A+ 220 1101 practice test

You purchased an expansion card for your desktop that fits in a PCIe x1 slot. The documentation says that the card supports USB 3.0 with a 5 Gbps maximum transfer rate. What version of PCIe is the card? A) PCIe 1.0 B) PCIe 2.0 C) PCIe 3.x D) PCIe 4.x

B. Mini PCIe cards running in PCIe 1.0 x1 mode have a maximum speed of 2.5 Gbps, per lane. Each send and receive pair in PCIe is a lane, and PCIe can have 1, 2, 4, 8, 12, or 16 lanes. PCIe that uses one lane is noted as PCIe x1, two lanes are x2, and so on. Successive versions of PCIe have increased the speed per lane. PCIe 2.0 speed per lane is 5 Gbps, 3.x is 8 Gbps, and 4.x is 16 Gbps per lane. Those speeds are the bandwidth, the theoretical speeds, but the actual throughput will be slightly less.

You need to create several UTP patch cables from a roll of bulk cable. Your company uses the T568A standard. What is the correct order for wires in the connectors? A) Orange stripe, orange, green stripe, blue, blue stripe, green, brown stripe, brown B) Orange stripe, green, green stripe, blue, blue stripe, orange, brown stripe, brown C) Green stripe, green, orange stripe, blue, blue stripe, orange, brown stripe, brown D) Green stripe, green, orange, blue, blue stripe, orange stripe, brown stripe, brown

C. The EIA/TIA 568A Standard is green stripe, green, orange stripe, blue, blue stripe, orange, brown stripe, brown. The EIA/TIA 568B standard is orange stripe, orange, green stripe, blue, blue stripe, green, brown stripe, brown. To make it easier to remember, notice that only the green and orange change positions. Blue and brown stay in the same positions.

A technician is troubleshooting a computer in the field and calls you to report that they are getting a S.M.A.R.T. error ID 188 and command timeout. Which component is likely to be causing this error? A) CPU B) RAM C) Motherboard D) HDD

D. Nearly every hard drive is built with Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology (S.M.A.R.T.) software installed on it, which monitors hard drive reliability and theoretically can warn you in the event of an imminent failure. The error ID makes no difference. If it is a S.M.A.R.T. error, it's the hard drive.

You're troubleshooting a computer issue and have implemented a solution. What are the next steps that you will take? (Choose two.) A) Verify full system functionality, and if applicable, implement preventive measures. B) Document the findings, actions, and outcomes. C) Establish a new theory of probable cause. D) Gather information from the user.

A, B. CompTIA's best practice methodology to resolve problems consists of the following steps: Identify the problem, which includes gathering information from the user; identifying user changes, and if applicable, performing backups before making any changes; and inquiring about environmental or infrastructure changes. Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). If necessary, conduct external or internal research based on symptoms. Test the theory to determine the cause. Once the theory is confirmed, determine the next steps to resolve the problem. If the theory is not confirmed, reestablish a new theory or escalate. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. Verify full system functionality, and if applicable, implement preventive measures. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes.

Your company is allowing workers to use their personal devices for company business. What will you, as the IT director, use to ensure that company information is safe on those personal devices? (Choose two.) A) MDM B) MAM C) PRL D) GSM

A, B. Mobile device management (MDM) and mobile application management (MAM) systems can be used to ensure the security of your company information on employee's personal devices. They can be used to block downloading or printing of certain information and can be used to lock or wipe lost or stolen devices or remove company data from mobile devices when an employee has left the company. A preferred roaming list (PRL) will be updated as needed on a mobile device to ensure that you can roam and connect to the proper cell towers. GSM is the Global System for Mobile Communications and defines how 2G cellular networks work. GSM is used in Europe and much of the world. CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access) is mainly used in the United States and was used on 2G and 3G phone systems. 5G is the current standard in many places.

One of your network users develops software for multiple operating systems. They have asked for a specialized computer that will allow them to run multiple operating systems at the same time in virtualized environments. Which two components should you optimize in their computer? (Choose two.) A) CPU B) RAM C) HDD D) GPU

A, B. This user needs a virtualization workstation. To ensure that the operating systems have the most resources possible, optimize the processor (the more cores, the better) and memory.

What are the three major categories of cloud computing? (Choose three.) A) SaaS B) DaaS C) PaaS D) IaaS

A, C, D. While software as a service (SaaS), platform as a service (PaaS), and infrastructure as a service (IaaS) are widely considered to be the major categories of cloud computing, desktop as a service (DaaS) is not.

You just bought a new laptop and were told that it uses biometrics to log you in. Which of the following might they be? (Choose two.) A) Face scanner B) Entering your password C) Fingerprint reader D) Entering a code from your phone

A, C. Biometrics are any device that uses a part of your body to identify you. It's common on modern laptops to have the availability of a face scanner or fingerprint reader to log into the computer. Other biometrics are retina scanners, palm scanners, and voice recognition.

Users at your workplace are complaining that the audio over their VoIP phones is often choppy and difficult to understand. Which of these would help with that and could be done fairly quickly? (Choose two.) A) Configure QoS to give the VoIP phones priority. B) Upgrade the cabling on the network. C) Set up the VoIP phones on their own VLAN. D) Set up the VoIP phones using a VPN.

A, C. Configuring Quality of Service (QoS) to give priority to the Voice over IP (VoIP) phones would likely help the situation, but not as much as putting them on their own virtual local area network (VLAN). Upgrading the cabling to something with more bandwidth might help, but that isn't a quick solution. If you have a managed switch, setting up a VLAN could be done fairly quickly and would segregate your VoIP traffic on its own network so that it isn't competing with computer traffic.

A computer on your network is not able to reach the DHCP server. The DHCP server assigns addresses in the 200.100.1.11 to 200.100.1.110 range. What address might this computer get when it boots up? (Choose two.) A) APIPA B) Class C C) 169.254.1.101 D) 200.100.1.15

A, C. Since this computer is not able to reach the dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server, it will self-assign an automatic private IP addressing (APIPA) address. The APIPA address range is 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255. (In the last octet, 0 and 255 would not be assigned because the last number of a range is the broadcast number and the first number of a range identifies the network.)

You are troubleshooting a laptop computer that will not boot properly. When you power it on, there is nothing on the display, and you hear beeps in a pattern of 1-3-3. What two things could you use to troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two.) A) Manufacturer's website B) PCIe POST card C) USB POST card D) BOOT tester

A, C. The beeps are a BIOS beep code produced because the power-on self-test (POST) routine has found an error. The manufacturer's website will likely tell you what the beep code means, and you can also troubleshoot using a USB POST card. Laptops do not have PCIe slots, and there is no specific tool called a BOOT tester.

