ACC 1247 - Final Exam Review

what is the length of time it takes for H.I.V. to become AIDS?

10 to 12 years

268. The nurse is planning to admit a pregnant client who is obese. In planning care for this client, which potential client needs should the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply. 1. Bed rest as a necessary preventive measure may be prescribed. 2. Routine administration of subcutaneous heparin may be prescribed. 3. An overbed lift may be necessary if the client requires a cesarean section. 4. Less frequent cleansing of a cesarean incision, if present, may be prescribed. 5. Thromboembolism stockings or sequential compression devices may be prescribed.

268. 2, 3, 5 Rationale: The obese pregnant client is at risk for complications such as venous thromboembolism and increased need for cesarean section. Additionally, the obese client requires special considerations pertaining to nursing care.

69.Which of the following clients is expected to retain anesthetic agents longest? 1.A client who is 6 feet 2 inch tall (188 cm) and weighs 250 lb (113.4 kg). 2.A client who is 5 feet 4 inch (162.6 cm) tall and weighs 110 lb (49.9 kg). 3.A client who is 5 feet 1 inch (155 cm) tall and weighs 200 lb (90.7 kg). 4.A client who is 5 feet 7 (170.2 cm) inch tall and weighs 145 lb (65.8 kg).

3.A client who is 5 feet 1 inch (155 cm) tall and weighs 200 lb (90.7 kg). Nursing interventions are aimed at encouraging the obese client to turn, cough, and deep breathe despite feeling sleepy and tired. The sooner this client ambulates, the sooner the retained anesthesia will be worked out of the adipose tissue.

72.The nurse interviews a 22-year-old female client who is scheduled for abdominal surgery the following week. The client is obese and uses estrogen-based oral contraceptives. This client is at high risk for development of: 1.Atherosclerosis. 2.Diabetes. 3.Vasospastic disorder (Raynaud's disease). 4.Thrombophlebitis.

4. The data suggest an increased risk of thrombophlebitis. The risk factors in this situation include abdominal surgery, obesity, and use of estrogen-based oral contraceptives.

588 A client admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of acute pancreatitis is being assessed by the nurse. Which assessment findings would be consistent with acute pancreatitis? Select all that apply. 1. Diarrhea 2. Black, tarry stools 3. Hyperactive bowel sounds 4. Gray-blue color at the flank 5. Abdominal guarding and tenderness 6. Left upper quadrant pain with radiation to the back

588. 4, 5, 6 Rationale: Grayish-blue discoloration at the flank is known as Grey-Turner's sign and occurs as a result of pancreatic enzyme leakage to cutaneous tissue from the peritoneal cavity. The cli- ent may demonstrate abdominal guarding and may complain of tenderness with palpation.

589 The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing an acute episode of cholecystitis. Which of these clinical manifestations support this diagnosis? Select all that apply. 1. Fever 2. Positive Cullen's sign 3. Complaints of indigestion 4. Palpable mass in the left upper quadrant 5. Pain in the upper right quadrant after a fatty meal 6. Vague lower right quadrant abdominal discomfort

589. 1, 3, 5 Rationale: During an acute episode of cholecystitis, the client may complain ofsevere right upper quadrant pain that radiates to the right scapula or shoulder or experience epigastric pain after a fatty or high-volume meal.

601. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client following gastrectomy and should instruct the client to take which measure to assist in pre- venting dumping syndrome? 1. Ambulate following a meal. 2. Eat high-carbohydrate foods. 3. Limit the fluids taken with meals. 4. Sit in a high Fowler's position during meals.

601. 3 Rationale: Dumping syndrome is a term that refers to a constellation of vasomotor symptoms that occurs after eating, especially following a gastrojejunostomy (Billroth II procedure). Early manifestations usually occur within 30 minutes of eating and include vertigo, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations, and the desire to lie down.

602 The nurse is reviewing the prescription for a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which interventions would the nurse expect to be prescribed for the client? Select all that apply. 1. Maintain NPO (nothing by mouth) status. 2. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. 3. Give small, frequent high-calorie feedings. 4. Maintain the client in a supine and flat position. 5. Give hydromorphone intravenously as pre- scribed for pain. 6. Maintain intravenous fluids at 10 mL/hour to keep the vein open.

602. 1, 2, 5 Rationale: The client with acute pancreatitis normally is placed on NPO status to rest the pancreas and suppress gastrointesti- nal secretions, so adequate intravenous hydration is necessary.

