A&PII Lecture Final Exam
Calculate the stroke volume if the end diastolic volume (EDV) is 135 mL/beat and the end systolic volume (ESV) is 60 mL/beat.
75 mL/beat
As many as _______ sperm can be released with each ejaculation.
750 million
Calculate the cardiac output if heart rate (HR) is 90 beats per minute, stroke volume (SV) is 110 ml/beatml/beat, end diastolic volume (EDV) is 140 mlml, and end systolic volume (ESV) is 30 mlml.
9.9 L/min
Determine which ECG shows a normal sinus rhythm.
A
During the preschool examination of a 4-year-old boy, you are unable to palpate his testes within the scrotal sac. His parents state that previous exams have been normal, and that the testes are clearly visible during baths. What is the most likely explanation?
A chilly examination room or your cold hands have activated the cremasteric reflex.
Consider a dihybrid cross (AaBb x AaBb). How many offspring would be predicted to be heterozygous for both traits?
1/4
What fraction of the cardiac output is delivered to the kidneys each minute?
1/4
Place the following steps of phagocytosis in the order that they occur: (1) Endosome fuses with lysozome (2) Dendritic cell engulfs Rhinovirus (3) Epitopes are attached to MHC-II (4) Digestion of the Rhinovirus (5) MHC-II plus the attached epitope move to the outside of the dendritic cell
2, 1, 4, 3, 5
Correctly order the steps involved cellular immunity: (1) The Tc recognizes the infected host cell (2) The Tc interacts with epitope presented by MHC-I on the dendritic cell (3) The Tc secretes perforin and granzyme, causing apoptosis (4) The helper T cell activates the Tc cell
2,4,1,3
The number of chromosomes in a human gamete is __________; this is referred to as a __________ chromosome number.
23; haploid
Calculate the net filtration pressure if capillary hydrostatic pressure is 60 mm Hg, capillary osmotic pressure is 25 mm Hg, and capsular hydrostatic pressure is 10 mm Hg.
25 mm Hg
If two parents are both heterozygous for an autosomal dominant trait, what is the probability that they will have a child with the recessive form of that trait?
25%
When two people heterozygous for a trait produce a child, what is the probability that their child will be homozygous recessive for that trait?
25%
In severe dehydration or blood loss, would ADH levels be high or low, and would urine production be high or low?
ADH - high; urine production - low
How does ADH contribute to the formation of concentrated urine?
ADH increases the permeability of the collecting duct to water by stimulating the insertion of aquaporins into the luminal membrane.
Which of these structures conduct(s) action potentials the slowest?
AV node
Your patient has had a total gastrectomy (removal of the stomach). Which of these potential problems are you MOST concerned about?
Anemia
What is meant by the clonal expansion of a B cell?
An activated B cell divides into cells that give rise to memory B cells and plasma cells.
Which is the most potent stimulus for thirst?
An increase in plasma osmolarity
Which of the following describes a hapten?
A hapten is a foreign molecule that becomes immunogenic when combined with body proteins.
How does heart rate affect stroke volume?
A high heart rate reduces the end diastolic volume (EDV) and stroke volume (SV), because there is less time for ventricular filling.
What type of intravenous infusion would you give to a runner who has collapsed after drinking too much water during the course of her marathon and why?
A hypertonic saline solution to pull water out of her cells
Homologous chromosomes are:
A pair of chromosomes with one from the mother and one from the father.
In the male sexual response, what is resolution?
A period of muscular and psychological relaxation
Mr. Watkins's blood type was determined to be A positive. Which of the following types of blood can he receive?
A positive, A negative, O positive, and O negative.
A patient suffering from hyperthyroidism may experience heart malfunction. Consequently, this patient must also tightly regulate his potassium intake. Which of the following is the best explanation for why he must carefully watch dietary potassium?
Both hyper- and hypokalemia can disrupt electrical conduction in the heart.
How is the chemiosmotic process shown in the figure similar to secondary active transport (cotransport) of solutes (discussed in Chapter 3)?
Both processes depend on the stored energy in an electrochemical gradient.
What is the correct general equation for cellular respiration?
C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + ATP energy
Which of the following intestinal hormones stimulates the release of bile from the gall bladder?
CCK
What is, overall, the LEAST abundant ion, including all three compartments?
Ca2+
How does carbonic acid alone directly affect the pH of blood?
Carbonic acid does not significantly affect blood pH.
In contrast to a skeletal muscle cell action potential, why does the action potential for a cardiac muscle cell contain a "plateau" phase?
Cardiac muscle cells contain slow Ca2+ channels in their sarcolemma that continue to allow influx of Ca2+ ions after Na+ channels are inactivated.
Cancer cells would be attacked by which of the following cells?
Cytotoxic T cells Submit
How do cytotoxic cells directly attack target cells?
Cytotoxic cells bind to the target cell and secrete chemicals that induce apoptosis.
Which of the following hormones do males secrete? A) Testosterone B) FSH C) LH D) All of the above
D) All of the above
Breast-feeding provides several advantages to newborns. Which of the following is (are) (a) benefit(s) of breast-feeding? A) Breast milk, especially colostrum, is rich in maternal antibodies. B) The fat in breast milk is fully absorbed by the infant. C) Breast milk contains antimicrobial molecules. D) All of the above are benefits of breast-feeding.
D) All of the above are benefits of breast-feeding.
PTH affects calcium blood levels via which of the following mechanisms? A) PTH stimulates osteoclasts to resorb bone. B) PTH stimulates increased Ca2+ absorption in the intestine. C) PTH stimulates increased Ca2+ reabsorption by renal tubules. D) All of the above are ways PTH affects calcium blood levels.
D) All of the above are ways PTH affects calcium blood levels.
Which of the following factors contribute(s) to the higher filtration rate in the glomerular capillaries compared with other capillary beds? A) The glomerular capillaries are fenestrated. B) The diameter of the efferent arteriole is smaller than the diameter of the afferent arteriole. C) The visceral layer of the glomerular capsule is very porous. D) All of the above contribute.
D) All of the above contribute.
Hypocalcemia could be caused by the ______. A) apoptosis of parathyroid cells B) failure of osteoclasts to respond to PTH (parathyroid hormone/parathormone) C) malfunction of the parathormone receptors in kidney tubule cells D) All of the listed responses are correct.
D) All of the listed responses are correct.
Which of the following general functions can be assigned to the renin-angiotensin system? A) Water conservation B) Blood pressure elevation C) Lowering blood sodium levels D) Both a and b
D) Both a and b
Why is the osmolarity of medullary fluid in the kidney almost four times higher than the osmolarity of plasma? A) The nephron loop acts as a countercurrent multiplier and contributes solutes to the interstitial fluid. B) Urea is recycled from the collecting duct and is transported to the interstitial fluid. C) The medullary cells in the kidney synthesize solutes to establish the high osmolarity. D) Both a and b occur.
D) Both a and b occur.
If testosterone were ineffective during development of a male's brain, what might be the outcome? A) The brain would develop without any noticeable difference from other males. B) The brain might have a female orientation. C) Gender identity may be ambiguous. D) Both b and c are possible.
D) Both b and c are possible.
The _______ is (are) responsible for producing seminal fluid. A) testes B) seminal vesicles C) prostate gland D) b and c
D) b and c
The ABO blood group inheritance is an example of _______. A) incomplete dominance B) codominance C) multiple-allele inheritance D) both b and c
D) both b and c
Which of these combinations of values would help you determine if your patient was suffering from metabolic acidosis?
Decreased blood HCO3- levels and decreased pH
AV node
Delay(s) occurs here while atria contract
Which of the following scenarios could result in HDN (hemolytic disease of the newborn)?
B-negative female pregnant with an AB-positive baby (Rh negative mom with an Rh positive baby)
Naomi had part of her stomach removed because of gastric tumors. Her doctor may recommend _________ because she is not producing sufficient ___________.
B12, intrinsic factor
Which pair of molecules do NOT directly interact with one another?
BCR and TCR
Where does primary active transport of sodium occur in proximal convoluted tubule cells?
Basolateral membrane
So why is Mr. G's mitral regurgitation causing a systolic murmur? Remember, a murmur is caused by abnormal turbulent blood flow.
Because his mitral valve leaks, when the ventricles contract, they push blood back up through it into the left atrium.
Which of the following is the major ECF buffer system in the body?
Bicarbonate buffer system
Which of the following are properly matched?
IgG: most abundant antibody
As the adrenal gland releases glucocorticoids, which of the following effects may be observed? Select all the answers that apply.
Increased blood glucose levels Increased blood levels of amino acids Decrease in immune system function Lipid breakdown in the liver will increase
Epinephrine
Increased dilation of bronchioles and heart rate
Cortisol
Increased metabolic effects from the liver
Aldosterone
Increased sodium and water absorption
When considering drug administration, why is it important to know the renal clearance rate of the drug?
It dictates the dosage and frequency of administration of drugs.
