ACC 480 Chapter 2
46) Due professional care requires: A) auditors to maintain an attitude that includes a questioning mind and a critical assessment of audit evidence. B) the examination of all available corroborating evidence. C) the exercise of error-free judgment. D) a study and review of internal controls that includes tests of controls.
A) auditors to maintain an attitude that includes a questioning mind and a critical assessment of audit evidence.
51) The Performance section of Principles Underlying an Audit Conducted in Accordance with GAAS states that for auditors to obtain reasonable assurance, they need to do all of the following except: A) make sure all audit team members have adequate training. B) obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence. C) identify and assess risks of material misstatement. D) determine and apply appropriate materiality levels.
A) make sure all audit team members have adequate training.
53) The Performance section of the "Principles Underlying an Audit" is concerned with: A) proper planning and supervision, appropriate materiality levels, and sufficient appropriate audit evidence. B) an audit opinion in accordance with the auditor's findings, whether the financials are presented fairly, and whether the financial are in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework. C) whether the auditor has unrestricted access to those within the entity from whom the auditor needs to obtain audit evidence. D) complying with ethical requirement, appropriate competence and maintaining professional skepticism.
A) proper planning and supervision, appropriate materiality levels, and sufficient appropriate audit evidence.
48) The Performance section of Principles Underlying an Audit Conducted in Accordance with GAAS states that the auditor is unable to obtain absolute assurance that the financials are free of material misstatements because of inherent limitations which arise from all of the following except: A) the presentation of the financial statements based on GAAS. B) the nature of financial reporting. C) the nature of audit procedures. D) the need for the audit to be conducted within a reasonable period of time and so as to achieve a balance between benefit and cost.
A) the presentation of the financial statements based on GAAS.
32) What is the general character of the work conducted in performing a forensic audit for a company? A) Providing assurance that the financial statements are not materially misstated. B) Detecting or deterring fraudulent activity. C) Offering an opinion on the reliability of the specific assertions made by management. D) Identifying the causes of an entity's financial difficulties
B) Detecting or deterring fraudulent activity.
31) Which is NOT an attribute of an external auditor? A) Independence. B) Auditee advocacy. C) Objectivity. D) Concern for the public interest.
B) Auditee advocacy.
24) Typically, an external auditor first gets supervisory experience at what level of authority? A) Associate. B) Senior. C) Manager. D) Partner.
B) Senior.
19) The Reporting section of the Principles Underlying an Audit Conducted in Accordance with GAAS requires that the report, "states whether the financial statements are presented fairly, in all material respects, in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework." This passage requires: A) a statement of fact by the auditor. B) an opinion by the auditor. C) an implied measure of fairness. D) an objective measure of compliance.
B) an opinion by the auditor.
40) Due professional care requires auditors to: A) obtain independent, third party (non-auditee) documentation as evidence for all information presented in the financial statements. B) exercise professional skepticism during the audit. C) disregard any evidence generated by the auditee during the audit. D) find every error contained in the financial statements prepared by management.
B) exercise professional skepticism during the audit.
22) The primary responsibility for the adequacy of disclosures in the financial statements of a publicly held company rests with the: A) partner assigned to the audit engagement. B) management of the company. C) auditor in charge of the fieldwork. D) securities and exchange commission.
B) management of the company.
27) Forensic audits include all of the following except: A) criminal investigations. B) manufacturers' assertions about product quality. C) employee fraud. D) management fraud.
B) manufacturers' assertions about product quality.
13) The Public Company Accounting Oversight Board's role is to: A) conduct the final review of auditors' work before the auditor's opinion is issued. B) oversee the auditors of public companies in order to protect the interests of investors. C) conduct audits of governmental entities. D) sanction auditors who fail to follow GAAS.
B) oversee the auditors of public companies in order to protect the interests of investors.
25) An "in-charge" auditor typically holds the rank of: A) associate. B) senior. C) manager. D) partner.
B) senior.
54) The Reporting section of the "Principles Underlying an Audit" is concerned with: A) proper planning and supervision, appropriate materiality levels, and sufficient appropriate audit evidence. B) the auditor expressing an audit opinion in accordance with the auditor's findings, whether the financials are presented fairly, and whether the financial are in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework. C) whether the auditor has unrestricted access to those within the entity from whom the auditor needs to obtain audit evidence. D) complying with ethical requirements, appropriate competence and maintaining professional skepticism.
B) the auditor expressing an audit opinion in accordance with the auditor's findings, whether the financials are presented fairly, and whether the financial are in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework.
43) Which of the following is NOT included in the broad category of assurance services? A) Operational audit. B) Reporting on internal control. C) Accounting or review services. D) Evaluation of the auditee's risk management framework.
C) Accounting or review services.
38) The main difference between SAS and AU is: A) they are the same except that SAS are organized chronologically and the AU are organized by topical area. B) SAS are issued by the ASB and AU are issued by the PCAOB. C) SAS are issued by the PCAOB and AU are issued by the ASB. D) SAS define minimum standards of performance for auditors while AU define financial accounting principles that must be followed according to GAAP.
C) SAS are issued by the PCAOB and AU are issued by the ASB.
