A+ certification practice test A

Under ordinary situations, which of the following wireless standards offers the slowest transfer speed at 2.4 GHz frequency?

802.11b 802.11b is a wireless standard that operates at 2.4 GHz frequency and provides wireless speeds of up to 11 Mbps. It uses direct-sequence spread spectrum (DSSS) for data encoding.

Question 39 :James, a technician, needs to replace the memory in laptops that have come up for repair. Which of the following memory modules can he use?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

72-pin SODIMM 144-pin SODIMM The technician should use the small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) for laptops. It is a type of computer memory, which is mostly used in laptops. SODIMMs come in smaller packages, consume lesser power, but are more expensive than DIMMs. They come in 72 pins and 144 pins. The 72-pin SODIMM supports 32-bit transfers, and the 144-pin SODIMM supports 64-bit transfers.

Which of the following servers examines the credentials of anyone trying to access the network, and also determines if network access is granted?

Authentication server An authentication server contains an application that has an access list and identifies the permitted access credentials. It examines the credentials of anyone trying to access the network and also determines if network access is granted. An authentication server can be a dedicated server machine, wireless router or access point, Ethernet switch, or a remote access server (RAS).

A technician works for a company that has virtual servers and virtual desktops. The company hires a user who only needs to access the virtual desktops. Which of the following is the most cost-effective workstation to purchase?

Thin client A thin client is a computer that relies heavily on another system, typically a server, to run most of its programs, processes, and services. Client setup requirements will be specific to a user's needs and will most likely be based on a job role. The system requirements for thin clients include: The computer must meet the minimum requirements to run the selected operating system. The computer may require a specific browser to run any web-based applications. The computer must have a fast network connection to access the server hosting the applications.

Jennifer, a technician, is constructing a workstation that will only be used to join remotely to a server. Which of the following PC configurations is the best for this purpose?

Thin client A thin client is a computer that relies heavily on another system, typically a server, to run most of its programs, processes, and services. Client setup requirements will be specific to a user's needs and will most likely be based on a job role. The system requirements for thin clients include: The computer must meet the minimum requirements to run the selected operating system. The computer may require a specific browser to run any web-based applications. The computer must have a fast network connection to access the server hosting the applications.

Which of the following is the virtualization technology for providing and managing virtual desktops?

VDI Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) is the virtualization technology for providing and managing virtual desktops. VDI hosts desktop environments on a centralized server and deploys them to end clients on request.

James, a network analyst, wants to create broadcast domains to eliminate the need for expensive routers. Which of the following will help him accomplish the task?

VLAN Virtual LAN (VLAN) allows a network administrator to logically segment a LAN into different broadcast domains. Since this is a logical segmentation and not a physical one, workstations do not have to be physically located together. Users on different floors of the same building, or even in different buildings can now belong to the same LAN. VLAN can be used to create broadcast domains which eliminate the need for expensive routers.

An organization wants to create a server VM that is segregated from the rest of the servers. Which of the following should be configured?

VNIC Virtual Network Interface Card (VNIC) is a program that virtualizes a physical network interface card, and is used by a virtual machine as its network interface. It enables the virtual machine to communicate with other virtual machines on the same host, but not on physical networks unless it is configured to bridge to the host NIC.

Maria, a network administrator, has been given a task to extend the network segment through which employees working from home will transmit data securely across the Internet. Which of the following will help her to complete the task?

VPN Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a private communication network transmitted across a public, typically insecure, network connection. With a VPN, a company can extend a virtual LAN segment to employees working from home by transmitting data securely across the Internet. It provides secure connections between endpoints, such as routers, clients, or servers, by using tunneling to encapsulate and encrypt data.

Which of the following expansion card types provides the interface necessary for remote communications, such as Internet over mobile phone?

Wireless A wireless or cellular card provides the interface necessary for remote communications, such as Internet over mobile phone or wireless data lines such as Wi-Fi, 3G, or 4G Internet that have been provided by a cellular service provider.

James, a user, enquires a technician for a device that has the ability to simply connect a laptop to an external monitor, mouse, and keyboard. Which of the following devices will the technician suggest to James?

Docking station A docking station provides a simplified way of plugging-in an electronic device such as a laptop computer to common peripherals. The laptop is connected to the docking station through a docking port located on the back or bottom of the laptop. Docking stations typically extend the capabilities of the laptop by providing additional interfaces for the laptop. In addition, there are often slots for desktop PCI or ISA expansion cards, drive bays for additional mass storage devices, and possibly additional ports and connectors, such as extra USB or wireless connections.

Question 23 :Which of the following are features of a firewall? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A firewall provides many features that can be configured to suit various computing needs. It may include: Enabling or disabling port security on certain ports Filtering inbound and outbound communication Protecting systems from malware and spyware Assigning, forwarding, and triggering ports

Which of the following are the best features to include in a Home Theater PC? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A home theater PC (HTPC) is a computer system that is dedicated and configured to store and stream digital movies, either from the local hard drive or through an online subscription such as Netflix. HTPCs are built specifically for home theater purposes, so most of the required elements are built right into the actual system. They generally include: A TV tuner card that allows the computer to display high-definition (HD) digital output and attach the cable provider's cable TV wire directly to the system. A cable card that provides authentication and encryption services to connect with the cable set top box provided by the cable company. Optical disc player that supports both DVD and Blu-ray. HDMI output for high-definition video and audio. Maximum RAM supported by the motherboard. Video card with both GPU and HD capabilities. Bluetooth or wireless capabilities when using specialized remotes or input devices.