612. The nurse is monitoring a client for the early signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome. Which findings indicate this occurrence? 1. Sweating and pallor 2. Bradycardia and indigestion 3. Double vision and chest pain 4. Abdominal cramping and pain

612. 1 Rationale: Early manifestations of dumping syndrome occur 5 to 30 minutes after eating. Symptoms include vertigo, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations, and the desire to lie down.

637. The nurse has conducted discharge teaching with a client diagnosed with tuberculosis who has been receiving medication for 2 weeks. The nurse determines that the client has understood the information if the client makes which statement? 1. "I need to continue medication therapy for 1 month." 2. "I can't shop at the mall for the next 6 months." 3. "I can return to work if a sputum culture comes back negative." 4. "I should not be contagious after 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy."

637. 4 Rationale: The client is continued on medication therapy for up to 12 months, depending on the situation. The client generally is considered noncontagious after 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy.

638. The nurse is preparing to give a bed bath to an immobilized client with tuberculosis. The nurse should wear which items when performing this care? 1. Surgical mask and gloves 2. Particulate respirator, gown, and gloves 3. Particulate respirator and protective eyewear 4. Surgical mask, gown, and protective eyewear

638. 2 Rationale: The nurse who is in contact with a client with tuberculosis should wear an individually fitted particulate respirator.

640. A client who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive has had a tuberculin skin test (TST). The nurse notes a 7-mm area of induration at the site of the skin test and interprets the result as which finding? 1. Positive 2. Negative 3. Inconclusive 4. Need for repeat testing

640. 1 Rationale: The client with HIV infection is considered to have positive results on tuberculin skin testing with an area of induration larger than 5 mm.

646. The community health nurse is conducting an educational session with community members regarding the signs and symptoms associated with tuberculosis. The nurse informs the participants that tuberculosis is considered as a diagnosis if which signs and symptoms are present? Select all that apply. 1. Dyspnea 2. Headache 3. Night sweats 4. A bloody, productive cough 5. A cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum

646. 1, 3, 4, 5 Rationale: Tuberculosis should be considered for any clients with a persistent cough, weight loss, anorexia, night sweats, hemoptysis, shortness of breath, fever, or chills.

647. The nurse performs an admission assessment on a client with a diagnosis of tuberculosis. The nurse should check the results of which diagnostic test that will confirm this diagnosis? 1. Chest x-ray 2. Bronchoscopy 3. Sputum culture 4. Tuberculin skin test

647. 3 Rationale: Tuberculosis is definitively diagnosed through culture and isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A presumptive diagnosis is made based on a tuberculin skin test, a sputum smear that is positive for acid-fast bacteria, a chest x-ray, and histological evidence of granulomatous disease on biopsy.

Normal CD4 count

800-1200

metabolic syndrome

A cluster of conditions (3 or more) that increase the risk of heart disease, stroke, and diabetes.

what is the Main receptor the H.I.V. virus binds to, in order to gain entry into living cells?

CD 4

The nurse teaches a 50-year-old woman who has a body mass index (BMI) of 39 kg/m2 about weight loss. Which dietary change would be appropriate for the nurse to recommend to this patient? a. Decrease fat intake and control portion size b. Increase vegetables and decrease fluid intake c. Increase protein intake and avoid carbohydrates d. Decrease complex carbohydrates and limit fiber

Correct answer: a Rationale: The safest dietary guideline for weight loss is to decrease caloric intake by maintaining a balance of nutrients and adequate hydration while controlling portion size and decreasing fat intake.

What information should be included in the dietary teaching for the patient following a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass? a. Avoid sugary foods and limit fluids to prevent dumping syndrome. b. Gradually increase the amount of food ingested to preoperative levels. c. Maintain a long-term liquid diet to prevent damage to the surgical site. d. Consume foods high in complex carbohydrates, protein, and fiber to add bulk to contents.

Correct answer: a Rationale: Fluids and foods high in carbohydrates tend to promote diarrhea and symptoms of dumping syndrome in patients with gastric bypass surgery. The diet generally should be high in protein and low in carbohydrates, fat, and roughage and consists of six small feedings a day because of the small stomach size. Liquid diets are likely to be used longer for the patient with a gastroplasty.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is 5'6" tall and weighs 186 lb. The nurse has discussed reasonable weight loss goals and a low-calorie diet with the patient. Which statement made by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will limit intake to 500 calories a day." b. "I will try to eat very slowly during mealtimes." c. "I'll try to pick foods from all of the basic food groups." d. "It's important for me to begin a regular exercise program."

