail and the same distance is required to either continue to accelerate to lift-off speed or to abort and decelerate to a full stop.

When looking at take-off data, runway length must be greater than what?

Critical field length

What electrical system(s) control/actuate the hydraulic system?

Main battery

What is on the emergency bus?

SLEEVES S- Selected Left Hand Inst (N1 & N2) L- Landing Gear Lts E- Emergency Lights E- Emergency Pitch Trim V- VHF (NAV 1) E- Engine Fire Cabin Smoke S- Stby Bus

What is the purpose of the boost pumps?

-engine starting -backup for the primary jet pumps -source of fuel pressure for operations of the two transfer jet pumps in each fuel feed chamber -crossfeed

When in automatic mode, when does the boost pump come on?

-fuel feed line pressure drops below 5 psi -fuel feed chamber volume falls below approximately 11 gallons -engine starting is selected -crossfeed is selected

What does pressing the engine fire switch do?

closes fuel and hydraulic flow, trips generator, arms bottle 1 and 2 switches

A hydraulic fluid level low annunciator indicates a volume less than ___ gallons.

0.6 gallons

If using real world weather for a sim, and the weather is not favorable for flight, what should be done?

Student should request the minimum change required to allow flight.

The standby battery provides power to the standby bus for approximately how long?

30 minutes

For uncoupled approaches, when does the autopilot need to be disengaged by?

Prior to intercepting the final approach course.

What is the brake energy limit for hot brakes and max brakes?

8.1 million ft-lbs, 14.8 million ft-lbs

When does the cabin pressure low annunciator come on?

9,500 +/-500ft

What psi does the outflow valve keep cabin pressure from exceeding?

9.1

Students will show to all events with what completed?

1. Completed 1801 2. fuel plan 3. RM step chit -MDCs are optional but recommended

What are the advisory calls for non-precision approaches? 11-2T1-V3 section 3.21

-100 feet above -minimums -runway in sight -go around - called at MAP if RWY not in sight

What aircraft systems require bleed air?

-Anti-ice -hydraulic -door seals -pressurization/ECS

What are the advisory calls for precision approaches? 11-2T1-V3 section 3.21

-One hundred feet above -continue/land/go around

When is oxygen required?

-any time cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 feet oxygen must be readily available -10,000 to 12,500 - not to exceed 1 hour if at night, employing weapons, conducting airdrop, refueling, or high-g maneuvers -12,500 to 14,000 limited to 30 minutes without oxygen -REQUIRED by all occupants between 14,000 and FL250

What two times do you set the master generator switches to emergency?

-electrical fire -Dual generator failure

The aux battery provides power for to the emergency system for approximately how long?

1 hour

Do not practice simulated emergency takeoff, landings, and approaches unless the IP has immediate access to aircraft controls and weather is a minimum of _____ feet and _ SM. 11-2T1-V3 section 3.22

1,500 feet and 3 SM

What are the 3 sources of DC power?

1. Main battery 2. GPU 3. Starter/generators

Stall speed is the higher of what two situations?

1. Speed at which the aircraft ceases to fly due to loss of lift 2. Minimum steady flight speed at which the aircraft is controllable

What are the two equations for finding the distance to 50-foot obstacle (reference zero) and when do you use them?

1. Take-off ground run distance plus take-off flare. This is used normally 2. CFL plus take-off flare distance. Used when S1 is less than Vr

When mission planning, SUP approval is required for what situations?

1. VFR departure with less than IFR climb gradient 2. Climbing or descending through forecasted moderate icing greater than 5,000 feet thick 3. Reducing IFT climb gradient by 48 ft/ NM 4. Student flown touch-and-goes or full stop landing with less than 7,000 ft of runway

Climb out speed is how many times greater than stall speed? What about landing?

1.2 and 1.3

PM will announce deviations of heading, altitude ___ feet or more, or airspeed deviations greater than _ knots.

100 5

For coupled approached, disengage the autopilot by when?

100 feet above the minimums

When does the hydraulic pressure relief valve automatically open?