Which of the following are features of a fitness monitor? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A Counts the steps taken during a specified period of time B Measures the intensity of the workout

What are the advantages of using solid state hard drives (SSDs) over traditional magnetic hard disk drives (HDDs)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A Do not have moving parts B More reliable and less susceptible to damage C Consume less power

James, a system engineer, is tasked to update a computer's BIOS and firmware. What could be the possible reason for this updation? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A To fix bugs that prevent the operating system from installing or running properly B To provide support for new hardware There are various reasons to update the BIOS and firmware of a computer, which include: Providing support for new hardware, such as a large hard drive or removable storage device Fixing bugs that prevent the operating system from installing or running properly Enabling advanced Plug-and-Play or advanced power management features Providing eligibility for vendor support

Which of the following is a characteristic of a hybrid drive?

A drive that has both HDD and SSD components A hybrid drive is a magnetic hard drive with flash memory chips added to it. The flash memory chips act as a buffer for operating system and application files, allowing the system to boot up and start applications faster. These hybrid drives give you the SSD benefit of increased boot and application access speeds, along with the large storage size benefit of a magnetic hard drive. In practice, hybrid drives often give little performance benefit over hard drives, so you might be better off using both SSD and HDD separately.

A server technician has been given a task to select the appropriate RAID level that can recover the losing data if the server's hard drive crash. Which of the following RAID levels can fulfill this demand?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

B RAID 1 C RAID 5 D RAID 10 The server technician will select RAID 1, RAID 5, and RAID 10 to recover the losing data if the server's hard drive crash and provide fault tolerance to a database. RAID 1 is a type of RAID for standardizing and categorizing fault-tolerant disk systems by using disk mirroring. RAID 10, or RAID 1+0, combines two RAID levels into one and uses RAID 1 and RAID 0 to provide both mirroring from level 1 and striping from level 0. RAID 5 spreads data byte by byte across multiple drives, with parity information also spread across multiple drives.

Which of the following are the differences between USB 3.0 and USB 2.0? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

B Unlike USB 2.0, USB 3.0 supports continuous bursting. C Unlike USB 2.0, USB 3.0 supports dual simplex communication pathways. USB 2.0 is a half-duplex technology, which means all devices must share a common bandwidth. USB 3.0 supports dual simplex communication pathways that collectively imitate full-duplex transmission, where devices at both ends of the cable can transmit simultaneously. USB 2.0 does not support bursting but USB 3.0 supports continuous bursting.

Andrew, a network administrator, wants to use network-based operating system administration tools to manage the network. Which of the following tools will he use? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

B VNC C RDP Andrew will use Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) and Virtual Network Computing (VNC) which are network-based operating system administration tools. The Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a proprietary protocol created by Microsoft for connecting to and managing computers that are not necessarily located at the same place as the administrator. Virtual Network Computing (VNC) is a platform-independent desktop sharing system.

Which device actively works to prevent collisions by making sure not to send data to a segment that is already busy?

Bridge A bridge is a bit like a repeater, except instead of blindly regenerating signals and passing it on, it actively works to prevent collisions by making sure not to send data to a segment that is already busy. It is just that it manages collisions by storing the frame it receives from one side and waiting for the network to be clear before sending it on the others.

Which of the following characteristics are generally found on a docking station that port replicators do not offer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

C Docks have independent hardware. D Docks contain internal expansion ports. Docking station is a hardware frame and set of electrical connections that allow you to quickly connect and disconnect your mobile device to common desktop computer peripherals, such as a monitor, external keyboard, mouse, external disk drives, etc. It may even contain internal expansion ports or hard drives, making a laptop function more like a desktop computer. Port replicator is similar to a docking station, but usually simpler and less expensive. It is a scaled-down version of a docking station with only the standard ports available. It still has external ports which can be left permanently connected to desktop peripherals, but generally no expansion slots or disk drives. Most port replicators use a standard USB port on the laptop instead of a special docking port like a docking station, so they're compatible with a wider range of laptops.

James, a graphic designer, is tasked to prepare a document of engineering and architectural design, including blueprints in both two and three dimensions. Which of the following will help him to accomplish the task?

CAD/CAM workstation CAD/CAM workstations are used in the design of engineering and architectural documentation, including blueprints in both two and three dimensions. These are generally used by designers for designing graphical content, advertisements, magazines, posters, and other graphic media. These workstations need a particular emphasis on the following areas: CPU ehnacement Video enhancement Maximized RAM

Maria, a technician, is troubleshooting an expansion card in a computer that allows the computer to receive faxes over a VoIP line. The line connected to the expansion card is most likely which of the following cable types?