Correct answer: a Rationale: Limiting intake to 500 calories per day is not indicated for this patient, and the severe calorie energy restriction would place this patient at risk for multiple nutrient deficiencies. Decreasing caloric intake at least 500 to 1000 calories a day is recommended for weight loss of one to two pounds per week. The other options show understanding of the teaching.

The nurse cares for a 34-year-old woman after bariatric surgery. The nurse determines that discharge teaching related to diet is successful if the patient makes which statement? a. "A high protein diet that is low in carbohydrates and fat will prevent diarrhea." b. "Food should be high in fiber to prevent constipation from the pain medication." c. "Three meals a day with no snacks between meals will provide optimal nutrition." d. "Fluid intake should be at least 2000 mL per day with meals to avoid dehydration."

Correct answer: a Rationale: The diet generally prescribed is high in protein and low in carbohydrates, fat, and roughage and consists of six small feedings daily. Fluids should not be ingested with the meal, and in some cases, fluids should be restricted to less than 1000 mL per day. Fluids and foods high in carbohydrate tend to promote diarrhea and symptoms of the dumping syndrome. Generally, calorically dense foods (foods high in fat) should be avoided to permit more nutritionally sound food to be consumed.

During the initial postoperative period following bariatric surgery, the nurse recognizes the importance of monitoring obese patients for respiratory insufficiency based on what knowledge? a. The body stores anesthetics in adipose tissue. b. Postoperative pain may cause a decreased respiratory rate. c. Intubation may be difficult because of extra chin skinfolds. d. The patient's head must remain flat for a minimum of 2 hours postprocedure.

Correct answer: a Rationale: The body stores anesthetics in adipose tissue, placing patients with excess adipose tissue at risk for re-sedation. As adipose cells release anesthetics back into the bloodstream, the patient may become sedated after surgery, increasing the risk of hypoventilation and resultant respiratory insufficiency. Difficult intubation does not cause respiratory insufficiency. Pain usually increases respiratory rate. The patient's head should be elevated after bariatric surgery to decrease abdominal pressure and facilitate respirations.

Priority Decision: When medications are used in the treatment of obesity, what is most important for the nurse to teach the patient? a. Over-the-counter (OTC) diet aids are safer than other agents and con be useful in controlling appetite. b. Drugs should be used only as adjuncts to a diet and exercise program as treatment for a chronic condition. c. All drugs used for weight control are capable of altering central nervous system (CNS) function and should be used with caution. d. The primary effect of the medications is psychologic, controlling the urge to eat in response to stress or feelings of rejection.

Correct answer: b Rationale: Medications are used only as adjuncts to diet and exercise programs in the treatment of obesity. Drugs do not cure obesity; without changes in food intake and physical activity, weight gain will occur when the medications are discontinued. The medications used work in a variety of ways to control appetite but over-the-counter drugs are probably the least effective and most abused of these drugs.

The nurse is caring for a 45-year-old woman with a herniated lumbar disc. The patient realizes that weight loss is necessary to lessen back strain. The patient is 5'6" tall and weighs 186 lb (84.5 kg) with a body mass index (BMI) of 28 kg/m2. The nurse explains to the patient that this measurement places her in which of the following weight categories? a. Normal weight b. Overweight c. Obese d. Severely obese

Correct answer: b Rationale: A normal BMI is 18.5 to 24.9 kg/m2, whereas a BMI of 25 to 29.9 kg/m2 is considered overweight. A BMI of 30.0-39.9 is considered obese, and a BMI of 40 or greater is severely obese.

Which female patient is most likely to have metabolic syndrome? a. BP 128/78 mm Hg, triglycerides 160 mg/dL, fasting blood glucose 102 mg/dL b. BP 142/90 mm Hg, high-density lipoproteins 45 mg/dL, fasting blood glucose 130 mg/dL c. Waist circumference 36 in, triglycerides 162 mg/dL, high-density lipoproteins 55 mg/dL d. Waist circumference 32 in, high-density lipoproteins 38 mg/dL, fasting blood glucose 122 mg/dL

Correct answer: b Rationale: Three of the following five measures are needed for a woman to be diagnosed with metabolic syndrome: waist circumference >35 in, triglycerides >150 mg/dL, high-density lipoproteins <50 mg/dL, BP >130 mm Hg systolic or >85 mm Hg diastolic, fasting blood glucose >110 mg/dL. Although the other options have some abnormal measures, none has all three measures in the diagnostic ranges. The criteria for metabolic syndrome for both women and men are listed in Table 41-10.

