ACCT 451 Module 15
A CPA's report on agreed-upon procedures related to management's assertion about an entity's compliance with specified requirements should contain: a. A statement of limitations on the use of the report. b. An opinion about whether management's assertion is fairly stated. c. Negative assurance that control risk has not been assessed. d. An acknowledgment of responsibility for the sufficiency of the procedures.
a. A statement of limitations on the use of the report.
A CPA is engaged to examine an entity's financial forecast. The CPA believes that several significant assumptions do not provide a reasonable basis for the forecast. Under these circumstances, the CPA should issue a(an): a. Adverse opinion. b. Pro forma opinion. c. Qualified opinion. d. Unqualified opinion with an explanatory paragraph.
a. Adverse opinion.
Snow, CPA, was engaged by Master Co., a nonpublic company, to audit and report on the effectiveness of Master's internal control over financial reporting in an integrated audit. Snow's report should state that: a. Because of the inherent limitations of internal control over financial reporting, misstatements may occur and not be detected. b. Management's assessment is based on criteria established by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants. c. The results of Snow's tests of internal control over financial reporting will form the basis for Snow's opinion on the fairness of Master's financial statements in conformity with GAAP. d. The purpose of the audit of internal control over financial reporting is to enable Snow to plan the audit of Master's financial statements and determine the nature, timing, and extent of tests to be performed.
a. Because of the inherent limitations of internal control over financial reporting, misstatements may occur and not be detected.
What terminology does the AICPA's Audit and Accounting Guide, Employee Benefit Plans, use in commenting on the types of audits relevant to employee benefit plans? a. Full-scope and limited-scope audits b. Internal and external audits c. Compliance and financial audits d. Traditional and integrated audits
a. Full-scope and limited-scope audits
Brown, CPA, has been engaged to audit and report on Crow Company's written assessment about the effectiveness of Crow's internal control over financial reporting in an integrated audit under AICPA standards. In what form may Crow appropriately present its written assessment? I. In a separate report that will accompany Brown's report. II. In a representation letter to Brown. a. I only. b. II only. c. Either I or II. d. Neither I nor II.
a. I only.
Which of the following should a practitioner perform as part of an engagement for agreed-upon procedures in accordance with Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements? a. Issue a report on findings based on specified procedures performed. b. Assess whether the procedures meet the needs of the parties. c. Express negative assurance on findings of work performed. d. Report the differences between agreed-upon and audit procedures.
a. Issue a report on findings based on specified procedures performed.
Before an auditor can accept an engagement to audit internal control over financial reporting in an integrated audit of a non-issuer, all of the following conditions must be met, except for: a. Management must state in the engagement letter that any identified significant deficiencies will be corrected on a timely basis, not to exceed 60 days from the report release date. b. Management must accept responsibility for the effectiveness of the entity's internal control over financial reporting. c. Management must evaluate the effectiveness of the entity's internal control using suitable and available criteria, and must support its assessment about the effectiveness of internal control with sufficient documentation. d. Management must provide its written assessment about the effectiveness of the entity's internal control over financial reporting in a report that accompanies the auditor's report.
a. Management must state in the engagement letter that any identified significant deficiencies will be corrected on a timely basis, not to exceed 60 days from the report release date.
When engaged to express an opinion on an entity's internal accounting control over financial reporting in an integrated audit of a nonissuer, an auditor should: a. Obtain management's written representations acknowledging responsibility for establishing and maintaining the system of internal control. b. Qualify any opinion concerning management's assertion that the cost of correcting any weaknesses exceeds the benefits. c. Keep informed of events subsequent to the date of the report that might have affected the auditor's opinion. d. Disclaim an opinion on whether the system taken as a whole is sufficient to prevent or detect material errors or fraud.
a. Obtain management's written representations acknowledging responsibility for establishing and maintaining the system of internal control.
Which of the following standards should a CPA firm apply in a review of pro forma financial information? a. Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements b. Statements on Standards for Consulting Services c. Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services d. Generally accepted auditing standards
a. Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements
Which of the following is a conceptual difference between the attestation standards and generally accepted auditing standards? a. The attestation standards provide a framework for the attest function beyond historical financial statements. b. The requirement that the practitioner be independent in mental attitude is omitted from the attestation standards. c. The attestation standards do not permit an attest engagement to be part of a business acquisition study or a feasibility study. d. None of the standards of fieldwork in generally accepted auditing standards are included in the attestation standards.
a. The attestation standards provide a framework for the attest function beyond historical financial statements.