CAT6 The CAT6 cable is used as the cabling infrastructure for 10BASE-T (Ethernet), 100BASE-TX (Fast Ethernet), 1000BASE-T (Gigabit Ethernet) and 10GBASE-T (10-Gigabit Ethernet) networks. The CAT6 standard provides performance of up to 250 MHz and can be used up to a maximum length of 100 meters (55 meters for 10GBASE-T networks). CAT6 is backward compatible with the CAT3, CAT5 and CAT5e cable standards, and as with CAT5 and CAT5e cabling, CAT6 cables consist of four unshielded twisted pairs (UTP) of copper wire terminated by RJ-45 connectors. The CAT6 standard includes stringent specifications for crosstalk and system noise.

Which of the following allows a processor to execute instructions and to read and write data at a higher speed than the regular RAM?

Cache memory Cache memory is a random access memory located closer to a processor and allows the processor to execute instructions and to read and write data at a higher speed than the regular RAM. It is most often implemented with SRAM.

A customer wants to transfer data from a DVR to a DVD. Which of the following should be used on the workstation in order to extract the data for archiving?

Capture card Video capture from devices requires a special video capture card that converts the analog signals into digital form and compresses the data. A video capture card provides the interface necessary for the computer to input video feeds, including digital video, and interact with the software necessary to process and edit video.

A customer wants a computer for performing a single-threaded task as quickly as possible. Which of the following CPU characteristics is the most important?

Clock speed The customer should check the clock speed of the CPU. Clock speed is the number of processing cycles that a microprocessor can perform in a given second. Some CPUs require several cycles to assemble and perform a single instruction, whereas others require fewer cycles. The clock speed is a technical rating; actual performance speeds can vary from the published clock speed rating. The clock speed is typically referred to as the processor performance.

You want to print 10 copies of a document that has total 9 pages and also want that pages 1-6 separated from 7-9 while printing. Which of the following printer configuration options will you use to fulfil these requirements?

Collate You will use the collate option which lets you specify the order in which multiple copies of a multi-page document are printed. It refers to the gathering and arranging of individual sheets or other printed components into a pre-determined sequence. If the option is unchecked and you print ten copies, each page will be printed ten times before the printer moves on. If the option is checked, the printer will print the full document before starting over.

A customer needs a router that will be able to handle all incoming and outgoing networking traffic independent of the rest of the building. The customer would like the PCs to immediately connect to the Internet and network resources without any additional configuration. Which of the following should the technician do to meet the requirements?

Configure the router for DHCP. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network service that provides automatic assignment of IP addresses and other TCP/IP configuration information on network systems that are configured as DHCP clients. DHCP requires a DHCP server computer configured with at least one active DHCP scope. The scope contains a range of IP addresses and a subnet mask, and can contain other options, such as a default gateway address or Domain Name Server (DNS) server address. When the service is enabled, it automatically leases TCP/IP configuration information to DHCP clients for a defined lease period.

Maria, a system engineer, is required to implement a solution to handle data-at-rest encryption requirements for a database. Which of the following would be the best to satisfy these requirements?

Create a virtual encrypted disk, add it to the virtual server, and have the database write to it. The given scenario talks about data-at-rest encryption. Data-at-rest means inactive data that is stored physically in any digital form. The only option given that offers a solution for data-at-rest encryption is to create a virtual encrypted disk, add it to the virtual server, and have the database write to it. This adds enhanced security to the algorithms used for system and partition encryption.

You find that your system is performing slow and taking long time in opening large database files placed on the local hard drive. Which of the following tools will you use to resolve the issue?

DEFRAG You will use the DEFRAG tool when systems are running slow and performance is suffering. This utility is used to reduce fragmentation on the hard disk by reorganizing stored data. This can affect disk performance.

Joe, a user, contacts the network administrator to request a list of all static IP addresses in the building. Which of the following server roles would the network administrator most likely examine to find that information?

DHCP server A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server runs software that automatically assigns IP addresses to client stations logging on to a TCP/IP network. It eliminates the need to manually assign permanent IP addresses. DHCP software typically runs on servers and is also found in network devices such as firewalls, ISDN routers, and modem routers that allow multiple users' access to the Internet. DHCP servers are configured to provide IP configuration information automatically to clients, such as an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and the address of a DNS server.

A user is watching a training education video and notices dark pin-sized dots in the same location on his laptop LCD screen. Which of the following is the cause of this issue?

Dead pixel The pixels that make up a liquid crystal display (LCD) output sometimes do not display as they should. There are generally two types of pixels issues: Dead pixels: That do not display the light as expected. This is shown visually when the LCD is displaying a picture, and there are black spots shown with no light. Stuck pixels: That only show light, so they appear out of place when the display is on. Light colors can vary from red, to blue or green.

A business owner wants to provide the facility to laptop users with the ability to charge their devices, access corporate LAN resources, and allow for a variety of their removable hardware to be connected simultaneously. Which of the following devices would best meet the owner's needs?