What is the main underlying risk factor for metabolic syndrome? a. Age b. Heart disease c. Insulin resistance d. High cholesterol levels

Correct answer: c Rationale: Insulin resistance is the main underlying risk factor for metabolic syndrome. Aging is associated with metabolic syndrome. High cholesterol, hypertension, and increased clotting risk are characteristics of metabolic syndrome.

The obesity classification that is most often associated with cardiovascular health problems is a. primary obesity. b. secondary obesity. c. gynoid fat distribution. d. android fat distribution.

Correct answer: d Rationale: Individuals with fat located primarily in the abdominal area (i.e., whose body is apple-shaped) are at greater risk for obesity-related complications (e.g., heart disease) than are those whose fat is primarily located in the upper legs (i.e., whose body is pear-shaped). Individuals whose fat is distributed over the abdomen and upper body (i.e., neck, arms, and shoulders) are classified as having android obesity.

Which patient is at highest risk for developing metabolic syndrome? a. A 62-year-old white man who has coronary artery disease with chronic stable angina b. A 54-year-old Hispanic woman who is sedentary and has nephrogenic diabetes insipidus c. A 27-year-old Asian American woman who has preeclampsia and gestational diabetes mellitus d. A 38-year-old Native American man who has diabetes mellitus and elevated hemoglobin A1C

Correct answer: d Rationale: African Americans, Hispanics, Native Americans, and Asians are at an increased risk for development of metabolic syndrome. Other risk factors include individuals who have diabetes that cannot maintain a normal glucose level, have hypertension, and secrete a large amount of insulin, or who have survived a heart attack and have hyperinsulinemia.

In the immediate postoperative period a nurse cares for a severely obese 72-year-old man who had surgery for repair of a lower leg fracture. Which assessment would be most important for the nurse to make? a. Cardiac rhythm b. Surgical dressing c. Postoperative pain d. Oxygen saturation

Correct answer: d Rationale: After surgery an older and/or severely obese patient should be closely monitored for oxygen desaturation. The body stores anesthetics in adipose tissue, placing patients with excess adipose tissue (e.g., obesity, older) at risk for resedation.

At the first visit to the clinic, the female patient with a BMI of 29 kg/m2 tells the nurse that she does not want to become obese. Which question used for assessing weight issues is the most important question for the nurse to ask? a. "What factors contributed to your current body weight?" b. "How is your overall health affected by your body weight?" c. "What is your history of gaining weight and losing weight?" d. "In what ways are you interested in managing your weight differently?"

Correct answer: d Rationale: Asking the patient about her desire to manage her weight in a different manner helps the nurse determine the patient's readiness for learning, degree of motivation, and willingness to change lifestyle habits. The nurse can help the patient set realistic goals. This question will also lead to discussing the patient's history of gaining and losing weight and factors that have contributed to the patient's current weight. The patient may be unaware of the overall health effects of her body weight, so this question is not helpful at this time.

Which patient has the highest morbidity risk? a. Male 6 ft. 1 in. tall, BMI 29 kg/m2 b. Female 5 ft. 6 in. tall, weight 150 lb. c. Male with waist circumference 46 in. d. Female 5 ft. 10 in. tall, obesity Class III

Correct answer: d Rationale: The patient in Class III obesity has the highest risk for disease because Class III denotes severe obesity or a BMI greater than 40 kg/m2. The patient with waist circumference 46 in. has a high risk for disease, but without the BMI or obesity class, a more precise determination cannot be made. The female who is 5 ft. 6 in. tall has a normal weight for her height. The male patient who is over 6 ft. tall is overweight, which increases his risk of disease, but a more precise determination cannot be made without the waist circumference.

What is a postoperative nursing intervention for the obese patient who has undergone bariatric surgery? a. Irrigating and repositioning the nasogastric (NG) tube as needed b. Delaying ambulation until the patient has enough strength to support self c. Keeping the patient positioned on the side to facilitate respiratory function d. Providing adequate support to the incision during coughing, deep breathing, and turning

Correct answer: d Rationale: Turning, coughing, and deep breathing are essential to prevent postoperative complications. Protecting the incision from strain is important since wound dehiscence is a problem for obese patients.