The computer users in your accounting department have called saying that their laser printer keeps jamming and have asked that you resolve the issue. Which of the following are common reasons for this that you can check? (Choose two.) A) Incorrect paper thickness or tray too full B) Ink cartridges need cleaning C) Debris in the paper path D) Printhead needs cleaning

A, C. There are several reasons that paper might jam in a laser printer; if you buy the least expensive paper and it's the wrong weight or coating for the printer, debris in the paper path such as dust and pieces of paper, paper with wrinkles or bent corners, too much humidity causing sheets to stick together, and worn paper feed rollers. Ink cartridges are used in inkjet printers, not laser printers, and printheads are found in impact and thermal printers, not laser printers.

What are the benefits of virtualization? (Choose two.) A) Saves power B) Requires more licenses C) Less hardware to pay for D) Distributed management

A, C. Virtualization has many benefits. If you need, for example, Windows 10, Windows 11, and a Linux distro, instead of having three computers you would only need one. Windows 11 could be the host OS and the other two could reside in a virtual machine (VM). This saves power, space, and hardware expense. You would need the same number of licenses whether or not you have the operating systems installed on a VM, and managing the operating systems is simple because they are all in one box.

A laser printer you are working on is producing images that have vertical black streaks running the length of the page. Which of the following could be causing this? (Choose two.) A) There is a scratch in the EP drum. B) The fusing assembly is not heating up properly. C) The paper exit rollers are worn. D) The charging corona wire is dirty.

A, D. A groove or scratch in the EP drum can cause the problem of vertical black lines running down all or part of the page. Because a scratch is lower than the surface, it doesn't receive as much (if any) of a charge as the other areas. The result is that toner sticks to it as though it were discharged. The groove may go around the circumference of the drum, so the line may go all the way down the page. Another possible cause of vertical black lines is a dirty charging corona wire. A dirty charging corona wire prevents a sufficient charge from being placed on the EP drum. Because the charge on the EP drum is almost zero, toner sticks to the areas that correspond to the dirty areas on the charging corona.

What protocol/type of protocol guarantees delivery of a packet of information across a network or networks and will resend the packet if its arrival is not acknowledged? (Choose two.) A) TCP B) UDP C) Connectionless D) Connection-oriented

A, D. Protocols are either connection-oriented, meaning they will guarantee delivery, or connectionless, meaning they will not guarantee delivery. Connectionless protocols are used for activities such as streaming, where a missed packet here and there is less important than continuing to send the information. Connection-oriented protocols are used when it is important that each packet arrive. Some of the connection-oriented protocols are TCP, HTTPS, and SSH, whereas UDP, DHCP, and TFTP are examples of connectionless protocols.

A group of real estate agents has realized that they have similar computing resource needs. They've reached out collectively to your IT services company and asked if there is a solution that will let them pool their resources and save money, possibly sharing industry-specific software, but still have their servers and information held securely and locally. What will you recommend? A) Community cloud B) Public cloud C) Private cloud D) Hybrid cloud

A. A community cloud is the solution for such situations. It allows shared cloud resources to a limited group of people or companies. The group can benefit from economies of scale, but keep their resources separate from other organizations. They could even share in joint projects. Their servers could be in a data center or stored locally by one of the members. The group will have more control than they would over a public cloud but could share the maintenance costs of their cloud. A community cloud is similar to a private cloud but with multiple members.

Users on your network complain of poor wireless network access in a certain part of your building. They say that the connection is slow and disconnects frequently. You are using 802.11ac wireless routers and access points. What tool should you use to troubleshoot the situation? A) Wi-Fi analyzer B) Loopback plug C) Tone generator and probe D) Multimeter

A. A wireless locator or a Wi-Fi analyzer can be either a handheld hardware device or specialized software that is installed on a laptop or smartphone, and its purpose is to detect and analyze Wi-Fi signals. A loopback plug is used to test a network interface card (NIC). A toner probe (or tone generator and probe) is used to find a wire out of a bunch of wires, or figure out where the wire runs. A multimeter has many uses, among them testing for continuity, checking power supplies, and checking wall outlets.

A user on your network has called you with an issue involving their hard drive. Before you make any changes to their computer, what will you always do? A) Consider corporate policies, procedures, and impacts. B) Establish a plan of action. C) Document findings, actions, and outcomes. D) Verify full system functionality.

A. Before you make any changes to a computer system, you need to consider corporate policies, procedures, and the impacts of your actions. When establishing a plan of action, you need to refer to the corporate policies first. Documenting findings, actions, and outcomes and verifying full system functionality are at the end of the methodology to resolve problems.

You're reading the documentation for a desktop motherboard and it says it uses 240 pin DIMMs. What type of DIMM does it use? A) DDR3 B) DDR4 C) DDR5 D) SODIMM

A. DDR3 DIMM's have 240 pins, DDR4 and DDR5 both have 288 pins, and SODIMM is not a type of desktop RAM; it is used in laptops.

Which of the following is not true about DNS servers? A) They translate IP addresses to domain names like Sybex.com. B) AAAA DNS records identify IPv6 addresses. C) A records identify IPv4 addresses. D) There is a setting in IP configuration to identify the DNS server to use.

A. Domain Name Service (DNS) servers reconcile human friendly names like Sybex.com to IP addresses so that a browser can find them (not IP address to domain name). A DNS server can be configured on a client computer automatically by a DHCP server, or manually on the Networking tab of a network connection by clicking on either IPv4 or IPv6 properties. DNS differentiates between IPv4 and IPv6 by identifying IPv6 addresses as AAAA records and IPv4 addresses as A records.

The people in your office want a printer that will print on both sides of the paper automatically. What feature is this? A) Duplex B) Orientation C) Tray settings D) Print quality

A. Duplexing is printing on both sides of the paper automatically, no need to stand at the printer and flip the copies over. Orientation refers to whether a paper is wider than is it tall (landscape), or taller than it is wide (portrait). Tray settings refer to configuration settings such as if the print job is 11 × 14 inches instead of 8.5 × 11, then use tray two. That's just one of many settings. Most printers will have a fast print mode or a quality print mode.

Which two port numbers need to be opened to enable communications for FTP (File Transfer Protocol)? A) 20/21 B) 21/22 C) 22/23 D) 23/25

A. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) uses ports 20 and 21. Port 22 is used by Secure Shell (SSH), port 23 is/was used by Telnet, and port 25 is used by Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).

In a tablet computer with an LCD, which component is responsible for providing the right kind of energy to light the display? A) Inverter B) LCD C) Backlight D) Screen

A. Fluorescent lighting, and liquid crystal display (LCD) backlights in particular, require fairly high-voltage, high-frequency energy. The component that provides the right kind of energy is the inverter. The inverter is a small circuit board installed behind the LCD panel that takes DC current and inverts it to AC for the backlight. An inverter is not needed in a display that uses LED backlighting.

A grinding noise is coming from your office printer. You know that can't be good, and you just put new toner in two days ago. What do you do? A) Try replacing the toner cartridge. B) Take all the paper out and reload it. C) Thoroughly clean the printer. D) Check for any loose rollers or gears.

