A&P Final Exam

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The dermis has this many cell layers in thin skin

2

A sweat gland whose duct reaches the surfaces of the skin is called? A. Merocrine sweat gland B. Endocrine gland C. Apocrine sweat gland D. Sebaceous gland

A. Merocrine sweat gland

Nerve involved in hearing (number)

CN VIII

Node of Ranvier

Gaps in the myelin sheath

This cartilage is the one associated with bones:

Hyaline cartilage

CN II

Optic Nerve

Which abdominopelvic quadrants are in contact with the diaphragm? (check ALL that apply) - Epigastric - Left hypochondriac - Right hypochondriac - Left upper - Right upper

- Left upper - Right upper

The sphenoid sinus is located in which bone? _______ Is this bone cranial or facial? _______

- Sphenoid - Cranial

CN VI

Abducens Nerve

Removal of minerals and collagen fibers from bone by osteoclasts

Bone resorption

Integrative

CNS processes sensory information by analyzing it and making decisions for appropriate responses

Triad

Formed by transverse tubules and two terminal cisternae

Butterfly shaped bone(s)

Sphenoid

Chondrocytes in this zone will undergo interstitial growth

Zone of proliferating cartilage

Plasma cells

Develop from B lymphocytes and secrete antibodies that attack and neutralize foreign substances

Creates cavities that will house important organs

Protection of internal organs

Medullary cavity

The space inside bone that houses bone marrow

CN VIII

Vestibulocochlear Nerve

This zone contains large, maturing chondrocytes arranged in columns

Zone of hypertrophic cartilage

(Upper Limb Articulations) What bones fuse to form the os coxa?

Pubis, ilium, ischium

Crista galli

Ethmoid

Where are neurotransmitters located before they are released the synaptic cleft? A. Soma B. Dendrites C. Synaptic vesicles D. Receptors E. Axon hillock

C. Synaptic vesicles

T/F: Medium and lateral aperture are openings that communicate with the subarachnoid space in the brain and in the spinal cord, the CSF produced in the choroid plexus of the ventricles leaves the ventricular system and bathe the entire surface of the central nervous system

True

Which of these types of receptors responds to pain stimuli? A. Nociceptors B. Mechanoreceptors C. Photoreceptors D. Chemoreceptors

A. Nociceptors

T/F: The nail bed is the skin below the nail plate that extends from the lunula to the hyponychium

True

The flagellum is formed by this cytoskeleton component.

Microtubules

Epigastric region

Left liver lobe, gallbladder, pancreas, and part of stomach

Tissue has no blood vessels

Epithelial tissue

_________ Ossification centers appear in the epiphyses of a long bone.

Secondary

Involuntary controlled

Smooth and cardiac muscle tissues

T/F: Myosin are known as thick filaments while tropomyosin as thin filaments

False

Developmental Biology

Complete developmental history of an individual from fertilization to death.

Lamella

Concentric sheets of bone in osteons

Large amount of extracellular material separates cells that are usually widely scattered

Connective tissue

Coxal Bone Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:

Coxal Bone - Appendicular - Paired

The cerebral aqueduct connects: A. The two lateral ventricles B. The third ventricle to the fourth ventricle C. The lateral ventricles to the third ventricle D. The fourth ventricle to the subarachnoid space

B. The third ventricle to the fourth ventricle

Trochanter

Projections for ligament and tendon attachment

The hip is ______ to the knee

Proximal

CT Scan

Similar to X-ray, but processed by a computer

Cuboidal

Square cells

Also referred to as stratum germinativum

Stratum basale

Present between cranial sutures

Sutural bones

Zygomatic process

Temporal

Lordosis

Cervical and lumbar

This plasma membrane extension is responsible for increasing cell membrane surface area

Microvilli

Cellular Level

Molecules are organized to form the basic structural and functional living units of an organism

Large numbers of _________ are found in the periosteum, which develops compact bone.

Osteoblasts

Once the perichondrium starts to form bone, it is known as _________

Periosteum

Sarcolema

Plasma membrane of a muscle fiber

Crest

Projections for ligament and tendon attachment

Tuberosity

Rough projection

Foramen

Rounded opening through which blood vessels, nerves, or ligaments pass

Forms thin serous membranes; a single layer of flattened cells.

Simple squamous epithelium

Functions in diffusion and filtration

Simple squamous epithelium

The breast is ______ to the dorsal

Ventral

Layer nearest to the epiphysis

Zone of resting cartilage

The glial cells that guide migrating neurons in the developing fetal brain are: A. Microglia B. Astrocytes C. Ependymal cells D. Satellite cells E. Oligodendrocytes

B. Astrocytes

Inferior

Below or lower in position; toward feet. (not used in reference to limbs)

Simple

General epithelium with 1 layer

This physiological processes is important for calcium absorption

Synthesis of vitamin D

Bone(s) that contain(s) the mandibular fossa

Temporal

Periosteum

The connective tissue covering/protecting the outside of bone

Epiphysis

The ends of the long bone that have articulations with other bones

Why are paranasal sinuses so susceptible to infections? _______

They are prone to accumulate mucous

The number of dermal papillae are greater in this skin type

Thick skin

Which cavities are located ventrally within the body?

Thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities

Consist of weblike strands of proteins that fuse adjacent plasma membranes to seal off passageways between cells.

Tight junction

This cell junction separates the epithelial cells into an apical portion and a basal portion

Tight junctions

CN IV

Trochlear Nerve

T/F: Fast glycolytic fibers have low myoglobin content, few blood capillaries, few mitochondria, and appear white in color

True

Vertebrae Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:

Vertebrae - Axial - Unpaired

Eccentric Isotonic Contraction

When the length of a muscle increases during a contraction

(Upper Limb Articulations) How many phalanges are there total in one hand?

14

(UL V. LL Anatomy) The elbow joint is formed by _______(number) bones; The knee is formed by _______(number) bones.

3;2

Which bands remain unchanged

A band

In _________ growth in long bone results in an increase in bone length.

Endochondral

Superior and middle nasal conchae formed from its projections

Ethmoid

Bones containing paranasal sinuses

Ethmoid, frontal, sphenoid, maxillae

Forehead bone

Frontal

Have complex shapes and vary in the amount of spongy and compact bones

Irregular bones

The lungs are ______ to the heart

Medial

(Lower Limb Articulations) This bone feature is located on the distal portion of the tibia and articulates with the talus to form part of the ankle joint.

Medial malleolus

These are the sensory receptors located in the dermal papillae are important for touch perception

Meissener's corpuscle

Provides natural sunscreen

Melanin

Hypoglossal Nerve

Motor

Which cavities are located within the thoracic cavity?

Pleural, pericardial, and mediastinum cavities

Lies at the junction between the lambdoid and sagittal sutures

Posterior fontanel

Presence of darkly staining protein granules called keratohyalin

Stratum granulosum

Sensory receptors in the integumentary system detect all, except:

Sweat

Which abdominopelvic regions are in contact with the diaphragm? (check ALL that apply) - Epigastric - Left hypochondriac - Left upper - Right upper - Right hypochondriac

- Epigastric - Left hypochondriac - Right hypochondriac

This bone feature which is present in all vertebra, except the atlas, projects posteriorly and appears thickest and most blunt in lumbar vertebra. A. Superior articulating process B. Centrum C. Spinous process D. Transverse process E. Inferior articulating process

C. Spinous process

Which of the following is a function of connective tissues? A. Produce active movement B. Stores waste C. Support, surround, and interconnect other tissue types D. Provide protection for underlying tissues E. Are completely impermeable, and therefore prevent water loss

C. Support, surround, and interconnect other tissue types

The diaphragm separates which two cavities? A. Abdominal and pelvic B. Pleural and thoracic C. Thoracic and abdominal D. Pleural and pericardial

C. Thoracic and abdominal

Contains cylindrical cells with branching ends

Cardiac muscle tissue

Displays intercalated discs

Cardiac muscle tissue

What are the types of cartilage?

Hyaline, elastic, and fibrocartilage

Condition characterized by abnormally high levels of calcium

Hypercalcemia

T/F: Lateral ventricles communicate with each other by the centrum pellucidum

False

Sarcoplasm

Surrounded by the sarcolemma; the cytoplasm of the muscle fiber

The cranial bones will serve as protection site for this organ

Brain

Which organ can be found within the cranial cavity?

Brain

Clavicle Bone Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:

Clavicle Bone - Appendicular - Paired

Central Sulcus

Separates the frontal from parietal lobes

Contractile Proteins

- Generate force during contraction - Myosin and actin

Which area of the brain was damaged? Sudden death after falling off the horse and hitting the back of the neck

Brainstem

Which of the following abducts the arm? A. Pectoralis major B. Trapezius C. Biceps brachii D. Deltoid

D. Deltoid

The process of hearing begins when sound enters the_________ A. Eustachian tube B. Tympanic membrane C. Cochlea D. External auditory canal E. Internal acoustic meatus

D. External auditory canal

T/F: Choroid plexus is only present in ventricles 3 and 4

False

This cytoskeleton component uses tubulin as their primary protein.

Microtubules

These cytoskeleton components are involved in cell division

Microtubules and microfilaments

Dorsal

Relating to the back side of the body; toward the back.

Final zone of bone growth

Zone of calcified cartilage

The bones are ______ to the skin

Deep

Clavicle

Long bone

Phagocytized by keratinocytes

Melanin

Leukemia

White blood cells

Sella turcica

Sphenoid

Tissue has significant networks of blood vessels

Connective tissue

The elongated region of a neuron that is surrounded by neuroglial cells and myelin sheathing is the _____. A. Dendrite B. Nissil bodies C. Axon D. Intercalated disc

C. Axon

Which of the following branched patterns of nerves is part of the brachial plexus? A. Superior trunk, lateral cord, axillary nerve B. Middle trunk, posterior cord, medial nerve C. Superior trunk, lateral cord, musculocutaneous nerve D. Inferior trunk, posterior cord, ulnar nerve

C. Superior trunk, lateral cord, musculocutaneous nerve

Anterior bone of the hard palate

Maxillae

Bone(s) that contain(s) the foramen magnum

Occipital

Differentiation

Process by which unspecialized cells develop into specialized cells

Formation of blood clot near injury site

Reactive phase

Sarcomere

Repeating units of a myofibril

These are the components of the cytoskeleton.

Microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules

The cilia are formed by this cytoskeleton component.

Microtubules

Anterior

Near to or at the front of the body.

Surface Anatomy

Surface markings of the body to understand the relationships of deep or internal anatomy through visualization and palpation (gentle touch).

This hormone, which is produced by the skin after sunlight exposure, will be an important calcium homeostasis regulator.

Vitamin D

Place the layers of thin epidermis on RIGHT column in order in which they appear, starting with the most superficial layer. 1 (top): 2: 3: 4 (bottom):

1 (top): Stratum corneum 2: Stratum granulosum 3: Stratum spinosum 4 (bottom): Stratum basale

The lumbar region is ______ to the abdomen

Dorsal

This plasma membrane extension is responsible for cell locomotion (movement).

Flagellum

Rib tubercle

Transverse costal facets of thoracic vertebrae

Which of the following is a fold of dura mater between the right and left cerebral hemispheres? A. Falx cerebri B. Longitudinal fissure C. Tentorium cerebelli D. Falx cerebelli

A. Falx cerebri

Which bone feature is present in the sphenoid bone? A. Sella turcica B. Foramen magnum C. Perpendicular plate D. Crista galli E. Infraorbital fissure

A. Sella turcica

The spinal cord has two principal functions in maintaining homeostasis: action potential propagation and integration of information. The _______ tracts in the spinal cord serve as the "highways" for action potential propagation. A. White matter B. Gray matter

A. White matter

What purpose do they serve in the skull? _______

Allows for skull to increase in size without changing its weight

The cartilage model produced by chondroblasts during endochondral ossification will be the site for the future _________

Diaphysis

Which of the following muscles is used to look to the right with the right eye? A. Inferior rectus B. Superior rectus C. Medial rectus D. Lateral rectus E. Inferior oblique

D. Lateral rectus

Binds organs together, stores energy reserves as fat, and protects the body due to the presence of several immune cells.

Connective tissue

The reticular layer has bundles of this thick fiber to help the skin resist stretching

Collagen fibers

This cell junction occurs in patches known as plaques and are especially important in holding cells together.

Desmosome

Macrophages

Develop from monocytes and destroy bacteria and cell debris by phagocytosis

Covers body surfaces, body cavities and ducts.

Epithelial tissue

This plasma membrane extension is responsible for propelling spermatozoa in humans.

Flagellum

T/F: BBB is also present in the choroid plexus

False

What is the cell type in nervous tissue responsible for sending and receiving messages? A. Neuron B. Neuroglial cells C. Axon D. Dendrite

A. Neuron

A term that means nearer to the attached end of a limb is said to be: A. Proximal B. Distal C. Lateral D. Superficial E. Medial

A. Proximal

Which of the following retracts the scapula? A. Rhomboid minor B. Pectoralis minor C. Serratus anterior D. Teres minor

A. Rhomboid minor

Which of the following connective tissue layers is covers all the others? A. Perimysium B. Endomysium C. Epimysium D. Hypomysium E. Sarcolemma

C. Epimysium

Fibrosis

Connective tissue thickening or scarring

This physiological process in important to make our body aware of our environment

Cutaneous sensations

The largest muscle of the upper back is the: A. Pectoralis major B. Rhomboid major C. Latissimus dorsi D. Levator scapulae E. Trapezius

E. Trapezius

In what order are the various types of skeletal muscle fibers recruited when you sprint to make it to the bus stop? First: Second: Third:

First: Slow Oxidative fibers Second: Fast Oxidative Glycolytic fibers Third: Fast Glycolytic fibers

Motor

Information is conveyed from the CNS through cranial and spinal nerves of the PNS to effectors (muscles and glands). Stimulation of the effectors causes

This tissue membrane lines the cavities of freely movable joints.

Synovial membrane

Complete the following table relating to body membranes. Enter your answers in the areas left blank. SYNOVIAL Tissue Type: _______________ Common Location(s): _______________ Functions (s): _______________

Tissue Type: Composed entirely of connective tissue Common Location(s): Lines cavities of synovial joints Functions(s): Produces lubricating fluid that reduces friction within joint cavity

Complete the following table relating to body membranes. Enter your answers in the areas left blank. CUTANEOUS Tissue Type: _______________ Common Location(s): _______________ Functions (s): _______________

Tissue Type: Epithelial epidermis and connective tissue dermis Common Location(s): Covers the body exterior Functions(s): Protection from external abrasion and water loss

Myeloma

Myeloid tissue or blood cells

Neurons that have a single axon and a single dendrite are A. Tripolar B. Bipolar C. Multipolar D. Pseudo-unipolar

B. Bipolar

The _____ suture separates the frontal and parietal bones of the skull. A. Lambdoidal B. Coronal C. Sagittal D. Squamosal

B. Coronal

Forms hormones that will transmit signals for muscle contraction

Neural tissue

Flexion of the hip is a movement produced by the A. Gluteus medius and gluteus maximus B. Gluteus maximus and vastus lateralis C. Psoas major and iliacus D. Sartorius and rectus femoris E. Piriformis and quadratus femoris

C. Psoas major and iliacus

__________ are found only in the peripheral nervous system. A. Ependymal cells B. Microglia C. Satellite cells D. Astrocytes E. Oligodendrocytes

C. Satellite cells

Which major organs are located within the pelvic cavity?

Reproductive organs and urinary bladder

Which area of the brain was damaged? Luis has trouble matching a face with a person

Occipital Lobe

Which bony structure protects the pelvic cavity?

Pelvis

Crest

Prominent ridge

Which of the following cells are in charge of bone resorption? A. Osteoblasts B. Osteoclasts C. Osteons D. Macrophages E. Osteocytes

B. Osteoclasts

These sensory receptors initiate signals that produce sensations of warmth, coolness, pain, tickling and itching

Free nerve endings

These cells form the mesenchyme.

Mesenchymal cells

What muscle causes flexion of the neck?A. External intercostals B. Mylohyoid C. Sternohyoid D. Splenius capitis E. Sternocleidomastoid

E. Sternocleidomastoid

T/F: The skin consists of the epidermis, the dermis and the hypodermis.

False

White Matter

Area of brain and spinal cord composed primarily of myelinated axons

Digital Subtraction Angiography

Similar to a CT scan with the addition of dye for contrast

Sarcoma

Connective tissue

Movement

Includes motion of entire body, individual organs, single cells, or even structures inside cells

Body releases calcium when calcium blood levels are too:

Low

If you were to find glial cells in white matter (Information processing in CNS) which ones will be located in this area? In you think there are no glial cells in this location, then select the answer choice "none" A. Schwann cells B. Oligodendrocytes C. Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes D. Satellite cells E. None

B. Oligodendrocytes

The ethmoid sinus is located in which bone? _______ Is this bone cranial or facial? _______

- Ethmoid - Cranial

The frontal sinus is located in which bone? _______ Is this bone cranial or facial? _______

- Frontal - Cranial

Choose ALL components that belong to the cardiovascular system. (multiple answers may apply) - Kidneys - Heart - Bronchial tubes - Blood vessels - Blood

- Heart - Blood vessels - Blood

Regulatory Proteins

- Help switch contraction process on and off - Tropomyosin and troponin

bone 3 _______ and suture that unites this bone to the left parietal bone is the _______ suture

- Left temporal bone - Squamous

Which of the following tissue membranes is classified as an epithelial membrane? (check ALL that apply) - Synovial membrane - Cutaneous membrane - Mucous membrane - Serous membrane

- Mucous membrane - Serous membrane - Cutaneous membrane

bone 4 _______ and suture that unites this bone to the left parietal bone is the _______ suture.

- Occipital bone - Lambdoidal

__________ (sensory, motor)input travels along these tracts toward the brain, and _________ (motor, sensory) output travels from the brain along these tracts toward skeletal muscles and other effector tissues. fill in the blanks with one of the answer choices in the parenthesis

- Sensory - Motor

Damage to this nerve would not allow a person to look "down and laterally"

Trochlear

(Upper Limb Articulations) The humeral trochlea articulates with the _______ of the _______ bone.

Trochlear notch; ulna

T/F: Arachnoid mater protects blood vessels that supply the brain

True

T/F: The hypodermis consists of adipose and areolar connective tissues.

True

A 43- year old male presents with a racing heartbeat and severe constipation. Which cranial nerve has been affected?