What is the significance of the slight swelling (called a goiter) in Krista's neck?
It is a sign that her thyroid gland is overactive.
Which of the following is an effect of luteinizing hormone (LH) after ovulation?
It maintains the corpus luteum.
What is the fate of the corpus luteum if pregnancy occurs?
It secretes progesterone and some estrogen for about three months.
Hypoalbuminemia is a medical condition in which blood plasma levels of albumin are abnormally low. One cause of this disorder is the increased movement of plasma albumin into the interstitial space through leaky blood capillaries. How would this condition affect the volume of lymph that is produced?
It would increase lymph volume.
The vasa recta are associated with which structures in the kidney?
Juxtamedullary nephrons
What is the most abundant intracellular cation?
K+
__________ are considered "bad" cholesterol; high blood levels are correlated with increased risk of cardiovascular disease.
LDLs
A woman who wants to ensure conception might buy an "ovulation predictor" kit. Which of the following hormones, when detected by the kit, would be the best indicator of imminent ovulation?
LH
If a person's parathyroids are responding properly to a drop in blood calcium, which of the following should result?
Less calcium will be excreted in the urine by the kidneys.
Internodal pathways
Link(s) between the SA node and AV node
What cells in the body respond to glucagon by breaking down glycogen and releasing glucose?
Liver cells
Body cells that respond to insulin include
Liver cells, as well as most other cells of the body.
Which statement correctly describes the origin of lymph fluid?
Lymph is excess tissue fluid formed from plasma that has leaked from capillaries
Choose the incompatible transfusion.
Donate type B blood to a recipient with type O blood.
AV bundle
Electrical link(s) between atria and ventricles
How does the electron transport chain participate in generating ATP?
Electrons in the electron transport chain allow respiratory enzymes to pump hydrogen ions into the intermembrane space, creating an electrochemical gradient.
What is the role of estrogen on luteinizing hormone (LH) production?
Estrogen may have either an inhibitory or an excitatory effect on LH production depending on the overall estrogen levels.
Why would an overactive thyroid cause Krista's weight loss, sweating, and elevated heart rate?
Excessive levels of thyroid hormone will increase Krista's metabolic rate above normal, which will cause weight loss if her caloric intake doesn't also increase. Additionally, and overactive thyroid will cause her body temperature to elevate which leads to more sweating. Lastly, the greater demand for oxygen that her body will have to support the increased metabolism function will lead to an elevated heart rate.
Which of the following statements about fluid movement is NOT correct?
Exchange between the plasma and the intracellular fluid occurs across the cell membrane.
Which of the following is/are the most specific internal defense against disease?
T cells
In Graves' disease, the immune system makes antibodies that stimulate TSH receptors on the thyroid gland. What effect does this have on Krista's thyroid?
The antibodies made by Krista's immune system will mimic TSH and therefore will stimulate the thyroid gland to secrete thyroid hormone. This will happen even in the absence of actual TSH.
What is the role of the atrioventricular bundle?
The atrioventricular bundle provides the only pathway for electrical signals to pass from the atria to the ventricles.
Refer to Focus Figure 18.2, specifically the pressure in the left atrium. Which statement best explains the second rise in atrial pressure on the line graph?
The bicuspid/mitral valve closes; blood is contained within the closed chamber, exerting pressure against the atrial wall.
Which statement best describes the autonomic nervous system's role in regulating heart rate?
The parasympathetic division normally inhibits the heart, keeping it beating at a slower rate than it would be on its own.
Which of the following is true of a patient with arterial blood pH of 7.6?
The patient has alkalosis and is out of the normal homeostatic range.
A woman in her 24th week of pregnancy fails a glucose challenge test and is diagnosed with gestational diabetes. Once the baby is born, the woman's glucose regulation is back to normal. How can this be explained?
The placenta releases the hormone human placental lactogen, which interferes with glucose uptake.
Which statement best describes the result of binding and fusion of the sperm's membrane to the oocyte plasma membrane?
They allow the contents of the sperm to enter the oocyte cytoplasm.
In the collecting ducts, bicarbonate ions are generated by_______ cells, while ________ cells secrete bicarbonate ions.
Type A; Type B
Which of the following statements is true?
Type O blood can safely be given to recipients with type B blood.
What is the most common cation found in the interstitial fluid?
Na+
Which of the following transporters in the luminal membrane results in secretion?
Na+-H+ countertransport
The most abundant cation of the ECF is _______ and the most abundant anion in the ECF is _______.
Na+; Cl-
What is the major difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis?
Oogenesis results in the formation of one viable oocyte.
Your patient has been admitted to the intensive care unit with a severe head injury. As you monitor his urine output, you find that it has fallen sharply. Lab tests indicate that his serum osmolality is lower than normal (i.e., his plasma is too dilute). What should you suspect?
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
Suppose a patient develops a myocardial infarction that disables the sinoatrial node. Would the heart still pump blood to the aorta and the pulmonary trunk?
Yes, because the atrioventricular node will still stimulate ventricular systole.
Which is the correct order of events for hormones activating Gs proteins?
activation of G protein, binding of GTP, activation of adenylate cyclase, conversion of ATP to cAMP
What is the mechanism of action of lipid-soluble hormones?
activation of genes, which increases protein synthesis in the cell
After a lipid-soluble hormone is bound to its intracellular receptor, what does the hormone complex do?
acts as a transcription factor and binds to DNA, activating a gene
Costanza was picking grapes in her father's arbor when she felt a short prickling pain in her finger. She ran crying to her father, who removed an insect stinger and calmed her with a glass of lemonade. Twenty minutes later Costanza's finger was red, swollen, and throbbing where she had been stung. What type of immune response was she exhibiting?
acute, type I hypersensitivity reaction
Where is the thyroid gland located?
adjacent to the trachea in the neck
What tropic hormone stimulates cortisol from the adrenal gland?
adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
The myogenic mechanism of renal autoregulation primarily involves smooth muscle in which blood vessels?
afferent arterioles
What hormone promotes active tubular secretion of potassium ions and reabsorption of sodium ions in the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and collecting ducts?
aldosterone
The reabsorption of sodium in the DCT is regulated primarily by __________.
aldosterone and ANP
A(n) _______ is an alternative version of a trait.
allele
When a woman's "water breaks" just before delivery, it is the _______ that ruptures.
amnion
Which of these is the innermost (closest) structure that completely surrounds the embryo?
amnion
You have just eaten a meal high in complex carbohydrates. Which of the following enzymes will help to digest the meal?
amylase
Milk sugar would be chemically digested by _______.
amylase form both the mouth and pancreas and by the brush border enzyme lactase
Which enzyme(s) is/are responsible for the chemical breakdown of carbohydrates?
amylases
What is the name of the unique area (specific region) that a lymphocyte recognizes and binds to?
an antigenic determinant
During reabsorption of water in the proximal convoluted tubule, what causes water to diffuse from the lumen into the interstitial space?
an increase in the osmolarity of the interstitium
LH stimulates the production of _______ by the follicular thecal cells.
androgens
Which molecules of the adaptive defense system provide humoral immunity by circulating freely in the blood and lymph, where they bind to extracellular antigens and inactivate them and mark them for destruction?
antibodies
Which of the following chemicals do NOT directly trigger inflammation?
antibodies
Which of the following best describes humoral immunity?
antibodies being released in the body fluids
Redox reactions __________.
are characterized by one substance's gaining an electron while another substance loses an electron
Vaccines provide what type of immunity?
artificially acquired active
At which point in the uterine cycle are the ovarian hormone levels at their lowest?
at the beginning of the menstrual phase
When does ovulation occur in the uterine cycle?
at the end of the proliferative phase
Inhalation is caused by __________.
atmospheric pressure being greater than the pressure in the intrapulmonary pressure. rib cage expands increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity.
The P wave on an electrocardiogram represents __________.
atrial depolarization
What best describes afterload?
back pressure exerted by arterial blood
Blood sodium levels are indirectly assessed by __________.
baroreceptors
Lymphedema may be treated by all EXCEPT which of the following?
bed rest to allow enhanced blood flow and therefore healing of the affected area
There are three ohases of gastric secretion. The cephalic phase occurs ___________.
before the food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma, sight, or thought
Which of the following inhibits salivation?
being stressed or frightened
Which of the cell types would secrete their product if the blood glucose level was rising, as during digestion of a meal?
beta cells
The pH of the ECF is maintained in homeostatic balance by which chemical buffer system?
bicarbonate
The secretion in the large intestine consists of which of the following?
bicarbonate- and potassium-rich mucus
The _________________ occurs as a result of the cortical reaction, by detaching any sperm bound to the receptors and preventing additional sperm from entering.
block of polyspermy
The rate of kidney filtrate formation would normally be dependent upon all of the following factors except __________.
blood calcium level
Which of the following substances is not normally found in filtrate?
blood cells and large particles
Filtrate in a typical healthy nephron will NEVER include __________.
blood cells and proteins
You would expect blood levels of ANP to increase when __________.
blood pressure is increased blood Na+ is elevated the walls of the atria are stretched all of the above occur
What causes the abnormal swishing or whooshing sound that is heard as blood regurgitates back into an atrium from its associated ventricle?
blood turbulence
If the osmotic pressure of the blood were increased above normal levels, which of the following volumes would also increase?
blood volume
Erythropoietin (EPO) stimulates the developmental process shown here. What part of the body does erythropoietin (EPO) target to increase erythropoiesis?
bone marrow
Which of the following pathways acts as a source for the electrons carried by the NADH and FADH2 molecules shown in this figure?
both glycolysis and the citric acid cycle
Suppose that a child received one of the purple chromosomes (top) from their father and one of the green ones (bottom) from their mother. Which of the following would be the correct phenotype for the child?
brown hair and brown eyes.