A. In troubleshooting, try the simple things first. If it wasn't grinding before, and it is since you installed a new toner cartridge, then the problem is most likely the toner cartridge. Take it out and put a new one in. If that doesn't fix it, then look for loose rollers or gears, and jammed paper. Thoroughly cleaning it would be the next step. Chances are that reloading the paper won't help.

You are investigating computer specifications for a new desktop workstation. If the specifications include 256 KB of L2 cache, approximately how much L1 cache would it be reasonable to expect the computer to have? A) 64 KB B) 256 KB C) 512 KB D) 12 MB

A. L1 cache is generally the smallest and fastest cache. Therefore, it's reasonable to expect that the computer will have less L1 cache than L2.

A user complains that their desktop computer randomly reboots. No error messages are displayed before it happens, and there is not a specific program that triggers the reboot. Which of the following components is most likely to be causing this problem? A) RAM B) Storage drive C) BIOS/UEFI D) Network adapter

A. Memory problems can cause system lockups, unexpected shutdowns or reboots, or errors such as blue or black screen of death (BSOD) in Windows or the rotating pinwheel in macOS. CPUs problems can also cause intermittent rebooting.

You pay a premium for faster Internet service at home but have noticed that the download times have slowed considerably, and you see the spinning wheel more than normal. What is likely the problem? A) You have reached a data cap. B) You didn't pay your last bill, so they're slowing the service down. C) You're synchronizing too much data all at once. D) The Internet is down.

A. Most Internet service providers (ISPs) offer faster Internet access for a premium price, but they also put a cap on that service, and although they won't turn your service off, they may slow it down when you reach that cap.

You have determined that you need to replace the Wi-Fi antenna in your laptop. Where will you most likely find it? A) In the housing with the display B) Under the keyboard C) Under a removable panel on the back/bottom of the laptop D) Plugged into a USB port

A. Most laptop antennas connect to the main board and have wires that run up the sides of the display. Occasionally you may find one on the mainboard. Modern laptops typically don't have removable areas on the bottom/back like legacy laptops do. If a laptop's antenna quits working, one option is to purchase a Wi-Fi network card that plugs into an external port, such as a USB port.

You are installing an ATX12V (sometimes called ATX2) power supply with a 24-pin main power connector. Which of the following is not a voltage provided by the power supply? A) -3.3 VDC B) +5 VDC C) +12 VDC D) -12 VDC

A. Power supplies convert the volts of alternating current (VAC) from a wall outlet into volts of direct current (VDC) that computers can use. ATX12V power supplies provide the following voltages for the computer: +3.3 VDC, +5 VDC, +12 VDC, and -12 VDC. Older (ATX) power supplies that have a 20-pin main power connector also supply -5 VDC. Power supplies use shapes as keys so connectors can't be plugged in incorrectly. Many companies also have proprietary power supplies, meaning that you must replace their power supply with an identical one, because they don't match the standard.

he design of the micro-ATX motherboard makes which of the following statements true? A) It will fit in standard ATX cases. B) It will fit in standard ATX cases when used with a mounting adapter kit. C) It will fit in standard ATX cases but can't support full-length expansion cards. D) It will not fit in standard ATX cases.

A. The micro-ATX form factor is designed to work in standard ATX cases as well as its own, smaller cases.

On an IPv6 network, you want to send a single message to a group of computers at the same time. What type of address class do you need to use? A) Multicast B) Anycast C) Unicast D) Broadcast

A. There are three types of addresses in IPv6: unicast, anycast, and multicast. A unicast address identifies a single node on the network. An anycast address refers to one that has been assigned to multiple nodes. A multicast address is one used by multiple hosts. An anycast message will go to one of the hosts on the list. A multicast message will go to all of the addresses on the list. IPv6 does not use broadcasts.

A user complains that the color on their display is strange. It was working fine yesterday. What will you do first? A) Check for a loose cable connection at both ends. B) Replace the display. C) Turn the display off and back on. D) Check the settings on the display itself.

A. This is a typical symptom of a loose cable. You need to check both ends of the cable and ensure that they are properly seated. Turning the display or the PC off and back on may also fix it, and checking that someone hasn't bumped or changed the display's settings is a quick fix too. If none of those work, the next step would be to try a known good display on the computer. If the problem still exists, it's not the display. It might be time to get a new graphics card.

You have a Windows 10 desktop computer that is connected directly to your office printer. Your office is running a workgroup (not a domain). You want to share the office printer with a new user. What are two places you can do this? (Choose two.) A) Search for printers, right-click the desired printer, and choose Share. B) In the Settings app choose Devices, then Printers & scanners. Select the printer to share and click the Manage button, then on the window that displays, choose Printer properties and choose the Sharing tab. C) In Control Panel, choose Devices and Printers. Right click the printer to share and select Printer properties, and choose the Sharing tab D) In Device Manager, click the printer and select the Sharing tab.

B, C. A local printer can easily be shared with other people in your workgroup. Simply navigate to the Printer Properties, and choose the Sharing tab.

There is a white streak down all of the printouts of your inkjet printer. What will you do to fix it? (Choose two.) A) Change the toner cartridge. B) Perform a nozzle cleaning routine. C) Clear debris from the paper path. D) Use different paper.

B, C. It is likely that the ink on your print nozzles are dried out, or if there is something stuck in the printer, like a piece of sticky label, it could be blocking the ink from going where you want it on the paper. The first step would be to do the nozzle cleaning routine, and you may have to do it more than once. If the nozzle cleaning check printout looks good but you're still having the issue, look inside for something blocking the ink. You may need to replace the ink cartridges. Inkjet printers don't use toner cartridges and the wrong paper would present different problems.

Which two TCP/IP protocols are designed to download email from mail servers? (Choose two.) A) SMTP B) POP3 C) IMAP D) SMB

B, C. Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) and Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) are used for downloading email messages from a server. The difference between the two is that IMAP allows the messages to remain on the server so they can be accessed from different devices, where with POP3, the email messages will only exist on the device they were downloaded on. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used for sending an email. A good way to remember which is for sending and receiving is to remember that S (as in SMTP) is for sending. Server Message Block (SMB) is a protocol for sharing files across a network.

Which Internet appliance stands between a PC and the Internet and can include stateful packet inspection (packet filtering), and act as a gateway, translating traffic between networks or protocols? (Choose two.) A) Spam gateway B) Unified threat management (UTM) C) Load balancers D) Proxy servers

B, D. A unified threat management (UTM) appliance is a single device on your network that provides multiple security functions. It is usually placed between the outside world and the LAN, so it can function as a gateway as well as a security appliance.