Vagus

CN X

Vagus Nerve

Which bony structure protects the vertebral cavity?

Vertebral canal

Which cranial nerve's primary function is balance and equilibrium?

Vestibulocochlear

Which bone feature of the scapula is posterior? A. Acromion B. Subscapular fossa C. Coracoid process D. Glenoid fossa

A. Acromion

Which action is performed by most of the muscles located on the anterior compartment of the forearm? A. Flexion B. Abduction C. Extension D. Supination E. Pronation

A. Flexion

The chest is ______ to the dorsal

Anterior

Lies at the intersection of the frontal, sagittal, and coronal sutures

Anterior fontanel

Coordinating skeletal muscle movements and maintaining equilibrium are two of several important functions of the: A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum C. Diencephalon D. Mesencephalon

B. Cerebellum

The limbic system: A. Has recently evolved B. Is associated with basic survival instincts of nutrition, memory, and reproduction C. Controls voluntary movements of the arms and legs D. Is a memory area in the midbrain E. Includes the brainstem

B. Is associated with basic survival instincts of nutrition, memory, and reproduction

Epithelial cells present in pseudostratified epithelium have which shape? A. Starts round and ends up flat B. Rectangular C. Flat D. Cuboidal E. Round

B. Rectangular

A _________(blank 1) is the brief contraction of a group of muscle fibers within a muscle in response to a _________(blank 2) action potential. The record of a muscle contraction is called a _________(blank 3). Twitches of skeletal muscle fibers last anywhere from _________(blank 4) msec. The three sequential phases of a twitch are: _________(blank 5) periods.

Blank 1: Twitch Blank 2: Single Blank 3: Myogram Blank 4: A few to 100 Blank 5: Latent, contraction, and relaxation

These structures present in the dermis are essential for the survival of the epidermis

Blood vessels

Serves as framework for supporting soft tissues

Body support

Fossa

Bone depression

Meatus

Bone opening

Facial Nerve

Both or mixed

Vagus Nerve

Both or mixed

Relaxation Period

Ca2+ is actively transported back into the SR, myosin-binding sites are covered by tropomyosin, myosin heads detach from actin, and tension in the muscle fiber decreases

(Additional Structures) The ligament on the plantar portion of the foot that puts an extra "spring" in your step connects what two tarsal bones together?

Calcaneus; navicular

Tissue of the circulatory pump

Cardiac muscle tissue

What are the types of supporting connective tissue?

Cartilage and bone

Synchondrosis structure _______ and function _______

Cartilaginous joint Amphiarthrosis/ synarthrosis

Mast cells main functions is to:

Cause vasodilation and loosen up the endothelial cells in the blood vessels

Which area of the brain was damaged? Anita is a professional dancer. Lately she has had trouble coordinating her movements

Cerebellum

Proximal

Closer to the attachment of a limb to the trunk; closer to the origin of a structure.

Fracture of the radius

Colles fracture

May be located internally as it covers organs, or externally as it covers the entire body. It also forms glands that will help in secretion.

Covers Body Surfaces

Which cavities are located dorsally within the body?

Cranial and vertebral cavities

The apical surface of this membrane is exposed to the external environment and is covered with dead, keratinized cells that help protect the body from desiccation and pathogens.

Cutaneous membrane

Where would the cell body of the pseudounipolar neuron be located? A. Spinal cord B. Thalamus C. Cerebrum D. Dorsal root ganglion E. Skin

D. Dorsal root ganglion

The axon of the Purkinje cells are located in the: A. Purkinje cell layer B. Axonic layer C. Molecular layer D. Granular cell layer

D. Granular cell layer

Which protein covers the active sites of the thin filaments, and therefore prevents muscle contaction? A. Troponin B. Actin C. Myosin D. Tropomyosin

D. Tropomyosin

(Additional Structures) This rough spot on the lateral side of the humerus is a muscle attachment for a major muscle in the shoulder

Deltoid tuberosity

The superior trunk originates from the branches of which cervical nerve? A. C3-C5 B. C1-C5 C. C5-T1 D. C5-C8 E. C5 and C6

E. C5 and C6

Which of these is NOT a region of the spinal cord? A. Cervical B. Sacral C. Thoracic D. Lumbar E. Pelvic

E. Pelvic

This is another word for swelling

Edema

Always forms surface layers and is not covered by another tissue, except within blood vessels

Epithelial tissue

Palpation

Examination by pressing on the surface of the body to feel the organs or tissues underneath

Distal

Farther from the attachment of a limb to the trunk; farther from the origin of a structure.

Lateral

Farther from the midline.

Femur Bone Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:

Femur Bone - Appendicular - Paired

Syndesmosis structure _______ and function _______

Fibrous joint Amphiarthrosis

Composed of parallel plates of compact bone enclosing a layer of spongy bone

Flat bones

Frontal Bone Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:

Frontal Bone - Axial - Unpaired

Bone(s) connected by the coronal suture

Frontal and parietal

Cranial Bones

Frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid

Microglia

Function as phagocytes. They remove cellular debris formed during normal development of the nervous system phagocytize microbes and damaged

The __________ (gray matter, white matter)of the spinal cord receives and integrates incoming and outgoing information. fill in the blanks with one of the answer choices in the parenthesis

Gray Matter

Integrating Center

Gray matter within the brain stem or spinal cord that processes the incoming sensory information.

Partial fracture where only one side of the bone is fractured

Greenstick fracture

Sulcus

Groove along a bone surface that accomodates a blood vessel, nerve, or tendon

Which two major organs are located within the thoracic cavity?

Heart and lungs

Attach the epithelial cells to the basal lamina through adhesion proteins known as integrins.

Hemidesmosomes

Found within red blood cells in blood vessels

Hemoglobin

Most responsible for the skin color of light-skinned (Caucasian) individuals, especially after intense exercising

Hemoglobin

Embryology

In humans, the first eight weeks of development after fertilization of the egg.

Within the physiological processes of protection, this substance protects the body due to cellularity of keratinocytes

Keratin

List all cells that you would find in each cell layer listed below. Stratum spinosum

Keratinocytes and Langerhan cells

List all cells that you would find in each cell layer listed below. Stratum granulosum

Keratinocytes only

Fibroblasts

Large flat cells that move through connective tissue and secrete fibers and ground substance

Pyramidal Cells

Large neurons that allow the conscious control of the skeletal muscle movement

Within the physiological processes of protection, the presence of this substance will protect the skin from dehydration due to its presence causing an inhibition of water evaporation

Lipids

Auscultation

Listening to sounds of the body during a physical examination using a stethoscope

Endochondral ossification occurs in _________ bones

Long

Bones that have greater length than width

Long bones

Special categories are given to diarthroses (synovial joints), based on motion. Define the words below briefly. Monaxial Biaxial Triaxial

Monaxial -->Also known as uniaxial. Allow motion around a single axis Biaxial --> Permit movement in 2 axes Triaxial --> Also known as multiaxial. Permits movement in 3 axis

Umbilical region

Most of transverse colon and jejunum

Abducens Nerve

Motor

Oculomotor Nerve

Motor

What is the primary function of the abducens nerve?

Motor

Allows for organ movements within the body.

Muscular tissue

Allows you to smile, grasp, swim, ski, and shoot an arrow.

Muscular tissue

Cells of this tissue shorten to exert force.

Muscular tissue

Composed of specialized cells that function in contraction and is able to generate force.

Muscular tissue

Packages and protects body organs.

Muscular tissue

Forms the brain and spinal cord.

Neural tissue

Transmits electrochemical impulses.

Neural tissue

Occurs at an angle that is not 90 degrees

Oblique fracture

Hypoglossal canal

Occipital

Occipital Bone Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:

Occipital Bone - Axial - Unpaired

CN III

Oculomotor Nerve

Paranasal sinuses increase in size during two critical periods of facial enlargement, which are: _______

Onset of puberty and teeth eruption

Calcium homeostasis is regulated by:

Parathyroid hormone, vitamin D, and calcitonin

Much of the lateral superior part of the skull

Parietal

The blood vessels that supply nutrients to the chondrocytes are present in the: _________ and not in the _________

Perichondrium, matrix

Although all synovial joints share many characteristics in common, the shapes of the articulating surfaces vary; thus, many types of movements are possible. In most joint movements, one bone remains in a fixed position while the other moves around an axis. Synovial joints are divided into six special classification based on type of movement: plane, hinge, pivot, condyloid, saddle, and ball-and-socket. Assign one of the three types of motion for each special classification. Plane Joint Pivot & Hinge Joints Saddle & Condyloid Joints Ball-and-Socket Joint

Plane Joint --> Biaxial & Triaxial Pivot & Hinge Joints --> Monoaxial/uniaxial Saddle & Condyloid Joints-->Biaxial Ball-and-Socket Joint --> Triaxial

Present of pockets

Pneumatized bones

Epicondyle

Projections for ligament and tendon attachment

Release of this hormone will from injured cells activates pain receptors.

Prostaglandins

(Additional Structures) What structure is the patella encased in and formed inside of?

Quadriceps femoris tendon

Torn blood vessels cross the fracture line

Reactive phase

Changes in skin color can tell you a lot about an individual. Of the characteristics listed below, what colored skin would you expect to see on individuals that present these conditions or situations. Here are the color options: blue, brown, orange, red. Is a result of blood vessels in the dermis and a function of the thickness of epidermis:

Red

Production of blood cells occurs in this connective tissue

Red bone marrow

What are the two classifications of dense connective tissue proper?

Regular and irregular

Organ System Level

Related organs are organized into functionally related groups of organs that cooperate to perform a common general function.

Frontal Lobe

Related to conscious control of skeletal muscle, and trouble solving, reasoning and planning

Occipital Lobe

Related to perception of visual stimuli

Formation of fibrocartilaginous callus

Reparative phase

Positive feedback loop

Results in a change in the body's status, rather than a return to homeostasis

Check all that apply with regards to the ribs. Ribs 1-7: Ribs 8-10: Ribs 11-12: Bone feature that articulates with the vertebrae: Bone feature that articulates with the sternum: Type of vertebrae that the ribs articulate with:

Ribs 1-7: Vertebrosternal Ribs 8-10: Vertebrochondral Ribs 11-12: Vertebral Bone feature that articulates with the vertebrae: Head & tubercle Bone feature that articulates with the sternum: Sternal end Type of vertebrae that the ribs articulate with: Thoracic

Tarsals

Short and irregular

(UL V. LL Anatomy) The _______joint in the upper limb is more mobile than the _______joint in the lower limb.

Shoulder; hip

Functions in secretion and absorption

Simple cuboidal and columnar epithelium

Found attached to bones

Skeletal muscle tissue

Voluntary controlled

Skeletal muscle tissue

Contains spindle-shaped cells

Smooth muscle tissue

Controls blood flow through arteries and veins.

Smooth muscle tissue

Found in the walls of stomach, uterus, and arteries

Smooth muscle tissue

Located in the walls of hollow internal organs

Smooth muscle tissue

Facet

Smooth, flat articular surface

Lies at the junctions between the squamous and coronal sutures

Sphenoid fontanel

The vertebral canal will serve as protection site for this structure

Spinal cord

Which structure can be found within the vertebral cavity?

Spinal cord

Adipocytes

Store fats and found below the skin and around organs (heart, kidney)

Stores substances that contributes to bone strength

Stores and releases minerals

Pathological Anatomy

Structural changes (from gross to microscopic) associated with disease.

Systemic Anatomy

Structure of specific systems of the body such as the nervous or respiratory systems.

Gross Anatomy

Structures that can be examined without using a microscope.

Another term for hypodermis is:

Subcutaneous layer

The parietal pleura is ______ to the lungs

Superficial

The chin is ______ to the neck

Superior

Head of rib

Superior and inferior costal facets of thoracic vertebrae

Endosteum

The connective tissue layer covering the inside of bone (one cell thick)

Superficial

Toward or on the surface of the body.

T/F: The meningeal layer is the part of the dura mater that covers the brain and extends into the vertebral canal

True

T/F: The nail body or plate is the visible part of the nail that is compared to the stratum corneum.

True

Trabecular bone

Type of bone with many spaces. Lighter, organized into trabeculae

The skin prevents dehydration by reducing:

Water loss

Presence of mostly dead chondrocytes

Zone of calcified cartilage

This zone will become the new diaphysis

Zone of calcified cartilage

Cheek bone

Zygomatic

This adhesion molecule projects through the cell membrane of desmosomes to link with the same molecule of neighboring epithelial cells.

cadherins

This cell junction holds epithelial cells to the basal lamina.

hemidesmosome

This adhesion molecule holds the epithelial cells to the basal lamina.

integrins

This cytoskeleton component is responsible for cell shape maintenance

intermediate filaments

From the answer choices below, check which are the cardinal signs of inflammation. (check ALL that apply) - Redness - Angiogenesis - Local heat - Vasodilation - Swelling - Pain

- Redness - Local heat - Swelling - Pain

Place the intramembranous ossification events listed on RIGHT column in the order in which they occur. 1: 2: 3: 4: 5: 6:

1: Mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoprogenitor cells, which then differentiate into osteoblasts 2: Organic extracellular matrix is secreted by osteoblasts 3: Calcification of extracellular matrix forming ossification center 4: Extracellular matrix develops into trabeculae that come together to form spongy bone 5: Formation of periosteum from peripheral mesenchyme 6: Osteoblasts from periosteum deposit compact bone between periosteum and spongy bone

The dermis has this many cell layers in thick skin

2

The nerve branching off of C5 can belong to both the _________ and ________ plexuses. A. Cervical; brachial B. Brachial; lumbar C. Cervical; thoracic D. Cervical; phrenic E. Lumbar; sacral

A. Cervical; brachial

Where in your body can you find nerve cells? (pick best answer) A. Everywhere B. Brain C. Spinal cord D. Epidermis

A. Everywhere

This cell junction might use either cadherins or integrins to hold epithelial cells in place

Adherns junction

Are chemicals that bind toad stimulate the receptors in the olfactory cilia A. Umami B. Odorants C. Tastants D. Glutamate

B. Odorants

Which cranial nerve has a direct attachment to the cerebrum? A. Optic B. Olfactory C. Vagus D. Facial E. Hypoglossal

B. Olfactory

What is the largest mass of neuronal cell bodies found within the central nervous system? A. Hypothalamus B. Cerebellum C. Thalamus D. Pineal Gland

C. Thalamus

Cell Biology

Cellular structure and function.

Separates the frontal bone from the parietal bones

Coronal suture

Gaps or interruptions in the myelin sheath are called A. Internodes B. Tight junctions C. Neurofilaments D. Nodes of Ranvier E. Gap junctions

D. Nodes of Ranvier

Sensory Neuron

Depolarization triggers one or more action potentials in the axon of a sensory neuron that propagate along the axon into the CNS.

The surface of the papillary layer of the dermis has these fingerlike structures that projects into the bottom surface of the epidermis

Dermal papillae

Supraorbital foramen

Frontal

Stratified

General epithelium with more than one cell layer

Choose the best answers with regards to the hypodermis Helps delay heat loss from body by:

Insulation

This cytoskeleton component uses keratin as their primary protein.

Intermediate filaments

(UL V. LL Anatomy) In both the upper and lower limb, there is a joint between the two bones of the forearm and leg formed by a sheet of fibrous connective tissue. What is this tissue called?

Interosseous membrane

Tiny bones that contain tear ducts

Lacrimal

(Lower Limb Articulations) The lateral femoral condyle articulates with which bone feature?

Lateral tibial condyle

Mandibular condyle

Mandible

Which cavity consists of a mass of connective tissue that surrounds, stabilizes, and supports the esophagus, trachea, thymus and major blood vessels leaving the heart?

Mediastinum

This nerve takes sensory information directly to the brain without having to pass through the thalamus

Olfactory

CN I

Olfactory Nerve

This branch of CN V carries only sensory fibers and innervates the eye.

Ophthalmic

When trapped in lacunae, osteoblasts become _________

Osteocytes

The protective layer that covers the cartilage is called:

Perichondrium

Fracture of the fibular with serious implications of the ankle joint

Pott's fracture

This is the first cardinal sign of the inflammatory process.

Redness

Metabolism

Refers to all chemical reactions occurring in the body

Damaged or lost superficial epithelial cells are replaced by deeper dividing cells.

Regeneration

Fibrocartilage converted into spongy bone

Reparative phase

Which bony structure protects the thoracic cavity?

Ribcage

Right hypochondriac region

Right liver lobe

Olfactory Nerve

Sensory

This tissue membrane forms the mesenteries that suspend many digestive organs

Serous membrane

Movement of bone and/or skin

Skeletal muscle tissue

Multinucleated

Skeletal muscle tissue

(Additional Structures) The most medial portion of the clavicle is called the

Sternal end

Presence of lipids in yellow bone marrow

Stores and releases triglycerides

Lines the esophagus and forms the skin epidermis. stratified squamous epithelium

Stratified squamous epithelium

Within the physiological processes of protection, the presence of these structures will secrete a substance that will prevent the growth of microbes due to its acidity.

Sweat glands

This tissue membrane lines the joints of shoulder, elbow and knee.

Synovial membrane

Controlling the activity of the glands leads to:

Temperature regulation

Diaphysis

The elongated shaft/body of a long bone

Choose ALL functions that belong to the respiratory system. (multiple answers may apply) - Plays role in immune response - Transports nutrients throughout the body - Production of sound from air passage through glottis - Transfers oxygen from inhaled air to blood and carbon dioxide from blood to exhaled air - Regulates body activities by releasing hormones - Helps regulate acid-base balance of body fluids

- Production of sound from air passage through glottis - Transfers oxygen from inhaled air to blood and carbon dioxide from blood to exhaled air - Helps regulate acid-base balance of body fluids

Choose ALL functions that belong to the endocrine system. (multiple answers may apply) - Helps regulate acid-base balance of body fluids - Regulates body activities by releasing hormones - Regulates body temperature - Removes foreign substances from blood and lymph - Plays role in immune response

- Regulates body activities by releasing hormones

One way the spinal cord promotes homeostasis is by propagating action potentials along tracts. The name of a tract often indicates its position in the white matter and where it begins and ends. Using this knowledge, select the location, the beginning and end of each tract and the function. Dorsal columns - location in white column ___________(anterior, posterior, ventrolateral, dorsolateral); beginning _________(spinal cord, thalamus, cerebral cortex, cerebellum ) ; ends __________(cerebellum, cerebral cortex, thalamus, spinal cord) ; function_______(motor, sensory). fill in the blanks with one of the answer choices in the parenthesis.