1650 psi

Any crew members will announce deviations of heading, altitude greater than ____ feet, or __ knots or more.

200 10

How many volts and amps does the T-1 battery have?

24 Volts, 40 amp

How many volts/amps do the generators provide?

28 volts. 280 amp each on ground. During OEI, 400 amp up to 32,500, 280 amp above

How many cycles of braking does the emergency braking system provide and what constitutes a cycle?

7-10, a cycle is releasing pressure off the lever which vents residual nitrogen pressure

A hydraulic pressure low indicates a pressure below ___ psi.

750

When does the air conditioning annunciator come on?

Above 53 psi or 400 degrees F

When is the pilot responsible for clearing?

Any time not in IMC regardless of IFR clearance

If flying a single engine approach using autopilot, what changes?

Approach speed is increased by 5

What is the proper way to exit the area around the aircraft after an emergency ground egress?

At a 45 degree angle to a location 100 yards away or as briefed

What percentage N2 is required to provide rated generator power?

At least 58%

What is the BEAN acronym?

Boldface procedures Emergency procedures Additional procedures Normal procedures

What is on the aux standby bus?

CALLMA Copilot audio AHRS 1&2 L&R oil pressure L&R display control panel and unit MFD Audio hub

If on emergency, standby, or aux bus what flight controls are not available?

Hydraulics (flaps, speed brakes) Normal trim (emergency trim is available on emergency bus)

What do you do if a birdstrike occurs on final?

If in a safe position to land without exceeding landing distance/brake energy, consider landing the aircraft

What is the recovery when encountering windshear?

Immediately apply full power. do not hesitate to firewall the throttles to avoid ground contact. Increases AOA to stick shaker, select flaps 10, don't raise gear until no impact is assured

How does landing without hydraulics affect TOLD and why?

Increase 30 degree flap landing distance by 90% due to no flap (higher approach speed), no power braking, not anti-skid,

What happens when you move the generator switch from norm to emergency?

Isolates generators from the electrical system and powers the emergency bus via the battery

What do you do if you suspect a hard landing?

Leave the landing gear down and terminate the mission

What displays are available when using the aux standby bus?

MFD only

What is Vb (Vmb)?

Max braking speed without exceeding the maximum brake energy limit.

Define refusal speed, Vr.

Max speed with normal acceleration from which a stop may be completed within the available runway length.

Define Vmcg and the assumptions associated with it.

Minimum controllable ground speed, 88 KIAS in the T-1. Speed required to maintain directional control within 25 feet of centerline with an engine failure. -other engine operating at TRT -All three wheels on the runway -Aircraft at most unfavorable weight and center of gravity -trimmed for takeoff -Does not exceed 180 pounds of rudder force -Rudder boost operating

What do the transfer jet pumps do in the wing?

Moves fuel into the fuel feed chamber

When in auto, when are the transfer pumps operating?

Operates continuously as long as fuel is available in the mid tanks and the engine generator is on. When the mid tank fuel is exhausted the pump automatically shut off.

For an LPV or LNAV/VNAV approach, what callouts do you use?

Precision approach

What provides flow to the primary jet pump?

The engine driven fuel pump

The fire bottles dump into which engine?

The last one corresponding to the last engine fire switch that was pushed.

How many jet pumps are in each wing?

Three, two transfer, one primary

Define critical field length

Total runway length required to accelerate with both engines operating to Critical Engine Failure Speed, experience an engine failure, then continue to lift-off or stop

What is the purpose of the transfer pumps?

Transfers fuel from the mid fuselage tanks into the wing tanks.

When must the deconfiguration altitude for OEI operations be lowered to 400AGL?

When icing is anticipated below 1,500 feet AGL

When is the only time the landing gear downlock override switch should be used to raise gear?

When leaving the gear down poses a greater risk than if it were retracted, i.e. the extra drag prevents the ability to maintain sufficient climb gradients to avoid obstacles

when does the cabin pressure hi annunciator come on?

When the differential PSI is 11 +/- 1 PSI

When the master generator switches are in EMER, what powers the EMER bus?

battery

What takeoff speeds are adjusted for gusts?

none