Docking station A docking station provides the facility to laptop users with the ability to charge their devices, access corporate LAN resources, and allow for a variety of their removable hardware. It is a hardware frame and set of electrical connections that allow you to quickly connect and disconnect your mobile device to common desktop computer peripherals, such as a monitor, external keyboard, mouse, external disk drives, etc. It may even contain internal expansion ports or hard drives, making a laptop function more like a desktop computer.

John, a technician, is tasked to configure multi-function printers that will facilitate printing on both sides of a page. Which of the following printer configuration options will provide this functionality?

Duplex John will use duplex which is a printer configuration option of a multi-function printer. It helps to reduce the amount of paper consumed on a multi-function printer by allowing printing on both sides of a page.

James, a network administrator, is testing a new web server from outside of the corporate firewall. He performs a test from a single PC and the web server responds accordingly. He then provisions several virtual machines on a network behind NAT and uses them to perform the same operation on the web server at the same time, but thereafter soon discovers that none of the machines can reach the web server. Which of the following could be responsible?

Firewall Firewalls are generally deployed between the cloud network and the cloud consumer for protection of unauthorized access into the networks. A firewall is either hardware based or a virtualized device that inspects network traffic and compares the traffic to a defined rules' list to determine whether that traffic is allowed. If it is not permitted, the firewall will block the traffic from entering the network. Hence, firewalls provide a secure barrier in and out of a network.

While configuring a firewall, a system engineer accidentally blocked port 443. Which of the following will be unavailable?

HTTPS Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) is a combination of HTTP with Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) to make for a secure connection. It uses port 443 by default, and the beginning of the site address becomes https://. Therefore, if a cloud engineer has blocked port 443, HTTPS will be unavailable.

A network administrator is setting up a web-based application that needs to be continually accessible to the end users. Which of the following concepts would best ensure this requirement?

High availability High availability is a characteristic of a system, which aims to ensure an agreed level of operational performance (usually uptime) for a higher than normal period. It refers to a system or component that is continuously operational for a desirably long length of time. Availability can be measured relative to "100% operational" or "never failing."

Which of the following is connected to multiple computing devices for storing videos, music, and pictures, and providing central access to all stored files with other computing devices?

Home server PC A home server PC is a server connected to multiple computing devices for storing videos, music, and pictures. It also provides central access to all stored files and is often used for file and print sharing with other computing devices.

Which custom configuration is most likely to include a RAID array?

Home server PC A home server PC is a server for your house connected to multiple computing devices within the home to store videos, music, and pictures. Home server PCs have a variety of features and functions, but they all have common requirements for providing a home with necessary functions: Media streaming capabilities to access and play digital movies. Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) array to provide redundancy. A gigabit NIC to provide speeds necessary to perform large file transfers over the wireless network.

Which of the following custom configurations has a chassis with the smallest dimensions?

Home theatre PC A home theatre PC (HTPC) is a computer system dedicated and configured to store and stream digital movies, either from the local hard drive or through an online subscription such as Netflix. HTPCs are built specifically for home theater purposes, so most of the required elements are built right into the actual system. They generally include: A TV tuner card that allows the computer to display high-definition (HD) digital output and attach the cable provider's cable TV wire directly to the system. A cable card that provides authentication and encryption services to connect with the cable set top box provided by the cable company. HDMI output for high-definition video and audio. Video card with both GPU and HD capabilities. Special chassis Bluetooth or wireless capabilities when using specialized remotes or input devices.

You want to connect a laptop to a mobile device's Internet for use in circumstances where there is no Internet connectivity. Which of the following technologies will you use?

Hotspot If you have a cellular-enabled device such as a smartphone, you may be able to turn that phone into a mobile hotspot. By doing so, you can share your cellular Internet connection with Wi-Fi enabled devices such as a laptop or tablet. Enabling an iPhone to be a mobile hotspot is done via Settings > Personal Hotspot. On Android, you can enable a mobile hotspot by checking the box next to Portable Wi-Fi Hotspot in Settings > Wireless & Networks > Tethering & Portable Hotspot.

Which of the following is a form of microprocessor parallelization where each physical processor is treated as two virtual processors?

Hyper-threading Hyper-threading is a form of microprocessor parallelization where each physical processor is treated as two virtual processors. It is a feature of certain Intel chips that makes one physical CPU appear as two logical CPUs. It uses additional registers to overlap two instruction streams to increase the CPU's performance by about 30 percent.

Which of the following is core virtualization software that enables multiple virtual computers to run on a single physical host?

Hypervisor A hypervisor, or virtual machine manager, is core virtualization software that enables multiple virtual computers to run on a single physical host. A PC on which a hypervisor is running one or more virtual machines is called a host machine and each virtual machine is called a guest machine.

Which of the following is a passive monitoring system designed to alert administrators when something suspicious happens, but take no action on their own?

IDS An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is a passive monitoring system designed to alert administrators when something suspicious happens, but take no action on their own.

A company wants to ensure that its cloud infrastructure is secure as well as fully available. The company also wants to be alerted in the event of a security breach. Which of the following solutions would meet these requirements?