- Posterior - Spinal Cord - Thalamus - Sensory

Stabilizing body positions

- Postural muscles contract continuously when you are awake - Help maintain body positions, such as standing or sitting

Storing and moving substances

- Sustained contraction of a ring-like smooth muscle called sphincter - Propelling food down the digestive tract

The maxillary sinus is located in which bone? _______ Is this bone cranial or facial? _______

- Maxillae - Facial

Choose ALL functions that belong to the cardiovascular system. (multiple answers may apply) - Regulates body temperature - Transports nutrients, waste products, gases, and hormones throughout the body - Helps regulate production of red blood cells - Plays role in immune response - Transfers oxygen from inhaled air to blood and carbon dioxide from blood to exhaled air

- Regulates body temperature - Transports nutrients, waste products, gases, and hormones throughout the body - Plays role in immune response

What bone makes up the superior portion of the lateral side of the cranium A. Occipital bone B. Parietal bone C. Frontal bone D. Temporal bone E. Zygomatic bone

B. Parietal bone

Glossopharyngeal Nerve

Both or mixed

Having a matrix is a characteristic of which type of tissue? A. Cardiac B. Neural C. Connective D. Epithelial E. Muscular

C. Connective

Shortest nerve of the body (number)

CN I

Atrophy

Decrease in tissue mass due to lack of use or nutritional abnormalities

Occurs in patches on cell's membrane through adhesion molecules known as cadherins.

Desmosomes

Muscles attached to bones pull bones

Facilitates movement

CN IX

Glossopharyngeal Nerve

Vertebrae

Irregular

Calcitonin stimulates the activity of:

Osteoblasts

Presence of this nerve cell:

Pacinian corpuscle

Sacrum Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:

Sacrum - Axial - Unpaired

Which bony structure protects the cranial cavity?

Skull

Head

Usually rounded articular projection supported on the neck of a bone

Temporal process

Zygomatic

What is the function of these ossicles? A. Transmit and amplify vibrations from tympanic membrane towards oval window B. Cartilages that collect sound waves and directs them to external auditory canal C. Transmit and amplify vibrations from tympanic membrane towards round window D. Transmit and amplify vibrations from Eustachian tube towards oval window

A. Transmit and amplify vibrations from tympanic membrane towards oval window

Regeneration

Action or process of creating new cells

Forman

Bone opening

Myelinated Axons

Axons in the CNS and PNS that have a myelin sheath

What is represented as a single muscle cell? A. Skeletal muscle B. Muscle fiber C. Sarcomere D. Muscle fascicle

B. Muscle fiber

Fill in the blank below. Make sure to match the number on the questions, with the number on the answers. The central nervous system (CNS) consists of the __________(blank 1) located in the cranial cavity and __________(blank 2) located in the __________(blank 3) cavity. The CNS processes many different kinds of incoming sensory information. It is also the source of thoughts, emotions, and memories. Most signals that stimulate __________(blank 4) to contract and __________(blank 5) to secrete originate in the CNS. The __________(blank 6) system consists of all nervous tissue outside the CNS. A __________(blank 7) (general type) receptor is a structure that monitors changes in the external or internal environment.

Blank 1: Brain Blank 2: Spinal Cord Blank 3: Vertebral Blank 4: Muscles Blank 5: Glands Blank 6: Peripheral nervous Blank 7: Sensory

What are the types of fluid connective tissue?

Blood and lymph

Necrosis

Cell death due to disease, injury or lack of blood supply

Lucy experienced a concussion recently and as a result, is gradually losing her eyesight. The doctor says this is because of the compression of a nerve. Which nerve (number) is being compressed?

CN II

Found predominantly in the stratum corneum

Carotene

Osteocyte

Cell that maintains living bone tissue *Mature bone cell

Collectively as a group, the muscles of the anterior thigh that work together to extend the leg are referred to as: A. Hamstrings B. Rectus femoris C. Gluteus maximus D. Quadriceps femoris

D. Quadriceps femoris

T/F: A saltwater solution is secreted by sebaceous glands

False - A saltwater solution is secreted by SWEAT GLANDS

Chondrocytes are present inside these spaces that are called:

Lacunae

Cranial

Relating to the skull or head; towards the head.

Left hypochondriac region

Right side of stomach

Separates right and left parietal bones

Sagittal suture

Abnormal lateral curvature of the spine

Scoliosis

Damage to the optic nerve impedes what kind of primary function?

Sensory

Presence of membrane-enclosed lamellar granules that release a lipid-rich secretion

Stratum granulosum

T/F: A thin filament contains actin, troponin, and tropomyosin

True

Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

Uses radio waves that is processed by a computer

What are the different categories of tissues found in our body? (check ALL that apply) - Integumentary tissue - Connective tissue - Nervous tissue - Cardiac tissue - Muscular tissue - Epithelial tissue

- Connective tissue - Nervous tissue - Muscular tissue - Epithelial tissue

An impulse from the olfactory nerve can go to all of the following EXCEPT? A. Cerebellum B. Cerebral cortex C. Thalamus D. Limbic system E. Hypothalamus

A. Cerebellum

The pubic symphysis unites which two bones? A. Right and left pubis B. Right and left ilium C. Right and left ischium D. Ilium to the sacrum E. Sacrum to the coccyx

A. Right and left pubis

The motor command leaves through the: A. Ventral root B. Dorsal root C. Dorsal root ganglion D. Posterior root

A. Ventral root

Elasticity

Ability of muscle to return to its original length and shape after contraction or extension

Extensibility

Ability of muscle to stretch without being damaged

Aponeurosis: A. Attach muscle to muscle, only B. Consists of collagen fibers C. Consists of cartilage D. Attach muscle to bone, only

B. Consists of collagen fibers

The outside lining of bone that helps it attach to fascia and circulatory components is the: A. Perimetrium B. Endosteum C. Endometrium D. Periosteum E. Connective tissue

D. Periosteum

Which two bones/bone features come together to form the nasal septum? A. Ethmoid bone and sphenoid bone B. Crista galli and perpendicular plate C. Ethmoid bone and perpendicular plate D. Perpendicular plate and vomer E. Nasal bone and vomer bone

D. Perpendicular plate and vomer

The synovial joint between the atlas and axis is a: A. Ellipsoidal joint B. Ball-and-socket joint C. Hinge joint D. Pivot joint

D. Pivot joint

The gastrocnemius acts to do the following: A. Dorsiflex the ankle and flex the knee B. Extend and adduct the femur C. Dorsiflex the ankle and extend the knee D. Plantar flex the ankle and flex the knee

D. Plantar flex the ankle and flex the knee

The _________(blank 1) is composed of mesencephalon, pons, and medulla oblongata. _________(blank 2) also called midbrain and it is related to extrinsic eyes movements _________(blank 3) relay station between cerebellum and cerebrum. _________(blank 4) connects the brain and the spinal cord.

Blank 1: Brainstem Blank 2: Mesencephalon Blank 3: Pons Blank 4: Medulla oblongata

The blood- brain barrier: A. Permits passage of foreign substances from the blood to the neurons B. Prohibits the transport of amino acids and glucose to the neurons C. Prohibits the removal of waste materials from the neurons D. Protects neurons from toxic substances in the blood E. Does not prevent fluctuations in the composition of the blood from affecting the functions of the brain

D. Protects neurons from toxic substances in the blood

Which muscle extends the torso? A. Psoas major B. External oblique C. Splenius capitis D. Spinalis

D. Spinalis

Which of the following cells stimulate local inflammation? A. Fixed macrophages B. Mesenchymal cells C. Mast cells D. Lymphocytes

C. Mast cells

The vestibulocochlear nerve (N VIII): A. Has motor neurons that are located within an adjacent ganglion, and their axons target the vestibular of the medulla oblongata B. Is involved with the consensual light reflex C. Reaches the sensory receptors of the inner ear by entering the internal acoustic meatus along with the facial nerve (N VII) D. Medial to the origin of the facial nerve (N VII), straddling the boundary between the pons and the medulla oblongata

C. Reaches the sensory receptors of the inner ear by entering the internal acoustic meatus along with the facial nerve (N VII)

Right iliac region

Cecum and appendix

These cells are involved in appositional growth:

Chondroblasts

These cells are involved in interstitial growth:

Chondrocytes

This plasma membrane extension is located in most of the respiratory tract

Cilia

What are the two types of bone tissue?

Compact and spongy

Which of the following are parts of neurons? A. Dendrite, medulla and myelin sheath B. Brain, spinal cord, and vertebral column C. Sensory and motor dendrites D. Dendrite, axon, and cell body

D. Dendrite, axon, and cell body

The length of the resting sarcomere is: A. Longer than the length of a contracted sarcomere B. Shorter than the length of a contracted sarcomere. C. The same length as a contracted sarcomere D. The same length as the muscle fiber E. The same length as the myofibril

D. The same length as the muscle fiber

Which of the following muscles is named for its shape A. Pectoralis major B. Adductor pollicis C. Vastus lateralis D. Trapezius E. Pectoralis minor

D. Trapezius

T/F: Dura mater is the toughest out the 3 meninges and contours every gyrus of cerebral cortex

False

What is the name of the condition in which the canal of Schlemm is blocked?

Glaucoma

Where will the secretions from the paranasal sinuses drain? _______

Lateral wall of nasal cavity

This cytoskeleton component is the thickest of them all.

Microtubules

These cytoskeleton components are responsible for the formation of plasma membrane extensions

Microtubules and microfilaments

Accessory Nerve

Motor

The dermis in made up of these cell layers. (place them in order, with the first one being closer to the surface)

Papillary and reticular

Uneven distribution of organelles within the cell due to the presence of an apical surface (faces exterior of body) and a basal surface (attached to adjacent tissue).

Polarity

Oligodendrocytes

Produce myelin sheaths in the CNS

Schwann Cells

Produce myelin sheaths in the PNS

Scapula Bone Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:

Scapula Bone - Appendicular - Paired

Concerned with locomotion of the body as a whole

Skeletal muscle tissue

Contains long, non-branching cylindrical cells

Skeletal muscle tissue

Elastic fibers

Stretchable but strong fibers made of proteins, elastin, and fibrillin. They are found in skin, blood vessels, and lung tissue

Complete the following table relating to body membranes. Enter your answers in the areas left blank. MUCOUS Tissue Type: _______________ Common Location(s): _______________ Functions (s): _______________

Tissue Type: Epithelial sheet on top of connective tissue called lamina propria Common Location(s): Lines respiratory, digestive, urinary and reproductive tracts Functions(s): Protection, lubrication, secretion and absorption

T/F: Myosin functions as a motor protein in all three types of muscle tissue

True

Choose ALL components that belong to the integumentary system. (multiple answers may apply) - Ureters - Sweat glands - Nails - Hair - Skin - Tonsils

- Sweat glands - Nails - Hair - Skin

(UL V. LL Anatomy) There are _______(number) carpals and _______(number) tarsals in one side of the body.

8;7

Which structure gives us the unique characteristics of fingerprints? A. Epidermal ridges B. Epidermis C. Hypodermis D. Stratum germinativum E. Langerhans

A. Epidermal ridges

The sciatic nerve eventually branches into which nerves? A. Tibial and fibular nerves B. Common fibular and tibial nerves C. Deep and superficial fibular nerves D. Obturator and femoral nerves

A. Tibial and fibular nerves

Unmyelinated Axons

Axons in the CNS and PNS that do not have or have little myelin sheath

T/F: Sebum is an oily mixture of lipids, cholesterol, and cell fragments.

True

Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression and several glands, and conducts gustatory impulses from the anterior part of the tongue? A. Trigeminal B. Facial C. Glossopharyngeal D. Hypoglossal

B. Facial

What are the three ossicles? Place them in order from the outer most to the inner most A. Malleus, stapes, incus B. Malleus, incus, stapes C. Stapes, incus, malleus D. Incus, stapes, malleus

B. Malleus, incus, stapes

Choose ALL components that belong to the urinary system. (multiple answers may apply) - Gallbladder - Spleen - Urinary bladder - Urethra - Ureters - Kidneys

- Urinary bladder - Urethra - Ureters - Kidneys

Ribs

Flat bone

T Tubules

Invaginations of the sarcolemma; filled with extracellular fluid

The microvilli is formed by this cytoskeleton component.

Microfilament

Debris removal from injury site by neutrophils, macrophages and osteoclasts

Reactive phase

Which of the bone features below is found in the sacrum? (choose ALL that apply) - Ala - Hiatus - Canal - Dens - Articular facet - Foramen - Spinous process

- Ala - Hiatus - Canal - Articular facet - Foramen

Which cavities are located within the abdominopelvic cavity?

Abdominal and pelvic cavities

Inherited inability of an individual to produce melanin

Albinism

An amphiarthrosis is defined as a: A. Joint that allows no motion B. Joint that is freely movable C. Joint with multiple axes of motion D. Joint that allows some motion

D. Joint that allows some motion

The umbilicus is ______ to the forearm

Medial

T/F: Slow oxidative fibers are smallest in diameter and are the least powerful type of muscle fibers

True

Lower portion of the nasal septum

Vomer

Vision problems

Albinism

Contraction Period

Ca2+ binds to troponin, myosin-binding sites on actin are exposed, and myosin cross bridges form. Peak tension also develops in the muscle fiber

This cell junction allows electrical and metabolic coupling of adjacent epithelial cells

Gap junctions

Arranged in 8-10 cell layers of keratinocytes.

Stratum spinosum

Changes shape as the tissue stretches

Transitional epithelium

This is the longest nerve; it innervates the digestive system (number).

CN X

Movement of blood through the heart and into the arteries.

Cardiac muscle tissue

Glycogen

Serves as storage form of glucose; can be broken down and used to synthesize ATP

Chondrocytes in this zone divide to replace dying cells of epiphyseal plate that face diaphysis

Zone of proliferating cartilage

Specialized cells that line blood vessels

Endothelium

Os coxa

Flat and irregular

Derives from this embryonic layer

Mesodermal layer

This cytoskeleton component is the thinnest of them all.

Microfilaments

Single nucleus in each cell

Smooth and cardiac muscle tissues

(Lower Limb Articulations) Femoral head articulates with which bone feature?

Acetabulum

Use either cadherins or integrins depending on whether they are linking to other cells or to the matrix.

Adherns junctions

Histology

Microscopic structure of tissues.

Choose ALL functions that belong to the lymphatic system. (multiple answers may apply) - Removes foreign substances from blood and lymph - Regulates body temperature - Maintains tissue fluid balance - Carries lipids from GI tract to blood - Helps to regulate production of red blood cells - Combats diseases

- Removes foreign substances from blood and lymph - Maintains tissue fluid balance - Carries lipids from GI tract to blood - Combats diseases

Which of the following tissue membranes is classified as a connective tissue membrane? (check ALL that apply) - Synovial membrane - Cutaneous membrane - Mucous membrane - Serous membrane

- Synovial membrane

Choose ALL components that belong to the endocrine system. (multiple answers may apply) - Thymus - Hypothalamus - Adrenal Glands - Sweat Glands - Spleen - Gonads - Pancreas

- Thymus - Hypothalamus - Adrenal Glands - Gonads - Pancreas

The olfactory nerves exit the cranium through the: A. Optic foramen B. Olfactory bulbs C. Cribriform plate D. Nasal conchae

C. Cribriform plate

Metaplasia

Change in cell type with an organ or tissue due to environmental changes

Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by: A. Proprioceptors B. Interoceptors C. Photoreceptors D. Nociceptors

D. Nociceptors

Hyperplasia

Enlargement of organ or tissue due to increase cell reproduction rate

(Upper Limb Articulations)What bone(s) can be located in the ARM?

Humerus

Percussion

Method of tapping body parts to determine size, consistency and borders of body organs

These fibers are present in red bone marrow

Reticular fibers

Present in the thick skin of areas such as the fingertips, palms, and soles

Stratum lucidum

T/F: Troponin is a protein that consists of three globular subunits—one that binds to tropomyosin, one that binds to myosin, and one that has binding sites for calcium ions (Ca2+)

False

Compare what happens to the lens when you need to view an object far away to when you need to view an object up-close. Choose the best option to answer the question. Option 1 - When an object is far away, the lens stretches and becomes thinner. When the object is closer, the lens become more rounded. Option 2 - When an object is far away, the lens recoils and becomes more rounded. When the object is closer, the lens stretches and becomes thinner.

Option 1 - When an object is far away, the lens stretches and becomes thinner. When the object is closer, the lens becomes more rounded

Develop inside tendons

Sesamoid bones

Fossa

Shallow depression

Which of the following tissues is made up of cells that conduct impulses? A. Epithelium B. Connective C. Muscle D. Nervous

D. Nervous

Regional Anatomy

Specific regions of the body such as the head or chest.

Central canal

The space in the center of the osteon to allow blood flow into bone tissue

Production of body movements

- Localized movements such as grasping a pencil, keyboarding, or raising your hand - Total body movements such as walking and running - Rely on the integrated functioning of skeletal muscles, bones, and joints

The bones that form the pectoral girdle are the: A. Clavicle and scapula B. Ilium, ischium, pubis C. Scapula and humerus D. Humerus, radius, ulna E. Clavicle and sternum

A. Clavicle and scapula

T/F: Fast glycolytic fibers are intermediate in diameter and have a high resistance to fatigue

False

Exaggeration of thoracic curvature

Hyperkyphosis

One end of the fracture bone is forcefully driven into the interior of the other

Impacted fracture

Ependymal Cells

Line the ventricles of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord. They produce and assist in the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid

This structure reduces the negative and harmful effects of ultraviolet light.

