ACE Fitness Exam

Which response would warrant immediate termination of exercise testing? RPE > 14 (6-20 scale) HR > age predicted max. SBP > 220mmHg DBP > 115mmHg

DBP > 115mmHg (PTM pg. 196)

________________ involves the number of pros and cons perceived about adopting and/or maintaining an activity program. Self-efficacy Processes of change Operant conditioning Decisional balance

Decisional balance One of the four components of the transtheoretical model, decisional balance refers to the number of pros and cons that an individual perceives about adopting and/or maintaining an activity program.

Which of the following movements takes place in the frontal plane? Flexion at the elbow Supination at the wrist Extension at the hip Depression of the scapulae

Depression of the scapula Flexion/Extension - Sagittal Supination/Pronation - Transverse

A client with which of the following conditions should receive comprehensive nutrition counseling before beginning an exercise program? Osteoporosis Diabetes Hyponatremia Hypertension

Diabetes All individuals with diabetes who have not already had a comprehensive nutrition consultation prior to beginning an exercise program should be referred to a registered dietitian for an evaluation and nutrition education.

Which of the following is an appropriate response to a client who mentions being sore following a weekend tennis tournament? Discussing the proper technique for icing the affected areas Providing deep tissue massage to help relieve the soreness Recommending the use of over-the-counter anti-inflammatory medications Recommending the use of a creatine supplement prior to his or her next tournament

Discussing the proper technique for icing the affected areas If a client says he or she feels sore following a workout, it is outside the scope of practice of a health and fitness professional to recommend using any type of pain relievers, including over-the-counter anti-inflammatory medications. However, it is appropriate to discuss icing or proper technique for performing light, dynamic stretching activities for the affected areas, or offering information regarding the benefits of massage. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th edition, p.17

Which medication has no primary affect on heart rate, but can cause dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to water and electrolyte imbalances? Calcium channel blockers Diuretics Bronchodilators ACE inhibitors

Diuretics (pg. 134 Personal Trainer Manuel) Diuretics are medications that increase the excretion of water and electrolytes through the kidneys. They have no primary effect on the heart rate, but they can cause water and electrolyte imbalances, which may lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias.

You notice a client or class participant is running "flat-footed." You can hear her foot slap the treadmill with every step. What muscles can you suspect to be weak? Hip flexors Knee flexors Dorsiflexors Plantar flexors

Dorsiflexors (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 124) When acting concentrically, the muscles of the lower leg produce dorsiflexion of the ankle, and work together during walking and running to eccentrically lower the foot to the ground with control. Without the eccentric action of the dorsiflexor muscles as dynamic shock absorbers, the foot would slap the ground with each stride or impact.

A client who is also a high school soccer player is interested in using the glycemic index to guide him as he "refuels" after practices and matches. Which of the following would be the BEST snack choice? Oatmeal Rye Bread Dried fruit Strawberries

Dried fruit (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 178) High-GI carbohydrates, including dried fruit, are best for refueling. Rye bread is a medium-GI carbohydrates, while oatmeal and strawberries are low-GI carbohydrates.

Which of the following strategies is BEST for personal trainers to implement to enhance the likelihood that a client will continue working with them? Designing the program so the client can work out without having to think much about the exercise Motivating the client through extrinsic motivators to enhance self-efficacy Encouraging client ownership of the program to facilitate development of intrinsic motivation Creating an exercise coaching style based primarily on direction rather than education

Encouraging client ownership of the program to facilitate development of intrinsic motivation

What is the primary advantage of the increase in blood volume that results from chronic cardiorespiratory exercise? Decreased cardiac stress Reduced work environment for the heart Improved VO2max Enhanced oxygen delivery to working muscles

Enhanced oxygen delivery to working muscles A physical-performance advantage of reduced blood viscosity, which is a direct result of the increased blood volume, is that it enhances oxygen delivery to the active skeletal muscles, because the blood flows more easily through the vessels, including the capillaries. The other three choices are associated with increases in heart size and volume.

The increase in heart rate prior to the start of a race is partially due to the release of what hormone? Epinephrine Estrogen Testosterone Norepinephrine

Epinephrine

What hormone dilates the respiratory passages and reduces digestive activity and bladder emptying during physical activity? Epinephrine Insulin Norepinephrine Cortisol

Epinephrine In addition to its effects on the cardiovascular and metabolic systems, epinephrine dilates the respiratory passages to aid in moving air into and out of the lungs, and reduces digestive activity and bladder emptying during exercise.

What is the term for adequate intake in 50% of an age- and gender-specific group? olerable Upper Intake Level Recommended Dietary Allowance Adequate Intake Estimated Average Requirement

Estimated Average Requirement

Which mechanism of thermoregulation is the major contributor during exercise? Convection Evaporation Radiation Excretion

Evaporation

Measuring VO2max in a laboratory involves the collection and analysis of _______________ during maximal exercise. Caloric expenditure Core temperature Exhaled air Blood oxygen levels

Exhaled air

Which of the following occurs when a positive stimulus that once followed a behavior is removed and the likelihood that the behavior will reoccur is decreased? Negative reinforcement Extinction Positive reinforcement Punishment

Extinction

A loud, tense voice communicates confidence and professionalism when speaking to a new client. FALSE TRUE

FALSE

Cardiac output is defined as the amount of blood pumped during each heart beat. TRUE FALSE

FALSE

During exercise, there is an increase in both systolic and diastolic blood pressure. TRUE FALSE

FALSE

The end-point of the VT2 threshold test is determined by the client's ability to recite the Pledge of Allegiance, or another memorized group of phrases. TRUE FALSE

FALSE

When designing an exercise program for a beginning exerciser, it is best to focus on enhancing muscular strength before shifting the focus to improving the client's posture. TRUE FALSE

FALSE

A client must achieve a 1,000-calorie deficit per day in order to lose 1 pound per week. TRUE FALSE

FALSE 3,500 calories = 1 lb. Therefore, a 1,000 calorie per day deficit will lead to a loss of 2 pounds per week. The Dietary Guidelines recommend that those trying to lose weight aim for a 500-calorie deficit per day, achieved through decreased caloric intake and/or increased physical activity. Over the course of a week, the 3,500 calorie deficit should lead to a loss of 1 pound. For optimal long-term success and overall health, gradual weight loss of no more than 1 to 2 pounds per week is best.

Gas is exchanged in microscopic air sacs known as bronchi. TRUE FALSE

FALSE Air sacs are known as alveoli

If there is a decrease in parasympathetic activity, the heart rate will decrease. TRUE FALSE

FALSE At rest, the body is primarily under the control of the parasympathetic nervous system, which keeps heart rate, blood pressure, and metabolism low. With the onset of exercise, the parasympathetic system is inhibited and sympathetic stimulation increases and has many effects on the body, including an increase in heart rate.

Minute ventilation decreases after an exerciser crosses the second ventilatory threshold (VT2). TRUE FALSE

FALSE During submaximal exercise, ventilation increases linearly with oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production. This occurs primarily through an increase in tidal volume (i.e., the volume of air inhaled and exhaled per breath). At higher or near-maximal intensities (above VT2), the frequency of breathing becomes more pronounced and minute ventilation rises disproportionately to the increases in oxygen consumption. Tidal volume decreases as breathing rate increases.