Which wireless networking (Wi-Fi) standards can use both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies? (Choose two.) A) 802.11g B) 802.11n C) 802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5) D) 802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6)

B, D. Only the 802.11n and 802.11ax standards can use both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies, which makes them backward compatible with all the other standards. 802.11a and 802.11ac standards use only the 5 GHz frequency. 802.11b, and 802.11g use only the 2.4 GHz frequency.

You have a laptop with a dead hard drive. You want to replace it with a newer SSD but have a few concerns. What disadvantages do SSDs have versus HDDs? (Choose two.) A) They produce more heat. B) They are more expensive. C) They are more susceptible to damage. D) They cost more per gigabyte.

B, D. SSDs have many advantages over HDDs, including producing less heat and being less susceptible to damage from shock or overheating. However, they are more expensive per byte.

You have installed an 802.11ac Wi-Fi network. The network has three overlapping wireless access points. What channel width should the access points be set to in order to avoid communications problems while providing the best bandwidth? A) 20 MHz. B) 40 MHz. C) 80 MHz. D) It doesn't matter in 802.11ac.

B. 802.11ac is in the 5 GHz band, and can be 20, 40, or 80 MHz wide. With the 80 MHz channel width, there are effectively two channels, channel 36-48 and channel 149-161. Since you have three access points, you should use the 40 MHz channel width, which provides four possible channels: 36-40, 44-48, 149-153, and 157-161. The 20 MHz channel width provides nine channels, but you don't need that many, and the narrower channel width would decrease the performance per client. The 20 MHz channels are 36, 40, 44, 48, 149, 153, 157, 161, and 165.

An employee travels between multiple offices, using a desktop system in each office. What technology would ensure that the employee's desktop icons, files, and applications stay uniform across systems in all the offices? A) On-Demand Desktop Streaming B) VDI in the cloud C) Desktop emulation D) Synchronized folders

B. A Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) moves the desktop icons, files, and folders to a server instead of the desktop originating from the local machine. When the desktop experience is hosted on a centralized server location, the icons, files, and folders are the same. With this user working from different offices, the best solution for them is VDI in the cloud. On-Demand Desktop Streaming is a Dell streaming service where the desktops and files are stored on a server that provides them to thin clients without drives over gigabit Ethernet. Desktop emulation is software that imitates a desktop. Synchronized folders means that your documents will be the same whether you log into a desktop, laptop, or other mobile device. Changes on one are synchronized to the other devices.

You are troubleshooting a video issue for a user. You have just interviewed the user to find out more about the problem. Which step of the best practice methodology to resolve problems do you do next? A) Test the theory to determine cause. B) Establish a theory of probable cause. C) Establish a plan of action. D) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

B. CompTIA's best practice methodology to resolve problems consists of the following steps: Identify the problem, which includes gathering information from the user; identifying user changes, and if applicable, performing backups before making any changes; and inquiring about environmental or infrastructure changes. Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). If necessary, conduct external or internal research based on symptoms. Test the theory to determine the cause. Once the theory is confirmed, determine the next steps to resolve the problem. If the theory is not confirmed, reestablish a new theory or escalate. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. Verify full system functionality, and if applicable, implement preventive measures.

Your coworker needs to transfer files from a mobile device using a memory card reader and an SD memory card. They quickly discover that the maximum capacity on their SD card is 1 TB. Which technology does the coworker have? A) SD B) SDXC C) SDHC D) SDLC

B. Currently there are three form factors for SD cards; they are SD, MiniSD, and MicroSD. The cards also come in different capacities and filesystems as follows: SD: 2 GB or less, FAT12 or FAT16 SDHC: 2 GB to 32 GB, FAT32 SDXC: 32 GB to 2 TB, exFAT SDUC: 2 TB to 128 TB, exFAT

You notice that your friend's smartphone is swollen. They said that it happens all the time. What should be done? A) Replace the battery. B) Replace the device. C) Unplug it and let it cool down, then plug it back in. D) Use a different power outlet.

B. First, if it is plugged in, unplug it. A swollen phone is usually a sign of a problem with the battery, and batteries that are compromised may explode or burst into flame. Most modern smartphones don't have batteries that can be replaced, so your friend should replace the phone.

All of the users on your network, wired and wireless, are complaining that they're getting a limited connectivity message. Where will you start troubleshooting? (Choose the best answer.) A) The WAP B) The default gateway C) The switch D) The router

B. If everyone is getting a limited connectivity message, then no one is connecting to the Internet. The place to start troubleshooting is the default gateway, which on many networks could be a router, but it could also be a proxy server, so default gateway is the best answer here. It's not the wireless access point (WAP) because wired users are having trouble too. It's not the switch because switches connect devices on a LAN; they don't connect the LAN to the outside world.

You need a wireless access point (WAP) in a loading dock, but there is not an appropriate power receptacle close enough to plug it into, so you decided to use a PoE WAP. The problem is that your switch is not PoE compliant. Which of the following will you need to purchase in addition to the PoE WAP? A) A very long extension cord B) A PoE injector C) A new switch D) A new router

B. If your switch is not Power-over-Ethernet (PoE) compliant, then you can purchase an injector to send power (along with the data) to a PoE device with a single Ethernet cable. The distance is limited by the cable category and Ethernet standard being used.

What type of display is increasingly being used in smaller mobile devices for its picture quality, lower power consumption, and foldability? A) IPS B) OLED C) LED D) VA

B. OLED displays have many advantages over LCDs. IPS and VA are both types of LCDs, and some displays use LED backlighting. OLEDs don't need backlighting because the carbon-based material they are created from provides the light and color. Fewer layers are needed so OLED displays can be made thinner than LED displays. The color contrast is better than LED displays, and they have faster refresh rates and the unique characteristic of being foldable.

Which of the following IP addresses is not routable on the Internet? A) 192.169.1.1 B) 192.168.1.1 C) 168.192.1.1 D) 169.192.1.1

B. Private IP addresses are not routable on the Internet. The following are the IPv4 private address ranges and nonroutable numbers: 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255/8 (Class A) 172.16.0.0/16 to 172.31.255.255/12 (Class B) 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255/16 (Class C) 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255 (APIPA) 127.0.0.1 (Loopback address)

A technician has two hard drives and wants to increase the data access speed of the computer. You tell them to install both drives, but which of the following configurations is their best option? A) Configure them as separate volumes. B) Implement RAID 0. C) Implement RAID 1. D) Implement RAID 5.

B. RAID 0 is called disk striping. Data can be written to or read from multiple devices at the same time, increasing data access speed. However, if one drive fails, all data is lost. (Back up early and often!) RAID 1 is a mirror set, which does not increase data access but provides fault tolerance. RAID 5 is disk striping with parity, which provides both speed and fault tolerance but requires three hard disks.