Skin

Changes the internal volume of an organ as it contracts

Smooth and cardiac muscle tissues

Forms tough pads for shock absorption in the:

Soles of feet and palms

Sphenoid Bone Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:

Sphenoid Bone - Axial - Unpaired

Composed of a single row of cuboidal or columnar keratinocytes

Stratum basale

Epiphyseal line

The area of bone where the epiphyseal plate used to be between the diaphysis and epiphysis. Was cartilage, in maturity it's bone

Eosinophils

White blood cells that migrate to sites of parasitic infection and allergic reactions

Check all answers that describe the hyoid bone. (select all that apply) - It is a paired bone - It is an U-shaped bone - It is located between the maxillae and the mandible - This bone does not articulate with any other bone - It is part of the appendicular skeleton

- It is an U-shaped bone - This bone does not articulate with any other bone

Choose ALL components that belong to the muscular system. (multiple answers may apply) - Smooth muscle tissue - Joints - Skeletal muscle tissue - Bones - Tendons - Cartilage

- Skeletal muscle tissue - Tendons

Choose ALL components that belong to the nervous system. (multiple answers may apply) - Hypothalamus - Special senses organs - Spinal column - Spinal cord - Spinal nerves - Brain

- Special senses organs - Spinal cord - Spinal nerves - Brain

Spongy bone gets replaced by compact bone

Bone remodeling phase

The cells that produce cartilage matrix is:

Chondroblasts

Produces movement of material

Ciliated epithelium

Protects and supports the body and its organs.

Connective tissue

T/F: To initiate muscle contraction, Ca2+ binds to tropomyosin

False

Contains large amounts of:

Large blood vessels

This cytoskeleton component uses actin as their primary protein. microfilaments

Microfilaments

Twisting motion that pulls bone apart

Spiral fracture

Composed of 3-5 cell layers

Stratum granulosum

Which cavity is contained within the mediastinum?

Pericardial cavity

(Upper Limb Articulations) This joint is where the axial and appendicular skeletons meet in the lower limb and serves to transmit the weight of the torso onto the pelvis and lower limb

Sacroiliac joint

(Upper Limb Articulations) Which carpal bones articulate with the forearm?

Scaphoid; lunate; triquetrum

Within the physiological processes of protection, the presence of these structures will secrete a substance that will prevent the skin from drying and also eliminate bacteria.

Sebaceous glands

The spinal cord tapers at a conical tip called the: A. Conus medullaris B. Cauda equina C. Meninge D. Filum terminale

A. Conus medullaris

The outer covering of bone is known as: A. Periosteum B. Endosteum C. Perimysium D. Pericardium

A. Periosteum

Responsiveness

Ability to detect and respond to changes occurring outside and inside the body

Basal surface of epithelial cell is attached to the basal lamina, maintaining these cells in place.

Attachment

Which statement defines elasticity? A. The ability to shorten actively and exert a pull or tension B. The ability of a muscle to rebound toward its original length after a contraction C. Ability to respond to stimulation D. The ability to continue to contract over a range of resting lengths

B. The ability of a muscle to rebound toward its original length after a contraction

Deposition of new calcium and phosphorus for hardening of new bone

Bone remodeling phase

If you were to find glial cells in the dorsal root ganglion, which ones will be located in this area? In you think there are no glial cells in this location, then select the answer choice "none" A. Astrocytes and microglial cells B. Oligodendrocytes C. Ependymal cells D. Satellite cells E. None

D. Satellite cells

Keratinocytes start to undergo apoptosis

Stratum granulosum

Partial or complete loss of melanocytes

Vitiligo

In this zone occurs the process of endochondral ossification

Zone of calcified cartilage

Invasion of osteoblasts and capillaries from diaphysis

Zone of calcified cartilage

Choose ALL components that belong to the reproductive system. (multiple answers may apply) - Penis - Uterus - Gonads - Ductus deferns - Seminal vesicles - Tendons - Epididymis - Prostate - Uterine tubes - Vagina

- Penis - Uterus - Gonads - Ductus deferns - Seminal vesicles - Epididymis - Prostate - Uterine tubes - Vagina

Which of the bone features below is only found in the lumbar vertebrae? (choose ALL that apply) - Smallest vertebral foramen when compared to other vertebrae - Transverse foramen - Articular facets - Largest vertebral foramen when compared to other vertebrae - Largest centrum when compared to other vertebrae - Ala - Vertebral foramen - Transverse process - Smallest centrum when compared to other vertebrae - Dens

- Smallest vertebral foramen when compared to other vertebrae - Largest centrum when compared to other vertebrae

Latent Period

Brief delay that occurs between application of the stimulus and the beginning of contraction. During this time, the events of excitation-contraction coupling occur. In addition, Ca2+ ions are released from the endoplasmic reticulum

The crista galli is a bone feature found on which of the following bones? A. Frontal B. Cribriform plate C. Ethmoid D. Sphenoid E. Vomer

C. Ethmoid

If osteoclast activity exceeds osteoblast activity, how will the mass of the bone be affected? A. The bone would have an increased mineral content and, as a result, it would also be stronger. B. Mineralization of the bone would occur at a much slower rate. C. The bone would have a decreased mineral content and, as a result, it would also be weaker. D. Matrix deposition would occur at a much slower rate and therefore resorption would occur at a slower rate as well.

C. The bone would have a decreased mineral content and, as a result, it would also be weaker.

Symphysis structure _______ and function _______

Cartilaginous joint Amphiarthrosis

Which of the following separates the motor information from sensory information? A. Occipitoparietal sulcus B. Temporoparietal sulcus C. Lateral sulcus D. Central sulcus

D. Central sulcus

The Nervous System Performs Sensory, Integrative, and Motor Functions. Match each function below. Sensory

Sensory receptors detect external or internal stimuli. This information is then conveyed through cranial and spinal nerves of the PNS into the brain and spinal

T/F: Superior sagittal sinus which is located between the right and left cerebral hemisphere in the superior site

True

Cells located in this zone do not function in bone growth

Zone of resting cartilage

The following events are part of a negative-feedback mechanism. Place these events in the order that they occur. (1) blood pressure increases. (2) control center compares actual blood pressure to the blood pressure set point. (3) heart beats faster. (4) receptors detect a decrease in blood pressure.

4,2,3,1,

This body structure acts to store calcium

Bones

Osteoblast

Cell that deposits/builds bone *Transform into osteocytes

The matrix of the hyaline cartilage will be formed by these fibers:

Collagen

(Upper Limb Articulations) What bone feature and bone articulates with the humeral head?

Glenoid fossa of scapula

Dyaplasia

Cell growth within a tissue or organ that represents an abnormal cell type

This process will activate the first pain receptors in inflamed tissue.

Edema?

This cell is the first one that is recruited as a response to the inflammatory process.

Mast cells

Lies at the junctions between the squamous and lambdoid sutures

Mastoid fontanel

Condyle

Projections on bones that form joints

Caudal

Relating to tail; at or near tail or posterior part of body.

T/F: The main component of the thin filament is the protein actin

True

Chemical Level

Atoms are organized into molecules.

Ethmoid

Pneumatized bone

Metaphysis

The widened portion of the diaphysis where bone is added during growth

The wrist is ______ to the shoulder

Distal

Temperature control occurs by controlling:

Blood flow

Ongoing replacement of old bone tissue by new bone tissue

Bone remodeling

Trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus are examples of what kind of nerves?

Both or mixed

Choose the best answer below with regards to the characteristics of the dermis. This cell is the predominant fixed cell of the dermis

Fibroblasts

Occurs straight across the long axis of the bone

Transverse fracture

Thermogenesis

- Used to maintain body temperature - Body shivers when you are cold

Controls blood pressure

Smooth muscle tissue

It serves to deposit:

Adipose tissue

Which of the following in NOT considered to be a general sense? A. Touch B. Pain C. Vision D. Proprioception

C. Vision

This tissue membrane covers the outside of the body.

Cutaneous membrane

This layer of the dermis in located on the top of the dermis and it is the thinnest of the dermal layers

Papillary

Left iliac region

Part of descending colon and sigmoid colon

Effector

Part of the body that responds to the motor neuron, usually muscle or gland.

Left lumbar region

Part of transverse colon and descending colon

Spinous Process

Projections for ligament and tendon attachment

During intramembranous ossification, the trabeculae will fuse to form compact _________ bone.

Spongy

Which band is narrowed as the thin filaments slide inward for contraction

I band

Cells of this tissue may absorb and/or secrete substances.

Epithelial tissue

Forms mucous, serous, and epidermal membranes. epithelial tissue

Epithelial tissue

This mineral is the most abundant in bones

Calcium

Which of the following is a main characteristic of a skeletal muscle fiber? A. Presence of intercalated discs B. Multinucleated C. Smooth appearance D. Incredibly short

B. Multinucleated

Below L1-L2, the vertebral canal is occupied by a bundle of spinal nerve roots called the: A. Filum terminale B. Sacral plexus C. Cauda equina D. Descending tracts E. Conus medullaris

C. Cauda equina

Characterized by having large amounts of nonliving matrix.

Connective tissue

Most widely distributed tissue type in the body.

Connective tissue

Supports body tissues.

Connective tissue

Myofibril

Contractile element of the skeletal muscle fiber; containing thick and thin filaments

T/F: The most abundant protein in dead epidermal structures such as hair and nails is melanin.

False - The most abundant protein in dead epidermal structures such as hair and nails is KERATIN

Glioma

Glial cells

Insula

Gustatory cortex is located inside

Which organ(s) are located within the pericardial cavity?

Heart

This term is used to describe the process for production of blood cells

Hemopoiesis

Body deposits calcium in the bones when calcium blood levels are too:

High

Mast cells release granules that contain this chemical.

Histamine

This cytoskeleton component has a thickness that is in between the other two components.

Intermediate filaments

Axon

Is a single long, thin process that extends from the cell body. It functions as the output portion of the neuron by generating action potentials and then

The fact that the dermis has great tensile, means that it has these characteristics

It is resistant to pulling or stretching forces

List all cells that you would find in each cell layer listed below. Stratum basale

Keratinocytes, melanocytes, Merkel cells, stem cells

Separates the occipital bone from the parietal bones

Lambdoid suture

Hard palate

Maxillae and palatines

Consists of four to six layers of clear, flat, dead keratinocytes that contain large amounts of keratin

Stratum lucid

Appear to be covered with thornlike spines.

Stratum spinous

T/F: The skin is made of stratified squamous epithelium

True

Which cavity is not protected by a bony structure?

Abdominal cavity

Paranasal sinuses are fully formed by birth. (true/false) _______

False

T/F: Fast oxidative- glycolytic fibers are fast-twitch fibers adapted for intense movements of short duration like weight lifting or throwing a ball

False

The head of the femur articulates with which bone feature? A. Acetabulum B. Glenoid fossa C. Obturator foramen D. Pubic symphysis E. Femoral notch

A. Acetabulum

Provides an orange appearance to the skin

Carotene

Osteoclast

Cell that degrades bone *Functions in bone resorption

Epithelial tissue is composed almost entirely of cells bound closely together by specialized junctions with little or no space in between these cells.

Cellularity

This plasma membrane extension is responsible for moving particles over cell surface.

Cilia

This plasma membrane extension is responsible for moving the oocyte from the fallopian tube into the uterus.

Cilia

Medial

Closer to the midline.

Without adequate calcium, blood has difficulty performing this process

Coagulation

Epiphyseal plates are made of _________

Hyaline cartilage

This cytoskeleton component is not involved at all in formation of plasma membrane extensions, but instead is has an important function in formation of cell junctions.

Intermediate filaments

In this type of cartilage growth, cells in the center of the tissue divide and add more matrix in between existing cells

Interstitial growth

When a bone forms directly within the mesenchyme, the process is called endochondral _________ ossification.

Intramembranous

Constant exposure of skin to friction stimulates increased cell production and keratin production in this layer, that results in the formation of a callus.

Stratum corneum

Live, rounded cells with an abundance of tonofilaments, that shrink when prepared for microscopic examination

Stratum spinosum

Presence of melanocytes projections in every individual independent of skin color

Stratum spinosum

Functionally, joints are classified as: synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis and diarthrosis. Match their definitions below. Synarthrosis Amphiarthrosis Diarthrosis

Synarthrosis --> Immovable Amphiarthrosis -->Somewhat movable Diarthrosis -->Freely movable

Found in the bladder lining; peculiar cells that slide over one another.

Transitional epithelium

T/F: Fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers have a high intracellular glycogen level, which allows them to generate ATP by aerobic respiration

True

Which of the bone feature below is ONLY found in the thoracic vertebrae? (choose ALL that apply) - Dens - Largest centrum when compared to other vertebrae - Smallest vertebral foramen when compared to other vertebrae - Spinous process - Transverse process - Largest vertebral foramen when compared to other vertebrae - Articular facets - Vertebral foramen - Transverse foramen - Smallest centrum when compared to other vertebrae - Costal facets

- Costal facets

Choose ALL components that belong to the skeletal system. (multiple answers may apply) - Penis - Joints - Bones - Tendons - Associated cartilages - Trachea

- Joints - Bones - Associated cartilages

Structural Proteins

- Keep thick and thin filaments in proper alignment - Titin and dystrophin

Which of the following bone features are only found in cervical vertebrae? (choose ALL that apply) - Largest vertebral foramen when compared to other vertebrae - Split spinous process - Dens - Articular Facets - Smallest centrum when compared to other vertebrae - Largest centrum when compared to other vertebrae - Smallest vertebral foramen when compared to other vertebrae - Transverse process - Costal facets - Transverse foramen

- Largest vertebral foramen when compared to other vertebrae - Split spinous process - Dens - Smallest centrum when compared to other vertebrae - Transverse foramen

Choose ALL components that belong to the digestive system. (multiple answers may apply) - Tonsils - Liver - Pharynx - Gallbladder - Esophagus

- Liver - Pharynx - Gallbladder - Esophagus

Choose ALL components that belong to the respiratory system. (multiple answers may apply) - Lungs - Bronchial tubes - Thyroid glands - Thymus - Pharynx - Trachea

- Lungs - Bronchial tubes - Pharynx - Trachea

Bundles of axons of olfactory receptor cells form the right and left ________(trigeminal, facial, optic, olfactory) nerves, which is cranial nerve_________(CNI, CNX, CNII, CNIII) fill in the blanks with one of the answer choices found in the parenthesis.

- Olfactory - CNI

Which four bones will articulate with the left parietal bone? Make sure to choose also the suture that unite these bones accordingly. Bone 1 _______ and suture that unites this bone to the left parietal bone is the _______

- Right parietal bone - Sagittal

Main function of a stratified epithelium is: A. For protection B. To allow contraction C. For absorption D. For secretion

A. For protection

Cells are sensory neurons that respond to olfactory stimuli; olfactory transduction occurs in the cilia that extend from their dendrites; cilia contain olfactory receptor proteins that detect inhaled odorants A. Olfactory receptor B. Mitral C. Basal D. Supporting

A. Olfactory receptor

This physiological property allows us to use medicinal patches as a way of bringing medication into our bodies to treat certain diseases.

Absorption

Earwax helps protect WHICH structure of the ear? A. Cochlea B. Tympanic membrane C. Auditory ossicles D. Internal acoustic meatus E. External auditory canal

B. Tympanic membrane

_________________(Blank 1) is the standard, initial response of the body to injury. Whether biological, chemical, physical, or radiation burns, all injuries lead to the same sequence of physiological events. Inflammation limits the extent of injury, partially or fully eliminates the cause of injury, and initiates repair and regeneration of damaged tissue. _________________(Blank 2), or accidental cell death, causes inflammation. _________________(Blank 3) is programmed cell death, a normal step-by-step process that destroys cells no longer needed by the body. By mechanisms still under investigation, apoptosis does not initiate the inflammatory response. Acute inflammation resolves over time by the healing of tissue. If inflammation persists, it becomes chronic and leads to diseased conditions. Arthritis and tuberculosis are examples of chronic inflammation. The suffix "-itis" denotes inflammation of a specific organ or type, for example, _________________(blank 4) is the inflammation of the peritoneum, and _________________(blank 5) refers to the inflammation of the meninges, the tough membranes that surround the central nervous system The four cardinal signs of inflammation—(blank 6) —were first recorded in antiquity. Cornelius Celsus is credited with documenting these signs during the days of the Roman Empire, as early as the first century AD. A fifth sign, _________________(blank 7), may also accompany inflammation. Upon tissue injury, damaged cells release inflammatory chemical signals that evoke local _________________(blank 8), the widening of the blood vessels. _________________(Blank 9) blood flow results in apparent redness and heat. In response to injury, mast cells present in tissue degranulate, releasing the potent vasodilator _________________(blank 10). Increased blood flow and inflammatory mediators recruit _________________(blank 11) cells to the site of inflammation. The _________________(blank 12) lining the local blood vessel becomes "leaky" under the influence of histamine and other inflammatory mediators allowing neutrophils, macrophages, and fluid to move from the blood into the interstitial tissue spaces. The excess liquid in tissue causes swelling, more properly called _________________(blank 13). The swollen tissues squeezing pain receptors cause the sensation of pain. Prostaglandins released from injured cells also activate pain neurons. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) reduce pain because they inhibit the synthesis of _________________(blank 14). High levels of NSAIDs reduce inflammation. Antihistamines decrease allergies by blocking histamine receptors and as a result the histamine response.

Blank 1: Inflammation Blank 2: Necrosis Blank 3: Apoptosis Blank 4: Peritonitis Blank 5: Meningitis Blank 6: Redness, swelling, pain, and local heart Blank 7: Loss of function Blank 8: Vasodilation Blank 9: Increased Blank 10: Histamine Blank 11: White blood Blank 12: Endothelium Blank 13: Edema Blank 14: Prostaglandins

The phrenic nerve ______________. A. Is an integral part of the reflex arc. B. Branches off at the clavicle into the sternothyroid nerve. C. Reaches diaphragm and innervates it. D. Is part of the brachial plexus.

C. Reaches diaphragm and innervates it.

The sacrum is ______ to the thoracic vertebra

Caudal

The Cell Body (Soma)

Contains most organelles , including the nucleus. control center of the neuron. Like dendrites, the cell body also serves as an input portion of neuron because

What is an oxygen deficit? A. A protein found along the groove of the F-actin double helix OAT-tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae B. The combination of myosin heads with active sites on actin molecules C. The movement of myosin head while attached to actin myofilament D. After exercise, the taken in that exceeds the required for resting metabolism

D. After exercise, the taken in that exceeds the required for resting metabolism

Which of the following describes titin's roles in muscle contraction? A. Accounts for muscle's excitability B. Allows the actin to recoil and stretch C. Helps to hold the actin myofilaments in position D. Anchors thick filaments to Z disc and M line

D. Anchors thick filaments to Z disc and M line

Columnar

Rectangular cells

Formation of bony callus

Reparative phase

T/F: A flexible hinge is located where the myosin heads join the myosin tail

True

bone 2 _______ and suture that unites this bone to the left parietal bone is the _______ suture.