A practitioner's report on agreed-upon procedures should contain which of the following statements? a. The procedures performed were those agreed to by the specified parties identified in the report. b. Sufficiency of procedures is the responsibility of the practitioner. c. All classification codes appeared to comply with such performance documents. d. Nothing came to my attention as a result of applying the procedures.
a. The procedures performed were those agreed to by the specified parties identified in the report.
An accountant's compilation report on a financial projection that does not contain a range should include a statement that: a. There will usually be differences between the projected and actual results because events and circumstances frequently do not occur as expected. b. The compilation includes an evaluation of the support for the assumptions underlying the projection. c. The accountant's responsibility to update the report for future events and circumstances is limited to one year. d. The projection is limited to presenting, in the form of financial statements, information that is the accountant's representation.
a. There will usually be differences between the projected and actual results because events and circumstances frequently do not occur as expected.
What should the practitioner do when the responsible party (who is also the engaging party) declines to provide the requested written representations for a review engagement? a. Withdraw from the engagement when that is permitted by applicable law b. Disclose that refusal in the practitioner's review report c. Modify the review report to express an adverse conclusion d. Attempt to obtain satisfactory oral responses from the responsible party
a. Withdraw from the engagement when that is permitted by applicable law
What should the practitioner do when the responsible party (who is also the engaging party) declines to provide a written assertion for a review engagement? a. Withdraw from the engagement when that is permitted by applicable law. b. Disclose that refusal in the practitioner's review report. c. Modify the review report to express a qualified conclusion. d. Modify the engagement letter to state that a written assertion will not be provided.
a. Withdraw from the engagement when that is permitted by applicable law.
A limited-scope audit of an employee benefit plan requires the auditor to evaluate each of the following, except for: a. the plan investments and investment activities. b. participant demographic and payroll data. c. the allocation of investment income to individual participants. d. administrative expenses.
a. the plan investments and investment activities.
Under applicable pension laws, the age that an employee is eligible to enter a pension plan cannot be set above the age of a. 18. b. 21. c. 25. d. 30.
b. 21.
Which of the following pension plans is specifically associated with charitable organizations and public school entities? a. 401(k) plan. b. 403(b) plans c. Cash balance plans d. Employee stock ownership plans
b. 403(b) plans
Which of the following professional services would be subject to the Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements (SSAEs)? a. A management consulting engagement to provide IT-related advice to a client. b. An engagement to report on an entity's compliance with statutory requirements. c. An income tax engagement to prepare federal and state tax returns. d. The compilation of financial statements from a nonissuer's accounting records.
b. An engagement to report on an entity's compliance with statutory requirements.
A practitioner is engaged to express an opinion on management's assertion that the square footage of a warehouse offered for sale is 150,000 square feet. The practitioner should refer to which of the following sources for professional guidance? a. Statements on Auditing Standards. b. Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements. c. Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services. d. Statements on Standards for Consulting Services.
b. Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements.
A practitioner has examined a client's compliance with debt covenants associated with a bank loan and is ready to issue a report. Which of the following standards apply to the report? a. Internal control standards. b. Compliance attestation standards. c. Agreed-upon procedures standards. d. Auditing standards of field work.
b. Compliance attestation standards.
According to PCAOB auditing standards, in evaluating whether a material weakness exists, an auditor should focus on materiality at the: a. Individual account-balance level. b. Financial statement level. c. Planning-stage level. d. Quantitative level without regard to the qualitative circumstances.
b. Financial statement level.
Mill, CPA, was engaged by a group of royalty recipients to apply agreed-upon procedures to financial data supplied by Modern Co. regarding Modern's written assertion about its compliance with contractual requirements to pay royalties. Mill's report on these agreed-upon procedures should contain a (an): a. Disclaimer of opinion about the fair presentation of Modern's financial statements. b. List of the procedures performed (or reference thereto) and Mill's findings. c. Opinion about the effectiveness of Modern's internal control activities concerning royalty payments. d. Acknowledgment that the sufficiency of the procedures is solely Mill's responsibility.
b. List of the procedures performed (or reference thereto) and Mill's findings.