You are purchasing a mobile device that requires the use of a touch pen (stylus) to input information; it does not respond to the touch of a finger. What type of touch screen technology does this device use? A) Tempered B) Resistive C) Capacitive D) Object-oriented

B. Resistive touch screens respond to pressure, and they are highly accurate in detecting the position of the touch. These types of touch screens require the use of a stylus or other hard object, such as a fingernail. Capacitive screens work by detecting interruption in an electric field. You can use your finger with them, but they can't tell how hard you are pressing. Tempered is a type of glass that is very strong, and object-oriented is a type of programming/software.

About four computer users in the HR area of the building are complaining that their Wi-Fi connection is very slow. You use your Wi-Fi analyzer and find out that they are on the same channel as your neighbors in the office next door. What can you do? A) Set the radio signal to maximum. B) Change the channel that the WAP uses. C) Add another wireless access point. D) Check the cable from the WAP to the router.

B. The best option to try first is changing the channel that the wireless access point (WAP) uses to connect. The intermittent connections could be caused by interference with the neighboring Wi-Fi. Turning up the power on your WAP would only make the crossover greater between your Wi-Fi and the neighbor's Wi-Fi. Adding another WAP might help if the problem was too many users, but with only four users in that area, it's not that. You could check the cable from the WAP to the router if changing the channel doesn't resolve the issue.

A client complains about the occupied space, abundant power usage, and hardware costs of the multiple machines used in its small data center. Still, the client does not wish to lose control over any of the machines. What might you recommend to the client to resolve all of those issues? A) Establish clusters for high availability. B) Create virtual machines. C) Outsource to an IaaS provider. D) Shut down the nonessential machines.

B. The creation of virtual machines (VMs) would alleviate the issue of space, power, and most of the hardware costs associated with maintaining bare-metal systems. VMs can provide much of the same services at a fraction of the cost. Control and management of the machines would not change.

You're working on a stormy night and the power in your house goes out, but your cellular service (smartphone) is working. You have a report on your laptop that absolutely must be submitted tonight, and luckily your laptop is fully charged. What can you to do submit your report? A) Connect your laptop to your car's antenna to send via Wi-Fi. B) Use your smartphone's hotspot feature. C) Go out in the storm and drive to the nearest place with power that has public Wi-Fi. D) Call and let them know that the report won't be submitted because your power is out.

B. The hotspot feature available on virtually all smartphones will enable you to connect other devices to the Internet via the cellular tower system. Typically you turn the hotspot feature on in the phone's settings. It will display a wireless password and allow you to connect wirelessly via Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, or connect physically via USB by connecting a cable between your laptop and the phone. The downside of doing this is that it eats up data quickly and could be expensive if you don't have unlimited data on your cellular plan.

Your friend is an artist and they have recently purchased a new convertible laptop. It can be used as a regular laptop or folded into a tablet computer. You've recommended they purchase a touch pen to use with their new computer. Which of the following is not an advantage of a touch pen? A) They don't leave greasy fingerprints on your screen. B) There are never compatibility issues. C) They can make more precise lines than fingers can. D) You can use them in cold weather and have gloves on your hands.

B. There are many benefits to using a touch pen (stylus) with your touchscreen computer. For artists especially, they can be more precise in their work than is possible with fingers. They're more sanitary than fingers and don't leave behind the oils that your skin would on the screen. They're easier to create handwritten notes than using your finger is. The only downside is that they are not all compatible with every touch screen, so you need to know what kind of touchscreen you have to ensure that your touch pen is compatible with it. Most touchscreens are capacitive, which means the touch pen needs to be constructed so that it will interrupt an electrostatic field. Resistive screens only register pressure. Their advantage is that almost any material can be used to make a touch pen and resistive screens are better for uses such as making lines darker in a drawing program. There are also Bluetooth touch pens, which use a wireless signal to communicate contact with the screen.

You have configured two hard drives so that when you write to one, it makes an exact copy on the other, and it looks like one drive in your operating system. What level of RAID is this? A) RAID 0 B) RAID 1 C) RAID 5 D) RAID 10

B. This configuration is a mirrored drive, RAID 1. If one drive fails, you have an exact duplicate on the other. It provides fault tolerance, but it doesn't protect your system against human error, so you still need backups! RAID 0 is disk striping, which enhances performance but doesn't help at all with fault tolerance. RAID 5 is disk striping with parity, so it offers fault tolerance and performance improvement. Data is written on two drives and the third is striped with recovery data. The recovery data is put on each drive in turn. If one drive fails, there is enough recovery data on the other two to rebuild it. RAID 10 is a striped set of mirrors, so like RAID 5 it offers fault tolerance and performance improvement but does so in a different way.

What type of memory is an area on a hard drive, called a paging file, that Windows uses as if it were physical memory? A) VirtualBox B) Virtual memory C) SODIMM D) ECC

B. Virtual memory is a paging file on a hard disk that the Windows operating system will use as if it were RAM. Items normally stored in RAM are moved into and out of the virtual RAM as needed. The benefit is that the system can run as if it has more RAM than it does. The drawback is that virtual RAM, because it is on the hard drive, is slower to access than physical RAM. VirtualBox is a computer virtualization software that allows you to run more than one OS in a single PC with each thinking it is controlling the hardware. A small outline DIMM (SODIMM) is RAM for laptops, and ECC is error correction code, which attempts to find and fix errors in memory—it is used mostly in servers.

Several users who access the network through the same WAP are complaining that they have limited connectivity. They can see each other on the network but not any network resources like printers and servers. Everything was working fine yesterday, and network users in other parts of the building are not having problems. What should you troubleshoot first? A) The power of the radio signal from the WAP B) The connection between the WAP and the router C) Their IP configuration D) The default gateway

B. When a Wi-Fi user is getting limited connectivity messages, it means that they are able to connect to the wireless access point but not the Internet. Since other people are getting this error message, we can assume it's the connection between the wireless access point they're connecting to and the wired network.

What must be defined when wanting to maintain confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the system resources and should be a part of the decision when choosing a cloud solution? A) Scalability B) Security requirements C) Elasticity D) Emulation ability

B. When wanting to maintain confidentiality, integrity, and availability, security requirements and regulations must first be defined. A company can then consider if an Internet cloud solution would be appropriate.

Several Bluetooth devices are connected in an ad hoc (without a hub, switch, or WAP) network. Which acronym best describes this type of network? A) LAN B) WAN C) PAN D) MAN

C. A personal area network (PAN) is a small-scale network designed around one person within a limited boundary area. The term generally refers to networks that use Bluetooth technology. A local area network (LAN) connects together devices in a small area such as a house or business or floor of an office building. A wide area network (WAN) covers a very large geographic area, traversing many roads or areas not owned by the entity, and may use leased lines. The Internet is a worldwide WAN, but a WAN can also connect a single company with offices in New York, Chicago, and DC, for example. A metropolitan area network (MAN) is between a WAN and a LAN. It connects devices in a smaller geographic area such as a city or community.