- Frontal bone - Coronal

Check all that apply with regards to the sternum. - It is made of the fusion of the manubrium, the body and xiphoid process - It will articulate with all ribs anteriorly - It articulates with the scapula - It is a paired bone - It is part of the axial skeleton - It articulates with the clavicle

- It is made of the fusion of the manubrium, the body and xiphoid process - It is part of the axial skeleton - It articulates with the clavicle

Indicate the functions of the following three regions of the ear: 1. External Ear 2. Middle Ear 3. Inner Ear With its corresponding functions --> - Conveys sound vibrations to the oval window - Houses the receptors for hearing and equilibrium - Collects sound waves and channels them inwards

1. External ear: Collects sound waves and channels them inwards. 2. Middle ear: Conveys sound vibrations to the oval window. 3. Inner ear: Houses the receptors for hearing and equilibrium.

Negative feedback system

A stimulus that is resisted through a physiological process that returns the body to homeostasis

This medication can be taken to block histamine response.

Antihistamines

Arrange the following layers in order from the outside to the inside of the brain. 1. Epicranial aponeurosis 2. Arachnoid mater 3. Scalp 4. Cranium 5. Dura mater 6. Periosteum 7. Pia mater A. 6, 4, 5, 2, 7, 3, 1 B. 3, 1, 6, 4, 5, 2, 7 C. 1, 3, 4, 6, 5, 7, 2 D. 3, 4, 6, 1, 5, 7, 2

B. 3, 1, 6, 4, 5, 2, 7

Fissure

Bone opening

Osteoprogenitor cells

Bone stem cells *Become osteoblasts

The glial cell that helps to form cerebrospinal fluid is the: A. Oligodendrocytes B. Astrocyte C. Ependymal cell D. Microglia

C. Ependymal cell

Which of the following is an example of a long bone?A. Parietal B. Patella C. Radius D. Sphenoid E. Carpal

C. Radius

Which bone is NOT a flat bone?A. ScapulaB. RibsC. SternumD. Clavicle

D. Clavicle

What happens when the stereocilia tilts on top of the kinocilium? A. The hair cell is inactivated and therefore inhibiting the sensory nerve ending from sending a signal B. The hair cell is stimulated but an impulse cannot be sent C. The hair cell in inactivated D. The hair cell is stimulated and therefore the sensory nerve ending is stimulated sending the impulse

D. The hair cell is stimulated and therefore the sensory nerve ending is stimulated sending the impulse

Where are your water receptors located? A. Cheeks B. Pharynx C. Uvula D. Tongue E. Larynx

D. Tongue

Which major organs are located within the abdominal cavity?

Digestive organs and glands

The sphenoid and ethmoid bones are part of the: A. Bony palate B. Facial bones C. Mandible D. Nasal septum E. Cranial bones

E. Cranial bones

The rib cage will serve as protection site for these organs

Heart and lungs

Basis of the major controlling system of the body.

Neural tissue

Ribs Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:

Ribs - Axial - Paired

Ultrasound

Sound waves that have ultrasonic frequency that bounce back to receiver

Cells are extremely thin, flat and are called corneocytes

Stratum corneum

Kyphosis

Thoracic and sacral

Formation of skin patches

Vitiligo

Loss of melanocytes may be related to an immune system malfunction in which antibodies attack melanocytes

Vitiligo

Vomer Bone Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:

Vomer Bone - Axial - Unpaired

Bone(s) that form(s) the nasal septum

Vomer and ethmoid

Neutrophils

White blood cells that migrate to sites of infection that destroy microbes by phagocytosis

Cells located in this zone anchor the epiphyseal plate to the epiphysis.

Zone of resting cartilage

Of the vetebrae bone features below, choose the ones that are standard features, which means that it belongs to ALL vertebrae (cervical, thoracic and lumbar). (choose ALL that apply) - Costal facets - Sacral foramen - Dens - Intervertebral foramen - Articular facets - Transverse foramen - Transverse process - Vertebral foramen - Spinous process

- Articular facets - Transverse process - Vertebral foramen

In the inner ear we have the following components: 1. Cochlea 2. Vestibule and semicurcular canals Match each of the components with its corresponding answer--> - Bony spiral canal, sense organ for hearing - Sense organ for equilibrium

1. Cochlea: Bony spiral canal, sense organ for hearing. 2. Vestibule and semicircular canals: Sense organ for equilibrium.

Which of the following is NOT a function of synovial fluid? A. Nourishment for osteocytes B. Lubrication C. Shock absorption D. Nourishment for chondrocytes

A. Nourishment for osteocytes

This physiological component is due to the high numbers of blood vessels present in the dermis

Blood reservoir

Gaps in the myelination of axons known as ______ are present ______. A. Nodes of Ranvier; for saltatory conduction and decreased speed of action potential transmission B. Schwann cells; for saltatory conduction and increased speed of action potential transmission C. Nodes of Ranvier; when the axon is damaged D. Nodes of Ranvier; for saltatory conduction and increased speed of action potential transmission

D. Nodes of Ranvier; for saltatory conduction and increased speed of action potential transmission

All of these are classified as loose connective tissue. Except this one. elastic

Elastic

X-ray

Electromagnetic wave of high energy and very short wavelength, which moves through body

Many cells are tightly packed together with little or no extracellular matrix.

Epithelial tissue

T/F: In a relaxed muscle, myosin is blocked from binding to actin because the strands of troponin cover the myosin-binding sites on actin

False

Name of clot near site of injury

Fracture hematoma

Connexins form tiny fluid‐filled tunnels called connexons that connect neighboring cells allowing passage of ions and small molecules.

Gap junctions

Condition characterized by abnormally low levels of calcium

Hypocalcemia

The mouth is ______ to the nose

Inferior

Bridge of nose

Nasal

Also known as striated muscle

Skeletal and cardiac muscle tissues

Striated appearance

Skeletal and cardiac muscle tissues

Separates the parietal bone from the temporal bone on each side of the skull

Squamous suture

One way the spinal cord promotes homeostasis is by propagating action potentials along tracts. The name of a tract often indicates its position in the white matter and where it begins and ends. Using this knowledge, select the location, the beginning and end of each tract and the function. Ventral Corticospinal Tract - location in white column ___________(anterior, posterior, ventrolateral, dorsolateral); beginning _________(spinal cord, thalamus, cerebral cortex, cerebellum ) ; ends __________(cerebellum, cerebral cortex, thalamus, spinal cord) ; function_______(motor, sensory). fill in the blanks with one of the answer choices in the parenthesis.

- Anterior - Cerebral Cortex - Spinal Cord - Motor

One way the spinal cord promotes homeostasis is by propagating action potentials along tracts. The name of a tract often indicates its position in the white matter and where it begins and ends. Using this knowledge, select the location, the beginning and end of each tract and the function. Spinothalamic tract - location in white column ___________(anterior, posterior, ventrolateral, dorsolateral); beginning _________(spinal cord, thalamus, cerebral cortex, cerebellum ) ; ends __________(cerebellum, cerebral cortex, thalamus, spinal cord) ; function_______(motor, sensory). fill in the blanks with one of the answer choices in the parenthesis.

- Anterolateral - Spinal Cord - Thalamus - Sensory

Choose ALL functions that belong to the nervous system. (multiple answers may apply) - Causes muscular contraction - Intellectual functions - Detects sensation and generates action potentials - Causes glandular secretion - Site of many sensory receptors - Production of sound from air passage through glottis

- Causes muscular contraction - Intellectual functions - Detects sensation and generates action potentials - Causes glandular secretion

Choose ALL functions that belong to the integumentary system. (multiple answers may apply) - Contains many sensory receptors - Helps to regulate production of red blood cells - Helps to produce vitamin D - Helps to regulate body temperature - Helps body to move - Releases hormones - Provides protection to the body - Helps to prevent water loss

- Contains many sensory receptors - Helps to produce vitamin D - Helps to regulate body temperature - Provides protection to the body - Helps to prevent water loss

Check the organs that belong to the integumentary system. (more than one all can apply) - Joints - Glands - Hair - Skin - Nails

- Glands - Hair - Skin - Nails

With regards to the different types of tissues, check ALL that apply in terms of tissue consistency that can be found. - Hard - Liquid - Vapor - Semisolid

- Hard - Liquid - Semisolid

Choose ALL functions that belong to the urinary system. (multiple answers may apply) - Helps to regulate production of red blood cells - Produces, stores, and eliminates urine - Maintains body's mineral balance - Detects changes in body's internal and external environments - Helps maintain acid-base balance of body fluids - Eliminates wastes and regulates volume and chemical composition of blood

- Helps to regulate production of red blood cells - Produces, stores, and eliminates urine - Maintains body's mineral balance - Helps maintain acid-base balance of body fluids - Eliminates wastes and regulates volume and chemical composition of blood

Choose ALL functions that belong to the reproductive system. (multiple answers may apply) - Milk production - Release of hormones that regulate this systems function - Plays role in immune response - Production of gametes - Transport and store gametes

- Milk production - Release of hormones that regulate this systems function - Production of gametes - Transport and store gametes

One way the spinal cord promotes homeostasis is by propagating action potentials along tracts. The name of a tract often indicates its position in the white matter and where it begins and ends. Using this knowledge, select the location, the beginning and end of each tract and the function. Lateral Corticospinal Tract - location in white column ___________(anterior, posterior, ventrolateral, dorsolateral); beginning _________(spinal cord, thalamus, cerebral cortex, cerebellum) ; ends __________(cerebellum, cerebral cortex, thalamus, spinal cord) ; function_______(motor, sensory). fill in the blanks with one of the answer choices in the parenthesis.

- Posterior - Cerebral Cortex - Spinal Cord - Motor

One way the spinal cord promotes homeostasis is by propagating action potentials along tracts. The name of a tract often indicates its position in the white matter and where it begins and ends. Using this knowledge, select the location, the beginning and end of each tract and the function. Dorsal Spinocerebellar tract - location in white column ___________(anterior, posterior, ventrolateral, dorsolateral); beginning _________(spinal cord, thalamus, cerebral cortex, cerebellum) ; ends __________(cerebellum, cerebral cortex, thalamus, spinal cord) ; function_______(motor, sensory). fill in the blanks with one of the answer choices in the parenthesis.

- Posterior - Spinal Cord - Cerebellum - Sensory

Choose ALL functions that belong to the muscular system. (multiple answers may apply) - Transports nutrients throughout the body - Produces body heat - Supports and protects the body - Produces body movements - Generates muscle contraction - Maintains body posture

- Produces body heat - Produces body movements - Maintains body posture

Check all answers that describe the ossicles. (select all that apply) - Made up of four bones, which are the tympanic, malleus, incus and stapes - Smallest bones in the body - Part of the axial skeleton - Located in the inner ear - Helps with hearing

- Smallest bones in the body - Part of the axial skeleton - Helps with hearing

Choose ALL components that belong to the lymphatic system. (multiple answers may apply) - Tonsils - Stomach - Thymus - Liver - Spleen - Lymph nodes

- Tonsils - Thymus - Spleen - Lymph nodes

One way the spinal cord promotes homeostasis is by propagating action potentials along tracts. The name of a tract often indicates its position in the white matter and where it begins and ends. Using this knowledge, select the location, the beginning and end of each tract and the function. Ventral Spinocerebellar tract - location in white column ___________(anterior, posterior, ventrolateral, dorsolateral); beginning _________(spinal cord, thalamus, cerebral cortex, cerebellum ) ; ends __________(cerebellum, cerebral cortex, thalamus, spinal cord) ; function_______(motor, sensory). fill in the blanks with one of the answer choices in the parenthesis.

- Ventrolateral - Spinal Cord - Cerebellum - Sensory

Place the layers of thick epidermis on RIGHT column in order in which they appear, starting with the most superficial layer. 1 (top): 2: 3: 4: 5 (bottom):

1 (top): Stratum corneum 2: Stratum lucidum 3: Stratum granulosum 4: Stratum spinosum 5 (bottom): Stratum basale

Match each of the following definitions: 1. Caused by the presence of sodium ions (Na+) in food, most commonly found as NaCl (table salt) 2. Produced by hydrogen ions (H+) released from acids, for example, lemons are sour due to containing citric acid 3. Elicited by sugars such as glucose, fructose, and sucrose and artificial sugars 4. Caused by a wide variety of substances; aversion to this taste serves as a protection against ingesting harmful substances 5. Described as "meaty" or "savory" and is elicited by amino acids (especially glutamate) that are present in food With its corresponding primary taste: - Umami taste - Salty taste - Sweet taste - Bitter taste - Sour taste

1. Caused by the presence of sodium ions (Na+) in food, most commonly found as NaCl (table salt) - Salty taste 2. Produced by hydrogen ions (H+) released from acids, for example, lemons are sour due to containing citric acid" - Sour taste 3. Elicited by sugars such as glucose, fructose, and sucrose and artificial sugars" - Sweet taste 4. Caused by a wide variety of substances; aversion to this taste serves as a protection against ingesting harmful substances" - Bitter taste 5. Described as 'meaty' or 'savory' and is elicited by amino acids (especially glutamate) that are present in food" - Umami taste

When traveling in a plane we often experience "popping" in our ears. The pressure causes an uncomfortable feeling that can be relieved by yawning. Explain why this occurs 1. _____________("due to connection of pharynx to eustachian tube. Yawning releases pressure, which in turn relieves pain due to connection of external auditory tube to eustachian tube", "Yawning releases pressure , which in turn relieves pain due to connection of external auditory tube to tympanic membrane", "Yawning releases pressure, which in turn relieves pain due to connection of pharynx to tympanic membrane", "Yawning releases pressure , which in turn relieves pain) and indicate what region of the ear undergoes this experience") 2. _____________(middle ear, internal ear, external ear); answer the question by filling in the blanks with one of the answer choices found in the parenthesis

1. Popping 2. Middle ear

After the aqueous humor is created by the ciliary bodies, where does it travel to and where is it collected? A. Anterior cavity, canal of schlemm B. Posterior cavity, canal of schlemm C. Iris, cornea D. Anterior cavity, posterior cavity

A. Anterior cavity, canal of schlemm

An epithelium is connected to underlying connective tissue by: A. Basal lamina B. Synovial membrane C. Sterocillia D. Fibrous cartilage E. Canaliculi

A. Basal lamina

Which of these statements concerning positive feedback is correct? A. Birth is an example of a normally occurring positive-feedback mechanism. B. When cardiac muscle receives an inadequate supply of blood, positive-feedback mechanisms increase blood flow to the heart. C. Positive-feedback responses occur continuously in healthy individuals. D. Medical therapy seeks to overcome illness by aiding positive-feedback mechanisms. E. Positive-feedback responses maintain homeostasis.

A. Birth is an example of a normally occurring positive-feedback mechanism.

Which of the following muscles is the prime mover in spitting out a mouthful of liquid? A. Buccinator B. Platysma C. Risorius D. Zygomaticus E. Masseter

A. Buccinator

Which two bone features compose the condyle of the humerus? A. Capitulum and trochlea B. Medial and lateral epycondyles C. Radial and ulnar notches D. Radial and ulnar heads E. Olecranon and trochlea notch

A. Capitulum and trochlea

What is the anatomical name for the bones that make up the distal portion of the wrist joint? A. Carpals B. Metacarpals C. Tarsals D. Radius and ulna E. Metatarsals

A. Carpals

The nose is __________ to the belly button. A. Cephalic B. Caudal C. Ventral D. Medial E. Anterior

A. Cephalic

Taste and smell are referred to as the ______ senses A. Chemical B. Physical C. Biological D. Specific E. Electrical

A. Chemical

The clear continuation of the sclera is known as the: A. Cornea B. Fovea C. Iris D. Retina

A. Cornea

The coronoid process articulates with the _________ of the humerus. A. Coronoid fossa B. Olecranon fossa C. Trochlea notch D. Capitulum E. Radial fossa

A. Coronoid fossa

The linea aspera is a bone feature of which bone? A. Femur B. Tibia C. Fibula D. Fibia E. Tibula

A. Femur

The olfactory nerves extend to parts of the brain known as the A. Olfactory bulbs B. Olfactory cortex C. Olfactory glands D. Mitral cells

A. Olfactory bulbs

Which of the following describes how signals pass through a typical single neuron? A. Signals pass from the dendrites through the cell body and down the axon to the axon terminals B. Signals pass from the cell body to the dendrites and axons and then down to the dendrite and axon terminals C. Signals pass from the axon terminals to the axon and then through the cell body to the dendrites D. Signals pass from the axons down to the axon terminals and then through the dendrites to the cell body E. Signals pass from dendrites through axon, then axon terminals and finally through the cell body

A. Signals pass from the dendrites through the cell body and down the axon to the axon terminals

The epimysium is a layer of dense irregular connective tissue that: A. Surrounds the entire skeletal muscle, separating the muscle from surrounding tissues and organs. B. Surrounds each skeletal muscle fiber and therefore binds each muscle fiver to its neighbor, and supports capillaries that supply individual fibers. C. Divides the muscle into a series of internal compartments, each containing a bundle of muscle fibers called a fascicle D. Attaches the muscle to bone, cartilage, skin, or another muscle

A. Surrounds the entire skeletal muscle, separating the muscle from surrounding tissues and organs.

The epimysium, endomysium and perimysium come together at the end of a skeletal muscle to form a: A. Tendon B. Sarcomere C. Thin filaments D. Thick filaments

A. Tendon

Tissue that connects muscle to bone. A. Tendon B. Mesentery C. Thymus D. Ligament E. Tissue

A. Tendon

Dorsiflexion of foot involves the: A. Tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus and extensor hallucis longus B. Extensor hallucis longus and flexor digitorum longus C. Tibialis anterior and extensor retinaculum of the foot D. Tibialis posterior and extensor digitorum longus

A. Tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus and extensor hallucis longus

The posterior cavity is filled with a fluid called ________ while the anterior cavity is filled with _______ A. Vitreous humor; aqueous humor B. Vitreous humor; vitreous humor C. Aqueous humor; aqueous humor D. Aqueous humor; vitreous humor

A. Vitreous humor; aqueous humor

In order for an odor to be smelled it must have which of the following characteristics? A. Volatile B. Water soluable C. All answers are correct D. Lipid soluable

A. Volatile

This nerve moves the head and shoulders and innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.

Accessory

Melanin is missing from their hair, eyes, and skin

Albinism

Normal amounts of melanocytes

Albinism

Organismal Level

All the system are structurally integrated and function cooperatively to constitute the total organism.