Where are the enzymes for digestion of disaccharides and small polypeptides located?
brush border
How are vitamins A, D, E, and K absorbed by the body?
by being incorporated into micelles
How are nutrient molecules such as glucose and amino acids reabsorbed through the apical surfaces of the tubule epithelia?
by secondary active transport
The amplification of the signal from a water-soluble hormone is achieved through an increase in _______.
cAMP in the cytoplasm
Which type of nutrient functions primarily as an energy source for cells?
carbohydrates
The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen decreases when ___________.
carbon dioxide concentration increases
If a virus attacks a cell, which type of immunity would be activated?
cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity)
What is the target of thyroid hormones?
cells of the body
Which of the following is a source of dietary fiber and promotes timely movement through the colon?
cellulose
Besides causing genital warts, human papillomavirus (HPV) has been associated with what type of cancer?
cervical
The pitch of the voice is controlled and changed by _________.
changing the tension on the vocal cords
What keeps intracellular receptors from binding to DNA before a hormone binds to the receptor?
chaperone proteins (chaperonins)
HCl secretions convert pepsinogen to the active hormone pepsin. What cells in the gastric pits produce pepsinogen?
chief
In females, the _______ is (are) the homologous structure to the glans penis in males.
clitoris
The beginning of the QRS complex of the electrocardiogram (ECG) immediately precedes which of the following events?
closing of the atrioventricular valves
The first heart sound (the "lub" of the "lub-dup") is caused by __________.
closure of the atrioventricular valves
Which mechanism(s) of antibody action result(s) in cell lysis?
complement activation
Which of these genetic conditions is displayed by this figure if it represents the inheritance of albinism from two heterozygous parents, and only the homozygous recessive offspring expresses the trait?
complete dominance
Which of the following is not true of saliva?
contains enzymes that begins the breakdown of proteins
An increase in sympathetic stimulation of the heart would increase stroke volume by increasing __________.
contractility
What is the function of the ventral hypothalamic neurons?
control secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
The goal of cellular respiration is to _______.
convert ADP molecules into ATP molecules
A ruptured follicle is transformed into the:
corpus luteum
What ovarian structure forms at the beginning of the secretory phase, encouraging its progress, and then degenerates just before menses?
corpus luteum
Which of the following hormones has intracellular receptors?
cortisol
The reactions of anaerobic respiration take place in the __________.
cytoplasm
What type of T cell can directly attack and kill other cells, such as virus-infected cells?
cytotoxic T (TC) cells Submit
Hyperventilation is most likely to be accompanied by a(n) __________.
decrease in blood CO2 concentration and a rise in pH
Which of the following would cause a DECREASE in cardiac output (CO)?
decreasing thyroid function (thyroxine)
Which of the following cells engulf antigens by phagocytosis and present fragments of them on their own surfaces for recognition?
dendritic cells
Cholecystokinin release triggered by the presence of fats and proteins in chyme results in the secretion of _________.
digestive enzymes from the acinar cells of the pancreas bile from the gall bladder
Mr. V has also had a recent echocardiogram and blood work. With tricuspid stenosis, what changes do you expect to see in the echocardiogram report?
dilated right atrium because blood is not flowing down into the right ventricle fast enough
When ADH levels are low, the kidneys produce _________ urine.
dilute
Upon reaching what point in the nephron is reabsorption (1) dependent upon the body's needs at the time and (2) regulated by hormones?
distal convoluted tubule
In what part of the renal tubule does parathyroid hormone (PTH) promote the reabsorption of calcium ions?
distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
You were thirsty and drank a full glass of water only to have your thirst return an hour later. This is because:
distension of the stomach temporarily inhibits the thirst center.
When the diet lacks fiber and the volume of residues in the colon is small, the colon narrows and its contractions become more powerful, increasing the pressure on its walls. This promotes formation of __________.
diverticula
An allele that can mask another allele is said to be _________.
dominant
A Punnett square CANNOT be used to determine the possible genetic outcomes for which type of inheritance?
extranuclear inheritance
The movement of H+ through the ATP synthase is best described as an example of __________.
facilitated diffusion
When threshold is reached at the SA node (an autorhythmic cell), what channels open causing further depolarization of the membrane?
fast calcium
The breakdown products of which of the following are absorbed into lacteals?
fats
Salivation is controlled almost entirely by the nervous system. Which of the following stimuli would inhibit salivation?
fear
Which of the following might be reported by a man with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)?
feeling the bladder is full, even just after urinating having to strain to urinate pain after ejaculation or during urination All of the above
Which plasma constituent is the main contributor to clotting?
fibrinogen
In the newborn, the foramen ovale transitions to a wall-like depression called the:
fossa ovalis
How many oxygen molecules can be transported by one hemoglobin molecule?
four
Meiosis starts with a single diploid cell and produces
four haploid cells.
Which of the following is a likely result of meiosis?
four sperm, each with 23 chromosomes
Mitochondrial DNA is inherited _______.
from the mother
Urine from a person with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus has a(n) _______ due to the presence of _______.
fruity odor; acetone
Which of the following plasma proteins is improperly matched with its function?
gamma globulins: lipid transport
Action potentials generated by the autorhythmic cells spread to the contractile cells through what structures in the membrane?
gap junctions
GFR regulation mechanisms primarily affect which of the following?
glomerular hydrostatic pressure (HPg)
The blood-filtering structure of the kidney is called the _______.
glomerulus
Which capillary bed produces filtrate?
glomerulus
In the small intestine, which of the following enzymes breaks down oligosaccharides?
glucoamylase
What happens when glucose is NOT immediately available for glycolysis?
gluconeogenesis
Which of the following materials is NOT reabsorbed in the nephron loop?
glucose
Which of these should not normally appear in urine?
glucose
Gluconeogenesis is the process in which ________.
glucose is formed from noncarbohydrate molecules
If a person consumes excess carbohydrates and sugars, those excess sugars can go through an anabolic process that produces __________.
glycogen molecules
A glucose molecule is broken down into pyruvic acid molecules in ________.
glycolysis
Which of the following processes takes place in the cytosol of a eukaryotic cell?
glycolysis
Which step of cellular metabolism breaks down a glucose molecule to produce two pyruvic acid molecules?
glycolysis
NADH is produced during which phase(s) of cellular respiration?
glycolysis citric acid cycle pyruvate grooming
Select the correct sequence of steps as energy is extracted from glucose during cellular respiration.
glycolysis → acetyl CoA → citric acid cycle → electron transport chain
The juxtaglomerular apparatus is made of_______ cells from the afferent arteriole and the _______ cells of the DCT.
granular; macula densa
Which hormone is required to maintain the corpus luteum and prevent menstruation?
hCG
Which of the following human conditions best exemplifies polygenic inheritance?
height
Which lymphocytes act as the bridge between the cellular and humoral responses?
helper T cells
Which of the following are NOT appropriately matched?
helper T cells: destroy infected body cells (Helper T cells are lymphocytes that manage or orchestrate an immune response, but they do not directly kill cells.)
Suppose Krista's hyperthyroidism was a result of a tumor that causes the anterior pituitary gland to become overactive. Which of the following would Krista's lab reports likely show?
high thyroid hormone, high TSH
The body's tendency to maintain relatively constant internal conditions is called
homeostasis
During prophase I of meiosis,
homologous chromosomes stick together in pairs.