You need a cable that will run a distance of 200 feet and support speeds up to 10 Gbps. Which cable will you use? A) Cat 5e B) Cat 6 C) Cat 6a D) Plenum

C. Both Cat 6 and Cat 6a will support up to 10 Gbps, but for Cat 6 the maximum distance for 10 Gbps is about 55 meters (165 feet). Cat 6a can support a frequency that is twice as fast, so it can support 10 Gbps up to 328 feet (100 meters.) Since the distance in the question is 200 feet, you would need to use Cat 6a cable. Cat 5e has a maximum bandwidth of 1 Gbps. Plenum simply means that the cable has a coating that is not toxic when burned.

You are troubleshooting a computer for a user on your network. You have established a theory of probable cause. What is your next step according to the best practice methodology to resolve problems? A) Establish a plan of action. B) Verify full system functionality. C) Test the theory. D) Implement preventive measures.

C. CompTIA's best practice methodology to resolve problems consists of the following steps: Identify the problem, which includes gathering information from the user; identifying user changes, and if applicable, performing backups before making any changes; and inquiring about environmental or infrastructure changes. Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). If necessary, conduct external or internal research based on symptoms. Test the theory to determine the cause. Once the theory is confirmed, determine the next steps to resolve the problem. If the theory is not confirmed, reestablish a new theory or escalate. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. Verify full system functionality, and if applicable, implement preventive measures. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes.

A company using cloud services wishes to better prepare for surges for what it needs. What sort of capacity provisioning by its cloud provider should the company ask for? A) Rapid metering B) Infrastructure as a service C) Metered utilization D) Resource pooling

C. For a company needing additional cloud resources on demand, they should request metered utilization, in which a cloud service will bill much like a utility would, as resources are used. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) refers to hardware and networking in the cloud. Resource pooling is used in cloud computing to mean that resources are pooled and delivered as needed to many clients. Rapid metering is not an IT term.

You're setting up a virtual machine for a developer who needs three instances of Windows 11, plus the host OS, which is also Windows 11. How many licenses will you need? A) One B) Two C) Four D) None

C. Generally speaking, you will need a license for each instance of an operating system that is running in your virtual machine.

A desktop computer will not retain the system time or date. The user always needs to reset them after the system is powered off. What should you do to fix the problem? A) Flash the BIOS/UEFI. B) Replace the BIOS/UEFI chips. C) Replace the CMOS battery. D) Use the jumper on the motherboard to reset the BIOS/UEFI to factory settings.

C. If a computer is a few years old, the BIOS/UEFI may fail to retain your computer's settings, such as time and date and hard drive configuration. The BIOS/UEFI uses a small battery (much like a watch battery) on the motherboard to help it retain settings when the system power is off. If this battery fails, the BIOS/UEFI won't retain its settings. Simply replace the battery with the same type to solve the problem. There is usually a number printed on top of the battery so you know which one to get.

A mobile device user dropped their smartphone and now the charging port is damaged. The device is fairly new, but they didn't pay for a warranty to cover user error. They don't typically plug it into a computer or anything else. What should you do first? A) Take the phone apart and replace the charging port. B) Return the phone to the store for a refund. C) See if the device supports wireless charging. D) Replace the phone.

C. If the phone will charge wirelessly, then it should be fine. If it's not covered by a warranty, the store isn't going to fix or replace it for free. Charging ports aren't normally considered a user-replaceable part. Components like charging ports can be replaced by a service center where there are people trained to work on smartphones. In any case, make sure that person is backing up the data on their phone to the cloud.

A user has turned in a tablet computer that has a swollen battery. What should you do to resolve the problem? A) Turn the tablet off, let it cool down, and then return it to the user. B) Order a new tablet for the user, drain the excess electrolyte from the battery, and then dispose of the defective one in the trash. C) Order a new tablet for the user and take the defective one to a recycling center. D) Order a new tablet for the user and throw the defective one in the trash.

C. If you have a swollen battery, turn the device off immediately and make sure that it's not plugged into a charger. It may be possible to remove the battery, but swollen batteries are more prone to explosions than normal ones because the casing is already compromised, and most batteries in small devices are not user replaceable. The best course of action is to purchase a new device. Take the battery or device to a proper recycling center to dispose of it. Never just throw it in the trash because it can explode and harm sanitation workers as well as cause significant damage to the environment.

A user complains of a burning smell and smoke coming from their computer. After shutting it down, you notice that the motherboard has burn marks on it. You replace the motherboard. The next day, the user complains of more smoke, and you see this motherboard is burnt as well. What should you do next? A) Replace the motherboard. B) Replace the power supply. C) Replace the motherboard and power supply. D) Plug the computer into a different wall outlet.

C. If you have scorch marks on a component, say a video card or a motherboard, it could be that the specific component went bad. It could also be a sign of a problem with the power supply. If you see a component with a burn mark, it would be a good idea to test the power supply as well. Not all power supply problems will show up with a tester, so if you replace the component and a similar problem occurs, definitely replace the power supply as well as the damaged component.

Which of the following is a cloud application that can be used to synchronize data on all of your devices, including smartphones, laptops, desktop computers, and other devices? A) Calendar B) Contacts C) Microsoft 365 D) Mail

C. Microsoft 365 is a cloud application suite that can be accessed from all of your devices and that will synchronize data across them. Among other things, it includes a calendar, contacts list, and mail services.

Your company produces software and employs about 20 developers. They need to program apps for different operating systems. You decide to purchase cloud-based services to support the development team. What type of service should you purchase so that they can develop their programs and then test them in environments other than where they were developed? A) IaaS B) SaaS C) PaaS D) NaaS

C. Platform as a service (PaaS) adds a layer to IaaS that includes software development tools such as runtime environments. Because of this, it can be helpful to software developers; the vendor manages the various hardware platforms. This frees up the software developers to focus on building their application and scaling it. The best PaaS solutions allow for the client to export its developed programs and run them in an environment other than where they were developed.

What feature of cloud computing means that you can expand your network immediately as needed? A) Shared resources B) Metered utilization C) Rapid elasticity D) File synchronization

C. Rapid elasticity is one of the greatest benefits of cloud computing. You can add servers or network components as needed, on the fly. Shared resources are what makes rapid elasticity possible. Metered utilization means you pay for what you use, and file synchronization keeps your files up-to-date across different devices.

Which level of RAID will provide both better performance and fault tolerance with the least number of drives possible? A) RAID 0 B) RAID 1 C) RAID 5 D) RAID 10

C. Redundant Array of Independent (or Inexpensive) Disks (RAID) level 0 is disk striping and provides improved performance, but no fault tolerance. RAID 1, mirroring, provides fault tolerance but no improvement in performance. Both RAID 0 and RAID 1 require two drives. RAID 5 provides both fault tolerance and enhanced performance, and requires a minimum of three drives. RAID 10 (or 1+0) is a stripe of mirrored drives and provides both fault tolerance and enhanced performance, but requires a minimum of four drives.