Performing a cartwheel requires static balance. TRUE FALSE

FALSE Dynamic balance is the ability to reestablish a new base of support following linear or rotary motion of the whole body (like doing a cartwheel) when the line of gravity is shifted beyond the base of support. Static balance, by contrast, is the ability to maintain balance while standing still.

During exercise, expiration is passive. TRUE FALSE

FALSE Expiration is active during exercise.

Adherence is defined as the psychological drive that gives behavior direction and purpose. TRUE FALSE

FALSE For the purposes of a fitness professional, exercise adherence refers to voluntary and active involvement in an exercise program. Motivation is defined as the psychological drive that gives behavior direction and purpose.

The average person's breathing rate through the nose is equal to 20 to 30 liters per minute while at rest. TRUE FALSE

FALSE Humans normally breathe approximately 5 to 6 liters of air per minute through the nose when at rest, but use the mouth as the primary passageway for air when ventilation is increased to approximately 20 to 30 liters per minute during exercise.

When looking to improve joint stability, open-chain exercises should be performed. TRUE FALSE

FALSE In an open-chain exercise, the end of the chain farthest from the body is free, such as in a seated leg extension. Open-chain exercises tend to involve more shearing forces at the joints. Closed-chain exercises tend to emphasize compression of joints, which helps stabilize the joints. Additionally, closed-chain exercises involve more muscles and joints than open-chain exercise, which leads to better neuromuscular coordination and overall stability at the joints.

After air enters the nose and mouth, it is warmed and passed through the thorax. TRUE FALSE

FALSE It is warmed and passes through the pharynx.

To help your client, Emily, reach her weight-loss goals, you should provide her with food choices she can eat for six days out of the week, and help her determine what day will be her "cheat" day. TRUE FALSE

FALSE People who do not consistently give themselves "cheat" days are 150% more likely to maintain their weight loss. Encourage clients to adopt a healthy lifestyle that they can stick with so they do not often feel compelling urges to unwittingly sabotage their weight-management success.

To help your client, Emily, reach her weight-loss goals and control the amount she eats, you should suggest that she set a timer and only eat when the timer goes off. TRUE FALSE

FALSE Rather than eat according to a predetermined schedule, data from the National Weight Control Registry suggest that clients should be encouraged to eat when they are hungry and stop when they are full.

In most cases, athletic performance will improve when the individual is on a low-fat diet where fat intake is below 15% of total calories. TRUE FALSE

FALSE The American Dietetic Association recommends that athletes consume a comparable proportion of food from fat as the general population-that is, 20 to 25% of total calories. There is no evidence of a performance benefit from a very low-fat diet (<15% of total calories) or from a high-fat diet (>30% of total calories).

The first objective when meeting a prospective client is to gather information on the client's goals and objectives. TRUE FALSE

FALSE The first objective when meeting a prospective client is to first build a foundation for a personal relationship with the individual; gathering information on the client's goals and objectives is secondary.

To help your client, Emily, reach her weight-loss goals you should suggest that she buy a scale and monitor her weight at the end of the day and after each workout. TRUE FALSE

FALSE Weight loss following a workout is due to water loss (not fat loss). People who maintain their weight loss keep tabs on the scale by weighing themselves at least once per week. It is not advisable, however, to become obsessive about weight by weighing in frequently and expecting immediate results.

A client has a weight-loss goal of 40 pounds (18 kg). He is having a difficult time committing to his new eating and exercise habits and is frustrated that he has not seen a reduction in weight. He is interested in learning more about gastric-bypass surgery, so the fitness professional should refer him to physician for a consultation. TRUE FALSE

FALSE Weight-loss surgery is not recommended for the overweight or mildly obese person who is trying to lose 20 or 30 pounds. Although this client might qualify based on the amount of weight he wants to lose, only those who are committed to permanent lifestyle changes—including regular physical activity and a healthy diet—are considered good candidates for surgery.

Assuming a client is lifting the same amount of weight, he or she can create more resistance by moving the weight closer to the working joint. TRUE FALSE

FALSE (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 112) To create more resistance with the same amount of weight, move the weight farther from the working joint. To lessen the resistance as fatigue occurs, move the weight closer to the working joint.

Diagnosing the cause of a client's lordosis and prescribing an exercise program to treat it is within a personal trainer's scope of practice. True False

False

According to the general scope of practice for fitness professionals, personal trainers can rehabilitate clients who are recovering from musculoskeletal injuries. True False

False Personal trainers can design exercise programs once clients have been released from rehabilitation, but they cannot "rehabilitate" clients after injury.

After completing three weeks of physical therapy, your client needs to continue improving the range of motion of his shoulder joint. Which fitness component would MOST likely need to be improved to help this client? Flexibility Body composition Muscular strength Cardiovascular endurance

Flexibility

Which of the following MUST be consumed in the diet? Vitamin K Folate Biotin Vitamin D

Folate

Barring structural differences in the skeletal system, a pronated ankle ________________. Forces internal rotation of the tibia and slightly less internal rotation of the femur Has little effect on the rest of the body's kinetic chain Moves the calcaneus into inversion, lifting the inside of the heel slightly off the ground Causes a lengthening of the calf muscles and limits ankle dorsiflexion

Forces internal rotation of the tibia and slightly less internal rotation of the femur (PTM pg. 156-157) Ankle pronation forces internal rotation at the knee and places additional stresses on some knee ligaments and the integrity of the joint itself. Additionally, as pronation tends to move the calcaneus into eversion, this may actually lift the outside of the heel slightly off the ground (moving the ankle into plantarflexion). In turn, this may tighten the calf muscles and potentially limit ankle dorsiflexion.

Which of the following postural deviations cold indicate that a client has an internally (medially) rotated humerus and/or scapular protraction? Front view: palms face backward Posterior view: scapular winging visible Side view: upper back has an exaggerated curve Front view: sternum not in line with plumb line

Front view: palms face backward (PTM pg. 162)

The _______________ and _______________ are powerful plantar flexors that share an insertion on the Achilles tendon. Soleus; tibialis posterior Gastrocnemius; soleus Gastrocnemius; anterior tibialis Soleus; anterior tibialis

Gastrocnemius; soleus (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 47) The gastrocnemius and soleus are powerful plantar flexors that make up the bulk of the calf and share a common insertion on the Achilles tendon.

Christopher is an endurance athlete. He often gets low blood sugar during his long workouts. Once the liver recognizes the release of glucagon from the pancreas, _______________ is released to help increase his blood sugar levels. Glucose Carbohydrate Insulin Triglyceride

Glucose Glucagon stimulates an almost instantaneous release of glucose from the liver and is part of a negative feedback loop in which low blood glucose levels stimulate its release. Glucagon primarily contributes to blood glucose control as exercise progresses and glycogen stores deplete during an exercise bout.

What group of muscles works eccentrically during the down-phase of a squat? Gluteus maximus and sartorius Gluteus maximus and rectus femoris Gluteus maximus, gluteus minimus, and quadriceps femoris Gluteus maximus and hamstrings

Gluteus maximus and hamstrings (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 118) Eccentric action of the gluteus maximus and hamstrings controls the downward phase of the squat into hip flexion.