Which of the following criteria must be met for a diagnosis of metabolic syndrome (select all that apply)? a. Hypertension b. Elevated triglycerides c. Elevated plasma glucose d. Increased waist circumference e. Decreased low-density lipoproteins

Correct answers: a, b, c, d Rationale: Three of the following five criteria must be met for a diagnosis of metabolic syndrome:• Waist circumference of 40 inches or more in men and 35 inches or more in women• Triglyceride levels higher than 150 mg/dL, or need for drug treatment for elevated triglyceride levels• High-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol levels lower than 40 mg/dL in men and lower than 50 mg/dL in women, or need for drug treatment for reduced HDL cholesterol levels• Blood pressure: 130 mm Hg or higher systolic or 85 mm Hg or higher diastolic, or need for drug treatment for hypertension• Fasting blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL or higher, or need for drug treatment for elevated glucose levels

Health risks associated with obesity include (select all that apply) a. colorectal cancer. b. rheumatoid arthritis. c. polycystic ovary syndrome. d. nonalcoholic steatohepatitis. e. systemic lupus erythematosus.

Correct answers: a, c, d Rationale: Health risks associated with obesity include cardiovascular disease (related to increased low-density lipoprotein levels, increased triglyceride levels, and decreased high-density lipoprotein levels), hypertension, sleep apnea, obesity hypoventilation syndrome, reduced chest wall compliance, increased work of breathing, decreased total lung capacity and functional residual capacity, type 2 diabetes mellitus (i.e., hyperinsulinemia and insulin resistance), osteoarthritis, hyperuricemia, gout, gastroesophageal reflux disease, gallstones, nonalcoholic steatohepatitis, fatty liver and cirrhosis, cancer (mainly breast, endometrial, kidney, colorectal, pancreas, esophagus, and gallbladder), psychosocial problems (employment, education, and health care), low self-esteem, withdrawal from social interactions, and major depression.

Which teaching points are important when providing information to a patient with metabolic syndrome (select all that apply)? a. Stop smoking. b. Monitor weight daily. c. Increase level of activity. d. Decrease saturated fat intake. e. Reduce weight and maintain lower weight. f. Check blood glucose each morning prior to eating.

Correct answers: a, c, d, e Rationale: Patients with metabolic syndrome need to lower their risk factors by reducing and maintaining weight, increasing physical activity, establishing healthy diet habits, and smoking cessation. Some patients with metabolic syndrome are diabetic and would need to monitor glucose levels frequently. When monitoring weight reduction, it is recommended to check weight weekly, not daily.

A community health nurse is conducting an initial assessment of a new patient. Which assessments should the nurse include when screening the patient for metabolic syndrome (select all that apply)? a. Blood pressure b. Resting heart rate c. Physical endurance d. Waist circumference e. Fasting blood glucose

Correct answers: a, d, e Rationale: The diagnostic criteria for metabolic syndrome include elevated blood pressure, fasting blood glucose, waist circumference, triglycerides, and HDL cholesterol. Resting heart rate and physical endurance are not part of the diagnostic criteria.

what are the signs & symptoms of late stage syphilis., aka tertiary?

Gummas., cardiovascular (aneurysms, HF, aortitis, heart valve insufficient)., neurosyphilis., appears 3 to 20 years after initial infection., & can be chronic & fatal

what is the difference between H.I.V. and AIDS?

HIV is the virus, AIDS is the disease.

what is the Host Target cell for H.I.V?

T cells

pt teaching for STI treatment

abstain from sex for 1 week after treatment is complete, treat partners (EPT), practice safe sex, retest in 3 months

what are the signs & symptoms of H.I.V.? (acute infection)

acute infection. usually 2-4 weeks after infection., often flu-like symptoms., fatigue., sore throat., enlarged lymph nodes., headache., muscle & joint pain., & diarrhea

what are the antivirals that suppress frequent recurrence (3) of Genital herpes?

acyclovir., valacyclovir., & famciclovir., - administer several times a day for 7 to 10 days

what (2) L.F.T. labs are a determining factor of pancreatitis?

amylase and lipase

what is the thyroid hormone that lowers blood calcium and phosphate levels?

calcitonin

what is the Goal of H.I.V. treatment?

decrease viral load, maintain CD4 count

what are the side effects of H.I.V. treatment?