An individual who expresses a recessive phenotype must have what genotype?
homozygous recessive
Which of the following is not a function of blood?
hormone production
What type of stimulation controls parathyroid release?
humoral
What type of immunity can be transferred by bodily fluids from one person to another, thus conferring immunity to the recipient?
humoral immunity
Pepsinogen is activated by ________.
hydrochloric acid
This type of chemical reaction typically occurs as nutrients are digested in the body.
hydrolysis
What is the chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood and across the filtration membrane of the glomerulus?
hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries (HPgc)
What is the primary driving force (pressure) that produces glomerular filtration?
hydrostatic pressure of blood (blood pressure)
Which of the following does NOT stimulate erythrocyte production?
hyperventilating
Which of the following would NOT be expected to lead to edema?
hyponatremia
Acromegaly may be caused by all EXCEPT which of the following?
hyposecretion of GH in adulthood
Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin, synthesized?
hypothalamus
Where is thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) made?
hypothalamus
What type of water imbalance increases the amount of fluid in both cells and tissue?
hypotonic hydration
Which of the following are NOT correctly matched?
immediate hypersensitivity: allergic contact dermatitis (Allergic contact dermatitis is a delayed hypersensitivity response; it is not characterized by an immediate response. Return to Assignment)
Carbon dioxide is primarily transported ___________.
in the form of bicarbonate
In what form do fats first enter the bloodstream?
in the form of chylomicrons
Which teeth in the permanent dentition are best suited for cutting or nipping off pieces of food?
incisors
When you eat a carrot your ________ cut a piece of the carrot and your ________ grind up the carrot.
incisors, molars
When a heterozygous individual expresses a phenotype intermediate between the dominant and recessive phenotype, this is called _______.
incomplete dominance
Which of the following is an effect of epinephrine, norepinephrine, and thyroxine?
increase contractility
The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is ________.
increase in carbon dioxide
What is a likely result of rapidly consuming excessive quantities of electrolytes?
increased blood pressure Submit
What might be a sign that the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism is NOT producing enough aldosterone?
increased excretion of water and
Chyme entering the large intestine normally consists of __________.
indigestible fiber, enteric bacteria, and water
Which of the following does NOT serve as a source of acids in the body?
ingesting of bicarbonate
Why is breathing necessary for cellular respiration?
inhaled oxygen is necessary for receiving electrons from the electron transport chain
The effects of sympathetic nerve impulses on the alimentary canal are ______________- and parasympathetic impulses are ____________.
inhibitory, or slow down activity; stimulative, or causes increases of activity
Tears and mucus membranes would be a part of which defense system?
innate external defenses
Phagocytotic cells such as macrophages identify a variety of enemies by recognizing markers unique to pathogens. They would be classified as which type of defense system?
innate internal defenses
Which of the following accounts for the most water loss, second only to urine output?
insensible perspiration
The amount of air that can be inspired above the tidal volume is called ________.
inspiratory reserve volume
What does a high concentration of NaCl in the renal tubule at the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) most likely indicate?
insufficient NaCl reabsorption due to high GFR
Adrenocortical androgens are normally converted in females into estrogens. However, in adrenogenital syndrome, females develop a beard and a masculine pattern of body hair distribution; this occurs due to ______.
insufficient level of enzymes that convert androgens into estrogens
Which hormone directs essentially all the events of the absorptive state?
insulin
A blow to the head may cause diabetes insipidus by ______.
interfering with the normal transmission of nerve impulses to the posterior pituitary
What protein can be released by infected cells to help protect cells that have not yet been infected?
interferon
Oxygen moves from the capillaries into the interstitial fluid and to tissues during ____________.
internal respiration
A cell preparing to undergo meiosis duplicates its chromosomes during
interphase.
In males, which of the following includes the correct target and result of LH stimulation?
interstitial cells: increased androgen secretions
During which phase in the control of the digestive system would bicarbonate and bile be stimulated?
intestinal phase
The _______ contains the largest percentage of water in the body.
intracellular fluid
The two main fluid compartments within the body are _________ and _________.
intracellular fluid; extracellular fluid
When given to a patient, which of the following substances would increase his or her urinary output?
intravenous saline
Which of the following is produced in the stomach and contributes directly to the absorption of vitamin B12?
intrinsic factor
End diastolic volume and the first heart sound are observed during the _____________ phase of the cardiac cycle.
isovolumetric contraction
What is the period during the cardiac cycle when the valves leading to and from the ventricles are completely closed and blood volume in the ventricles remains constant as the walls contract?
isovolumetric contraction phase
The dicrotic notch occurs during the _____________ phase of the cardiac cycle.
isovolumetric relaxation
Which of the following statements best describes a complete protein?
it contains all the essential amino acid requirements for tissue maintenance and growth.
Which of the following is true regarding normal quiet expiration of air?
it is a passive process that depends on the recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched during inspiration
The small blue circles in the figure just inside the oocyte membrane represent vesicles containing calcium ions that are spilled into the extracellular space to prevent polyspermy. When does this take place?
just after the sperm's head enters the oocyte membrane
Which organs are most important for the long-term regulation of acid-base homeostasis?
kidneys
Which heart chamber receives blood from the pulmonary veins?
left atrium
Failure in a particular structure of the heart tends to cause a backup of blood in the lungs, known as pulmonary congestive heart failure. Failure of which structure of the heart would lead to such a backup?
left ventricle
The greater the mass of tissue in an organ, the greater its need for an adequate blood supply. Which chamber of the heart has the highest probability of being the site of a myocardial infarction?
left ventricle
Which chamber pumps oxygenated blood out the aorta to the systemic circuit?
left ventricle
After birth, the ductus arteriosus becomes the:
ligamentum arteriosus
After birth, the umbilical vein will become the:
ligamentum teres
The fetal ductus venosus will form the ___________________ in the newborn.
ligamentum venosum
Short-chain triglycerides found in foods such as butterfat molecules in milk are split by a specific enzyme in preparation for absorption. Which of the following enzymes is responsible?
lipase
Bile salts break up the fat globule into smaller fat droplets. This role of bile salts is best described as ________.
lipid emulsification
The process of breaking triglycerides down into glycerol and free fatty acids is known as ______.
lipolysis
Angiotensinogen is constantly produced by the __________.
liver
Bilirubin is released into the bloodstream as old or damaged red blood cells are broken down by macrophages. Which organ is responsible for removing bilirubin from the blood stream?
liver
Which of the following is NOT produced by meiosis?
liver cell
Which of the following is not a function of low-density-lipoproteins (LDLs)?
transport cholesterol from the peripheral tissues to the liver
Lymph arrives at the lymph nodes via afferent lymphatic vessels.
true
Macula densa cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) regulate GFR through which intrinsic mechanism?
tubuloglomerular feedback
The heart is actually (one, two, or three) pumps?
two pumps
Growth factor hormones, such as insulin, bind to which type of receptor?
tyrosine kinase receptors
Which of the following constitutes the largest solute component of urine?
urea
What part of the female system is the usual site of fertilization of the ovulated oocyte?
uterine (fallopian) tube
Which of the following is an incorrect matching of female reproductive structures with their functions?
uterus: fertilization of ovum by sperm
With respect to their role in fetal circulation, the ductus venosus, foramen ovale, and ductus arteriosus are examples of a(n) _________________.
vascular shunt
Once collected, lymph is ultimately transported into __________.
venous circulation
The semilunar valves open during the _____________ phase of the cardiac cycle, allowing blood to exit the ventricles.
ventricular ejection
The P wave and subsequent atrial contraction are evident during the __________________ phase of the cardiac cycle.
ventricular filling
At what point in the cardiac cycle is pressure in the ventricles the highest (around 120 mm Hg in the left ventricle)?
ventricular systole
Ovulated oocytes enter the fallopian tubes:
via undulations of the fimbriae that draw in the oocyte
A surge in __________ directly triggers ovulation.
luteinizing hormone (LH)
Which hormone is most responsible for triggering ovulation?
luteinizing hormone (LH)
The most important renal mechanism for regulating acid-base balance of the blood involves __________.
maintaining HCO3 - balance
The umbilical arteries in the fetus become the _______________________ in the newborn.
median umbilical ligaments
Which of these meiosis stages is functionally the most similar to mitosis?
meiosis II
_______ is the stage of life in females when reproductive hormones decline and menstrual cycles become erratic.
menopause
During what phase of the female's uterine cycle is the uterine lining shed?
menstrual phase
A patient is admitted to the hospital with the following plasma values: pH = 7.2, pCO2 = 25 mmHg, and HCO3 −− = 18 mEq/L. What is the acid base imbalance?
metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
Diarrhea can lead to which acid/base disturbance? Assuming compensation, would it be a metabolic or respiratory compensation?
metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
Starvation would cause which of the following acid-base conditions? Also, determine what type of compensation (metabolic or respiratory) there would be.
metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
A patient is admitted to the hospital with the following plasma values: pH = 7.5, pCO2 = 45 mmHg, and HCO3 −− = 30 mEq/L. What is the acid-base imbalance?
metabolic alkalosis with no compensation
The process of voiding the bladder is called _______.
micturition
A friend has acid indigestion after eating a big meal. Which of the following would act as a buffer and help ease his pain?
milk of magnesia, with a pH of 10
Most of the ATP required for cellular energy is produced in the _______.
mitochondria
The citric acid cycle occurs in the __________ of cells and is an __________ process.
mitochondria; aerobic
In what organelle would you find acetyl CoA formation, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport chain?
mitochondrion
Which of the following are mechanisms of intrinsic control of glomerular filtration (renal autoregulation)?
myogenic mechanism and tubuloglomerular feedback
What is the most important regulatory factor controlling the circulating levels of thyroid hormone?
negative feedback
The urine-forming units of the kidney are the _______.
nephrons
If the osmotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries increased from 28 mm Hg to 35 mm Hg, would net filtration increase or decrease?
net filtration would decrease
Which of the following leukocyte is not correctly matched with its function?
neutrophils: produce antibodies (Neutrophils are active phagocytes that ingest bacteria and some fungi. Antibodies are produced by certain types of leukocytes.)