A male client performs the stork-stand balance test and is able to hold the position for 46 seconds. How would you rate this client's performance? Excellent Fair Good

Good (PTM pg. 187) Males: Excellent >50 seconds Good 41-50 seconds Average 31-40 seconds Fair 20- 30 seconds Poor <20 seconds Females: Excellent >30 Good 25-30 Average 16-24 Fair 10-16 Poor <10

You are performing the YMCA submaximal Step Test on a 40 year old, apparently healthy, female client who you have been working with for the past 4 weeks. After completing the 3-minute assessment you immediately have the client sit down and measure her heart rate for 1 minute. Her post exercise heart rate is recorded as 96 beats per minute. How would you classify this client's cardiorespiratory endurance? Excellent Good Average

Good (PTM pg. 232) Refer to table 8-17

A client who just found out she is pregnant asks what foods to eat to increase her intake of folic acid. What would be the BEST response? Citrus fruits, berries, and vegetables Green leafy vegetables, organ meats, dried peas, beans, and lentils Green leafy vegetables, fruit, dairy, and grain products Milk, liver, eggs, and peanuts

Green leafy vegetables, organ meats, dried peas, beans, and lentils Citrus fruits, berries, and vegetables are good sources of vitamin C Green leafy vegetables, fruit, dairy, and grain products are good sources of vitamin K Milk, liver, eggs, and peanuts are good sources of choline

The passive straight leg (PSL) raise test assess the length of which of the following muscle groups? Iliopsoas Gluteals Hamstrings Quadriceps

Hamstrings (PTM pg. 180)

A person who is confident that he/she can successfully participate regularly in an exercise program MOST likely (BLANK) Has high self-efficacy related to exercise Is in the contemplation stage of behavioral change Has very string self-esteem Is completely intrinsically motivated

Has high self-efficacy related to exercise

Which of the following is MOST defective in helping a clients develop program adherence? Providing the client with frequent changes in the program, to prevent boredom Having the client self-monitor by keeping an exercise journal Implementing a reward system for each training session Conducting fitness assessments every week to measure progress

Having the client self-monitor by keeping an exercise journal

Which behavioral theory model is based on a prediction that people engage in a health behavior depending on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem? Transtheoretical model of behavioral change Health belief model Self-efficacy model Stages-of-change model

Health belief model

Which of the following must be included as part of every client's pre-participation screening? Body-composition testing Movement screens Static posture assessment Health-risk appraisal

Health-risk appraisal

Which of the following is NOT a cause to immediately stop a cardiorespiratory exercise test? Heavy breathing due to intense exercise Complaints of severe fatigue Nausea and lightheadedness Leg cramping

Heavy breathing due to intense exercise (pg. 136 Personal Trainer Manuel) While shortness of breath, wheezing, and difficult or labored breathing are on the list of symptoms that call for an immediate end to an exercise test, heavy breathing due to the intensity of the exercise is not.

During the bend and lift screen, which observation could indicate that the client has tight plantarflexors? Hamstrings touch the calves Squat initiated at the knees The big toes extend upward Heels rise off floor

Heels rise off floor (PTM pg. 168) An inability to keep the heels on the floor during the bend and lift screen could be indicative of tight calve musculature

Which of the following is WITHIN the the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope of practice? Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices Providing clients with better recipes and shopping lists for four weeks to get them on track with healthful eating Conducting 24-hour dietary recalls to help clients learn where they have micronutrient deficiencies Educating clients about resting metabolic rate and the need to consume fewer calories than RMR to lose weight

Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices

Which strategies are MOST effective cognitive behavioral technique that a personal trainer can implement to improve client exercise adherence? Revisiting client goals only during reassessments so the reflect greater progress Making primary decisions regarding clients program so that they can focus on exercise Helping clients move from primarily external feedback to primarily internal feedback Recording progress so clients can focus on exercises without having to monitor their own progress

Helping clients move from primarily external feedback to primarily internal feedback As self efficacy builds, trainers should taper off external feedback. Clients must learn to reinforce their own behaviors.

Which of the following responses is a relative contraindication for weightlifting unless cleared by a physician? Diabetes Hernia Pregnancy Infection

Hernia A hernia is a relative contraindication for weight lifting unless cleared by a physician. If there is a history a hernia, is is very important for the trainer to instruct and educate the client on proper breathing and lifting techniques

What is the primary action of the gluteus medius? Hip extension Hip adduction Hip abduction Hip flexion

Hip abduction (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 119)

The coupling relationship between tight __________ and __________ is defined as the lower-cross syndrome. Rectus abdominis; hamstrings Rectus abdominis; erector spinae Hip flexors; erector spinae

Hip flexors; erector spinae (PTM pg. 160) Tight or overdominant hip flexors are generally coupled with tight erector spinae muscles, producing an anterior pelvic tilt. This coupling relationship between tight hip flexors and erector spinae is defined as the lower-cross syndrome. A posterior pelvic tilt is caused by tightness in the rectus abdominis and hamstrings.

Which of the following statements BEST demonstrates a SMART goal? I will improve my cholesterol and blood pressure through better eating and exercise I will run 4days/wk, progressing my run time from 10 to 40 minutes for a 5k in four months I will lose 20lbs for my trip to Hawaii in 2 months by exercising 7 days/wk I will try a new group exercise class each week to avoid borebom

I will run 4days/wk, progressing my run time from 10 to 40 minutes for a 5k in four months

Which of the following is NOT one of the primary purposes of a pre-participation screening? Identifying individuals with medical contraindications who should be excluded from exercise or physical activity Identifying those individuals with medical conditions who should participate in medically supervised programs Identifying the individual's stage of behavioral change Identifying the absence or presence of known disease

Identifying the individual's stage of behavioral change (pg. 117 Personal Trainer Manuel) The purposes of the pre-participation screening include the following: Identifying the presence or absence of known cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease, or signs or symptoms suggestive of cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease. Identifying individuals with medical contraindications (health conditions and risk factors) who should be excluded from exercise or physical activity until those conditions have been corrected or are under control. Detecting at-risk individuals who should first undergo medical evaluation and clinical exercise testing before initiating an exercise program. Identifying those individuals with medical conditions who should participate in medically supervised programs

Which of the following is an adaptation specifically seen with regular weightbearing exercise? Improved lean body mass Improved cardiac output efficiency Increase in bone density Increase in respiratory capacity

Increase in bone density Studies have shown that weightbearing exercise promotes improved bone density, which is a key factor in the prevention of osteoporosis, particularly in women.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of regular physical activity? Improved lipid profile Improved glucose control Decreased anxiety and depression Increased diastolic blood pressure

Increased diastolic blood pressure Benefits of regular exercise include improved cardiovascular function, lowered systolic and diastolic blood pressure, decreased body weight and fat mass, improved lipid profile, improved glucose control, decreased anxiety and depression, enhanced feelings of well-being, decreased incidence of several cancers

Which of the following is NOT a method the body uses to preserve blood volume during steady-state exercise? Increasing heart rate Releasing vasopressin and aldosterone Increasing vasoconstriction in non-working muscles Increasing stroke volume