The motherboard documentation you are reading says that the RAM modules for this motherboard must be purchased in identical sets of 4. What type of motherboard is this? A) Dual channel B) Triple channel C) Quad channel D) Single channel

C. Some motherboards support accessing more than one RAM module at a time. When that is the case, we say that the motherboard has multiple channels. Typically you will purchase identical RAM modules in quantities that match the number of channels there are. In this case, the documentation says to purchase RAM in identical sets of four, so we can assume it is a quad-channel motherboard.

You are examining an existing coaxial cable installation and notice that the previous technician installed a splitter. Which of the following statements is true? A) The splitter will cause the network connection to fail. B) The splitter will increase the distance the network signal will travel. C) The splitter will degrade the quality of the network signal. D) The splitter will have no effect on the network signal.

C. Splitters generally have two effects on a coaxial cable: they degrade the signal and limit the distance the signal will travel. Use them judiciously.

A friend just purchased a touch pen that uses Bluetooth connectivity. They aren't very tech savvy so you have offered to set it up for them. What step of the Bluetooth connection process will you do after the laptop has found the touch pen for pairing? A) Enable pairing. B) Test connectivity. C) Enter the appropriate PIN code. D) Enable Bluetooth.

C. The CompTIA A+ exam objectives list the steps for connecting Bluetooth devices as follows: Enable Bluetooth. Enable pairing. Find a device for pairing. Enter the appropriate PIN code. Test connectivity.

When setting up your network, you configured your clients to obtain IP addressing information automatically from a DHCP server. You set the group of numbers that it can assign from 192.168.100.11 to 192.168.100.211. What is this group of assignable numbers called? A) APIPA B) Leases C) Scope D) Reservations

C. The range of numbers that can be assigned by a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server to client computers is called the scope. Each of those numbers can be leased to the client for a period of time that you choose in the server settings. Reservations are numbers that you set aside for specific devices on the network whose IP address you don't want to change, like a server or IP printer. Automatic private IP addressing (APIPA) addresses are self-assigned by a computer that is set for dynamic IP addressing but that is unable to reach a DHCP server.

You're shopping for a wireless speaker to use with your smartphone and considering different connection methods. Which of the following wireless connection types generally has a functional communication distance of 10 meters? A) NFC B) IR C) Bluetooth D) Wi-Fi

C. The vast majority of consumer Bluetooth mobile devices are Class 2 devices, which have a maximum communication distance of 10 meters (about 30 feet.) The maximum communicating distance for near-field communication (NFC) is only about 4 inches, infrared (IR) requires line of sight, and Wi-Fi has a much greater distance depending on the Wi-Fi standard being used.

Your motherboard supports up-plugging for PCIe adapter cards. Which of the following statements is true? A) You can't put an x8 card into an x16 slot. B) You can put an x8 card into an x16 slot, but it will run at x1 speed. C) You can put an x8 card into an x16 slot, but it will run at x8 speed. D) You can put an x8 card into an x16 slot, and it will run at x16 speed.

C. The x8 card won't completely fill the x16 slot, but it will work at x8 speeds if up-plugging is supported by the motherboard. Otherwise, the specification requires up-plugged devices to operate at only the x1 rate.

You have a small office with frequent visitors and want to provide a separate VLAN to segregate the visitor traffic from your network traffic for security reasons. What is the minimum connectivity device needed to accomplish this? A) Hub B) Bridge C) Managed switch D) Unmanaged switch

C. To segregate a local area network (LAN) into two virtual LANs (VLANs), you would need a managed switch. Managed switches contain software that allows for port configuration, diagnostics, and monitoring situations such as port flapping. An unmanaged switch is simply a connectivity device. It can't be used to segregate ports into separate VLANs. A bridge is used to aggregate two or more networks into one. A hub is simply a connectivity device that is a single collision domain, whereas each port on a switch (managed or not) is its own collision domain. Hubs are seldom found on networks now, but they are often used to provide multiple ports for a single connection on a computer such as a USB port. Note that some routers have the ability to create a VLAN by using different IP address ranges, but more often a switch is used.

A user calls the help desk to report that their display is black. It was working yesterday, but when the desktop computer was booted this morning, nothing showed on the display. They did hear a beep like normal when the computer booted up. What is the first thing you should do? A) Reseat the plug on the video card. B) Replace the video card. C) Ask the user to press the display's power button. D) Refresh the operating system.

C. When troubleshooting, always start with the simple things first. It would not be the first time that a display had been inadvertently turned off. If that doesn't resolve it, check the cabling to ensure that nothing is loose, and check any settings on the display to ensure that the brightness isn't turned all the way down and that the display is using the correct input if it has more than one.

Which of the following would not be considered authentication in a two-factor authentication system? A) Key fob B) Authenticator app C) Username D) Soft token

C. Your username is identification—telling a system who you are. Authentication means proving to a system that you are who you say you are, and that is done by something you know, something you have, something you are, or somewhere you are. In a two-factor authentication system, you first identify yourself to the system (username), and provide your first authentication, usually a password (something you know), then you need another form of authentication. A key fob is a small device, about the size of a key chain, that uses algorithms to generate a numeric key that lasts for only a few seconds and is unique to the application and the user. An authenticator app is software on a device that does the same thing, and it is a type of soft token. A key fob is considered a hard token.

When setting up your network, you configured your clients to obtain IP addressing information automatically from a DHCP server. Which of the following configuration items can the DHCP server provide? A) IP address B) IP address and subnet mask C) IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway D) IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server address

D. A DHCP server can be configured to provide all required and optional TCP/IP configuration information to clients. This includes an IP address, subnet mask (for IPv4), default gateway, and DNS server address.

A UTP cable just failed, and you need to replace it. You have a spool of cable and connectors but no premade cables. Which tool do you need to use to make a new cable? A) Toner probe B) Punchdown tool C) Multimeter D) Crimper and cable stripper

D. A crimper is a handy tool for helping you put connectors on the end of a cable. Most crimpers will be a combination tool that strips and snips wires as well as crimps the connector onto the end. A toner probe helps a technician to locate a particular wire in a bunch that look the same. A punchdown tool is used to attach wires to a punchdown block on a wiring rack in a telecommunications closet. A multimeter has many uses, among them testing for continuity, checking power supplies, and checking wall outlets.

Which TCP/IP protocol is responsible for resolving IP addresses to MAC addresses? A) IP B) SSH C) DHCP D) ARP

D. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is responsible for resolving IP addresses to MAC addresses. The Internet Protocol (IP) is used in routing information packets from one Internet location to another. Secure Shell (SSH) is a connection-oriented protocol that is used to securely manage a network and its devices remotely. DHCP is a connectionless protocol that is used to dynamically assign network configuration information to clients that request it on a network.