Heart rate (HR)
number of heart beats per minute
What is the limiting factor for the reabsorption of most actively transported solutes in the proximal tubule?
number of transport carriers in the luminal membrane
Movement of oxygen from the alveolar space into the pulmonary capillaries _____________-.
occurs by diffuse because of a higher partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolar space than in the pulmonary capillaries
Which of the following represents a difference between extrinsic and intrinsic blood clotting pathways?
one is faster than the other (The extrinsic pathway is faster than the intrinsic pathway, which has many intermediate steps.)
Phagocytes are unable to adhere to bacteria that have external capsules concealing their membrane carbohydrates. Our immune system gets around this problem by coating such pathogens with __________.
opsonins
The corpus luteum is formed at the site of _______.
ovulation
Which step in the metabolism of nutrients provides a cell with the greatest gain in ATP?
oxidative phosphorylation
Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
oxidative phosphorylation: net loss of ATP
The umbilical vein carries blood that is rich in __________ from the placenta to the fetus.
oxygen
Which of the following hormones is regulated by a neuroendocrine ("letdown") reflex?
oxytocin
Which of the following enzymes is important for the digestion of fat?
pancreatic lipase
This group of enzymes digests the majority of ingested fat.
pancreatic lipases
Which of these muscles is particularly associated with anchoring the right and left atrioventricular valves?
papillary muscles
Omeprazole, a drug to treat acid reflux, is a proton pump inhibitor. This drug will affect which of the following?
parietal cells
What determines the direction of respiratory gas movement?
partial pressure gradient
If a male undergoes a vasectomy, which of the following can no longer take place?
passage of sperm cells from the epididymis to the urethra
The antivenom used to treat a venomous snake bite is an antibody produced in an animal such as a horse. Suppose these antibodies are injected into a patient who has been bitten by a venomous snake. How would you classify the resulting humoral immunity?
passive immunity, artificially acquired
Health workers working with diphtheria commonly receive a serum with antibodies against the pathogen. What type of immunity would this be?
passive, artificial immunity
Urine collection occurs in the _______ of the kidney.
pelvis
Which of the following enzymes is important for breaking down protein?
pepsin
Enzyme(s) responsible for the digestion of protein is __________.
pepsin trypsin chymotrypsin carboxypeptidase
What erythrocyte production disorder results from an autoimmune disease associated with insufficient vitamin B12 absorption (step 6)?
pernicious anemia
During which of these stages are the aortic and pulmonary valves open?
phase 2b
The _______ is an individual's outward appearance, while the _______ is an individual's genetic makeup.
phenotype; genotype
Cyclic AMP is degraded by __________.
phosphodiesterase
Which intracellular substance degrades cAMP, thus inactivating the response to a hormone?
phosphodiesterase
Which of the following enzymes are important in the deactivation of cAMP and termination of signaling?
phosphodiesterase
What is the role of activated protein kinases?
phosphorylate proteins
What cells make antibodies?
plasma B cells
Water-soluble hormones affect target cells by binding to __________.
plasma membrane receptors
What enzyme removes unneeded clots after healing has occurred?
plasmin
The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhances by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining, Which of the following accomplishes this task?
plicae cicularis and intestinal villi
Characteristics that have a continuous phenotypic trait are due to _______ inheritance.
polygene
Which type of inheritance is most likely responsible for a wide, continuous range of phenotypes for a certain trait (such as height) among human adults?
polygene inheritance
One of the changes that occurs in the pacemaker potential (unstable resting membrane potential) in the SA node (an autorhythmic cell) is a decreased efflux of what ion?
potassium
Which portion of the penis is removed during circumcision?
prepuce (foreskin)
An individual diagnosed with celiac disease would be prescribed a gluten-free diet in order to __________.
prevent inflammation caused by malabsorption of gluten protein
Cardiac tamponade results in ineffective pumping of blood by the heart. This is because the excessive amount of fluid in the pericardial cavity will ______.
prevent the heart from filling properly with blood
The conduction portion of the bronchial tree include _________.
primary bronchus tertiary bronchi terminal bronchi
Hepatocytes fo NOT ________.
produce digestive enzymes responsible for the breakdown of proteins
Which of the following is not a function of the mucus-covered nasal passageway?
producing surfactant to trap pathogens
Hypercalcemia could cause ______.
prolonged T wave
Which of the following triggers the release of glucagon?
prolonged fasting
At what point during meiosis do homologous chromosomes pair up?
prophase I
Chromosomes can exchange genetic information during a process called "crossing over." This occurs when homologous chromosomes are lined up in pairs. When does this happen?
prophase I
Genetic variation of individual chromosomes occurs during __________.
prophase I
The correct order of events during meiosis is
prophase I, metaphase I, anaphase I, telophase I, cytokinesis, meiosis II.
During meiosis, segments of nonsister chromatids can trade places. This recombination of maternal and paternal genetic material is a key feature of meiosis. During what phase of meiosis does recombination occur?
prophase I.
Which of the following functions is NOT correctly matched with its description?
propulsion: physical breakdown of ingested food in the GI tract
Which of the following are NOT correctly matched?
protease: lipid digestion
Which substance would be found in higher concentration if the membrane were damaged?
protein
Which of the following best defines negative nitrogen balance?
protein breakdown exceeds protein synthesis
Which of the following digestive processes could be affected by a patient's taking a large amount of antacids?
protein digestion
Enzymatic breakdown of which of the following compounds doesn't begin until it reaches the stomach?
proteins
Where in the nephron does most solute reabsorption occur?
proximal convoluted tubule
In females, _______ is the stage of life when reproductive hormones first begin surging and reproduction is first possible.
puberty
Which of these vessels returns blood to the left atrium of the heart?
pulmonary veins
In parts of the world, rice is a large part of the diet. Lack of which vitamin would lead to higher levels of blindness in this population?
vitamin A
Which of the following vitamins are fat soluble and susceptible to causing toxicity when consumed in excessive amounts?
vitamin A vitamin E vitamin D
Repolarization of an autorhythmic cell is due to the opening of which channels?
voltage-gated potassium channels
ADH causes the reabsorption of ________ in the kidney tubule.
water
Which of the following would likely be increased by the release of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)?
water excretion by the kidneys
Which of the following statements best summarizes the relationship between the sodium content of fluids and water movement?
water follows salt
An increase in the ECF solute content causes:
water to move out of the cell
What type of hormones bind to receptors located on the cell membrane?
water-soluble hormones, such as insulin and epinephrine
Autoregulatory mechanisms are most effective:
when the arterial pressure is between 80 and 180 mm Hg
Which of the following adrenergic receptors increase cAMP levels?
β receptors
Which type of chemical induces fever?
pyrogens
What is the most significant direct effect of aldosterone release?
reabsorption of sodium in kidney tubules
Which of the following does not match the term to its correct definition/description?
recessive: gene expressed when present
What triggers erythropoietin (EPO) release that leads to the production of new red blood cells?
reduced availability of oxygen
The presence of an incompetent tricuspid valve would have the direct effect of causing ______.
reduced efficiency in the delivery of blood to the lungs
ECF osmolality is primarily dependent on __________.
relative quantities of sodium and water
Although effective in treating erectile dysfunction, Viagra has the side effect of reducing systemic blood pressure by causing ______.
relaxation of muscle tissue in arteries
Which of the following is the primary function of the juxtaglomerular complex?
releases chemical signals that regulate the rate of filtrate formation
Granular cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) regulate GFR indirectly through which mechanism?
renin-angiotensin mechanism
A patient is admitted to the hospital with the following plasma values: pH = 7.2, pCO2 = 55 mmHg, and HCO3− = 30 mEq/L. What is the acid base imbalance?
respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
Emphysema can lead to which acid/base disturbance? What would be the compensation?
respiratory acidosis; kidneys will retain more HCO3 − and excrete H+
The right tricuspid valve prevents backflow of blood from the right ventricle into the __________.
right atrium
Which chamber receives blood from the superior and inferior vena cavae?
right atrium
Which heart chamber pumps unoxygenated blood out the pulmonary trunk?
right ventricle
The testes are housed in the _______, which _______.
scrotum; lowers sperm development temperature
The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II. The function of type II alveolar cells is to ________.
secrete surfactant that reduces surface tension
An increase in HCl (hydrochloric acid) arriving in the duodenum would stimulate which hormone that would help to counteract the effects of HCl?