Increasing stroke volume The following changes take place to preserve blood volume: A progressive increase in heart rate at steady-state exercise to maintain cardiac output and offset the small decrease in stroke volume associated with the fluid loss A compensation in blood pressure via further vasoconstriction in the non-exercising regions to maintain peripheral resistance and blood pressure A release of hormones-antidiuretic hormone, or vasopressin, and aldosterone-to help reduce water and sodium losses from the body

Which evaluation form does a client sign to acknowledge that he/she has been educated about, and understands, the risks associated with being active? Agreement and release of liability waiver Medical release Exercise history and attitude questionnaire Informed consent

Informed consent

A strong social support network can provide an individual with all the following EXCEPT (BLANK) Improved program adherence Extrinsic motivation Relapse-prevention support Intrinsic motivation

Intrinsic motivation

Which of the following intervention strategies would be LEAST APPROPRIATE when working with someone in the precontemplation stage? Provide information about the risks of being inactive and the benefits of being active Introduce different types of exercise activities to find something the individual enjoys Provide information from multiple sources (e.g., news, posters, pamphlets, general health-promotion material) Make inactivity a relevant issue

Introduce different types of exercise activities to find something the individual enjoys

Which of the following minerals has a recommended dietary allowance (RDA) that is more than twice as high for women than it is for men? Iron Zinc Phosphorus Copper

Iron RDA for women: 18mg RDA for men: 8mg

Which of the following self monitoring strategies is MOST effective for improving clients' long term program adherence? Journaling thoughts, experiences and emotions Video taping their exercises to see where they can improve Setting a reminder on their calendar to work out Analyzing the results of a heart rate monitor after every session

Journaling thoughts, experiences and emotions Self monitoring helps clients keep track of program participation and progress. Is most effectively done in the form of keeping a journal that is related to the exercise program.

A client mentions he prefers tactile feedback and spotting while exercising. This strategy is MOST likely indicative of which learning style? Visual Associative Kinesthetic Cognitive

Kinesthetic A kinesthetic learner prefers to be supervised with a hands on approach and may speak about "feeling" movements.

An individual is performing a seated leg press. What prime movers initiate this exercise? Knee extensors and hip flexors Hip flexors, knee extensors, and dorsiflexors Knee extensors and hip extensors Knee flexors and hip flexors

Knee extensors and hip extensors (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 118, 122) The knee extensors (quadriceps femoris) and hip extensors (hamstrings and gluteus maximus) are the prime movers that initiate the movement to straighten the legs at the beginning of a seated leg press.

According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, how much sodium should be consumed on a daily basis for healthy adults? No more than 1,000 mg No more than 2,500 mg Less than 2,300 mg Just under 3,000 mg

Less than 2,300 mg

Which pair of shoulder muscles is BEST strengthened by shoulder shrugs performed with resistance? Levator scapulae and trapezius Pectoralis minor and serratus anterior Teres major and latissimus dorsi Rhomboid major and rhomboid minor

Levator scapulae and trapezius (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 35 &38)

A muscle with which of the following muscle arrangements has the LOWEST force production, but the HIGHEST speed of contraction? Bipennate Unipennate Longitudinal Multipennate

Longitudinal Penniform muscles, which include unipennate, bipennate, and multipennate muscles, are designed for higher force production than longitudinal muscles. Longitudinal muscles are long and thin and have parallel fibers that run in the same direction as the length of the muscle. This type of fiber arrangement allows for speed of contraction.

If an individual has tight hip flexors, what condition can occur in the lumbar spine? Sway back Scoliosis Kyphosis Lordosis

Lordosis (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 118) Because of its origin at the lumbar spine, tight hip flexors can result in passive hyperextension of the lumbar spine, which is known as lordosis.

Which of the following is NOT a reason that the average resting heart rate for women is higher than that of men? Smaller heart chamber size Lower hemoglobin levels Lower blood volume Lower sympathetic drive

Lower sympathetic drive (pg. 140 Personal Trainer Manuel) The higher values found in the female RHR are attributed in part to: Smaller heart chamber size. Lower blood volume circulating less oxygen throughout the body. Lower hemoglobin levels in women

A new client tells you that she used to participate in local 10k and half marathons before having twins. She has not been active since her children were born 2 years ago. Now she has begun walking and wants to start running. The clients has MOST likely progressed through which of the following stages of behavioral change from pre-pregnancy to today? Action, precontemplation, action Maintenance, contemplation, action Action, maintenance, preparation Maintenance, contemplation, preparation

Maintenance, contemplation, preparation

Which category of hip muscles is primarily responsible for hip adduction? Medial muscles Posterior muscles Anterior muscles Lateral muscles

Medial muscles (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 44) The medial hip muscles (i.e., those hip muscles closer to the midline of the body), including the pectineus, adductor brevis, adductor longus, gracilis, and adductor magnus, are primarily responsible for hip adduction.

General trends reveal that members of which of the following populations are MOST LIKELY to be performing higher levels of physical activity in unsupervised settings? Those in a lower socioeconomic bracket Those with fewer years of education Men Older adults

Men Men demonstrate higher and more consistent activity adherence than women. Lower levels of physical activity participation are seen with increasing age, fewer years of education, and low income.

Joseph is a 55-year-old CEO of a large company. He has a difficult time managing the stress of his job and is looking for a way to reduce this stress. Which fitness component would MOST likely need to be improved to help this client? Muscular strength Cardiovascular endurance Mind/body vitality Flexibility

Mind/body vitality

The birddog is an effective exercise for which of the following muscles that act at the trunk? Erector spinae Rectus abdominis Transverse abdominis Multifidi

Multifidi (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 43) The multifidi, which contribute to spinal stability during trunk extension, rotation, and side-bending, are effectively targeted by the birddog.

Your client is having hip replacement surgery in two months and she wants to be able to transfer herself in and out of her wheelchair. Which fitness component would MOST likely need to be improved to help this client? Flexibility Body composition Muscular strength Cardiovascular endurance

Muscular strength

Static balance exercises often involve _______________. Shifting the line of gravity outside the base of support Widening the base of support Narrowing the base of support Shifting the line of gravity through rotary motion

Narrowing the base of support To work on static balance with a client or class participant, the fitness professional can make the individual's base of support narrower to stimulate adaptation to the imposed demand. Widening the base of support lessens the balance challenge.

When developing SMART goals, which of the following types of goals should be AVOIDED? Performance goals Long-term goals Negative goals Outcome goals

Negative goals

After performing skinfold measurements with a male client, his body-fat percentage is calculated to be 26%. How would you rank this client in terms of body-fat percentage? Average Fitness Obese Athlete

Obese

Which of the following is an example of a multiplanar movement from the anatomical position? Depression of the scapulae Dorsiflexion of the ankle Pronation of the forearm Opposition of the thumb

Opposition of the thumb (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 109) Opposition of the thumb is a movement unique to primates and humans that follows a semicircle toward the little finger. Each of the other movements is uniplanar.

What is the MOST influential source of self efficacy info related to exercise? Persuasive verbal feedback Emotional state and mood Past exercise performance Vicarious exercise experiences

Past exercise performance The most important and powerful predictor of self efficacy.