Which of the following conditions is necessary for an auditor to accept an engagement to audit and report on an entity's internal control over financial reporting in an integrated audit for a nonissuer? a. The auditor anticipates relying on the entity's internal control in a financial statement audit. b. Management presents its written assessment about the effectiveness of the entity's internal control over financial reporting. c. The auditor is the continuing auditor who previously has audited the entity's financial statements. d. Management agrees to restrict the distributor of the auditor's report on internal control over financial reporting to specified users.
b. Management presents its written assessment about the effectiveness of the entity's internal control over financial reporting.
Which of the following statements best serves as management's assertion of consistency in an MD&A presentation? a. Information included in the presentation is properly classified and described. b. Nonfinancial data have been accurately derived from related records. c. Reported transactions took place during a given period. d. Descriptions of transactions are included to understand financial condition.
b. Nonfinancial data have been accurately derived from related records.
When the practitioner determines that the subject matter of an examination engagement is materially misstated, but that the misstatement is not pervasive, the practitioner should express a (an): a. Qualified opinion either directly on the subject matter or on the responsible party's assertion when the assertion acknowledges the misstatement. b. Qualified opinion directly on the subject matter. c. Qualified opinion on the responsible party's assertion, whether or not the assertion acknowledges the misstatement. d. Adverse opinion on either the responsible party's assertion or directly on the subject matter.
b. Qualified opinion directly on the subject matter.
An engagement letter for an examination should address all of the following matters, except for: a. The objective and scope of the examination engagement. b. The dollar amount associated with the practitioner's materiality threshold. c. A statement about the inherent limitations of an examination engagement. d. A statement that identifies the criteria for measurement or evaluation of the subject matter involved.
b. The dollar amount associated with the practitioner's materiality threshold.
In which of the following situations will a practitioner disclaim an opinion on an examination of prospective financial statements? a. The prospective financial statements depart from AICPA presentation guidelines. b. The practitioner was not able to perform certain procedures deemed necessary. c. The prospective financial statements fail to disclose significant assumptions. d. The significant assumptions do not provide a reasonable basis for the statements.
b. The practitioner was not able to perform certain procedures deemed necessary.
According to PCAOB auditing standards, a "stated control objective" is best described as: a. The specific control objective that management has failed to identify and that, therefore, constitutes a material weakness. b. The specific control objective identified by management that, if achieved, would result in the material weakness no longer existing. c. A strategic objective of those charged with governance. d. The related internal control activities that make it probable that the auditor can assess control risk as low.
b. The specific control objective identified by management that, if achieved, would result in the material weakness no longer existing.
PCAOB Auditing Standard No. 5 directs auditors to begin their study of internal control at the financial statement level and the overall risks to internal control over financial reporting, then consider "entity-level" controls, followed by focusing on the relevant assertions for significant accounts and disclosures. This approach is best described as a: a. Bottom-up approach. b. Top-down approach. c. Center-out approach. d. Risk-centric approach.
b. Top-down approach.
A "qualified, regulated financial institution" associated with a limited-scope audit engagement of an employee benefit plan may include each of the following types of financial institutions, except for: a. an insurance company. b. an investment company. c. a bank. d. a trust company.
b. an investment company.
To justify a limited-scope audit, the qualified financial institution holding the plan assets must furnish a certification stating that the investments and related investment activity are: a. "Valid and reliable." b. "Fairly stated." c. "Complete and accurate." d. "Not material to the plan."
c. "Complete and accurate."
Which of the following statements should be included in a practitioner's report on the application of agreed-upon procedures? a. A statement that the practitioner performed an examination of prospective financial statements. b. A statement of scope limitation that will qualify the practitioner's opinion. c. A statement referring to standards established by the AICPA. d. A statement of negative assurance based on procedures performed.
c. A statement referring to standards established by the AICPA.
When the practitioner determines that the subject matter of an examination engagement has a misstatement that is both material and pervasive, the practitioner should express a (an): a. Unmodified opinion with an explanatory paragraph. b. Disclaimer of opinion. c. Adverse opinion. d. Qualified opinion.
c. Adverse opinion.