IDS IDS would meet the requirements given in the scenario. Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is used to detect possible malicious incursions into a network to monitor and audit suspected and known attack signatures and behavior. It scans, audits, and monitors the security infrastructure for signs of attacks in progress and automates the intrusion detection process.

802.11b is a wireless standard that operates at 2.4 GHz frequency and provides wireless speeds of up to 11 Mbps. It uses direct-sequence spread spectrum (DSSS) for data encoding.

IPSec Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a set of open, non-proprietary standards that you can use to secure data as it travels across the network or the Internet. IPSec uses different protocols and services to provide data authenticity and integrity, anti-replay protection, non-repudiation, and protection against eavesdropping and sniffing. Unlike SSL/TLS and SSH, IPSec operates at the network layer (layer 3) of the OSI model, so the protocol is not application dependent.

James, a consultant, is helping a large company to migrate its development environment to a public cloud provider. The developers are working on a virtual desktop infrastructure solution. The development tools that employees utilize require greater control of the OS environment. Which of the following cloud types should the consultant implement?

IaaS Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and run their own data center. It is an arrangement in which, rather than purchasing equipment and running your own data center, you rent those resources as an outsourced service. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure but has control over operating systems, storage, and deployed applications.

John, a technician, needs to allow multiple PCs to share a common display, keyboard, and mouse. Which of the following devices will he use?

KVM switch John should use a KVM switch, which is a hardware device that allows a user to control multiple computers from a single keyboard, video monitor, and mouse. A user connects a monitor, keyboard, and mouse to the KVM switch, then uses special cables (generally USB and VGA) to connect the KVM device to the computers.

For which of the following types of printers should a technician obtain a maintenance kit containing a fuser, transfer roller, and pickup rollers?

Laser A laser printer is a type of printer that forms high-quality images on one page of paper at a time, by using a laser beam, toner, and an electrophotographic drum. Laser printers include some specialized components: Toner cartridge Laser scanning assembly Paper transport mechanism Electrostatic Photographic drum (EP drum) Transfer corona assembly Fuser assembly Formatter board

A network engineer is asked to implement a network encompassing the five-block town center and nearby businesses. The inclusion of smartphones and portable devices is crucial to the plan. Which of the following is the network engineer being asked to implement?

MAN A metropolitan area network (MAN) covers an area equivalent to a city or a municipality. It is also used to mean the interconnection of several local area networks by bridging them with backbone lines. It is similar to a local area network (LAN) but spans an entire city. MANs are formed by connecting multiple LANs. Thus, MANs are larger than LANs but smaller than wide area networks (WAN).

Which of the following is a small program that is read into memory and is executed after the BIOS bootup?

MBR Master Boot Record (MBR) is a small program that is read into memory and is executed after the BIOS bootup. The computer BIOS locates the boot device, and then loads and runs the MBR. The MBR scans the partition table to locate the active partition, loads the boot sector on the active partition into memory, and then executes it.

You need a piano keyboard to connect to a PC. Which of the following interfaces should you look for on a piano keyboard?

MIDI The Musical Instrument Digital Interface (MIDI) connection enables you to connect and control musical devices such as electric keyboards, synthesizers, guitars, drum kits, and mixers. Sound cards usually include built-in synthesizers as well to produce MIDI sounds. MIDI devices can be connected to each other and then to the computer. These devices can connect to the computer using a number of ports. MIDI to USB interface, MIDI to serial, or MIDI to FireWire connections are most commonly used, allowing for faster communication between the musical instrument and the computer or controller device.

An organization has subscribed to a cloud service and wants to monitor and meter the customer's use of resources. Which of the following cloud computing concepts does this represent?

Measured service Measured service refers to the cloud provider's ability to monitor and meter the customer's use of resources. This supports the customer's ability to dynamically make changes to the resources they receive. Based on the metered and measured information, the provider knows what resources the customer has used and can then bill for those resources during the next billing cycle.

Which of the following expansion card types provides the interface necessary for remote communications over phone or data lines?

Modem A modem card provides the interface necessary for remote communications over phone or data lines that have been provided by a cable or Internet service provider.

A user reports to a technician that his desktop is having intermittent issues with locking up and system errors. The technician starts troubleshooting and suspects that the issue might be the motherboard is not getting enough power. Which of the following tools should the technician use to verify that his assumption is correct?

Multimeter The technician should use a multimeter for this purpose. A multimeter is a versatile electronic measuring instrument that combines several measurement functions in one unit. A typical multimeter has the ability to measure voltage, current, and resistance of an electrical circuit. It combines three tools in one (a volt meter, an ohm meter, and an ammeter.)

Smith, a user, complains that his CD drive is not working. Lucy, a technician, verifies that it is completely dead. She needs to ensure that the power coming to the CD drive is correct, and therefore, she has to check its voltage. Which of the following tools will she use?

Multimeter To verify the incoming voltage to the CD drive, Lucy will use a multimeter. It is an electronic measuring instrument that combines several measurement functions in one unit. A typical multimeter may include features such as the ability to measure voltage, current, and resistance.