Dendrites

Are short, highly branched processes that extend from the cell body. Receive signals from other neurons or from stimuli in the environment, serving as main

This tissue lacks blood vessels and the cells receive their nutrients through diffusion from blood vessels present in the connective tissue.

Avascularity

If you were to find glial cells in gray matter (information processing in CNS) which ones will be located in this area? In you think there are no glial cells in this location, then select the answer choice "none". A. Astrocytes and Schwann cells B. Astrocytes and microglial cells C. Schwann cells D. Satellite cells E. None

B. Astrocytes and microglial cells

Which region of the diencephalon controls the body temperature, various emotions and behavioral drives, and it is known as the center of homeostasis? A. Epithalamus B. Hypothalamus C. Thalamus D. Infundibulum

B. Hypothalamus

The type of epithelial cells present together with the type of epithelium in an organ or portion of the body give some information about its function. The presence of microvilli in a certain organ indicates that: A. The are being covered by the epithelia needs extra protection B. In this area, a lot of absorption takes place C. The organ is composed mainly by very small cells D. The main function of this organ is to move particles away

B. In this area, a lot of absorption takes place

Which of the following is a main characteristic of a skeletal muscle fiber? A. Presence of intercalated discs B. Incredibly long C. Single nucleated D. Branching appearance

B. Incredibly long

Which of the following is a main characteristic of a skeletal muscle fiber? A. Singule nucleated B. Incredibly long C. Branching D. Appearance presence of intercalated discs

B. Incredibly long

Which is the last structure to vibrate in this sequence? A. Incus B. Oval window C. Malleus D. Stapes

B. Oval window

This kind of section separates right and left portions of the body in anatomical positions but misses the midline. Which kind of section is this? A. Coronal section B. Parasagittal section C. Frontal section D. Midsagittal section E. Transverse section

B. Parasagittal section

When light passes through the eye in high intensity & large amounts the ______ will ________ A. Lens; constrict B. Pupil; constrict C. Iris; dilate D. Lens; dilate E. Pupil; dilate

B. Pupil; constrict

What is the correct order of events for bone remodeling? A. Osteocyte mineralization, deposition, resorption B. Resorption, deposition, osteocyte mineralization C. Deposition, osteocyte mineralization, resorption D. Resorption, osteocyte mineralization, deposition

B. Resorption, deposition, osteocyte mineralization

Which of the following is NOT a glial cell of the CNS? A. Ependymal cells B. Satellite cells C. Oligodendrocytes D. Astrocytes E. Microglia

B. Satellite cells

Which muscle inserts on the tibia? A. Tibialis anterior B. Semitendinosus C. Gluteus minimus D. Tibialis posterior E. iliopsoas

B. Semitendinosus

Which is the last layer of skin in which the cells are still living? A. Stratum spinosum B. Stratum granulosum C. Stratum basale D. Stratum corneum E. Stratum lucidum

B. Stratum granulosum

The endomysium is a layer of connective tissue that: A. Attaches the muscle to bone, cartilage, skin, or another muscle B. Surrounds each skeletal muscle fiber and therefore binds each muscle fiver to its neighbor, and supports capillaries that supply individual fibers C. Surrounds the entire skeletal muscle, separating the muscle from surrounding tissues and organs. D. Divides the muscle into a series of internal compartments, each containing a bundle of muscle fibers called a fascicle

B. Surrounds each skeletal muscle fiber and therefore binds each muscle fiver to its neighbor, and supports capillaries that supply individual fibers

When you "pull your tummy in" and compress your abdomen, you use the rectus abdominis, external abdominal oblique, internal abdominal oblique, and transversus abdominis muscles. This is an example of muscles working as A. Fixators B. Synergists C. Antagonists D. Prime movers E. Cooperatives

B. Synergists

Which statement defines contractility? A. Ability to respond to stimulation B. The ability to shorten forcefully and exert a pull or tension C. The ability to continue to contract over a range of resting lenghts D. The ability of a muscle to rebound toward its original length after a contraction

B. The ability to shorten forcefully and exert a pull or tension

After taking your exam you stretched your neck by rotating your head to the right. This rotational movement is monitored by receptors in: A. The cochlea B. The semicircular ducts C. Your neck D. The cerebellum

B. The semicircular ducts

The motor (efferent) division of the peripheral nervous system is a division of the CNS A. Detects presence of food in the stomach B. Transmits impulses from the CNS to effectors, such as skeletal muscle C. Has nerve cell bodies located in ganglia near the spinal cord and brain D. Detects a stimulus

B. Transmits impulses from the CNS to effectors, such as skeletal muscle

Amanda has dimples. Dimples are an inheritable trait caused by a shortened muscle which leads to a small depression in the flesh, either one that exists permanently or one that forms in the cheeks when one smiles. Which muscle causes this effect? A. Masseter B. Zygomaticus major C. Depressor anguli oris D. Orbicularis oris E. Levator labii superioris

B. Zygomaticus major

Which auditory structure is being defined by each statement below? answer each of the following questions below with one of the answer choices found in the parenthesis: 1. ________(external auditory canal, auricle, tympanic membrane, round window): skin covered flap of cartilage that collects sound waves and directs them to the external auditory canal 2: ________(eustachian tube, eardrum, oval window, pinna): receives sound waves and transmits to middle ear 3: ________(eustachian tube, pinna, external auditory canal, tympanic membrane): curved tube that takes sound waves from auricle to tympanic membrane 4: ________(cerumen, paraffin, bikini wax, pinna): earwax, prevents foreign objects from coming into ear 5: ________(middle ear, pinna, eustachian tube, tympanic membrane): also known as eardrum

Blank 1--> Auricle: skin-covered flap of cartilage that collects sound waves and directs them to the external auditory canal. Blank 2--> Tympanic membrane: receives sound waves and transmits them to the middle ear. Blank 3--> External auditory canal: curved tube that takes sound waves from the auricle to the tympanic membrane. Blank 4--> Cerumen: earwax, prevents foreign objects from coming into the ear. Blank 5--> Tympanic membrane: also known as the eardrum.

Skeletal muscle fibers have three ways to produce ATP: (1) from creatine phosphate, (2) by anaerobic glycolysis, and (3) by aerobic respiration. Match the blanks below. Creatine phosphate is a molecule that can store energy in its phosphate bonds. In a resting muscle, excess _________(blank 1) transfers its energy to creatine, producing ADP and _________(blank 2). This acts as an energy reserve that can be used to quickly create _________(blank 3) (more/less) ATP. When the muscle starts to contract and needs energy, creatine phosphate transfers its phosphate back to ADP to form ATP and _________(blank 4). The enzyme _________(blank 5) catalyzes the transfer of one of the high-energy phosphate groups from ATP to creatine. Because the formation of ATP from creatine phosphate occurs _________(blank 6), creatine phosphate is the _________(blank 7) source of energy when muscle contraction begins.

Blank 1: ATP Blank 2: Creatine phosphate Blank 3: More Blank 4: Creatine Blank 5: Creatine kinase (CK) Blank 6: Very rapidly Blank 7: First

If sufficient oxygen is present, the pyruvic acid formed by glycolysis enters the mitochondria, where it undergoes _________(blank 1) respiration, a series of oxygen-requiring reactions that produce _________(blank 2). Although aerobic respiration is _________(blank 3) (slower/faster) than anaerobic glycolysis, it yields much _________(blank 4) (less/more) ATP. Each molecule of glucose catabolized under aerobic conditions yields about 36 molecules of ATP. Muscle tissue has two sources of oxygen: (1) oxygen that diffuses into muscle fibers from the _________(blank 5) and (2) oxygen released by _________(blank 6) within muscle fibers. Both myoglobin _________(found only in blank 7) and hemoglobin _________(found only in blank 8) are oxygen-binding proteins. They bind oxygen when it is plentiful and release oxygen when it is scarce.

Blank 1: Aerobic Blank 2: ATP, carbon dioxide, water, and heat Blank 3: Slower Blank 4: More Blank 5: Blood Blank 6: Myoglobin Blank 7: Muscle cells Blank 8: Erythrocytes

Choose the correct answer to complete the statements below. The ________(blank 1) cord is formed by the merging of the superior, middle, and inferior trunks. ‪ ‪A patient is experiencing pain on the posterior part of his thigh. What nerve may be implicated? ________(blank 2) Musculocutaneous nerve stems from ________(blank 3) cord, which stems from ________(blank 4) trunks. The ________(blank 5) trunk stems from C7, which gives rise to the ________(blank 6) cords. The sciatic nerve branches into the ________(blank 7) nerves. Damage to the ________(blank 8) nerve will interfere with one's diaphragm which may be deadly. This nerve originates between ________(blank 9) (vertebral nerves). The superficial fibular nerve runs on top of the ________(blank 10) (bone) while the deep fibular nerve runs on top of the ________(blank 11) (bone). The posterior cord gives rise to the ________(blank 12) nerves, while the medial cord gives rise to the ________(blank 13) nerves. The ________(blank 14) cords merge to form the median nerve. The cervical plexus is comprised of ________(blank 15) nerves (total number)

Blank 1: Brachial Blank 2: Sciatic Blank 3: Lateral Blank 4: Superior, middle, and inferior Blank 5: Posterior Blank 6: Lateral and medial Blank 7: Common fibular and tibial Blank 8: Phrenic Blank 9: C3-C5 Blank 10: Fibula Blank 11: Tibia Blank 12: Radial and axillary Blank 13: Ulnar and median Blank 14: Medial Blank 15: 8

When muscle activity continues and the supply of creatine phosphate within the muscle fiber is depleted, _________(blank 1) is catabolized to generate _________(blank 2). Glucose passes from the _________(blank 3) into contracting muscle fibers and it is also produced by the breakdown of _________(blank 4) within muscle fibers. Then a series of reactions known as glycolysis quickly breaks down each glucose molecule into two molecules of _________(blank 5). Glycolysis occurs in the cytosol and produces a net _________(blank 6) (gain/loss) of two molecules of ATP. Because glycolysis does not require _________(blank 7), it can occur whether oxygen is present _________(blank 8 conditions) or absent _________(blank 9 conditions). During heavy exercise not enough oxygen is available to skeletal muscle fibers hence the pyruvic acid generated from glycolysis is converted to _________(blank 10). When produced at a rapid rate, this acid can accumulate in active skeletal muscle fibers and in the bloodstream. This acid buildup is thought to be responsible for muscle _________(blank 11) that is felt during strenuous exercise.

Blank 1: Glucose Blank 2: ATP Blank 3: Blood Blank 4: Glycogen Blank 5: Pyruvic acid Blank 6: Gain Blank 7: Oxygen Blank 8: Aerobic Blank 9: Anaerobic Blank 10: Lactic acid Blank 11: Soreness

The gyrus, sulcus, and fissure are anatomical characteristics of the cerebrum. ___________(blank 1) helps increase the surface area of the brain. ___________(blank 2) would divide each cerebral hemisphere into lobes like frontal lobe and occipital lobe. ___________(blank 3) is a deep depression. One example of a fissure is the ___________(blank 4) fissure that helps divide the left and right hemisphere. ___________(blank 5) matter is composed of neuronal cell bodies. The collection of these neuronal cell bodies on the surface of the Central Nervous System is called ___________(blank 6). If a group of neuronal cell bodies is located deeper into the central nervous system, then it is called ___________(blank 7). The ___________(blank 8) is considered the largest nuclei in our brain. The ___________(blank 9) matter is composed of myelinated axons. Our cerebrum is composed of a right and left hemisphere which are connected to each other through a bundle of axons called ___________(blank 10).

Blank 1: Gyri Blank 2: Sulci Blank 3: Fissure Blank 4: Longitudinal Blank 5: Gray Blank 6: Cortex Blank 7: Nuclei Blank 8: Thalamus Blank 9: White Blank 10: Corpus Callosum

Neurons of the sympathetic nervous system __________(blank 1) heart rate, and neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system __________(blank 2). In general, the sympathetic nervous system helps support exercise or emergency actions, so called __________(blank 3) responses, and the parasympathetic nervous system controls __________(blank 4) activities. In addition, the __________(blank 5) nervous system, will control most of the body functions as it is the major regulator of the __________(blank 6) muscle of the cardiovascular system. While the __________(blank 7) is the major regulator of the smooth muscle of the digestive and __________(blank 8) systems, which are derived from the embryonic __________(blank 9) tube.

Blank 1: Increase Blank 2: Slow it down Blank 3: Fight-or-flight Blank 4: Rest-and-digest Blank 5: Sympathetic Blank 6: Smooth Blank 7: Parasympathetic Blank 8: Respiratory Blank 9: Gut

__________(Blank 1), also known as nerve cells, are the basic functional units of the nervous system. A typical neuron has three major parts: a __________(blank 2) which will be the control center of the neuron, a __________(blank 3) which receive the stimuli from the environment and __________(blank 4) which generates the action potential and propagates them. Throughout the nervous system, the cell bodies of adjacent neurons are often clustered together. A cluster of neuronal cell bodies in the PNS is called a __________(blank 5) __________(plural is blank 6); a similar arrangement of neuronal cell bodies in the CNS is known as a __________(blank 7) __________(plural is blank 8). While the axons also group in bundles. If those axon bundles are located in the CNS, they will be referred to as __________(blank 9). And if they are located in the PNS, they will be referred to as __________(blank 10).

Blank 1: Neuron Blank 2: Cell body Blank 3: Dendrite Blank 4: Axon Blank 5: Ganglion Blank 6: Ganglia Blank 7: Nucleus Blank 8: Nuclei Blank 9: Tracts Blank 10: Nerves

Nociceptors detect ________(blank 1). ________(Blank 2) (type of receptor) respond to tactile stimuli. If firefighters did not wear protective gear, ________(blank 3) (type of receptors) would be activated. ________(Blank 4) are a type of receptors that detect changes in blood pressure. Chemoreceptors of carotid bodies are sensitive to changes in blood ________(blank 5). ________(Blank 6) receptors are always active like the photoreceptors of the eye and various receptors that monitor body position, while a ________(blank 7) receptor becomes active only when stimulated, like when walking into a cold room. The ________(blank 8) cranial nerve present in carotid bodies and the vagus nerve, present in aortic bodies are sensitive to changes in pH, levels of CO2 and O2 in blood and is. ________(Blank 9) pain is the name of the mechanism in which pain sensations from visceral organs are often perceived as originating in regions that are more superficial. The information that arrives at a sensory receptor is called a ________(blank 10), while the sensory information arriving at the CNS is called a ________(blank 11). A ________(blank 12) is a conscious awareness of a sensation,

Blank 1: Pain Blank 2: Mechanoreceptors Blank 3: Nociceptors Blank 4: Baroreceptors Blank 5: pH, and levels of CO2 and O2 Blank 6: Tonic Blank 7: Phasic Blank 8: Glossopharyngeal Blank 9: Referred Blank 10: Stimulus Blank 11: Sensory input Blank 12: Perception Blank 13: Adaptation

The ________(blank 1) of a neuron is the stimulated physical area, specific group of chemicals, or particular set of sound frequencies that causes a response in that neuron. The advantage of a somatic sensory neuron having over-lapping receptive fields is that it improves stimulus localization because the brain is able to compare the ________(blank 2). ________(blank 3) are slow adapting receptors that respond to steady pressure changes. ________(blank 4) is defined by perception of body movement. Cold and warmth are detected by ________(blank 5), free nerve endings that are present in the skin. ________(blank 6) respond to various stimuli, including mechanical stimuli, extreme thermal stimuli, and chemicals released from damaged tissue. ________(blank 7) are located in the upper part of the dermis of glabrous (non-hairy) skin and are rapidly adapting receptors. ________(blank 8) pain that is felt at a site other than the place of origin is called ________(blank 9). Most sensory pathways ________(blank 10) (cross over to the opposite side) as they course through the spinal cord or brain stem.

Blank 1: Receptive field Blank 2: Information from multiple receptive fields Blank 3: Ruffini corpuscles Blank 4: Kinesthesia Blank 5: Thermoreceptors Blank 6: Polymodal nociceptors Blank 7: Merkel discs and Meissner corpuscles Blank 8: Pain that is felt at a site other than the place of origin is called referred pain. Blank 9: Referred pain Blank 10: Decussate

After containment of an injury, the tissue repair phase starts with removal of toxins and waste products. Clotting (coagulation) ____________blank 1 blood loss from damaged blood vessels and forms a network of fibrin proteins that trap blood cells and bind the edges of the wound together. A ___________blank 2 forms when the clot dries, reducing the risk of infection. Sometimes a mixture of dead leukocytes and fluid called pus accumulates in the wound. As healing progresses, _____________ blank 3 from the surrounding connective tissues replace the collagen and extracellular material lost by the injury. ______________Blank 4, the growth of new blood vessels, results in vascularization of the new tissue known as ____________blank 5 tissue. The clot retracts pulling the edges of the wound together, and it slowly dissolves as the tissue is repaired. When a large amount of granulation tissue forms and capillaries disappear, a pale scar is often visible in the healed area. A __________blank 6 describes the healing of a wound where the edges are close together. When there is a gaping wound, it takes longer to refill the area with cells and collagen. The process called ___________blank 7 occurs as the edges of the wound are pulled together by what is called ____________blank 8. When a wound is more than one quarter of an inch deep, sutures (stitches) are recommended to promote a primary union and avoid the formation of a disfiguring scar. _____________Blank 9 is the addition of new cells of the same type as the ones that were injured. In _______________blank 10, a new type of tissue develops, which eventually produces a scar and causes the loss of some tissue function. Most wounds heal through regeneration and replacement; which process dominates depends on the tissues involved and the nature and

Blank 1: Reduces Blank 2: Scab Blank 3: Fibroblasts Blank 4: Angiogenesis Blank 5: Granulation Blank 6: Primary union Blank 7: Secondary union Blank 8: Wound contraction Blank 9: Regeneration Blank 10: Replacement

In the PNS, there are two types of neuroglia. The __________(blank 1) is the one that produces myelin sheath, that will wrap up __________(blank 2) axon(s) in the myelinated neurons, and will wrap up __________(blank 3) axon(s) in the unmyelinated neurons. The __________(blank 4) is the neuroglia that will provide structural support to the neuronal cell bodies that are located within the __________(blank 5).