What is the most influential source of self-efficacy information? Imaginal experience Emotional state Past performance experience Vicarious experience

Past performance experiences

________________ is the most common excuse for not exercising and for dropping out of an exercise program. Lack of improvement Lack of social support Lack of access to facilities Perceived lack of time

Perceived lack of time

During an initial interview with a new client, a trainer learns the client's desire to exercise regularly was based on the results of a recent medical exam revealing prehypertension, dyslipidemia (Total cholesterol 227mg/dL), and a family history of CVD. Based on the info., the client's motivation to exercise is MOST likely associated with which of the following components of behavioral change? Decisional balance Perceived seriousness Operant conditioning Stimulus control

Perceived seriousness Perceived seriousness is part of health belief model and refers to the feelings one has about the seriousness of contracting an illness. The more serious the consequences, the more likely people are to engage in health behavior.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three primary categories of potential determinants for physical activity? Environmental factors Personal attributes Physical attributes Physical-activity factors

Physical attributes

Motivational interviewing is most commonly done during which stage of the client-trainer relationship? Action Planning Rapport Investigation

Planning

What is the most important tool when dealing with a client who is at risk for relapse? Planning ahead and being prepared Enhancing the client's assertiveness Developing a system of social support Signing behavioral contracts

Planning ahead and being prepared

Which strategy would be MOST likely to enhance a client's willpower? Making important behavior change decisions at the end of the day Setting many large goals to overhaul one's lifestyle Planning in advance for moments of weak self control Starting a behavior change plan while applying for new jobs and relocating

Planning in advance for moments of weak self control

You notice when a client or class participant bends down that his heels cannot maintain contact with the floor. What muscles can you suspect to be tight? Dorsiflexors Plantar flexors Knee flexors Hip flexors

Plantar flexors (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 124) The large muscles of the superficial posterior tibial compartment are the primary plantar flexors of the ankle joint. The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles are often inflexible, particularly among individuals who regularly wear high-heeled shoes.

Which of the four components of blood carries hormones, food materials, ions, and gases throughout the body? Red blood cells Plasma White blood cells Platelets

Plasma

According to principle of operant conditioning, which of following consequences would be BEST for a personal trainer to use to ensure that a desired client behavior will reoccur in the future? Punishment Positive reinforcement Extinction of positive stimulus Negative reinforcement

Positive reinforcement

The _______________ deltoid extends, externally rotates, and horizontally extends the arm at the shoulder. Superior Anterior Posterior Inferior

Posterior (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 143) The posterior deltoid is located on the back side of the glenohumeral joint and has the exact opposite functions as the anterior deltoid: it extends, externally rotates, and horizontally extends the arm at the shoulder.

A client's blood-pressure reading is 124/78 mmHg. How should the personal trainer classify this client? Stage 1 hypertension Stage 2 hypertension Normal Prehypertension

Prehypertension (pg. 143 Personal Trainer Manuel) Individuals are classified as prehypertensive when systolic blood pressure is 120-139 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure is 80-89 mmHg.

A prospective client tells you that he has been going for 2-mile walks a couple of times each week for the past two months, and that he joined the gym because he is finally ready to adopt a more structured workout regimen. What is this individual's stage of change? Contemplation Preparation Action Maintenance

Preparation

A competitive soccer player, whose sport requires an ability to accelerate, decelerate, change direction, and then accelerate again, is interested in completing an assessment to serve as a baseline against which he can measure future improvements. Which test will BEST measure these sport skills? YMCA bike test 40 yeard dash Pro agility test 1.5 mile run test

Pro agility test

Which of the following tests measures an individual's ability to accelerate, decelerate, change direction, and then accelerate again? 40 yd. dash Pro agility test Ladder drill 1.5 mile run test

Pro agility test (PTM pg. 253) Also called 20 yd. agility test or 5-10-5 shuttle run

"I will perform a full-body resistance-training workout twice every week" is an example of which type of goal? SMART goal Time-bound goal Process goal Product goal

Process goal A process goal is something that the client does, as opposed to something he or she achieves. Process goals are easy to track and provide short-term successes.

Which of the following goals BEST represents the statement "I want to bicep curl 10lb dumbbells for 10 repetitions by April"? Time-bound goal SMART goal Product goal Process goal

Product goal While a process goal is something a client does, such as completing a certain number of workouts per week, a product goal is something they achieve, like weight loss or a resistance lifted on a strength-training machine. A client who wants to perform a certain number of biceps curls using a specific amount of weight is working toward a product goal.

During an endurance race, cortisol helps maintain blood glucose levels by promoting the breakdown of _______________ and _______________. Growth hormone; testosterone Epiniphrine; norepinephrine Insulin; glucagon Protein; triglycerides

Protein; triglycerides Cortisol stimulates free fatty acid mobilization from adipose tissue, mobilizes glucose synthesis in the liver, and decreases the rate of glucose utilization by the cells. Cortisol production increases with exercise intensity and with increasing levels of stress placed upon the body's physiological systems.

The three components of properly phrased feedback are BEST presented in what order? Motivate clients to continue practicing and improving; provide reinforcement for what was done well; correct errors Correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving; provide reinforcement for what was done well Correct errors; provide reinforcement for what was done well; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving Provide reinforcement for what was done well; correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving

Provide reinforcement for what was done well; correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving

Which of these assessments measures a client's muscular endurance? 1-RM Bench-Press Test Standing Long Jump Test Push-up test YMCA Submaximal Step Test

Push-up test

While performing the bend and lift screen on a new client you observe that the downward (eccentric) movement is initiated at the knees. What would you suspect is causing the compensation? Tight Plantarflexors Inability to stabilize and control the lowering phase Tight hip adductors Quadriceps and hip flexor dominance

Quadriceps and hip flexor dominance (PTM pg. 168-169) Movement initiated at the knees may indicate quadriceps and hip flexor dominance, as well as insufficient activation of the gluteus group.

Which of the following observations during the passive straight leg (PSL) raise represents normal length of the hamstrings? Raised leg achieves 70 degrees of movement Pelvis rotates posteriorly after the raised leg passed 70 degrees of movement Raised leg stops just short of 90 degrees of movement Opposite leg lifts off the mat as the raised leg approaches 80 degrees of movement

Raised leg stops just short of 90 degrees of movement (PTM pg. 180-181) Normal length of the hamstrings in the PSL test is indicated when the raised leg achieves 80 degrees or more of movement before the pelvis rotates posteriorly

Which of the following presents the four stages of the client-trainer relationship in their proper order? Planning, rapport, investigation, action Rapport, planning, investigation, action Investigation, planning, action, rapport Rapport, investigation, planning, action

Rapport, investigation, planning, action

What is the MOST important factor for an individual who is starting an exercise program? Strong support from family & friends Convenience of the exercise facility Readiness to change behavior related to exercise Connecting with a personal trainer

Readiness to change behavior related to exercise

During the hurdle step screen, you observe that the client exhibits an anterior pelvic tilt with a forward torso lean. What muscles should you suspect of being underactive or weak? Hip adductors and tensor fascia latae Gluteus medius and maximus Rectus abdominis and hip extensors Stance-leg hip flexors

Rectus abdominis and hip extensors (PTM pg. 172)

During the Thomas Test, you observe that when the client holds the back and sacrum flat, the back of the lowered thigh touches the table, but the knee does not flex to 80 degrees. What muscle(s) should you suspect of being tight? Primary hip flexors Rectus femoris Iliopsoas Hamstrings

Rectus femoris (PTM pg. 179-180)

What should a personal trainer do if a client insists on using dietary supplements despite the trainer's assurance that his or her fitness goals can be met without them? Refer the client to a registered dietitian or physician Refer the client to the health club's sales team Check that the facility's insurance policy covers the sale of these products Stop training the client until he or she agrees to stop using these products

Refer the client to a registered dietitian or physician The personal trainer can help the client understand that fitness goals can be reached without supplements and that supplements can have negative and potentially harmful side effects. If a client insists on using dietary supplements, the personal trainer should refer the client to a qualified physician or registered dietitian for guidance.