A company hired a practitioner to perform an examination of prospective financial statements. The practitioner concluded that the assumptions did not provide a reasonable basis for the prospective financial statements. Which of the following types of opinion should the practitioner issue? a. Unqualified. b. Qualified. c. Adverse. d. Disclaimer.
c. Adverse.
An audit of a nonissuer's internal control over financial reporting in an integrated audit will generally: a. Require procedures that duplicate those already applied in assessing control risk during a financial statement audit. b. Increase the reliability of the financial statements that have already been audited. c. Be more extensive in scope than the assessment of control risk made during the financial statement audit. d. Be more limited in scope than the assessment of control risk made during a financial statement audit.
c. Be more extensive in scope than the assessment of control risk made during the financial statement audit.
Which of the following statements correctly describes the "top-down approach" used during an audit of internal control over financial reporting? a. Begin reviewing balance sheet accounts and then review income statement accounts. b. Begin reviewing income statement accounts and then review balance sheet accounts. c. Begin by understanding the overall risks to internal control over financial reporting at the financial statement level. d. Begin by understanding the overall risks to internal control over financial reporting at the general ledger level.
c. Begin by understanding the overall risks to internal control over financial reporting at the financial statement level.
Which of the following services provides the least assurance regarding the fairness of financial statements? a. Review. b. Audit. c. Compilation. d. Attestation.
c. Compilation.
Which legislation is most directly associated with pension and welfare plans? a. Uniform Commercial Code of 1952 b. Securities Act of 1933 c. Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 d. Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002
c. Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974
An auditor's report expressing an unmodified opinion on an entity's internal control over financial reporting in an integrated audit of a nonissuer should state that the: a. Engagement is different in purpose and scope from obtaining an understanding of the internal control and assessing control risk as part of the audit of the financial statements. b. Auditor's opinion does not necessarily increase the reliability of the entity's financial statements unless they are audited. c. Entity maintained effective internal control over financial reporting as of a specific date. d. Auditor did not apply procedures in the engagement that duplicate those procedures previously applied in assessing control risk as part of the audit of the financial statements.
c. Entity maintained effective internal control over financial reporting as of a specific date.
When filing a Form 5500 with the Department of Labor, an audit normally is required for an employee benefit plan that is identified as a: a. Small plan having at least 50 participants at the end of the plan year. b. Medium plan having at least 75 participants at the start of the plan year. c. Large plan having at least 100 participants at the start of the plan year. d. Large plan having at least 150 participants at the end of the plan year.
c. Large plan having at least 100 participants at the start of the plan year.
Each of the following types of controls is considered to be an entity-level control, except those: a. Relating to the control environment. b. Pertaining to the company's risk assessment process. c. Regarding the company's annual stockholder meeting. d. Addressing policies over significant risk management practices.
c. Regarding the company's annual stockholder meeting.
An independent auditor is issuing an audit report for a governmental entity and plans to issue separate reports on internal control over financial reporting and compliance with laws and regulations. The auditor should do which of the following? a. Report to the governing authority that separate reports will be issued. b. Issue the same opinion in each report. c. State in the audit report that separate reports will be issued. d. Obtain permission from the audit committee to issue separate reports.
c. State in the audit report that separate reports will be issued.
According to the AICPA Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements, a public accounting firm should establish quality control policies to provide assurance about which of the following matters related to agreed-upon procedures engagements? a. Use of the report is NOT restricted. b. The public accounting firm takes responsibility for the sufficiency of procedures. c. The practitioner is independent from the client and other specified parties. d. The practitioner sets the criteria to be used in the determination of findings.
c. The practitioner is independent from the client and other specified parties.
Which of the following statements about a practitioner's review report for an attestation engagement is correct? a. The Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements require CPAs to express a review report in a standardized format. b. The practitioner should report on the responsible party's written assertion, not directly on the subject matter. c. The practitioner's review report should include a disclaimer of opinion. d. When the subject matter of a review engagement has a misstatement that is material but not pervasive, the practitioner should restrict the distribution of the report to the engaging party.
c. The practitioner's review report should include a disclaimer of opinion.