Blank 1: Schwann cell Blank 2: 1 Blank 3: Several Blank 4: Satellite cell Blank 5: Ganglia

Two types of contractile proteins are myosin and actin. The first contractile protein is made up of _________(blank 1) filaments and the second is made up of _________(blank 2) filaments, respectively. Two types of regulatory proteins are Tropomyosin and _________ (blank 3). Titin is a type of _________ (blank 4) protein, that holds the thick filaments to both: the _________ (blank 5), which are located on the sides of the sarcomeres, and the _________ (blank 6), which is located in the middle of the sarcomere.

Blank 1: Thick Blank 2: Thin Blank 3: Troponin Blank 4: Structural Blank 5: Z lines Blank 6: M line

Changes in skin color can tell you a lot about an individual. Of the characteristics listed below, what colored skin would you expect to see on individuals that present these conditions or situations. Here are the color options: blue, brown, orange, red. Indicates an increased number of blood cells carrying insufficient oxygen content:

Blue

Sulcus

Bone depression

Trigeminal Nerve

Both or mixed

Changes in skin color can tell you a lot about an individual. Of the characteristics listed below, what colored skin would you expect to see on individuals that present these conditions or situations. Here are the color options: blue, brown, orange, red. Indicates either a local or general increase in melanin production by melanocytes:

Brown

Which of the following steps happens first regarding a muscle contracting? A. Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium B. Calcium binds to troponin C. A motor neuron releases acetylcholine D. Action potential travels down the transverse tubule E. Calcium binds to tropomyosin

C. A motor neuron releases acetylcholine

Cells are stem cells that continually undergo cell division to produce new olfactory receptor cells, which live for only about two months before being replaced A. Olfactory receptor B. Mitral C. Basal D. Supporting

C. Basal

What happens to sodium during a chemical synapse? A. Enters the presynaptic terminal B. Enters the postsynaptic terminal C. Binds to the receptors D. Enters the synaptic vesicles E. Binds to the postsynaptic cell membrane

C. Binds to the receptors

The vascular coat of the eyeball is called: A. Cornea B. Pupil C. Choroid D. Sclera

C. Choroid

There are two joints between the thoracic vertebrae and ribs. Which of the following pairs of bone features articulate with one another to form one of these joints? A. Spinous process; rib head B. Costal facet on the transverse process; rib head C. Costal facet of the centrum; rib head D. Spinous process; rib tubercle E. Costal facet on the centrum; rib tubercle

C. Costal facet of the centrum; rib head

Which of the following situations occurs in electrically excitable cells? A. When Na^ + ion channels open K^ + ion channels close B. The sodium-potassium pump moves sodium into the cell C. Depolarization causes voltage-gated sodium ion channels to open D. Sodium ion channels are opened by high extracellular calcium levels E. The opening and closing of ligand-gated channels cause depolarization

C. Depolarization causes voltage-gated sodium ion channels to open

The act of bending the wrist so that the palmar portion of the hand is moved closer to the forearm involves what movement? A. Extension B. Medial rotation C. Flexion D. Dorsiflexion E. Abduction

C. Flexion

What are the cells that are surrounding the neuron collectively called? A. Ground substance B. Introns C. Glial cells D. Smooth muscle tissue

C. Glial cells

If one nerve stimulus arrives at a muscle fiber so soon that the fiber has only partially relaxed from the previous twitch, the most likely result will be A. Fatigue B. Spasm C. Incomplete tetanus D. Complete tetanus E. Flaccid paralysis

C. Incomplete tetanus

What is the primary function of skeletal muscles in the human body? A. Help with digestion B. Pump blood through the body C. Move bones and joints D. Protect internal organs

C. Move bones and joints

Produce mucus that moistens the surface of olfactory epithelium and dissolves odorants so that transduction can occur A. Mitral cells B. Glomeruli C. Olfactory glands D. Olfactory bulbs

C. Olfactory glands

When calcium levels in the blood fall below homeostasis, which bone cells act to raise calcium levels and through what mechanism? A. Osteoclast; deposition B. Osteoblast; resorption C. Osteoclast; resorption D. Osteoblast; deposition

C. Osteoclast; resorption

Eva Marie is a boxer! She goes and trains at her gym to properly prepare for her competitions against other boxers. Her last match consisted of her throwing five punches in a row and resulted in a knock out. Which of the following muscles were used to perform a punch if we are discussing movement at the level of the SHOULDER joint? A. Trapezius B. Rhomboids C. Pectoralis minor D. Levator scapulae

C. Pectoralis minor

Neural tissue cells: A. Contract B. Line internal cavities and passageways C. Transmit electrical signals D. Have short microvilli E. Are underneath every exposed body surface

C. Transmit electrical signals

These nerves move the eye in general. (number)

CN III, CN IV, CN VI

Unilateral paralysis is the paralysis of one side of the tongue. In order to test this, a doctor may ask a patient to stick their tongue out. If there is nerve damage, the tongue will point toward the side that is paralyzed. The function of which nerve (number) is being tested?

CN XII

Chemical element that cannot be produced by any biological processes

Calcium

What are the two major cell types of the nervous system? Start with least numerous as cell type 1 Cell Type 1: Cell Type 2:

Cell Type 1: Neurons Cell Type 2: Glial cells

Tissue Level

Cells are organized into groups of similar cells.

Match the type of vertebrae on the left with the correct number of vertebrae on the right. Cervical: Thoracic: Lumbar: Sacral: Coccyx:

Cervical: 7 Thoracic: 12 Lumbar: 5 Sacral: 5 fused Coccyx: 3-5 fused

Broken ends of the bone do not protrude through the skin

Closed fracture

Bone is splintered, crushed or broken into pieces at impact site

Communicated fracture

In the secretion of the mammary glands, the secretory product is released during the shedding of the apical portion of the cell's cytoplasm that is packed with secretory vesicles. The cells in this gland then regenerates and creates more secretory vesicles. What kind o secretion is being described? A. Holocrine secretion B. Merocrine secretion C. Apical secretion D. Apocrine secretion

D. Apocrine secretion

Which of the following structures connects the third and fourth ventricles? A. Septum pellucidum B. Lateral ventricles C. Interventricular foramen D. Aqueduct of the midbrain

D. Aqueduct of the midbrain

Raising your arm laterally to shoulder level is accomplished almost entirely by the A. Pectoralis major B. Biceps brachii C. Trapezius D. Deltoid E. Triceps brachii

D. Deltoid

When the membrane potential of a cell membrane becomes more positive than the resting potential, one can say that the membrane has become: A. Superpolarized B. Hypopolarized C. Hyperpolarized D. Depolarized

D. Depolarized

Adduction at the wrist involves contraction of the: A. Extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor carpi ulnaris B. Extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, flexor carpi radialis C. Flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris D. Flexor carpi ulnaris & extensor carpi ulnaris

D. Flexor carpi ulnaris & extensor carpi ulnaris

Estrogen is a hormone that aids in the absorption of calcium. When a woman reaches menopause, the production of estrogen is greatly reduced. Mary recently reached menopausal age and was advised to take a calcium supplement to reduce her risk of Osteoporosis. How can a menopause affect Mary's bones? A. Osteoblasts will begin to break down calcium stored within the bone which can cause Osteoporosis B. Osteoblasts will begin to use excess calcium to secrete matrix for bone formation which can cause osteoporosis C. Osteoclasts will begin to use excess calcium to secrete matrix for bone formation which can cause osteoporosis D. Osteoclasts will begin to break down calcium stored within the bone which can cause osteoporosis

D. Osteoclasts will begin to break down calcium stored within the bone which can cause osteoporosis

Scoliosis occurs from: A. Over-curvature anteriorly B. Over-curvature posteriorly C. Under-curvature anteriorly D. Over-curvature laterally E. Under-curvature posteriorly

D. Over-curvature laterally

When contracted, the soleus assists in the action of ____________ of the foot, while the tibialis anterior assists in the action of ______________ of the foot. A. Inversion, Eversion B. Dorsiflexion, Plantar flexion C. Retraction, Protraction D. Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion

D. Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion

The posterior cord gives rise to which nerves? A. Radial and ulnar B. Axillary and median C. Musculocutaneous and median D. Radial and axillary E. Median and ulnar

D. Radial and axillary

The sensory systems keep the CNS informed of changes in the external and internal environments. The sensory information is integrated by interneurons in the spinal cord and brain. Responses to the integrative decisions are brought about by motor activities (muscular contractions and glandular secretions). The cerebral cortex, the outer part of the brain, plays a major role in controlling precise voluntary muscular movements. Other brain regions regulate involuntary movements. Motor output to skeletal muscles travels down the spinal cord in two types of descending pathways: direct and indirect. Choose which pathways are direct and which ones are indirect. Known as the pyramidal pathways Referred to as the extrapyramidal pathways Lateral corticospinal tract Tectospinal tract Vestibulospinal tract Ventral (anterior) Corticospinal tract Rubrospinal tract Corticobulbar tract Lateral reticulospinal tract Medial reticulospinal tract

Direct Motor Pathway: - Known as the pyramidal pathways Referred to as the extrapyramidal pathways - Lateral corticospinal tract - Ventral (anterior) corticospinal tract - Corticobulbar tract - Convey action potentials that originate in the cerebral cortex and are destined to cause voluntary movements of skeletal muscles Indirect Motor Pathway: - Referred to as the extrapyramidal pathways - Tectospinal tract - Vestibulospinal tract - Rubrospinal tract - Lateral reticulospinal tract - Medial reticulospinal tract - Convey action potentials from the brainstem to cause involuntary movements that regulate posture, balance, and muscle tone

A muscle that aids in chewing without moving the mandible is: A. Levator anguli oris B. Temporalis C. Mentalis D. Zygomaticus E. Buccinator

E. Buccinator

A pregnant woman would most likely suffer what type of spinal curvature and in what vertebral area? A. Hyperkyphosis in the sacral area B. Hyperkyphosis in the lumbar area C. Hyperkyphosis in the thoracic area D. Hyperlordosis in the cervical area E. Hyperlordosis in the lumbar area

E. Hyperlordosis in the lumbar area

Although both are involved with the tongue, the _______ nerve moves the tongue while the _________ nerve allows for sensation and taste on the tongue A. Hypoglossal; accessory B. Glossopharyngeal; olfactory C. Trochlear; hypoglossal D. Abducens; accessory E. Hypoglossal; glossopharyngeal

E. Hypoglossal; glossopharyngeal

Organ system that captures oxygen from the atmosphere. A. Nervous B. Cardiovascular C. Circulatory D. Lymphatic E. Respiratory

E. Respiratory

Anne has pale skin and goes to the beach. Instead of getting a tan, her skin gets red. Why does that happen? A. She produces less melanocytes B. She produces more melanocytes C. She has increased blood supply to her skin D. She produces more melanin E. She produces less melanin

E. She produces less melanin

Group of cells with a similar function that work together. A. Organ B. Organ system C. Cell D. Organism E. Tissue

E. Tissue

Which of the following makes up the greatest amount in terms of molecular composition of the human body? A. Hydrogen B. Carbohydrate C. Carbon D. Nitrogen E. Water

E. Water

This physiological property will allow the removal of water and small amounts of salts, carbon dioxide, ammonia and urea from our bodies

Excretion

T/F: The cuticle of the hair, forms the major part of the shaft and consists of elongated cells that contain pigmentation

False - The CORTEX of the hair, forms the major part of the shaft and consists of elongated cells that contain pigmentation

T/F: The externally observable part of a hair is called the root

False - The externally observable part of a hair is called the SHAFT

Structurally, joints are classified as: fibrous joint, cartilaginous joint and synovial joint. Match their definitions below. Fibrous Joint Cartilaginous Joint Synovial Joint

Fibrous Joint --> Connected by fibrous connective tissue Cartilaginous Joint --> Connected by cartilage Synovial Joint --> Connected by both

Suture structure _______ and function _______

Fibrous joint Synarthrosis

Squamous

Flat cells

Osteon

Functional unit of compact bone

Which cranial nerve innervates the parotid salivary gland?

Glossopharyngeal

Secretory product accumulates in cytosol. As it matures, the cell membrane ruptures releasing the secretory contents. With the rupture of the cell membrane, this cell dies and gets replaced by a new cell.

Holocrine

The three types of cartilages are:

Hyaline, elastic and fibrocartilages

Exaggeration of lumbar curvature

Hyperlordosis

CN XII

Hypoglossal Nerve

Which area of the brain was damaged? Her analysis revealed that she has low levels of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) being produced by her body

Hypothalamus

This cytoskeleton component is the main component of cell junctions, which will keep cells together.

Intermediate filaments

Imaging Anatomy

Internal body structures that can be visualized with x-rays, CT scans, MRIs and other technologies.

Sensory Receptor

It responds to a specific stimulus - a change in the internal or external environment- by producing a graded potential known as a receptor potential.

List all cells that you would find in each cell layer listed below. Stratum corneum

Just keratinocytes

List all cells that you would find in each cell layer listed below. Stratum lucidum

Keratinocytes only

Lacrimal Bone Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:

Lacrimal Bone - Axial - Paired

Facial Bones

Lacrimal, maxilla, zygomatic, palatine

What are the types of connective tissue proper?

Loose, dense, and elastic

Which organ(s) are located within the pleural cavity?

Lungs

Within the physiological processes of protection, the presence of this cell type is important to alert our body to the presence of microbial invaders or pathogens

Macrophages

Infraorbital foramen

Maxilla

Match the following different types of sensory receptors: Mechanoreceptors Thermoreceptors Photoreceptors Chemoreceptor Nociceptors With its corresponding functions --> - Respond to painful stimuli resulting from physical or chemical damage to tissues - Sensitive to mechanical such as deformation, stretching, or bending of cells. Provide of pressure, vibration, proprioception, and - Detect chemicals in the mouth (taste), nose (smell), and body fluids - Detect changes in temperature - Detect light that strikes the retina of the eye

Mechanoreceptors: Sensitive to mechanical stimuli such as deformation, stretching, or bending of cells. Provide the sense of pressure, vibration, proprioception (awareness of body position), and tactile sensations. Thermoreceptors: Detect changes in temperature. Photoreceptors: Detect light that strikes the retina of the eye. Chemoreceptors: Detect chemicals in the mouth (taste), nose (smell), and body fluids. Nociceptors: Respond to painful stimuli resulting from physical or chemical damage to tissues.

Most responsible for the skin color of dark-skinned individuals

Melanin

Within the physiological processes of protection, the secretion of this substance by melanocytes will help to shield the skin against the damaging effects of ultraviolet light

Melanin

Secretions released from cell in secretory vesicles via exocytosis. Therefore the cells remain intact.

Merocrine

Is the first connective tissue to develop in the embryo.

Mesenchyme

This plasma membrane extension is responsible for increasing absorption and secretion in the digestive system.

Microvilli

Trochlear Nerve

Motor

Is a second type of embryonic connective tissue

Mucous connective tissue

This tissue membrane has an underlying connective tissue known as lamina propria, that will help support the above, fragile epithelial layer.

Mucous membrane

This tissue membrane line the body cavities and hollow passageways that open to the external environment.

Mucous membrane

The bones will provide an attachment point for these structures

Muscle tendons

This medication can be taken to block the synthesis of prostaglandins.

NSAIDs

Posterior

Near to or at the back of the body.

Parathyroid hormone stimulates the activity of:

Osteoclasts

Which area of the brain was damaged? The doctor has been evaluating Chris for several weeks now because his daily work schedule changed, and he has trouble adjusting sleep-wake cycles. The doctor finally decides that taking some melatonin supplement would help him

Pineal Gland

The vertebrae is _______ to the sternum

Posterior

Line

Projections for ligament and tendon attachment

Tuberosity

Projections for ligament and tendon attachment

Death of bone cells near injury site

Reactive phase

Initiation of inflammatory process with swelling

Reactive phase

Myoglobin

Red, oxygen binding protein that is only found in the muscle; stores oxygen until it is needed by mitochondria for ATP

Optic Nerve

Sensory

Vestibulocochlear Nerve

Sensory

This tissue membrane lines the cavities that do not open to the outside.

Serous membrane

Patella

Sesamoid bone

Nearly equal in length, width, and depth

Short bones

This structure prevents microorganisms from entering the body.

Skin

Movement of food through the digestive tract

Smooth muscle tissue

Movement of urine through the urinary tract.

Smooth muscle tissue

Condyle

Smooth, rounded articular surface at the end of a bone

Place muscle contraction steps in order Step 1: Step 2: Step 3: Step 4: Step 5: Step 6: Step 7: Step 8: Step 9: Step 10: Step 11:

Step 1: Action potential occurs in the somatic motor neuron Step 2: ACH that is stored in the synaptic vesicle of the synaptic end bulb is released and diffused across the synaptic cleft Step 3: ACH binds to specific receptors on the motor end plate Step 4: Entry of Na+ ions causes depolarization of sarcolemma Step 5: Action potential travels along T-tubules Step 6: At the onset of muscle fiber contraction, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions into the sarcoplasm Step 7: The calcium ions then bind to troponin, which moves tropomyosin away from myosin binding sites on actin Step 8: Now that the binding sites are free, ATP is hydrolyzed into ADP and a phosphate. This energizes the myosin head which then assumes the "cocked" position Step 9: The energized myosin head then attaches to the myosin binding site on actin and a phosphate is released. This is referred to as the "crossbridge" Step 10: The myosin head pivots changing its position from 90 degrees to 45, pulling the thin filament past the thick filament towards the center of the sarcomere. This is referred to as the power stroke Step 11: Another molecule of ATP binds to the ATP binding site on myosin allowing for myosin to detach from actin

Place the following steps of bone growth in thickness in the correct order. Statement #1 - transformation of bone ridges into grooves to accommodate periosteal blood vessel Statement #2 - formation of bone ridges on either side of the periosteal blood vessel Statement #3 - formation of new osteon Statement #4 - periosteum becomes endosteum lining the tunnel Statement #5 - osteoblasts deposit new circumferential lamellae Statement #6 - osteoblasts become surrounded by extracellular matrix and develop into osteocytes Statement #7 - transformation of bone grooves into tunnels to accommodate periosteal blood vessel Statement #8 - periosteal cells differentiate into osteoblasts Statement #9 - formation of new concentric lamellae

Step 1: Statement #8 - periosteal cells differentiate into osteoblasts Step 2: Statement #6 - osteoblasts become surrounded by extracellular matrix and develop into osteocytes Step 3: Statement #2 - formation of bone ridges on either side of the periosteal blood vessel Step 4: Statement #1 - transformation of bone ridges into grooves to accommodate periosteal blood vessel Step 5: Statement #7 - transformation of bone grooves into tunnels to accommodate periosteal blood vessel Step 6: Statement #4 - periosteum becomes endosteum lining the tunnel Step 7: Statement #9 - formation of new concentric lamellae Step 8: Statement #3 - formation of new osteon Step 9: Statement #5 - osteoblasts deposit new circumferential lamellae

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

Storage center for calcium in relaxed muscle

Functions in protection

Stratified and transitional epithelia

Best suited for areas subjected to friction.