In your company's lobby, there is a desktop computer with an LCD that plays a continuous loop of a welcome video. The display is enclosed in a cabinet. Recently, the display will shut itself down near the end of the day for no apparent reason. What is likely causing this problem? A) Backlight failure B) Incorrect video resolution C) Display card failure D) Display overheating

D. Displays may have their own internal power supply, and they all have internal circuitry, which means they can overheat. Make sure the air vents on the back of the display are dust- and debris-free. In this case, removing the display from the cabinet might help. If the problem persists, it's best to replace the display.

What is the name of the virtual desktop software that is built into Windows 10 and 11? A) Azure Virtual Desktop B) VMware Fusion C) VirtualBox D) Hyper-V

D. Hyper-V is built into Windows 10 and Windows 11, Pro, and higher editions, but it is a Windows feature that is disabled by default. To enable it, open Control Panel, select Programs and Features, and click Turn Windows features on or off. In the resulting dialog box, look for either Hyper-V (Windows 11) or Windows Hypervisor Platform (Windows 10) and select it by checking the boxnext to the option, and click OK. Azure Virtual Desktop is Microsoft's desktop in the cloud, VMware Fusion is virtual machine software for macOS, and VirtualBox is freeware from Oracle.

A user reports that when they press the L key on their laptop keyboard, the L character repeats across the screen and doesn't stop until the L key is pressed several more times. When you look at the laptop, it does not appear that the key is physically sticking. What should you do next? A) Replace the keyboard. B) Replace the L key. C) Clean under the key with compressed air. D) Reboot the laptop.

D. If a key on the laptop keyboard is stuck, you need to determine whether the contact is having problems or whether the key itself is stuck. If the key is not physically stuck but the laptop thinks it is, rebooting generally solves the problem.

A user reports that their smartphone will not make any sounds. They have turned the phone off and back on, and the problem is still there. You check the settings, and the phone is not on silent mode and the volume is set to maximum. What can you do to fix this problem? A) Reset the phone to factory specifications. B) Replace the speakers. C) Replace the sound card. D) Replace the phone.

D. If the device does not produce sound, first make sure that it's not set to silent operation. Most mobile devices will have a switch on the side that sets them to silent or vibrate mode, which will mute the device and keep it from making noises. Also check settings for volume as well as possible redirection of sound, such as an active Bluetooth pairing. If the speakers have failed on a mobile device, it's time for a new device.

You just took a new display out of the box and set it up. Now you notice that it has two dead pixels. What do you do? A) Return the display for a refund. B) Keep the display but ask for a discount. C) Calibrate the display. D) Keep the display; it is fine.

D. It is normal that a display may have a dead (black) pixel or two. This is not considered a big flaw; there is nothing you as a tech can do to fix it. If there are many dead pixels or you're just not happy with it, your only recourse it to return it for another one, if the vendor will accept it back.

You're hiking in the mountains and have brought along a mobile device that has an app with all the maps of local trails on it to ensure that you don't get lost. You look at the map and notice that the blue dot indicating where you are hasn't moved since you left home. What do you need to enable in your mobile device for the app to work properly? A) Airplane mode B) GPS C) Wi-Fi D) Location services

D. Location services on your device may use the Global Positioning System (GPS), which relies on satellites, Bluetooth, Wi-Fi, or cellular location services to determine your approximate location. Location services can be enabled, disabled, or conditionally enabled for different apps on your phone that need the service to function properly. Airplane mode turns off all network connectivity.

Which of the following would most likely use NVMe technology? A) 5,400 rpm drive B) HDD C) m.SATA D) M.2

D. Nonvolatile Memory Express (NVMe ) is a driver and communication interface for Peripheral Component Interconnect Express (PCIe)-based solid-state drives (SSDs). It uses the PCIe bus but can be PCIe, M.2, and U.2 form factors. It transfers data much faster than the Advanced Host Controller Interface (AHCI) that was used for SATA. Both AHCI and NVMe SSDs can use the PCIe slot and M.2 connectors on motherboards, so it's important to know whether the M.2 connector supports AHCI, NVMe, or both. U.2 is only NVMe, but it isn't on the CompTIA A+ objectives. SATA will use the AHCI interface, even if it's connected to an M.2 slot on the motherboard. mSATA is a different form factor and can't be used in an M.2 slot.

In IPv6, which of the following identifies the multicast range? A) ::1 B) 2001;dba:45c:1::5/64 C) FE80::abc:1:2/64 D) FF00::/8

D. The FF00::/8 range in IPv6 is for multicasts. Remember that IPv6 does not use broadcasts. The closest IPv6 gets is the use of multicast addresses. ::1 is the loopback address for IPv6. IP addresses that begin with 2001 are in the global unicast range, meaning that they are routable on the Internet, and the first 64 bits identify the network. Any number that starts with FE80 is nonroutable and is called a link-local address.

What part of the laser printer imaging process uses heat and pressure to permanently adhere toner to the paper? A) Charging B) Exposing C) Transferring D) Fusing

D. The steps of the laser printing process are as follows: processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, and cleaning. It would be a good idea to memorize the order, and remember what happens at each step before taking the CompTIA A+ 1101 exam.

What is the first step of the laser printer imaging process? A) Cleaning B) Charging C) Fusing D) Processing

D. The steps of the laser printing process as listed by the CompTIA A+ objectives are processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, and cleaning. In the processing step, data is sent to the printer, where a raster image processor converts it into a raster image (a group of dots) in preparation for printing.

You're considering setting up a WISP. What is an advantage of using an unlicensed frequency versus using a licensed frequency? A) The frequencies are not congested. B) The radiated power is unlimited by regulations. C) The performance is better than licensed frequencies. D) Equipment is readily available.

D. There are advantages and disadvantages to using the unlicensed frequency bands. Advantages include equipment is widely available and inexpensive, there are no fees for using the unlicensed spectrum, and its use is widespread, so information is available to help set one up. The disadvantages of using the unlicensed frequency spectrum are that it is congested (because it's free) and many places regulate how powerful the signal can be.

What type of printer uses special paper that turns dark when subjected to heat? These printers are often used for receipt printers. A) Inkjet B) Impact C) 3-D printer D) Thermal

D. Thermal printers require a special paper that will turn black when subjected to heat. Inkjet printers use paper that resists colors bleeding into other areas, impact printers often use no carbon required (NCR) forms to make multiple copies of a form when they print, and 3-D printers use a filament or resin to create a three-dimensional printout. The filament is extruded through a hot nozzle and the resin is subjected to lasers that harden it; then the excess resin is washed away.

A new technician trainee just turned a computer on and it beeped once. They had heard about motherboard beep codes and ask you what that single beep means. What will you tell them? A) Bad RAM B) CPU issue C) Video isn't working D) POST completed successfully

D. When the power-on self-test (POST) completes successfully, most motherboards will emit a single beep to let you know.