17) Which of the following best describes the general character of the three principles that are listed in the Performance section of the Principles Underlying an Audit Conducted in Accordance with GAAS? A) The purpose and value of a financial statement audit and lays out the responsibilities of management for an effective audit to be possible. B) The fundamental responsibilities and characteristics of an auditor. C) Auditors' responsibilities in performing an effective audit. D) Auditors provide a written report that expresses their opinion about the financial statements.
C) Auditors' responsibilities in performing an effective audit.
47) Which of the following best describes the role of corporate governance? A) Management decides which accounting principles are the most appropriate. B) Shareholders vote to decide who should be members of the board of directors. C) Holding the management team accountable to shareholders and other constituents for the utilization of the entity's resources. D) Management often is compensated based on the company's profitability.
C) Holding the management team accountable to shareholders and other constituents for the utilization of the entity's resources.
49) Which of the following best describes what is meant by generally accepted auditing standards? A) Audit assertions generally determined on audit engagements. B) Acts to be performed by the auditor. C) Standards of quality for the auditor's performance. D) Procedures to be used to gather evidence to support financial statements.
C) Standards of quality for the auditor's performance.
26) Which of the following best describes the concept of risk assessment on which auditors can provide independent assurance? A) The risk that financial statements are misstated because of fraud. B) The risk that financial statements are misstated because of error or fraud. C) Whether management has systems in place to evaluate and effectively manage the entity's business risks. D) Developing client acceptance and continuance practices that minimize the likelihood of lawsuits against the auditor.
C) Whether management has systems in place to evaluate and effectively manage the entity's business risks.
18) The Responsibilities section of the Principles Underlying an Audit Conducted in Accordance with GAAS states that auditors are responsible for having appropriate competence and: A) independence with respect to the financial statements and supplementary disclosures. B) exercising professional care as judged by peer reviewers. C) capabilities to perform the audit. D) objectivity as an auditor as verified by proper supervision
C) capabilities to perform the audit.
37) The Responsibilities section of Principles Underlying an Audit Conducted in Accordance with GAAS recognizes that regardless of how capable an individual may be in other fields, the individual cannot meet the requirements of the auditing standards without the proper: A) business and finance courses. B) quality control and peer review. C) education and experience in auditing. D) supervision and review skills.
C) education and experience in auditing.
23) The largest public accounting firms typically are structured as: A) subchapter S corporations. B) professional corporations. C) limited liability partnerships. D) limited liability corporations.
C) limited liability partnerships.
28) A typical objective of an operational audit is for the auditor to: A) determine whether the financial statements present fairly the entity's operations. B) evaluate the feasibility of attaining the entity's operational objectives. C) make recommendations for improving performance. D) report on the entity's relative success in attaining profit maximization.
C) make recommendations for improving performance.
11) The Audit Committee consists of: A) members of management. B) a subcommittee of the AICPA who establish the SAS. C) members of the Board of Directors. D) appointed government overseers.
C) members of the Board of Directors.
20) Because of the risk of material misstatement, an audit of financial statements in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards should be planned and performed with an attitude of: A) objective cynicism. B) independent differentialism. C) professional skepticism. D) impartial conservatism.
C) professional skepticism.
50) The 'Purpose of an Audit and Premise upon which an Audit is Conducted' section of Principles Underlying an Audit Conducted in Accordance with GAAS states that management is responsible for all the following except for: A) the preparation and fair presentation of the financial statement in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework. B) the design, implementation, and maintenance of internal control. C) providing financial statement users with an opinion on whether the financial statements present fairly. D) ensuring that the financial statements are free from material misstatement, whether due to error or fraud.
C) providing financial statement users with an opinion on whether the financial statements present fairly.
14) The authoritative body designed to promulgate standards concerning a CPA's association with audited financial statements of an entity that is required to file financial statements with the SEC is the: A) financial accounting standards board. B) general accounting office. C) public company accounting oversight board. D) auditing standards board.
C) public company accounting oversight board.
39) The AICPA's Statements on Auditing Standards can be described as: A) providing very specific guidance about the specific activities an auditor must perform on each engagement. B) similar to financial accounting standards in that they are developed by the government. C) tend to be general in nature and require a great deal of professional judgment. D) providing assurance that an auditor will not issue an incorrect opinion.
C) tend to be general in nature and require a great deal of professional judgment.
21) The accuracy of information included in footnotes accompanying the audited financial statements issued by a company whose shares are traded on a stock exchange is the primary responsibility of: A) the stock exchange officials. B) the independent auditor. C) the company's management. D) the securities and exchange commission.
C) the company's management.
42) An internal auditor is likely to be more concerned with ________ than the external auditor. A) internal administrative procedures B) cost accounting procedures C) the efficiency of operations D) internal control
C) the efficiency of operations
30) External auditors are referred to as "external" because: A) they report to users outside of the audited entity. B) they are paid by parties outside of the audited entity. C) they are not employees of the entity being audited. D) their offices are not at the entity's place of business.
C) they are not employees of the entity being audited.