Stratified squamous epithelium

Contains scattered intermediate filaments also known as tonofilaments

Stratum basale

Cells are continuously shed and replaced by cells from the deeper strata.

Stratum corneum

Consists on average of 25 to 30 layers of flattened dead keratinocytes

Stratum corneum

Collagen fibers

Strong, flexible bundles of protein collagen, the most abundant protein in your body

Complete the following table relating to body membranes. Enter your answers in the areas left blank. SEROUS Tissue Type: _______________ Common Location(s): _______________ Functions (s): _______________

Tissue Type: Layer of simple squamous epithelium resting on a fine layer of connective tissue Common Location(s): Lines internal ventral body cavities and covers their organs Functions(s): Produces lubricating fluid that reduces friction

Receptors vary in how quickly they adapt. Classify the statements below as being tonic or phasic receptors. - Known as rapidly adapting receptors. - Known as slowly adapting receptors. - Continues to produce a significant response as long as the stimulus persists. - Responds when the stimulus is first applied—the on response—and then cease to respond while the stimulus is maintained. - Some of these receptors also produce a second response called the off response when the stimulus is removed. - Specialized for signaling changes in a stimulus. - Associated with stimuli that require constant monitoring. - Baroreceptor is an example of this stimulus. - As an example of this stimulus, the brain must be continuously informed about the level of arterial blood pressure in order to maintain the driving force for movement of blood through body tissues. - As an example of this stimulus, you normally notice your clothes touching your body when you first put them on and then are unaware of them after that.

Tonic receptors: - Continues to produce a significant response as long as the stimulus persists. - Associated with stimuli that require constant monitoring. - Baroreceptor is an example of this stimulus. - As an example of this stimulus, the brain must be continuously informed about the level of arterial blood pressure in order to maintain the driving force for movement of blood through body tissues. Phasic receptors: - Responds when the stimulus is first applied—the on response—and then ceases to respond while the stimulus is maintained. - Some of these receptors also produce a second response called the off response when the stimulus is removed. - Specialized for signaling changes in a stimulus. - Known as rapidly adapting receptors. - Known as slowly adapting receptors. - As an example of this stimulus, you normally notice your clothes touching your body when you first put them on and then are unaware of them after that.

T/F: A fiber is categorized as slow or fast depending on how rapidly the ATPase in its myosin heads hydrolyze ATP

True

T/F: Blood Brain Barrier (BBB) is made by capillary endothelial cells surrounded by astrocytes. It allows nutrients to go in and nourish the brain tissue and allows CO2 and waste to get out of brain tissue

True

T/F: Cranial meninges are connective tissue layer that separates the brain tissue from the scalp

True

T/F: Each myosin head has two binding sites: (1) an actin-binding site and (2) an ATP-binding site.

True

T/F: Skeletal muscle fibers that have a high myoglobin content are termed red muscle fibers

True

T/F: Slow oxidative fibers generate ATP mainly by aerobic respiration

True

Cortical bone

Type of bone tissue with few spaces. Harder/denser. Has osteons

Choose if the bone belongs to the appendicular or axial subdivision. Then select if these bones are paired or unpaired. Ulna Bone Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:

Ulna Bone - Appendicular - Paired

Inspection

Visualization of a person and its body parts; it is the first step in a physical exam

Temporal Lobe

Auditory and olfactory cortex are located here

Tibia Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:

Tibia - Appendicular - Paired

Hypogastric region

Most of ileum and anus

Secretory product accumulates in cell apical region. Then, that portion of the cell pinches off from the rest of the cell to release the secretion. Therefore, only the apical part of the cell gets removed, but cells do not die.

Apocrine

Superior

Above or higher in position; toward the head. (not used in reference to limbs)

Right lumbar region

Ascending colon and part of transverse colon

Choose ALL functions that belong to the digestive system. (multiple answers may apply) - Absorbs nutrients - Produces, stores, and eliminates urine - Regulates production of red blood cells - Eliminates waste products - Mechanical and chemical breakdown of food - Helps maintain acid-base balance of body fluids

- Absorbs nutrients - Eliminates waste products - Mechanical and chemical breakdown of food

Place the endochondral ossification events listed on RIGHT column in the order in which they occur. 1: 2: 3: 4: 5: 6: 7:

1: Development of cartilage model --> mesenchymal cells develop into chondroblasts, which form the cartilage model 2: Growth of cartilage model --> growth occurs by cell division of chondrocytes and formation of bone collar 3: Development of primary ossification center --> in diaphysis, bone tissue has replaced most of cartilage 4: Development of the medullary (marrow) cavity --> bone breakdown by osteoclasts forms the medullary cavity 5: Development of secondary ossification centers--> these occur in the epiphyses of the bone 6: Formation of epiphyseal plate between diaphysis and epiphyses 7: Closure of epiphyseal plate and formation of epiphyseal line

The main function of a fibrous joint is to: A. Provide stability between two bones B. Allow motion to occur between two bones C. Unite two bones with a synovial cavity D. Unite two bones with cartilageallow some motion while still E. Providing stability between two bones

A. Provide stability between two bones

T/F: The myosin tail of each myosin molecule points toward the Z line in the center of the sarcomere

False

These cells are part of the wandering cells of the dermis

Macrophages, eosinophils, neutrophils and mast cells

Bone(s) that form(s) the chin

Mandible

Which of the following is a group of four muscles in the anterior thigh? A. Quadriceps femoris B. Gluteal muscles C. Biceps femoris D. Hamstrings Gracilis

A. Quadriceps femoris

Most of the ascending colon is in the ____________ region. A. Right lumbar B. Pubic C. Left inguinal D. Left lumbar E. Right inguinal

A. Right lumbar

function to: A. Secrete mucus B. Transduce chemical information into action potentials C. Help neutralize odors D. Produce olfactory cells

A. Secrete mucus

This nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle

Abducens

Contractibility

Ability of muscle fibers to contract forcefully when adequately stimulated

A branch of the trigeminal nerve that innervates the muscles of mastication

Mandibular

Special epithelial tissues that produce secretions are called: A. Glands B. Membranes C. Pits D. Endothelium E. Fascia

A. Glands

Which bone feature is most proximal when compared to the other answers? A. Head of the humerus B. Head of the radius C. Head of the ulna D. Styloid process of radius E. Styloid process of ulna

A. Head of the humerus

Electrical Excitability

Ability to respond to stimuli (neurotransmitter or hormones) by producing action potentials that trigger movement

T/F: There is a potential space between the arachnoid and pia mater called the subarachnoid space that contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

False

Which of the following statements concerning types of muscle coptractions is false? A. In isometric contractions, the amount of tension produced by the muscle is constant B. In isotonic contractions , the muscle fibers shorten C. The contractile processes in isometric and isotonic contractions are the same D. Most skeletal muscle contractions are a combination of isometric and isotonic contractions E. In isotonic contractions, the amount of produced by the muscle fibers is constant during the contraction

A. In isometric contractions, the amount of tension produced by the muscle is constant

T/F: You can only taste certain things such as salty, sweet, umami, bitter, or sour in specific places on your tongue

False

Layers of the epidermis from the deepest to most superficial are: A. Spinosum, basale, granulosum, corneum B. Basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum C. Spinosum, basale, corneum, granulosum D. Basale, granulosum, spinosum, corneum

B. Basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum

What type of ossification is involved in mandible, hip, limb and clavicle development? A. Intramembranous, endochondral, endochondral, intramembranous B. endochondral, endochondral, Intramembranous, endochondral C. Intramembranous, Intramembranous, endochondral, endochondral D. Intramembranous, endochondral, Intramembranous, endochondral

A. Intramembranous, endochondral, endochondral, intramembranous

The central nervous system: A. Is the site for processing information B. Initiates visual and auditory stimuli C. Consists of 43 pairs of nerves D. Is totally involuntary E. Does not interact with the peripheral nervous system

A. Is the site for processing information

Which three bones form the coxal bone? A. Ischium, ilium, pubis B. Pelvis, pubic symphysis, sacrum C. Sacrum, pelvis, ilium D. Ilium, sacrum, ischium E. Sacrum, coccyx, ischium

A. Ischium, ilium, pubis

Which type of general sense receptor detects pressure changes in walls of blood vessels and in portions of the digestive, reproductive and urinary tracts? A. Mechanoreceptors B. Thermoreceptors C. Nociceptors D. Chemoreceptors

A. Mechanoreceptors

The glial cells that destroy microorganisms in the CNS are: A. Microglia B. Satellite cells C. Oligodendrocytes D. Ependymal cells E. Astrocytes

A. Microglia

(UL V. LL Anatomy) The pectoral girdle is formed by _______bone(s). The pelvic girdle is formed by _______bone(s).

2;1

Transitional

Changes from a rounded cell shape to an oval shape

The mature cells of a cartilage are called:

Chondrocytes

Carcinoma

Epithelial cells

Detects external and internal body changes and respond to those changes by generating action potential. nervous tissue

Nervous tissue

Broken ends of the bone protrude through the skin

Open fracture

(Upper Limb Articulations) What bone forms the pelvic girdle?

Os coxa

Posterior bone of the hard palate

Palatine

Tubercle

Projections for ligament and tendon attachment

Ventral

Relating to the belly side of the body; toward the belly.

Fibroblasts invade site of injury to produce collagen fibers

Reparative phase

This layer of the dermis in located on the bottom layer and it is the thickest of the dermal layers

Reticular

This dermal layer is attached to the hypodermis

Reticular layer

Shaft

Same as diaphysis

This cytoskeleton component has a protein that will interact with myosin during muscle contraction.

microfilaments

Presence of red bone marrow in medullary cavity

Site of blood cell production

Small amounts of waste products are excreted through:

Skin and glands

Which cranial nerve innervates muscles that help with facial expression?

Facial

CN XI

Accessory Nerve

Sectional Anatomy

Internal structure and relationships of the body through the use of sections.

Apoptosis

Normal and controlled cell death

This process will be regulated by adjusting dermal blood flow.

Thermoregulation

CN V

Trigeminal Nerve

Choose ALL functions that belong to the skeletal system. (multiple answers may apply) - Aids in body movements - Mantains body's mineral balance - Supports and protects the body - Stores minerals and lipids - Houses cells that produce blood cells - Provides a surface area for muscle attachment

- Aids in body movements - Supports and protects the body - Stores minerals and lipids - Houses cells that produce blood cells - Provides a surface area for muscle attachment

Organ Level

2 or more different types of tissues are organized into structures that have specific functions and usually have recognizable shapes.

Motor Neuron

Action potentials triggered by the integrating center propagate out of the CNS along the axon of a motor neuron to the effector.

Positron Emission Tomography (PET)

Analyzes metabolic state by detecting levels of glucose in organs

(Additional Structures) This bone feature on the tibia is a sharp ridge that is responsible for causing pain when shin is hit

Anterior tibial margin

In this type of cartilage growth, cells in the perichondrium will add new cartilage to the outside of the existing cartilage

Appositional growth

Reticular fibers

Are made of collagen and glycoproteins. They provide support in blood vessel walls and form branching networks around

Gray Matter

Area of the brain and spinal cord comprised of neural cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons and neuroglia

Parietal Lobe

Area where we have the sensation of the skin, muscles, and joints

The type of cartilage that covers the epiphysis of long bones is called:

Articular cartilage

Which one of the following is not a branch of the Trigeminal Nerve (CN V)?

Auditory

Auditory Ossicles Appendicular or Axial: Paired or Unpaired:

Auditory Ossicles - Axial - Paired

Deep

Away from the surface of the body.

Nerves that directly control the motility of the stomach or rate of the heartbeat would belong to the: A. Central nervous system B. Autonomic motor division C. Somatic motor division D. Autonomic sensory division E. Somatic sensory division

B. Autonomic motor division

One of the characteristics of all epithelia is the attachment, which means that: A. Epithelia are composed by cells bound closely together B. The basal surface of a typical epithelium is bound to a thin basal lamina C. Cells forming the typical epithelium are strongly attached to each other D. There are no blood vessels within the epithelia

B. The basal surface of a typical epithelium is bound to a thin basal lamina

Which structure binds to the active site of the thin filament to cause muscle contraction? A. Troponin B. The head of the myosin C. Tropomyosin D. The tail of the myosin

B. The head of the myosin

Addition of minerals and collagen fibers to bone by osteoblasts

Bone deposition

While driving to school to take an anatomy test, Peter gets in a car accident and breaks the clavicle on the steering wheel. Which of the following muscles is the most likely damaged in this injury? A. Mylohyoid B. Stylohyoid C. Osternocleidomastoid D. Digastric E. Stemohyoid

C. Osternocleidomastoid

Muscles need to undergo this process to be able to pull on bones and produce movement

Contraction

The diaphragm is ______ to the stomach

Cranial

Neuroglia ____________. Some examples of neuroglia in the CNS are _________. A. Are responsible for the transfer of information in the nervous system; Oligodendrocytes, Astrocytes and Ependymal Cells. B. Process information in the nervous system; Satellite Cells and Schwann Cells C. Support neurons; Oligodendrocytes, Microglia, Schwann cells and Satellite Cells D. Support neurons; Oligodendrocytes, Microglia and Ependymal Cells.

D. Support neurons; Oligodendrocytes, Microglia and Ependymal Cells.

Cells provide physical support to the olfactory receptor cells and help detoxify chemicals that come in contact with the olfactory epithelium A. Olfactory receptor B. Mitral C. Basal D. Supporting

D. Supporting

Which statement defines extensibility? A. The ability of a muscle to rebound toward its original length after a contraction B. Ability to respond to stimulation C. The ability to shorten actively and exert a pull or tension D. The ability to continue to contract over a range of resting lengths

D. The ability to continue to contract over a range of resting lengths

Neurotransmitters are found in: A. The axon hillock B. Attached directly to the post-synaptic membrane C. The dendrites D. The synaptic cleft E. The neuronal cell bodies

D. The synaptic cleft

(Upper Limb Articulations) The ulnar notch is on the _______(distal/proximal) portion of the _______(bone) and articulates with the _______(bone feature).

Distal; radius; ulnar head

Within the gray matter of the spinal cord are three horns, the (1) dorsal gray horns, (2) lateral gray horns, and (3) ventral gray horns. Match below what is present in each of these horns with one of the following answer choices: - Cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons - Cell bodies of somatic motor neurons - Axons of sensory neurons and cell bodies of interneurons Dorsal Gray Horns: Lateral Gray Horns: Ventral Gray Horns:

Dorsal Gray Horns: Axons of sensory neurons and cell bodies of interneurons Lateral Gray Horns: Cell bodies of autonomic motor neuronsVentral Gray Horns: Cell bodies of somatic motor neurons

A connective tissue fiber refers to a(n) __________ and a muscle fiber refers to a/an __________. A. Entire cell; part of a cell B. Entire cell; tissue C. Complex of macromolecules; part of a cell D. Entire cell; complex of macromolecules E. Complex of macromolecules; entire cell

E. Complex of macromolecules; entire cell

The tissue that forms glands. epithelial tissue

Epithelial tissue

CN VII

Facial Nerve

T/F: The integumentary system consists of the skin and the dermis.

False - False because the integument includes the hypodermis

T/F: The epidermis is responsible for tissue strength.

False - False because the dermis is the layer responsible for tissue strength

This tissue membrane has mucus that is produced by epithelial cells.

Mucous membrane

Myelin Sheath

Multilayered covering composed of lipids and proteins

Tissue that generates body heat.

Muscular tissue

Fissure

Narrow slit between adjacent parts of bones through which blood vessels or nerves pass

Paranasal sinuses are lined with mucous membranes that are continuous with the lining of which structure? _______

Nasal cavity

(Lower Limb Articulations) Your friend falls and lands with all his weight on the medial aspect of his foot just distal to the heel bone and proximal to the metatarsals. Which tarsal is most likely broken?

Navicular

Produces nerve impulses that activates muscle contractions and glandular secretions.

Nervous tissue

These cells enter the blood vessels as a response to the actions of histamine

Neutrophils and macrophages

Changes in skin color can tell you a lot about an individual. Of the characteristics listed below, what colored skin would you expect to see on individuals that present these conditions or situations. Here are the color options: blue, brown, orange, red. Indicates the presence of carotene, which can result from eating a lot of carrots:

Orange

(Lower Limb Articulations) The patella articulates with which femoral bone feature?

Patellar surface

Growth

Refers to an increase in overall body size due to an increase in the number and/or size of cells

Reproduction

Process by which new cells are formed for growth, repair, or replacement or for the production of a new individual

Mast cells

Produce histamine, which dilates small blood vessels during inflammation and kills bacteria

Facet

Projections on bones that form joints

Head

Projections on bones that form joints

This compound, present in cartilage, makes the cartilage resilient by trapping water

Proteoglycans

Lines much of the respiratory tract.

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

Propels substances (e.g., mucus) across its surface.

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

(Upper Limb Articulations) The radial head articulates with this depression on the humerus.

Radial fossa

Production of fibrocartilage from chondroblasts

Reparative phase

Oligodendrocytes

Responsible for forming and maintaining the myelin sheath around the axons of neurons in the CNS

Spinous Process

Sharp, slender projection

Carpals

Short

Forms the lining of the stomach and small intestine.

Simple columnar epithelium

Allows you to direct your eyeballs

Skeletal muscle tissue

Concentric Isotonic Contraction

The tension generated is great enough to exceed the load and the muscle shortens, pulling on another structure (such as a tendon) to produce movement

Isometric Contraction

The tension generated is not enough to exceed the load, and the muscle does not change its length

This process will be regulated by the liberation of sweat

Thermoregulation

Astrocytes

They surround brain capillaries and are responsible for maintaining the "tightness" of tight junctions. They are especially important in maintaining this

Hypertrophy

Tissue increase without cell division

This connective tissue is the site for a potential chemical energy reserve

Yellow bone marrow


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