secretin
Which of the following GI hormones promotes a pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate ions?
secretin
Which of the following processes in urine formation is important for regulating blood pH?
secretion
Pheochromocytoma produces symptoms of uncontrolled sympathetic nervous system activity. Which of the following is common to both adrenal chromaffin cells and adrenergic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system?
secretion of norepinephrine
What types of antigen do mature T cells normally not recognize?
self-antigens
Which of the following structures produces the greatest amount of the secretions found in semen?
seminal glands
Which of the following shows the correct pathway for sperm cells as they leave the testes?
seminiferous tubule, rete testis, epididymis, ductus deferens
Sperm is produced in the __________.
seminiferous tubules
Which of the following is an example of a disorder that exhibits incomplete dominance?
sickle-cell anemia
__________ is caused by a genetic mutation that results in the production of abnormal hemoglobin. Under low-oxygen conditions, the abnormal beta chains link together and form stiff rods that alter the shape of the RBCs.
sickle-cell anemia
Which is a part of the innate immune defenses?
skin
Absorption of nutrients primarily occurs in the __________.
small intestine
In what portion of the gastrointestinal tract does most salt and water absorption occur?
small intestine
Which of the following mechanisms is NOT used to propel lymph through lymphatic vessels?
small, heart-like pumps
Aldosterone causes the reabsorption of ________ in the kidney tubule.
sodium
The active transport of which ion out of proximal convoluted tubule cells causes the reabsorption of both water and solutes?
sodium
What component in body fluids adds to the fluids' electrical conductivity?
sodium
Which of the electrolyte solutes is most responsible for osmotic pressure in body fluids and cells?
sodium
Gastric secretions are inhibited by ___________.
somatostatin
Unlike females, males produce gametes throughout life due to the presence of _______ in their seminiferous tubules.
spermatogonia
Which layer of the uterus is the site for implantation of a fertilized egg?
stratum functionalis of the endometrium
Consider the following characteristics of the cells found in muscle tissue. Which feature is shared by both cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle?
striations
What is the testicular target for follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)?
sustentocytes (Sertoli cells)
All of the following conditions would stimulate the pancreas to release insulin EXCEPT one. Which one?
sympathetic activation
Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter released by which fibers?
sympathetic postganglionic fibers
Which of the following is NOT a function of the large intestine?
synthesis of intrinsic factor
Extrinsic controls regulate glomerular filtration rate as a means of regulating _______.
systemic blood pressure
Based on the histology of a renal tubule, which section would be most severely inhibited if simple squamous epithelium were damaged?
thin segment of the nephron loop
In ingestion of a meal high in fat content would cause which of the following to occur?
this type of food would result in increased secretin and CCK production, and result in slower gastric emptying
What protein involved in coagulation provides the activation for the final step in clotting?
thrombin
T cells achieve self-tolerance in the __________.
thymus
Which lymphoid organ(s) serve(s) as the site where T lymphocytes become immunocompetent T cells?
thymus gland
Which hormone's receptor is always bound to DNA, even when the receptor is empty?
thyroid hormone
Which of the following is NOT secreted by the thyroid?
thyroid-stimulating hormone
Which of the following is not a hormone involved in water or electrolyte balance?
thyroxine
What is the role of acetyl CoA in the process of cellular respiration?
to enter the citric acid cycle
Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?
to participate in gas exchange at capillaries
What is the function of the blood testis barrier?
to prevent activation of the immune system of the male against the developing sperm
What is the function of meiosis?
to produce cells with half the chromosome number of the original spermatogonium or oogonium
What is the primary function of the overall reactions of cellular respiration?
to regenerate ATP
Most solutes that are reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule use which of the following pathways?
transcellular
When blood glucose levels are high
The pancreas releases insulin.
Your patient has been diagnosed with Type I diabetes mellitus, and you are explaining how to administer insulin. Your patient states, "I don't want to do this. My brother-in-law has diabetes, and he just takes a pill and watches what he eats." What is your best response?
"Your relative may have Type II diabetes. People with that condition can make insulin, but their cells don't respond to it properly. Your pancreas doesn't manufacture insulin."
Use the following information to solve the problem using a Punnett square. Assume that the dominant "B" allele encodes brown eyes and the recessive "b" allele encodes blue eyes. An individual with the genotype BB has children by mating with an individual of the genotype bb. What is the percent chance that they would have children with blue eyes?
0%
A couple's first child has cystic fibrosis. The gene for cystic fibrosis is autosomal recessive, and the mode of inheritance is simple dominant/recessive inheritance. Neither parent has the disease. What are the odds that the couple's next child will have the disease?
1 in 4
In a monohybrid cross, what is the predicted ratio of offspring with the dominant phenotype compared to those with the recessive phenotype?
3:1
What percentage of sperm carry the Y chromosome?
50%
Which of the following is NOT a change in female anatomy or physiology during pregnancy?
A tightening of pelvic ligaments to help bear the extra weight of the growing fetus
Which of these would be an effect of an excess of thyroid hormones?
A would release less TRH. (Excess thyroid hormone would have an inhibitory effect on A. This is a negative feedback mechanism.)
How would giving a patient intravenous albumin affect filtration? A) Due to higher colloid osmotic pressure, the net filtration pressure would be lower. B) Too much protein in the diet would abolish all filtration. C) High blood pressure from increased plasma proteins would increase filtration to twice its normal rate. D) Filtration would be unchanged, but the kidneys would suffer damage.
A) Due to higher colloid osmotic pressure, the net filtration pressure would be lower.
Which ABO blood type is considered to be the universal recipient?
AB
Which of the following is NOT a step that ultimately leads to antibody production?
Activation of cytotoxic T cells by helper T cells
Which of the following statements is true?
Adaptive defenses include both humoral and cellular immunity.
What might be a probable explanation for an intense craving for heavily salted food?
Addison's disease, in which insufficient aldosterone is available to reabsorb NaCl from the filtrate
Through the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism, how would an increase in filtrate NaCl concentration affect afferent arteriole diameter?
Afferent arteriole diameter would decrease.
Drinking too much alcohol results in a headache the next day. Why does this happen?
Alcohol inhibits ADH secretion.
Which two hormones are essential for reabsorption of water at the collecting duct?
Aldosterone and ADH
Why do high levels of potassium stimulate aldosterone secretion?
Aldosterone stimulates the sodium-potassium pump to reabsorb sodium while simultaneously secreting potassium.
Sam has type A blood. The blood type of his partner is not known. Which of the following blood types are not at all possible among their offspring?
All of the listed blood types are possible. (A, O, and B)
If two parents are heterozygous (Tt) for a trait, which of the following is NOT a possibility for their offspring?
All of their offspring would be dominant for the trait.
Which statement is most correct?
Alleles are variations of the same gene.
Of the various types of fetal testing, which is the most invasive?
Amniocentesis
Which best describe the isovolumetric contraction phase of the cardiac cycle?
As ventricular systole starts, the AV valves are closed and the semilunar valves are closed. Because the ventricles are contracting and both valves are closed, pressure increases rapidly leading to ejection.
Determine which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) tracings is missing P waves but is otherwise regular.
B
Which of the following is NOT a fat-soluble vitamin?
B
Why do you have to carefully monitor certain patients who are on "loop diuretics" to lower their blood pressure?
Certain diuretics are not specific and in addition to getting rid of excess water, additional ions like potassium will be secreted.
How do physiological buffer systems differ from chemical buffer systems?
Chemical buffer systems convert strong acids or bases into weak acids or bases, while physiological buffer systems remove acids and bases from the body.
Which of the following is the initial H+ regulatory mechanism in the body?
Chemical buffers
What negatively charged ion is reabsorbed by renal tubules when the blood pH is drawing near its alkaline limit?
Cl-
A person who has AIDS contracts rare and often life-threatening infections because their helper T cell count is so low. Which of the following components of the immune response still respond to antigen despite the low helper T cell count?
Clonal selection of B cells
Which of the following can be heard with a stethoscope most easily?
Closing of atrioventricular valves
Bundle branches
Convey(s) the impulse down the interventricular septum
Purkinje fibers
Convey(s) the impulse throughout the ventricular walls
Where in the metabolic pathway can fats be utilized as an energy source?
Fatty acids can be converted into acetyl CoA, and glycerol can enter glycolysis.
Suppose that a patient has a failing liver and is unable to make normal levels of albumin for the blood plasma. If all other factors remain the same, what would be the effect on the amount of filtrate produced?
Filtrate production would increase.
Insulin-like growth factors (IGFs) are intermediary hormones stimulated by which of the following hormones?
GH (growth hormone)
Why are gap junctions a vital part of the intercellular connection of cardiac muscles?
Gap junctions allow action potentials to spread to connected cells.
The human GI tract is home to a complex ecosystem of microbial cells, which comprise the gut microbiota. Which of the following is true of the microbiota?