33) Which of the following is NOT a requirement of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act? A) Audit firms cannot provide most types of nonaudit services to their public company auditees. B) Audit firms are required to rotate audit partners off audit engagements every five years for public company audits. C) Firms that audit public companies are subject to inspection by the PCAOB. D) A certain number of hours, which is based on the size of the company being audited, must be spent on each audit engagement.
D) A certain number of hours, which is based on the size of the company being audited, must be spent on each audit engagement.
44) Which of the following is NOT explicitly a part of the IIA's definition of internal auditing? A) Internal auditing is an objective assurance activity. B) Internal auditing is a consulting activity. C) Internal auditing should help an organization accomplish its objectives. D) Internal auditors should help external auditors complete the annual financial statement audit
D) Internal auditors should help external auditors complete the annual financial statement audit.
45) Which of the following statements regarding the PCAOB is incorrect? A) It is a public-sector, nonprofit corporation. B) It is overseen by the SEC. C) It sets standards for public company audits. D) It has delegated all of its standard-setting authority to the AICPA.
D) It has delegated all of its standard-setting authority to the AICPA.
35) Who bears ultimate responsibility for the financial statements? A) Management of the organization, equally with the external auditor that audits the statements. B) Management and the shareholders of the organization. C) The external auditor that audits the statements. D) Management of the organization.
D) Management of the organization.
12) What organization is responsible for setting auditing standards for audits of publicly-traded companies in the U.S.? A) AICPA. B) FASB. C) GASB. D) PCAOB
D) PCAOB.
16) Which principle of the Principles Underlying an Audit Conducted in Accordance with GAAS describes where auditors are required to plan the work and properly supervise any assistants? A) Purpose of an Audit and Premise upon which an Audit is Conducted. B) Performance. C) Reporting. D) Responsibilities.
D) Responsibilities.
41) The objectives of the Reporting section of Principles Underlying an Audit Conducted in Accordance with GAAS are to provide assurance and include all of the following except for: A) an opinion statement of whether the financial statements present fairly. B) an opinion statement of whether the financials are free of material misstatements. C) an opinion statement of whether the financials are in accordance with an applicable financial reporting framework. D) an opinion statement of whether the financial statements between periods are not materially affected by changes in accounting principles that are not disclosed.
D) an opinion statement of whether the financial statements between periods are not materially affected by changes in accounting principles that are not disclosed.
29) Governmental auditing often extends beyond examinations leading to the expression of an opinion on the fairness of financial presentation and includes audits of efficiency, effectiveness, and: A) monetary stimulus. B) evaluation. C) accuracy. D) compliance.
D) compliance.
36) The Responsibilities section of the Principles Underlying an Audit Conducted in Accordance with GAAS is concerned with: A) proper planning and supervision, appropriate materiality levels, and sufficient appropriate audit evidence. B) an audit opinion in accordance with the auditor's findings, whether the financials are presented fairly, and whether the financial are in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework. C) whether the auditor has unrestricted access to those within the entity from whom the auditor needs to obtain audit evidence. D) complying with ethical requirement, appropriate competence and maintaining professional skepticism.
D) complying with ethical requirement, appropriate competence and maintaining professional skepticism.
52) The Reporting section of Principles Underlying an Audit Conducted in Accordance with GAAS requires the auditor's report to contain either an expression of opinion regarding the financial statements taken as a whole or an assertion to the effect that an opinion cannot be expressed. The objective of this requirement is to prevent: A) an auditor from reporting on one basic financial statement and not the others. B) an auditor from expressing different opinions on each of the basic financial statements. C) management from reducing its final responsibility for the basic financial statements. D) misinterpretations regarding the degree of responsibility the auditor is assuming.
D) misinterpretations regarding the degree of responsibility the auditor is assuming.
15) The auditor must be independent of the auditee unless: A) the lack of independence does not influence his or her professional judgment. B) both parties agree that the independence issue is not a problem. C) the lack of independence is insignificant. D) none of the above—the auditor cannot lack independence.
D) none of the above—the auditor cannot lack independence.
34) A CPA is most likely to refer to one or more of the items listed in the Responsibilities section of the Principles Underlying an Audit Conducted in Accordance with GAAS in determining: A) the nature of the CPA's report qualification. B) the scope of the CPA's auditing procedures. C) requirements for the review of the entity and its environment. D) whether the CPA should undertake an audit engagement.
D) whether the CPA should undertake an audit engagement.
7) PCAOB auditing standards must be followed on all financial statement audits performed in the U.S.
False
8) A financial statement audit must be conducted based on GAAP.
False
3) The audit committee generally includes senior executives of the organization.
False
5) One of the five basic business processes is the warehousing cycle.
False
1) A series of business and related auditing failures led to the passage of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (2002).
True
10) PCAOB auditing standards must be followed on all audits of public companies' financial statements.
True
2) The primary audit context with which an auditor is concerned is the auditee's industry or business.
True
4) A financial statement audit is generally organized based on the five basic business processes or cycles.
True
6) The ASB's auditing standards contain a preface that includes Principles Underlying an Audit Conducted in Accordance with GAAS.
True
9) Generally, the financial statements of U.S. companies must be prepared based on GAAP.
True