The practitioner's review report for an attestation engagement should include a restricted-use paragraph in all of the following circumstances, except for: a. When the criteria used to evaluate the subject matter are available only to certain parties. b. When the engaging party is not the responsible party and the responsible party declines to provide the requested written representations but does provide satisfactory oral responses to the practitioner. c. When the practitioner refers to an external specialist because the practitioner's conclusion is modified and reference to the specialist may be helpful to readers in understanding the reason for the modification. d. When the criteria used to evaluate the subject matter are appropriate only for a limited number of parties.
c. When the practitioner refers to an external specialist because the practitioner's conclusion is modified and reference to the specialist may be helpful to readers in understanding the reason for the modification.
Each of the following items should be included in a presentation of pro forma financial statements except: a. The significant assumptions used in developing the pro forma information. b. The source of the historical information on which the pro forma information is based. c. An indication that the pro forma information is not necessarily indicative of results. d. All direct and indirect effects attributed to the related transaction.
d. All direct and indirect effects attributed to the related transaction.
Accepting an engagement to compile a financial projection for a publicly held company most likely would be inappropriate if the projection were to be distributed to: a. A bank with which the entity is negotiating for a loan. b. A labor union with which the entity is negotiating a contract. c. The principal stockholder, to the exclusion of the other stockholders. d. All stockholders of record as of the report date.
d. All stockholders of record as of the report date.
According to PCAOB auditing standards, when the auditor issues separate reports on the financial statements and on internal control over financial reporting,: a. The reports will normally have different dates, depending upon when audit fieldwork is completed for the financial statements and when the tests of control are completed. b. Each report should be entitled "Report of Independent Auditor." c. Each report should include a separate paragraph that discusses the "inherent limitations" of any audit engagement. d. Each report should include a paragraph that references the other related report.
d. Each report should include a paragraph that references the other related report.
If an auditor performing an integrated audit identifies one or more material weaknesses in a nonissuer's internal control, the auditor should: a. Expand the examination of internal control to identify deficiencies less severe than material weaknesses. b. Conclude that the financial statements are materially misstated because of the material weakness in internal control. c. Disclaim an opinion on internal control. d. Express an adverse opinion on the entity's internal control.
d. Express an adverse opinion on the entity's internal control.
PCAOB auditing standards apply when an issuer's auditor is engaged to report on whether a previously reported material weakness in internal control over financial reporting continues to exist as of a date specified by management. Which of the following statements is correct? a. Whenever an auditor's report on internal control over financial reporting identifies a material weakness, the auditor must also be engaged to issue a subsequent report within three months to indicate whether the previously reported material weakness continues to exist. b. Whenever an auditor's report on internal control over financial reporting identifies a material weakness, the auditor must also be engaged to issue a subsequent report within six months to indicate whether the previously reported material weakness continues to exist. c. Whenever an auditor's report on internal control over financial reporting identifies a material weakness, the auditor must also be engaged to issue a subsequent report within nine months to indicate whether the previously reported material weakness continues to exist. d. PCAOB auditing standards do not require an auditor to report whether a previously reported material weakness continues to exist, so such an engagement is voluntary.
d. PCAOB auditing standards do not require an auditor to report whether a previously reported material weakness continues to exist, so such an engagement is voluntary.
An accountant's report on a review of pro forma financial information should include a: a. Statement that the entity's internal control structure was not relied on in the review. b. Disclaimer of opinion on the financial statements from which the pro forma financial information is derived. c. Caveat that it is uncertain whether the transaction or event reflected in the pro forma financial information will ever occur. d. Reference to the financial statements from which the historical financial information is derived.
d. Reference to the financial statements from which the historical financial information is derived.
An auditing procedure that is applicable to "testing operating effectiveness" that is not associated with "testing design effectiveness" is: a. Inquiry. b. Observation. c. Inspection of relevant documentation. d. Reperformance of the control procedure.
d. Reperformance of the control procedure.
Which of the following is not an assertion embodied in management's discussion and analysis (MD&A)? a. Completeness. b. Consistency with the financial statements. c. Occurrence. d. Rights and obligations.
d. Rights and obligations.