When choosing a type of storage that integrates with the existing network infrastructure, the storage must be easily configurable to share files and can communicate with all existing clients over TCP/IP. Which of the following is the best technology for the network administrator to implement?

NAS The network administrator should implement the network attached storage (NAS) which can be attached anywhere on the network, primarily to store files. It connects the storage to the TCP/IP network and enables users to access storage resources using both Common Internet File System (CIFS) and Network File System (NFS) protocols over the familiar TCP/IP networks. The NAS appliance has its own IP address and hence can be accessed by users directly over the network to store files as well as retrieve them when required. NAS generally uses multiple disks to store data and provides file level storage and access to data.

Which of the following is used to facilitate communication with a user's smartphone to make purchases and payments by proximity?

NFC Near field communication (NFC) is a wireless communication method that enables wireless devices to establish radio communications by touching them together or by bringing them into close proximity with each other, typically within 10 cm or less. NFC operates at 13.5 MHz and is slower than Bluetooth. However, it consumes less power and does not require pairing. Apple got into the NFC payment arena in 2014 with the launch of Apple Pay, which can be used from iPhones, iPads, and the Apple Watch. In 2015, Google introduced Android Pay, which is an update to the older Google Wallet app.

Which video display type features the option of flexible displays?

OLED Organic light emitting diode (OLED) display utilizes the same technology as LED display, but uses organic compounds such as carbon and hydrogen that emit light when subjected to an electric current as the light source. If thin-film electrodes and a flexible compound are used to produce the OLEDs, an OLED display can be made flexible.

Which of the following cloud services would most likely be selected by a software development company that needs a cloud to develop software and does not have infrastructure requirements?

PaaS Platform as a Service (PaaS) is an access to a computing platform or software environment the customer can use to develop and host web-based applications. It provides a platform allowing customers to develop, run, and manage applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure typically associated with developing and launching an application. The provider manages the underlying hardware infrastructure and development tools, so the customer only has to do the actual software development.

Which of the following cloud service models would be recommended to a company for hardware capacity to host a production database application?

PaaS Platform as a Service (PaaS) is an access to a computing platform or software environment the customer can use to develop and host web-based applications. It provides a platform allowing customers to develop, run, and manage applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure typically associated with developing and launching an application. The provider manages the underlying hardware infrastructure and development tools, so the customer only has to do the actual software development. Example of PaaS includes Amazon's Relational Database Service (RDS).

Jennifer, a network administrator, wants to block external SSH connections from reaching internal machines. Which of the following ports should she block on the firewall?

Port 22 Secure Shell (SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol which uses port 22 for securing data communication. It establishes a secure channel over an insecure network in a client-server architecture, connecting an SSH client application with an SSH server. So according to the question, blocking port 22 on the firewall will serve the purpose.

Jennifer, a technician, wants to set up a virtual private network for a small office. She also wants to ensure that the network traffic is routed to the correct machine. Which of the following will she use on the router to accomplish this?

Port forwarding Port forwarding enables Jennifer to open a port in the firewall and direct incoming traffic on that port to a specific IP address on her LAN. Network address translation (NAT) is used on most SOHO routers to redirect communication requests from one IP address and port number to another through port forwarding or mapping. This allows one IP address outside the network to be used by multiple devices and systems inside the network.

What type of server is responsible for blocking the sender's identity while passing the information to the destination to prevent security-related issues?

Proxy A proxy server makes requests for resources on behalf of a client. It caches the information requested, speeding up subsequent searches and acts as a filter, blocking content from prohibited websites. It modifies the requester's information and blocks the sender's identity as a measure of security while passing the information to the destination.

Which of the following can be used to assign priority to a specific network traffic?

QoS Quality of service (QoS) defines traffic priorities in the event of network congestion or impairments. By defining a QoS policy, you can prioritize critical or real-time applications over applications that can tolerate network impairments such as delay, dropped packets, or jitter.

Which of the following RAID levels uses a minimum of four disks in two disk mirrored blocks?

RAID 10 RAID 10, or RAID 1+0, combines two RAID levels into one. It uses RAID 1 and RAID 0 to provide both mirroring from level 1 and striping from level 0. RAID 10 uses a minimum of four disks, in two disk mirrored blocks. This configuration gives you better performance and system redundancy.

Which of the following allows a user to remotely log in to a networked device and uses port 3389 as the default port?

RDP Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a proprietary protocol created by Microsoft for connecting to and managing devices that are not necessarily located at the same place as the administrator. It uses port 3389, runs on TCP, and works on the Application layer (Layer 7) of the OSI model. It allows a user to remotely log in to a networked device. The desktop interface, or application GUI, of the remote device looks as if it were accessed locally. RDP is a multiple-channel-capable protocol that allows for separate virtual channels for carrying device communication and presentation data from the server, as well as encrypted client mouse and keyboard data.

John, a network administrator, has created a new virtual server according to specifications and verified that TCP/IP settings are correct. When the VM is powered on, an error message indicates that a network card MAC address conflict exists. What should John do to resolve this issue?