depression., diarrhea., peripheral neuropathy., pain., Nausea, Vomiting., & fatigue

What 3 meds are used to treat gonorrhea and chlamydia?

doxycycline (vibramycin), azithromycin (zithromax), and ceftriaxone (rocephin)

what are the signs & symptoms of metabolic syndrome?

elevated triglycerides (>150 mg/dL), insulin resistance (FBG >110 mg/dL), waist circumference greater than 35 in Women or 40 in men, Low HDL Cholesterol (men-<40mg/dL, women-<50mg/dL), and hypertension

what are apple shapes more prone to?

elevated triglycerides., metabolic syndrome., decreasing insulin sensitivity., high levels of LDL cholesterol., increasing Blood Pressure., & release of more fatty acids into the blood stream

What is essential to weight loss?

exercise (30 mins per day 6 to 7 days a week) , patient's desire to change (comes 1st), and diet control

what is the Normal function of T cells?

fight infection

Dumping syndrome

gastric contents empty too rapidly into the small intestine, overwhelming its ability to digest nutrients. Symptoms can include vomiting, nausea, weakness, sweating, faintness, and, on occasion, diarrhea. Patients are discouraged from eating sugary foods after surgery to avoid dumping syndrome

what foods contain calcium?

ice cream., cheese., salmon., sardines., almonds., & green leafy veggies

what are the Criteria for AIDS?

immune system severely compromised., great risk for opportunistic disease., & possible malignancies, wasting and dementia

what are metabolic syndrome lifestyle modifications: (4)?

in this order: reduce glucose levels., stop smoking., lower Blood Pressure., & reduce LDL and triglycerides

what do the thyroid hormones, T. 3; & T. 4; control?

increase metabolic rate., increase protein & bone turnover., increase responsiveness to catecholamines., & fetal & infant growth & development

what is the Goal of therapy for HIV/AIDS?

increase or maintain CD4, decrese viral load, stop symptoms or opportunistic infections, prevent spread

due to lack of absorption, what 3 anemias are common post-op for obese patients?

iron, calcium, and b12

Signs and Symptoms of biliary blockage

jaundice, dark orange urine, steatorrhea, pruritus

what are the signs & symptoms of the secondary stage of syphilis?

lasts 1 to 2 years bilateral symmetric rash on trunk, extremities & palms & soles of feet., weight loss., alopecia., flu-like., & duration is 1 to 2 years., & feeling ill only lasts about 1 to 2 weeks

H.I.V. is considered AIDS when the C.D. 4 count is

less than 200

what is the treatment for herpes?

loose fitting cotton underwear., keep lesions clean & dry., sitz bath., no sex during active lesions., drying agents., dilute urine with water., & use anesthetic for pain

which type of bariatric surgery is likely to produce more long term weight loss?

malabsorptive

which type of bariatric surgery is more likely to cause vitamins deficiencies & dumping syndrome?

malabsorptive

avoid phlebotomy in.,

mastectomy arm., veins above I.V. infusions., red, irritated, bruised, painful veins., & dialysis arm

what are the health risks involved in pear shape: (4)?

osteoporosis., varicose veins., cellulite., & high triglycerides

what are the 5 rights to phlebotomy?

patient., order., specimen., date., & label

what treatment is used for syphilis?

penicillin

TSH is released by

pituitary

what stage of syphilis is most infectious? s/s?

primary - chancre., regional lymphadenopathy., & genital ulcers

Categories of bariatric surgery

restrictive and malabsorptive

anastomotic leak

s/s- abdominal pain, tachycardia, fever treat leak w antibiotics and drains

how is hyperthyroidism treated?

short term stabilization : propylthiouracil and methimazole can be used as suppressive agents. Beta blockers (propanolol) are used to decrease cardiac output. Iodine can also suppress the thyroid gland but is rarely used for this purpose clinically curative tx: radioactive iodine ablation of the thyroid is typical. surgery is preferred in pregnant patients. Hypothyroidism may result form either tx, if so, treat with thyroid replacement therapy for life

what are the three triggers for recurrent herpes

stress, sunburn, menses

what are the hormones secreted by the thyroid?

t3, t4, and calcitonin

what are the Signs & symptoms of thyroid storm?

temp 105., pulse 130., dyspnea., Heart Failure., delirium., & coma

which are modes of H.I.V. transmission?

vaginal secretions., Semen., & breast milk

What STI's are incurable?

warts and herpes