A personal trainer who is seeking clarification from a client by trying to restate the main points and feelings in a client's communication is using which method of effective listening? Encouraging Summarizing Paraphrasing Reflecting

Reflecting The personal trainer can use the listening technique of reflecting to demonstrate understanding or seek clarification by trying to restate the main points and feelings in the client's communication. The client can correct a conclusion if it is wrong, or explore the reflection in more depth if it is correct. Reflections should help to move the conversation in productive directions as well as indicate effective listening.

Which of the following documents represents a client's voluntary abandonment of the right to file a lawsuit against the personal trainer? Medical release form Release of liability waiver Behavioral contract Informed consent form

Release of liability waiver

What is the purpose of stability and mobility training? Restorative exercise to improve posture and movement compensations found through functional and postural assessments Teaching correct squat, lunge, push, pull, and rotational movement patterns To prepare the body for sports conditioning and performance training Rehabilitative exercise to restore function following injury or surgery

Restorative exercise to improve posture and movement compensations found through functional and postural assessments (PTM pg. 156) Stability and mobility exercise is designed to improve posture and movement compensation, thus restoring good joint alignment and muscle balance

The sinoatrial node (SA node), which is sometimes called the pacemaker of the heart, is located in which chamber of the heart? Left ventricle Right atrium Right ventricle Left atrium

Right atrium

When blood is flowing through the heart, where does it go after passing through the tricuspid valve? Right ventricle Left ventricle Right atrium Left atrium

Right ventricle

Which assessment would be MOST appropriate for a 54 yro. male who has no contraindications for exercise but has not been regularly active in more that 10 yrs.? 1.5 mile run test Rockport fitness walking test VT2 threshold test 1RM leg press test

Rockport walking test (PTM pg. 227)

During static postural assessment, which plane of movement does the personal trainer view the client's balanced resting posture between the anterior and posterior sides of the body? Frontal Sagittal Coronal Transverse

Sagittal (PTM pg. 154)

When performing a shoulder screen and observing the client from a posterior view, a trainer notices an outward protrusion of the vertebral borders, but not the inferior angles, of the scapulae. What deviation is most likely being observed? Scapular protraction Sway-back posture Winged scapulae Kyphosis

Scapular protraction (PTM pg. 160-162) Noticeable protrusion of the vertebral (medial) border outward is termed "scapular protraction," while noticeable protrusion of the inferior angle and vertebral (medial) border outward is termed "winged scapulae."

"Shoulder girdle" is the informal term for the _______________. Sternoclavicular joint Acromioclavicular joint Scapulothoracic articulation Glenohumeral joint

Scapulothoracic articulation (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 34, 134-136)

Which of the following is WITHIN the scope of practice for personal trainers? Counseling clients through life experiences that negatively impact program adherence Screening clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design Evaluating client injuries while designing rehabilitative exercise programs Recommending effective supplements for clients who skip meals

Screening clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design

Bob has been training with you for three months. He has lost 15 pounds (7 kg) and has changed his eating habits. A new position with his company is going to require him to travel around the country almost every week. In terms to eating healthy in restaurants, what information would be most beneficial to him? Skip breakfast to balance caloric intake throughout the day. Order several appetizers to avoid high-calorie meals. Select smaller portions, order grilled items vs. fried, and limit sauces. Eat only soups and salads for meals, as they are always lower in calories.

Select smaller portions, order grilled items vs. fried, limit sauces.

Which of the following terms is defined as the belief in one's own capabilities to successfully engage in a behavior? Extrinsic motivation Self-efficacy Locus of control Intrinsic motivation

Self-efficacy

Which of the following goals is MOST likely to enhance program participation and attainment? Setting a series of progressively attainable short term goals Helping clients keep a primary goal of never missing a session Setting many goals to ensure some type of program success Setting only long term goals to develop adherence

Setting a series of progressively attainable short term goals

Which processes is BEST example of using reinforcement to help a client progress from a quarter lunge to performing a full lunge and eventually adding resistance? Shaping Operant conditioning Antecedents Observational learning

Shaping Refers to the process of using reinforcements to gradually achieve a target behavior. This process continually increases the demands at an appropriate rate, accompanied by positive reinforcement.

Apley's scratch test is usually performed in conjunction with which of the following pairs of tests? Blood pressure cuff test and muscle-length test Thomas test and passive straight-leg raise test Shoulder flexion-extension test and internal-external rotation test of the humerus Sharpened Romberg test and stork-stand balance test

Shoulder felxion-extension test and internal-external rotation test of humerus (PTM pg. 181)

Which of the following exercises would be MOST appropriate for an individual who needs to strengthen the hip adductors? Standing lateral leg lifts with resistance tubing around the ankle Side-lying leg lifts with the bottom leg lifting upward Side-lying leg lifts with the top leg lifting upward Supine bridge with hips extended, wide feet, and resistance tubing around the ankles

Side-lying lifts with the bottom leg lifting upward (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 121) Side-lying leg lifts with the lower leg lifting upward require the adductors to work concentrically in the upward phase and eccentrically in the downward phase.

Which of the following behaviors would MOST likely help a trainer develop rapport with a client during the initial session? Looking away from the client frequently to prevent staring; sitting with good posture and a slight forward lean Speaking in a soft, friendly voice;leaning against the chair armrest with forearms loosly crossed Direct, friendly eye contact; maintaining a constant smile and enthusiasm throughout the session Speaking with confidence; using fluid hand gestures while speaking and quiet hands when listening

Speaking with confidence; using fluid hand gestures while speaking and quiet hands when listening (pg. 46 Personal Trainer Manuel)

For which of the following sports would an assessment of vertical jump be LEAST useful? Basketball Volleyball Sprinting Football

Sprinting

Which of the following body positions may be interpreted by a client as aggressiveness on the part of the trainer? Standing with hands on hips Seated while leaning slightly forward Seated behind a desk with legs crossed Standing with an open body position

Standing with hands on hips

ACE Certified Personal Trainers must complete a minimum of 20 hours of continuing education every two years to maintain their certification. The PRIMARY reason ACE has established this minimum continuing education requirement is to help ACE Certified Personal Trainers (BLANK). Earn promotions so they can advance their careers Increase their earning potential by adding new specialty certificates to their resumes Enhance their resumes to attract more clients Stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and health

Stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and health

Individuals ho are short in stature may not be good candidates for which type of testing? Cycle ergometer tests Treadmill tests Ventilatory threshold tests Step tests

Step tests (PTM pg. 230) Also includes individuals: Who are extremely overweight, with balance concerns, with orthopedic problems, who are extremely disconditioned