Remove the virtual NIC and configure another one. Virtual Network Interface Card (VNIC) is a program that virtualizes a physical network interface card, and is used by a virtual machine as its network interface. A virtual NIC is assigned to a MAC address, and each MAC address corresponds with a single virtual NIC. The virtual NIC enables the virtual machine to communicate with other virtual machines on the same host, but not on physical networks unless it is configured to bridge to the host NIC.

Which of the following represents the number of pixels that make up the dimensions of a display?

Resolution is the number of pixels that make up the dimensions of a display. The resolution value is given as the number of horizontal pixels by vertical pixels.

Which of the following moves storage resources off the network and reorganizes them into an independent, high-performance network?

SAN A storage area network (SAN) is a high-speed data transfer network that provides access to consolidated block-level storage. It moves storage resources off the network and reorganizes them into an independent, high-performance network. It allows server operating systems to access the shared storage list as if it were a locally attached drive. It is primarily used to enhance storage devices, such as disk arrays, tape libraries, and optical jukeboxes.

Lucy, a Chief Information Officer (CIO), has summoned an administrator due to the datacenter power bill being significantly higher than normal. The administrator explains that a new array was installed for a 15TB application. Which of the following solutions would provide a new performance benefit and also reduce power consumption?

SSD Solid State Drives (SSDs) are fixed storage devices, but they do not contain any moving parts like traditional hard drives do. They typically have fast access times and connect to the computer using a SATA connector. SSDs are extremely fast since these devices have no moving parts, eliminating seek time, latency, and other electromechanical delays inherent in conventional disk drives. SSD is faster than HDD and consumes less power than HDD.

Maria, a technician, needs to check the running configuration of a remote router securely. For this, she needs an application that utilizes which of the following protocols?

SSH Maria will use the SSH protocol to check the running configuration of a remote router securely. Secure Shell (SSH) enables a user or an application to log on to another device over a network, execute commands, and manage files. It creates a shell or session with a remote system, offers strong authentication methods, and ensures that communications are secure over insecure channels.

A storage appliance has lost the network access. Which of the following network access methods could a storage engineer use to investigate and correct the issue?

SSH Secure Shell (SSH) is a program that enables a user or an application to log on to another device over a network, execute commands, and manage files. It is used for secure data communication, remote command-line login, remote command execution, and other secure network services between two networked devices.

Henry, a technician, needs to run a diagnostic DVD on a laptop running Windows 8.1. After setting the boot order in the UEFI BIOS to the internal DVD-RW drive, the laptop still boots into Windows. Which of the following settings needs to be adjusted in order for the laptop to boot from the DVD-RW drive?

Secure boot Secure boot is a security standard developed by members of the PC industry to help make sure that a device boots using only software that is trusted by the Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM). Secure boot is a component of Microsoft's Windows 8 operating system that relies on the UEFI specification's secure boot functionality to help prevent malicious software applications and unauthorized operating systems from loading during the system start-up process.

Which of the following is commonly the main concern in public cloud implementations?

Security A public cloud provides its services over a network that is open for public use. There may be little or no difference between public and private cloud architecture; however, since the services are made available for a public audience over a potentially non-trusted network, security considerations may be substantially different. Rackspace or Amazon are examples of public clouds.

James, a technician, needs to extend the organization's remote access functionality to be used by staff while travelling. He needs to maintain separate access control functionalities for internal, external, and VoIP services. Which of the following represents the best access technology for him to use?

TACACS+ James should use the TACACS+ protocol to maintain separate access control functionalities for internal, external, and VoIP services. Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS+) is an authentication protocol that provides centralized authentication and authorization services for remote users. It uses TCP port 49 and supports multifactor authentication. It is considered more secure and more scalable than RADIUS because it accepts login requests and authenticates the access credentials of the user. TACACS+ is not compatible with TACACS because it uses an advanced version of the TACACS algorithm.

A network technician is troubleshooting an issue and has established a theory of probable cause. Which of the following steps should the network technician take next?

Test the theory to determine cause A logical, methodical approach to troubleshooting usually leads to quicker solutions, so there are certain general factors that will apply in any troubleshooting situation, these are: Identify the problem. Establish a theory of probable cause. Test the theory to determine cause. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Which of the following expansion ports would be used to enable transfer of power, data, and video to peripheral devices on an Apple computer?

Thunderbolt Thunderbolt is a standard interface developed by Intel in collaboration with Apple that allows the connection of external peripherals to an Apple computer. Thunderbolt connection is a high-speed I/O technology interface that consists of a host controller that joins together PCI-Express data and/or DisplayPort video. Thunderbolt connection can support up to six peripheral devices, including full 4K video displays, audio, external graphics, and storage devices. It is capable of delivering up to 100 watts of power, so a single cable can be used to connect to a dock or display and charge your MacBook Pro or MacBook Air simultaneously.

You're troubleshooting a connection issue between the switch and the wall jack. You go into the switch room to check if the cable is plugged into the switch but you didn't find it because none of the cables are labeled. Which of the following tools will you most likely use to find the cable?