Generally, the highest concentration of GI tract microbes is found in the colon. Metabolism by the gut microbiota results in small amounts of vitamins and short-chain fatty acids which can be absorbed and utilized by cells of the body. Normally, beneficial bacteria vastly outnumber harmful bacteria in the microbiota. All of the above.
Why is glucose in the urine an indicator of diabetes mellitus?
Glucose occupies all the transport carriers and it is no longer reabsorbed.
What is the role of the granulosa cells in the ovarian cycle?
Granulosa cells guide the development of the oocyte.
Your patient has a hematocrit of 56%. You recall from your anatomy and physiology class that high hematocrits are often a sign of blood doping by athletes. However, your patient is an elderly man suffering from the flu. What is most likely accounting for his elevated hematocrit?
He is dehydrated from the flu.
What is the role of helper T cells in the adaptive immune response?
Helper T cells activate B cells and cytotoxic T lymphocytes to kill infected host cells.
What is the effect of high blood pressure on cardiac output?
High blood pressure increases afterload and reduces cardiac output (CO).
Which of the following is correct regarding acclimatization?
High-altitude results in lower than normal hemoglobin saturation levels causing the kidneys to produce erythroprotein, which stimulates the production of red blood cells
How do endocrine hormones reach their target cells?
Hormones are transported through the blood stream to target cells.
Why does a graph of the membrane potential of living pacemaker cells never demonstrate a flat line?
Hyperpolarization of pacemaker cells triggers the opening of slow Na+ channels and starts a new slow depolarization phase.
If Krista had been diagnosed with hypothyroidism, what would happen to her levels of TSH and thyroid hormone?
Hypothyroidism means that the thyroid gland is failing to produce enough thyroid hormone and therefore there is an increase in TSH secretion. Even though TSH is increased, however, the thyroid gland is unresponsive to it so the TSH levels say high and the thyroid hormone levels remain low.
Which second messenger causes the release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum?
IP3
The student who caught the cold caused by this specific Rhinovirus was exposed to the exact same Rhinovirus 18 months later. What component of the immune system will protect her from getting the same cold again?
Memory B cells
What roles do memory B cells play when a patient is re-exposed to an antigen?
Memory B cells trigger a secondary immune response, which is faster, more prolonged, and more effective than the first immune response.
Which of the following is NOT a property of mucous membranes?
Mucus contains macrophages that attack invading pathogens.
A recent measles outbreak in your community has sparked interest in antibody testing to determine which patients are immune, which are at risk for infection, and which patients actually have measles. Which patient status and lab values are incorrectly matched?
Never immunized and ill with measles for 3 days: IgG +/ IgM - (If your patient is experiencing an initial infection with measles, he or she should have only IgM this early in the course of this illness. This result would not be expected.)
Which of the following is not a change that occurs with old age?
Nocturia decreases
Which of these would not be a risk factor for metabolic syndrome?
Normal BMI
Which of the following stages is the true moment of fertilization?
Once the chromosomes of the male and female pronucleus are united
What event coincides with the transition from the proliferative phase to the secretory phase?
Ovulation occurs.
What is the role of oxygen gas (O2O2) in aerobic cellular respiration?
Oxygen atoms act as electron acceptors in the electron transport chain.
Why was Mr. Watkins given PRBCs in addition to normal saline solution? What problem does the infusion of PRBCs address that the saline solution could not?
PRBCs contain hemoglobin, so they are able to carry oxygen to the tissues.
What are the two major avenues for identifying carriers of a recessive disorder?
Pedigrees and blood tests
Which of the following is FALSE regarding the role of platelets in hemostatic reactions?
Platelets release the only chemical factors that can initiate coagulation. (Platelet chemicals initiate the intrinsic pathway, but tissue factors released from damaged endothelium start the extrinsic pathway for coagulation in motion.)
As your skeletal muscles contract during physical activity, more blood is returned to the heart. Which variable would be affected and what would be the outcome of this action?
Preload would be increased, which would result in a larger cardiac output.
Which of the following components in semen stimulates the uterus to contract in reverse peristalsis?
Prostaglandins
Which portion of the electrocardiogram represents the time during which the ventricles are in systole?
Q-T interval
Which of the following is NOT a step used by cytotoxic T cells to kill infected host cells?
Recognition of infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein
Refer to Focus Figure 18.2, specifically the graph reflecting pressure changes in the cardiac cycle. Why is the dicrotic notch important?
Reflects an increase in aortic pressure as blood rebounds against the closed aortic semilunar valve
A PCO2 >45mm Hg, HCO3− 24, and pH <7.35 indicates:
Respiratory acidosis
Which part of the intrinsic conduction system normally initiates the depolarizing impulse that causes a heartbeat?
SA node
Which of the following is NOT a function of saliva?
Saliva contains enzymes that begin the chemical breakdown of proteins.
Salivary amylase is a digestive enzyme not featured in the Concept Map. Which of the following describes its function? breaks down complex starches into smaller units, and where in the body does this occur?
Salivary amylase breaks down complex starches into smaller units in the mouth.
SA node
Set(s) the pace for the entire heart
A common treatment for Graves' disease involves ingesting a dose of radioactive iodine, which slowly destroys the thyroid gland. Why are other tissues unaffected?
Since the thyroid hormones are triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) and both of these require a lot of iodine to make, the thyroid gland is constantly taking up iodine. When radioactive iodine is ingested, this is taken up by the thyroid and the thyroid is destroyed over time. Other glands do not take up iodine, however, so they will not be affected by the radioactivity.
Why are the male testes located in the scrotum, outside the abdominopelvic cavity?
Spermatogenesis is temperature sensitive.
Corticotropin-releasing hormone
Stimulates the anterior pituitary to release ACTH
How is the adaptive third line of defense able to target specific pathogens?
The third line of defense responds to antigens on the pathogen.
Krista wonders if TSH is a "thyroid hormone," and Dr. Weisman explains that it is not. State the action of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and name the gland that secretes it.
TSH stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete its hormones. It is not produced by the thyroid, however, and is actually secreted by the anterior pituitary gland.
Krista's treatment will likely involve destroying or surgically removing her thyroid gland. What effect will this have on her level of TSH?
TSH will increase.
A liver cell responds to insulin by
Taking in glucose and converting it to glycogen.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Targets the adrenal gland to release glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids
What metabolic effect would you expect if someone developed an autoimmune disease in which the person's interstitial cells were destroyed?
Testosterone production would plummet.
What would happen to the SA node if a chemical blocker was used to reduce transport of Na+ into the pacemaker cells?
The SA node would depolarize more slowly, reducing the heart rate.
Which of the following statements about the acrosomal reaction is correct?
The acrosomal enzymes released from many sperm digest holes through the zona pellucida.
What type of response by the afferent arterioles would you expect if blood pressure increased?
The afferent arterioles would constrict.
Which of the following does NOT correctly describe basic regulation of digestive activity?
The enteric nervous system is under conscious control.
Why is it necessary to send some blood through the pulmonary circuit in a fetus?
The fetal lung tissue requires oxygen to allow for lung tissue development and growth.
Which of the following differentiates the follicular and luteal phases of the ovarian cycle?
The follicular phase occurs directly before ovulation, and the luteal phase occurs directly after ovulation.
Why is red-green color blindness more predominant in males?
The gene for color blindness is on the X chromosome and is said to be sex-linked.
Your clinical instructor wants a brief description of the four cardinal signs of inflammation. What would you tell him?
The heat and redness are caused by increased blood flow to the infected areas, and the pain and swelling are caused by excessive leakage of fluid from the capillaries into the infected area.
You are working in a Veterans Administration cardiology clinic, and one morning, the doctor comes in and looks at the appointments. "How likely is this?" she says. "My first two patients are the same age, and they both have valve problems from rheumatic fever. You don't see that much in vets - if they had had it as children, they wouldn't have gotten into the service."Both of the patients are already in the waiting room. Mr. G is a 60-year-old man with a cane. He seems to be having trouble breathing. Mr. V does not seem to be having any breathing trouble, but he is wearing shorts, and you can see that his lower legs and ankles are really swollen.Mr. G has the first appointment. You listen to his chest and hear fluid in his lungs. You hear a systolic murmur when you listen to his heart. His systolic blood pressure is low compared to the last time he came in, and his heart rate is elevated. His chart says he has mitral regurgitation and left-sided heart failure. Now that you have reviewed normal blood flow, why does a patient with left-sided heart failure have a low systolic blood pressure?
The left side of the heart pumps blood into the body, so when it fails, less blood will be pumped into the arteries.
Mr. G talks in short bursts with frequent breaths. He tells you he used to feel breathless when he was walking, but now he has been having more and more trouble breathing even when he is lying down at night.When you listened to his lungs you heard fluid in them. Could this be due to his heart failure, or is it another problem?
The left side of the heart receives blood from the lungs and pumps it out to the body, so if it fails, blood will remain in the lungs.