A client leaves a gym bag on the front seat of his car each morning as a reminder to work out on his way home from work. What behavior-change strategy is he using? Operant conditioning Shaping Observational learning Stimulus control

Stimulus control

Which of following processes BEST exemplified by a client choosing a gym that is in the direct route between home and work? Operant conditioning Stimulus control Imaginal experience Shaping

Stimulus control

During a treadmill test, a client complains of leg cramping but feels that she will be able to finish the test. What is the MOST appropriate course of action? Monitor her progress closely and stop the test if her pain worsens Allow her to complete the test, as treadmill tests measure cardiorespiratory fitness, not muscular endurance Stop the test immediately and possibly refer the client to her primary healthcare professional Have her rest for a few minutes and rehydrate before continuing the test from the stopping point

Stop the test immediately and possibly refer the client to her primary healthcare professional

Which of the following is a non-correctible factor related to postural deviations? Structural deviations Lack of joint mobility Side dominance Lack of joint stability

Structural deviations Other non-correctable factors: Congenital conditions (e.g., scoliosis) Some pathologies (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis) Structural deviations (e.g., tibial or femoral torsion, femoral anteversion) Certain types of trauma (e.g., surgery, injury, amputations)

Which assessment does NOT predict max. HR of predicted VO2max, but instead provides an actual measured HR that corresponds to the client's unique metabolic response to exercise? YMCA bike test Bruce submax. treadmill test Submax. talk test for VT1 Rockport fitness walking test

Submax. talk test for VT1 (PTM pg. 222-223) Objective for submax. talk test for VT1 are to measure HR response at VT1 by progressively increasing exercise intensity and achieving steady state at each stage, as well as identify the HR where the ability to talk continuously becomes compromised.

Scapular winging during the shoulder push stabilization screen would MOST likely be due to BLANK Weak core and low back Subscapulothoracic joint instability Curved throacic spine Strong serratus anterior

Subscapulothoracic joint instability (PTM pg. 173-174)

The soleus, gastrocnemius, and plantaris are located in which compartment of the lower leg? Posterior tibial compartment Superficial posterior compartment Deep posterior compartment Anterior tibial compartment

Superficial posterior compartment (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 123-124)

When evaluating a new client's posture, a personal trainer notices a long outward curve of the thoracic spine with a decreased anterior lumbar curve and a backward shift of the upper trunk. What postural deviation does this client have? Lordosis Sway back Flat back Kyphosis

Sway back (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 128-129) Sway-back posture is a long outward curve of the thoracic spine with a decreased anterior lumbar curve and a backward shift of the upper trunk. It is often accompanied by rounded shoulders, a sunken chest, and a forward-tilted head. If an individual has this postural abnormality and cannot actively assume a neutral-spine posture, the fitness professional should refer him or her to a physician.

Which of the following is considered a positive risk factor for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease? HDL cholesterol of 66 mg/dL Serum cholesterol of 195 mg/dL Systolic blood pressure of 143 mmHg Body mass index of 28 kg/m2

Systolic blood pressure of 143 mmHg

People with low self-efficacy are more likely to choose non-challenging tasks that are easy to accomplish. TRUE FALSE

TRUE

Performing an isometric squat requires static balance and stabilization. TRUE FALSE

TRUE

The diaphragm is the most important muscle of inspiration. TRUE FALSE

TRUE

If blood accumulates in the ventricles of the heart, the cardiac fibers will stretch, which will lead to an increased amount of blood being ejected during the contraction. TRUE FALSE

TRUE An increase in ventricular volume at the end of the cardiac cycle stretches the cardiac muscle fibers, which improves the force of contraction. Consequently, a rise in cardiac contractility results in an increased amount of blood pumped per beat.

Exercise can decrease a diabetic's need for medications because it improves insulin sensitivity. TRUE FALSE

TRUE Diabetes is a condition that results from abnormal regulation of blood glucose. Muscle tissue can take up higher levels of glucose at a faster rate, partly due to an increase in muscle's sensitivity to insulin after an acute bout of exercise training. As a result, less insulin is needed to bring about the same effect on glucose uptake into muscle tissue.

Joint mobility must never be attained by compromising joint stability. TRUE FALSE

TRUE Joint mobility is the range of uninhibited movement around a joint or body segment. Joint stability is the ability to maintain or control joint movement or position. Both joint mobility and stability are attained by the interaction of all components surrounding the joints and the neuromuscular system. Joint mobility must never be attained by compromising joint stability.

Respiratory muscles adapt to training and thus can improve the duration and intensity of exercise. TRUE FALSE

TRUE Regular endurance exercise increases the oxidative capacity of respiratory muscles, which improves respiratory muscle endurance.

VT1 is also known as the lactate threshold and coincides with the first time that lactate begins to accumulate in the blood. TRUE FALSE

TRUE The first ventilatory threshold (VT1), which also is referred to as the lactate threshold and the anaerobic threshold, occurs at approximately the first time that lactate begins to accumulate in the blood.

Receptors in the brain are the first to initiate changes in breathing. TRUE FALSE

TRUE The respiratory control center is located within the medulla oblongata region of the brain. Immediately before exercise begins, breathing rate increases. This is most likely due to stimulation from the motor cortex resulting from anticipation of the ensuing exercise bout.

An elevated shoulder may present with an overdeveloped or tight upper trapezius muscle. TRUE FALSE

TRUE (PTM pg. 162) An elevated shoulder may present with an overdeveloped or tight upper trapezius muscle, while a depressed shoulder may present with more forward rounding of the scapula.

A personal trainer can accurately estimate VO2max from a client's heart-rate response to exercise. TRUE FALSE

TRUE (PTM pg. 213) Research demonstrates that as workload increases, so do heart rate and oxygen uptake. In fact, heart rate and oxygen uptake exhibit a fairly linear relationship to workload. This relationship allows the personal trainer to accurately estimate VO2max from the heart-rate response to exercise with fairly good accuracy.

Which of these follow-up actions would be most appropriate for an individual who answers "yes" to the following questions on the PAR-Q? Is your doctor currently prescribing drugs (for example, water pills) for your blood pressure or heart condition? In the past month, have you had chest pain when you were not doing physical activity? Talk with a doctor before beginning to exercise or undergoing a fitness appraisal Take part in a fitness appraisal before beginning exercise Delay becoming much more physically active until feeling better Slowly and progressively start becoming more physically active

Talk with a doctor before beginning to exercise or undergoing a fitness appraisal

What is the MOST effective way to teach a new exercise? Show the client how to do the exercise, then have them perform the exercise while mirroring to provide an example of good form Tell the client what the exercise is, demonstrate the exercise, and have the client perform the exercise while providing feedback Use photos of the exercise while explaining it to the client, and then have the client perform the exercise while providing feedback Have the client perform the exercise while providing verbal instructions to coach him/her through it with proper form

Tell the client what the exercise is, demonstrate the exercise, and have the client perform the exercise while providing feedback

Which of the following observations would NOT be noted as a postural deviation? The palms of the hands face backward The superior, anterior portion of the pelvis rotates downward and forward The cheek bone is in line with the collar bone The subtalar joint is in pronation

The cheek bone is in line with the collar bone

Which of the following is NOT part of the definition of "scope of practice"? Guidelines or parameters that must be followed The legal range of services that professionals in a given field can provide The code of ethics that must be adhered to while in the workplace