Toner probe If you need to trace a wire in a wall from one location to another, a toner probe is the tool for you. It consists of two pieces: a tone generator and a probe. To use a toner probe, attach one end to the one end of the cable, such as the end at the computer. Then go to the patch panel with the other end of the probe to locate the cable. These are lifesavers when the cables are not properly labeled.

You're observing fine black particles on printouts and in the printer itself. Which of the following tools will you use to fix this problem?

Toner vacuum When you observe fine black particles on printouts and in the printer, the printer needs to be cleaned by using a toner vacuum. Toner vacuums are specifically designed to clean up toner within a printer. The vacuum is able to reserve the particles within the tool so that it is not dispersed back into the air. Never use a conventional vacuum cleaner to clean up toner because the particles are so small that there is a risk of them getting blown back into the air surrounding the printer. This can be harmful to your health.

A user brings his PC to a technician asking for a method to transfer data from a DVR to a DVD. Which of the following should the technician advise him to use to extract the data for archiving?

Video capture card The technician should advise the user to use a video capture card for this purpose. A video capture card provides the interface necessary for the computer to input video feeds, including digital video, and interact with software necessary to process and edit video. It allows a workstation or a computer to display and record video signals from a video recording device, such as a digital video recorder (DVR). It can also be used to convert raw video input to a format that can be shared electronically.

There are 20 laptops in a room and they all need to connect wirelessly to the network. Which of the following would be the best device to use?

WAP A wireless access point (WAP) is a device that provides connection between wireless devices and enables wireless networks to connect to wired networks. A WAP is sometimes called just an AP or a WLAN-AP. WAPs have a network interface to connect to the wired network and a radio antenna or infrared receiver to receive the wireless signals. Many include security features that enable you to specify which wireless devices can make connections to the wired network.

Martha, a customer, reports to a technician about file system errors on her external hard drive. Which of the following commands will the technician use to repair common errors on the drive?

chkdsk The chkdsk command is used to verify the logical integrity of a file system. With the /f switch, chkdsk.exe can repair the file system data. Enter chkdsk "drive letter" /f in the Run dialog box or at the command line. With the /r switch, chkdsk can locate bad sectors on the disk and recover any readable information. Entering chkdsk /? displays a list of all available switches.

The digitizer of a modern laptop computer is used to:

convert hand-drawn pictures into digital images. The digitizer is used to convert hand-drawn pictures into digital images that can be manipulated using computer software. When a laptop, smartphone, or tablet has a touchscreen display, it uses a digitizer. The digitizer is sandwiched between a layer of glass and the LCD display. Analog signals are created when you tap or swipe the surface of the display. The digitizer is connected to the laptop with a flexible digitizer cable. A grid of sensors is activated when you tap or swipe the screen. The information from the sensors is sent through the digitizer cable to a circuit that converts the analog signal to a digital signal.into digital images.

Which of the following types of cables are most likely to be used to connect to an external hard drive? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

eSATA USB 3.0 External hard drives are connected to an expansion card or an on-board motherboard port via USB 2.0 or higher, mini-USB, FireWire, SCSI, or eSATA cables and connectors. External SATA (eSATA) allows you to connect external SATA hard drives, solids state drives, and optical drives to your computer. When you have a SATA expansion card that includes an external connector, the external connector will be eSATA. USB 3.0, also called SuperSpeed USB, has enhanced power efficiency, and is backward compatible with USB enabled devices currently in use. USB 3.0 provides full duplex communication by using two unidirectional data paths for sending and receiving data simultaneously.

Which of the following connections are typically on the external PC chassis? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

eSATA and IEEE 1394 connections are typically on the external PC chassis. IEEE 1394 connection is a PC connection that provides a high-speed interface for peripheral devices that are designed to use the Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE) 1394 standard. IEEE 1394 can support up to 63 devices on one port, supports Plug-and-Play device discovery, supports hot plugging, and can provide power to devices. It is often used to connect peripherals such as external hard drives, digital cameras, and digital video camcorders. External SATA (eSATA) is an external interface for SATA connections. Like IEEE 1394, it provides a connection for external storage devices. eSATA connections provide fast data transfers without having to translate data between the device and the host computer. eSATA interfaces do require an additional power connector to function. You can provide eSATA functionality by installing eSATA cards in systems.

Which of the following is an IP-based storage networking standard for linking data storage facilities?

iSCSI Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI) is an IP-based storage networking standard for linking data storage facilities. It is used to facilitate data transfers over intranets and to manage storage over long distances by carrying SCSI commands over IP networks.

A user asks a technician to set up emails on his mobile device. The user also wants the server to retain a copy of the email. Which of the following ports should be the best for the technician to use for this purpose?

port 143 The technician should use port 143 for this purpose. TCP port 143 is used by IMAP4. It is a secure protocol designed to download email. It allows a client to remain connected to the email server after the download. It also allows a client to store the email on the server.

A junior network technician is setting up a new email server on the company network. Which of the following default ports should the technician ensure is open on the firewall so the new email server can relay email?

port 25 A junior network technician is setting up a new email server on the company network. Which of the following default ports should the technician ensure is open on the firewall so the new email server can relay email?