A company engages a practitioner to assist the audit committee by performing specific procedures that were agreed to by the audit committee. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the procedures to be performed? a. The procedures should be designed to allow the practitioner to provide negative assurance. b. The practitioner should not involve the audit committee in determining what procedures are to be performed. c. The practitioner has responsibility for the adequacy of the procedures to be performed. d. The specific procedures performed should be listed in the practitioner's report to the audit committee.
d. The specific procedures performed should be listed in the practitioner's report to the audit committee.
Which of the following is a term for an attest engagement in which a CPA assesses a client's commercial Internet site for predefined criteria that are designed to measure transaction integrity, information protection, and disclosure of business practices? a. ElectroNet. b. EDIFACT. c. TechSafe. d. WebTrust.
d. WebTrust.
An employee benefit plan that provides healthcare benefits to participants is best characterized as a (an): a. 401(k) plan. b. Employee stock ownership plan (ESOP). c. Pension plan. d. Welfare plan.
d. Welfare plan.
Which of the following forms of auditor association are possible relating to management's discussion and analysis (MD&A)?
Review & Examination
A practitioner reporting on pro forma financial information does not possess an understanding of the client's business and the industry in which the client operates. The practitioner should take which of the following actions? a. Issue a disclaimer, because the scope of work was not sufficient to express an opinion. b. Review industry trade journals. c. Refer a substantial portion of the audit to another CPA who will act as the principal practitioner. d. Perform ratio analysis of the financial data of comparable prior periods.
b. Review industry trade journals.
A CPA is required to comply with the provisions of Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements (SSAE) when engaged to: a. Report on financial statements that the CPA generated through the use of computer software. b. Review management's discussion and analysis (MD&A) prepared pursuant to rules and regulations adopted by the SEC. c. Provide the client with a financial statement format that does not include dollar amounts. d. Audit financial statements that the client prepared for use in another country.
b. Review management's discussion and analysis (MD&A) prepared pursuant to rules and regulations adopted by the SEC.
Which financial statement is specifically mentioned in the first paragraph of the auditor's report on an employee benefit plan's comparative financial statements? a. Statements of financial position. b. Statements of net assets available for benefits. c. Statements of investment income and its allocation to participants. d. Statements of participants' equity in plan assets.
b. Statements of net assets available for benefits.
According to the PCAOB, each of the following statements is true with respect to the auditor's responsibility to communicate material weaknesses in internal control over financial reporting except: a. All such weaknesses must be communicated in writing to the audit committee. b. All such weaknesses must be communicated in writing to management. c. All such weaknesses must be communicated prior to the issuance of the auditor's report on internal control over financial reporting. d. All such weaknesses must be communicated in writing to all stockholders.
d. All such weaknesses must be communicated in writing to all stockholders.
A limited-scope audit report includes each of the following, except for: a. An overall disclaimer of opinion on the plan's financial statements. b. An "other matter" paragraph commenting on supplemental schedules required by the Department of Labor, including a disclaimer of opinion on those supplemental schedules. c. An opinion that the form and content of the financial statements and supplemental schedules comply with Department of Labor rules and regulations. d. An opinion that the employee benefit plan has complied with all applicable requirements of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974.
d. An opinion that the employee benefit plan has complied with all applicable requirements of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974.
A CPA is engaged to examine management's assertion that the entity's schedule of investment returns is presented in accordance with specific criteria. In performing this engagement, the CPA should comply with the provisions of: a. Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services (SSARS). b. Statements on Auditing Standards (SAS). c. Statements on Standards for Consulting Services (SSCS). d. Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements (SSAE).
d. Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements (SSAE).
In an integrated audit of a nonissuer, which of the following is the responsibility of an auditor with regard to testing controls at a company with multiple business units? a. Testing controls over only certain specific risks at all business units of the company. b. Testing controls over all risks at all business units of the company. c. Testing controls over all risks at business units that are material to the company's consolidated financial statements. d. Testing controls over specific risks at business units that are material to the company's consolidated financial statements.
d. Testing controls over specific risks at business units that are material to the company's consolidated financial statements.
Which of the following best describes the earliest date for an auditor's report? a. The last day of audit fieldwork. b. The date all audit procedures have been completed and the audit file has been assembled. c. The date audit documentation was completed. d. The date the auditor has obtained sufficient appropriate audit evidence to support the opinion.
d. The date the auditor has obtained sufficient appropriate audit evidence to support the opinion.