Why is Krista's TSH level low instead of high?
The level of TSH is determined by negative feedback from levels of circulating thyroid hormone. Low levels of thyroid hormone are a signal to the pituitary gland to secrete more TSH in order to increase thyroid hormone. Krista's level of thyroid hormone is high, which inhibits the secretion of TSH in an attempt to reduce thyroid hormone secretion. However, the antibodies stimulate the release of excess thyroid hormone regardless of how much TSH is present.
What is the functional difference between a male urethra and a female urethra?
The male urethra is shared with the reproductive system.
If there is the normal amount of amylase present but less disaccharidase than usual, which of the following would most likely happen?
The normal amount of disaccharide would be produced, but fewer monosaccharides would be produced.
What is the main difference between oogenesis and spermatogenesis in terms of meiosis?
The number of functional gametes produced is different.
Which of the following is FALSE regarding the vagina of an adult female?
The pH of the adult vagina is alkaline.
How might the pH of the intracellular fluid change when cells increase their rate of metabolism?
The pH would decrease.
When blood glucose levels are low
The pancreas releases glucagon, which eventually causes blood glucose levels to increase.
If the blood pH lowers, what change would you expect from the respiratory system?
The respiration rate would increase.
Which statement is correct regarding the ventricles?
The right ventricle empties into the pulmonary trunk.
An overheated marathon runner accepts cups of plain water at each refreshment area. When the race ends, the runner is very disoriented and collapses. What is the best explanation for her condition?
The runner is suffering from hypotonic hydration and her cell fluids are overdiluted.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the stomach?
The stomach releases enzymes that digest carbohydrates.
Why would tricuspid stenosis cause a diastolic murmur?
The tricuspid valve is partly blocked, so when blood is flowing through it, there will be a noise of turbulent blood flow. Blood flows through the tricuspid during diastole, so that is when you hear the murmur.
What role do the vasa recta play in urine formation?
The vasa recta protect the medullary osmotic gradient by preventing rapid removal of salt.
What would be the effect on urine output if sodium channels in the tubule cells were inhibited?
The volume would increase.
Which feature of the bladder predisposes it to being able to stretch and relax repeatedly?
The walls are highly folded into rugae and the epithelium is transitional.
Mr. G's online file also has the results of his recent blood tests. The only thing that looks abnormal is something called ANP −− atrial natriuretic peptide. It is elevated. Why would this hormone be elevated in Mr. G, and what is it doing to him?
This hormone comes from the overstretched atrium and makes Mr. G lose more Na+ and water in his urine, lowering blood volume and reducing the load on the atrium.
Which statement describes the citric acid cycle?
This process produces some ATP and carbon dioxide in the mitochondrion.
Which statement describes glycolysis?
This process splits glucose in half and produces 2 ATPs for each glucose.
Which statement describes the electron transport chain?
This process uses energy captured from electrons flowing to oxygen to produce most of the ATPs in cellular respiration.
Name the two hormones commonly referred to as "thyroid hormone" and describe their general actions.
Triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) are the two hormones that are commonly referred to as "thyroid hormone." While most thyroid hormone is secreted at T4, this is converted to the T3 form in target cells when one iodine atom is removed. The T3 form is the most potent form. T3 binds to receptors in the nucleus to alter gene transcription, which has a variety of actions depending on the target cell. The primary action of thyroid hormone is to increase the body's metabolic rate, which leads to an increase in body temperature. This requires more oxygen so heart rate and contractility increase as well. Thyroid hormone is required for normal development and the growth of bone, muscle, connective tissue and the nervous system.
How is the secretion of TSH regulated under normal conditions?
Under normal conditions, TSH levels are regulated by a negative feedback loop. When there are low thyroid hormones, the anterior pituitary responds by increasing the secretion of TSH. This happens because the hypothalamus first detects the low thyroid hormone levels and increases the secretions of TRH. TRH then stimulates the anterior pituitary to increase secretion of TSH. High levels of thyroid hormone will have the opposite effects on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland in order to lower the levels of TSH.
Why does only one egg, rather than four eggs, develop during oogenesis, given that spermatogenesis results in four sperm formed from one stem cell?
Unequal cytoplasmic division ensures that a fertilized egg has ample nutrients for its journey to the uterus.
Enteric interneurons that are inhibitory to smooth muscle use which of the following neurotransmitters?
VIP (vasoactive intestinal peptide)
What is happening during the "pause" phase when the heart is resting (relaxing)?
Ventricles are filling.
If a person exercises for a long time, lactic acid will start to build up in his or her muscles. Which of the following would you expect to happen as the lactic acid first starts to be formed?
Weak bases in the muscles will act as buffers and resist or minimize any pH change.
Which specific type of cell produces antibodies?
activated plasma cells
From a hormonal standpoint, why is the first day of menstrual bleeding counted as the first day of a new cycle rather than as the end of the previous cycle?
Without feedback from a fertilized zygote, the corpus luteum degenerates and pituitary hormones are no longer under ovarian negative feedback.
An embryo in week 9 of development is revealed to be male. Which of the following structures would be present in this embryo?
Wolffian ducts
Which form of inheritance most often results in a recessive trait being expressed more often in males than in females?
X-linked inheritance
Under normal conditions, increased levels of thyroid hormone in the blood will cause _______.
a decrease in TSH levels
Which of the following would result from hypoparathyroidism?
a decrease in the release of calcium from bones
An increase in blood CO2 levels leads to __________.
a drop in blood pH
Which of the following is most likely to trigger the release of renin?
a drop in blood pressure
What is the name for the period of time that extends from the last menstrual period until birth, which is approximately 280 days?
a gestation period
If embryonic testes do not produce testosterone, a genetic male develops female external genitalia. However, if embryonic testes properly produce testosterone, but a genetic male nevertheless develops female external genitalia, the cause could be ______.
a mutation in the gene that codes for the testosterone receptor
In response to a steak dinner, certain secretions are needed to aid digestion. What cells in the pancreas would provide these secretions?
acinar cells
Which portion of the sperm contains the enzymes needed to penetrate the oocyte?
acrosome
Humans require vitamins in their diets because these nutrients ________.
act as coenzymes
Which of the following INCREASES stroke volume?
exercise
When does the total number of chromosomes get reduced from 46 pairs to 23 individual chromosomes?
during meiosis I
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) associated with untreated gonorrheal infections results in fallopian tube scarring and infertility. What other disorder would a female with PID be at high risk for?
ectopic pregnancy
Which of the following would NOT be expected to occur as a result of dehydration?
edema
What serves as the direct energy source for the proton pumps in oxidative phosphorylation?
electrons passing from transfer molecules to oxygen
During development, the conceptus is called a (an) _______ from fertilization through week 8, and a (an) _______ from week 9 through birth.
embryo; fetus
The _______ of the uterus receives the embryo and provides nourishment until the placenta is formed.
endometrium
Which of the following is not a layer of the ureter?
endothelium
Which chemical activates the transformation of trypsinogen to trypsin?
enteropeptidase
Which type of leukocyte provides protection against parasitic worms?
eosinophil
Which of the following would NOT lead to a bleeding disorder?
excess calcium in the diet
Select the best explanation for why protease enzymes are secreted in inactive forms.
the cells producing inactive enzymes are themselves protected from the enzymes until they are safely within the lumen of the GI tract
Which of the following counteracts the movement of negative bicarbonate ions from the RBS?
the chloride shift
During the secretory phase of the uterine cycle, __________.
the endometrium prepares for implantation
Which of the following is least involved in the mechanical breakdown of food, digestion, or absorption?
the esophagus
In order to cause cardiac muscle contraction, the contractile cells must also depolarize. What causes the depolarization of the contractile cells?
the flow of positive ions from adjacent cells
Cancer treatments such as chemotherapy target rapidly dividing, cancerous cells, but can also destroy noncancerous cells with a rapid rate of mitosis. Which small intestinal features are LEAST likely to be damaged by chemotherapy?
the muscularis layer of the intestine
Hypersecretion of aldosterone results in hypokalemia, which causes hyperpolarization of neurons; this in turn results in ______.
the need for a stronger than normal stimulus in order to trigger an action potential
Which of the following is NOT a chemical barrier that helps prevent infections?
the pH of the blood
What structure in the intrinsic cardiac conduction system determines heart rate?
the sinoatrial (SA) node
The decreased intracellular concentration of sodium in tubular cells during active transport is caused by which of the following mechanisms?
the sodium-potassium ATPase pump in the basolateral membrane
End systolic volume (ESV)
the volume of blood in one ventricle after contraction
End diastolic volume (EDV)
the volume of blood in one ventricle before contraction
Stroke volume (SV)
the volume of blood per heart beat pumped out by one ventricle
Venous return (VR)
the volume of blood per minute flowing into one atrium
Cardiac output (CO)
the volume of blood per minute pumped out by one ventricle
Which of the following best describes glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
the volume of filtrate created by the kidneys per minute