The code of ethics that must be adhered to while in the workplace A scope of practice defines the legal range of services that professionals in a given field can provide, the settings in which those services can be provided, and the guidelines or parameters that must be followed. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th edition, p. 8

When comparing the medial epicondyle of the humerus to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus, which of the following statements is correct? The medial epicondyle is more toward the back of the body than the lateral epicondyle The medial epicondyle is more away from the midline of the body than the lateral epicondyle The medial epicondyle is more toward the front of the body than the lateral epicondyle The medial epicondyle is more toward the midline of the body than the lateral epicondyle

The medial epicondyle is more toward the midline of the body than the lateral epicondyle

A personal trainer who wants to provide massage to help clients who have tight or sore muscles can do so ONLY if (BLANK). The personal trainer has extensive knowledge about the benefits of massage The clients gives his/her consent for the massage The personal trainer becomes a licensed massage therapist The massage therapist is not available and the personal trainer has some training

The personal trainer becomes a licensed massage therapist

After several months of working with a client, a personal trainer notes that the client's self-efficacy and ability levels have improved. How should this affect the amount of external feedback the trainer provides to the client? The trainer should taper the amount of external feedback The amount of feedback should not change The trainer should increase the amount of external feedback The trainer should immediately stop providing external feedback

The trainer should taper the amount of feedback of external feedback

Which of the following accounts for the unique position that personal trainers hold in the allied healthcare continuum? They are able to provide detailed dietary planning to combat chronic illnesses They are at the top of the allied healthcare pyramid due to the extended time they spend with clients They are able to show clients how to exercise effectively while following physicians' general recommendations They are licensed professionals who can prescribe specific exercise programs

They are able to show clients how to exercise effectively while following physicians' general recommendations ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th edition, p. 6

What does most allied health certification programs, such as the credentials for registered dietitians, occupational therapists, and nurse practitioners, have in common with certifications from the American Council on Exercise? They require a bachelor's degree as a minimum eligibility requirement They are accredited by the National Commission for Certifying Agencies They share the same collective scope of practice in allied health They meet the competency based exam requirement for licensure in most states

They are accredited by the National Commission for Certifying Agencies

While having a client perform the external and internal rotation test, you observe that he can rotate the forearms internally about 50 degrees toward the mat and externally to about 90 degrees so that the arms touch the mat. Which of the following notes would you make? Good mobility for both internal and external rotators Tight internal rotators; good mobility for external rotators Tight external rotators; good mobility for internal rotators Tightness in both internal and external rotators

Tight external rotators; good mobility for internal rotators (PTM pg. 183-184) The inability to internally rotate the forearm to at least 70 degrees of rotation toward the mat indicates tight external rotators. The ability to externally rotate forearm 90 degrees to touch the mat indicates god mobility in the internal rotators

During the hurdle and step test, you observe cloent exhibiting an anterior pelvic tilt and a forward torso lean as he steps forward. Which compensation MOST likely causes this? Weak gluteus medius and maximus Tight stance-leg hip flexors Weak stance leg hip adductors Tight ankle plantarflexors

Tight stance-leg hip flexors (PTM pg. 172) Additionally indicates weak rectus abdominis and back extensors

During the Thomas test, you observe that your client can lower her RIGHT thigh to about 10 degrees above the table with the knee flexed about 90 degrees. Which of the following notes would you make? Right leg has normal range of motion Tightness in the right rectus femoris Limited range of motion in lumbar spine Tightness in the right illiopsoas

Tightness in right iliopsoas (PTM pg. 179-180) An inability to lay the back of the right thigh completely flat on the table during the Thomas test could indicate a tightness of the right iliopsoas, which is preventing the hip from rotating posteriorly and inhibiting the thigh from being able to touch the table

Your client or class participant is experiencing some pain in her low back when performing abdominal exercises. Which of the following imbalances could potentially cause this condition? Tightness of the IT band Tightness in the iliopsoas Hypertrophy of the semitendinosus Weakness in the iliopsoas

Tightness in the iliopsoas (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 116, 128-129) Because of its origin at the lumbar spine, iliopsoas tightness can result in lordosis, which can cause low-back pain, particularly during the second half of a sit-up and with prolonged periods of sitting. To correct the anterior pelvic tilt position associated with lumbar lordosis, focus on strengthening the abdominal and hip extensor muscles, while stretching the hip flexors and spine extensors.

What is the primary purpose of a fitness certification? To increase one's earning potential To protect the public from harm To prove mastery of the profession To provide hands-on experience

To protect the public from harm

Which of the following muscles plays a vital role (with the multifidi) in providing feedback to the central nervous system about spinal joint position before dynamic forces in the extremities destabilize the spine? Rectus abdominis Transverse abdominis External obliques Internal obliques

Transverse abdominis (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 133) Coactivation of the transverse abdominis and multifidi muscles occur before any movements of the limbs. Specifically, these two muscles are activated an average of 30 milliseconds before shoulder movement and 110 milliseconds before leg movement. What is the importance of this temporal pattern of trunk muscle recruitment? The transverse abdominis and multifidi muscles are thought to play a vital role in providing feedback about spinal joint position, and thus forewarn the central nervous system about impending dynamic forces to be created in the extremities that may destabilize the spine.

Which of the following is NOT one of three sites used when performing skinfold measurements on a male client? Abdomen Chest Triceps Thigh

Tricep

According to a report by Foster and Porcari, the risk of heart attack and sudden cardiac death during exercise among fitness facility members is BLANK that of cardiac patients in a supervised rehabilitation program. Double Triple Five times 10 times

Triple (PTM pg. 213) This can be reduced with appropriate pre-exercise screening and careful observation of clients during and following exercise

Which of the three tests included in McGill's torso muscular endurance test battery is a timed test involving a static,isometric contraction of the anterior muscles, stabilizing the spine until the individual exhibits fatigue and can no longer hold the assumed position? Trunk extensor endurance test Trunk flexor endurance test Trunk lateral endurance test Body-weight squat test

Trunk flexor endurance test (PTM pg. 188)

After how long a period of inactivity following an injury does disuse atrophy in the muscles surrounding the injury begin? Two days Two hours Two weeks Two months

Two days (pg. 131 Personal Trainer Manuel)

Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding personal trainers recommending supplements to their clients? The personal trainer should only recommend those supplements covered under his/her professional liability insurance Unless the personal trainer has other credentials such as an R.D. or M.D., he/she does ot possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplements The personal trainer should become educated about the specific supplements before making any recommendations Due to potential complications from taking supplements with other medications, personal trainers should recommend only plant-based supplements

Unless the personal trainer has other credentials such as an R.D. or M.D., he/she does ot possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplements

Which of the following is NOT one of four types of tissue found in the human body? Nervous Vascular Muscular Epithelial

Vascular

Which of the following types of physiological assessment is contraindicated for a client with asthma? Treadmill test Cycle ergometer test Ventilatory threshold test

Ventilatory threshold test (PTM pg. 222) Also includes individuals: prone to panic/anxiety attacksas the labored breathing may create discomfort or precipitate an attack, those recovering from a recent respiratory infection

What is the name if the essential attribute of successful relationships that is describes as "the ability to respect another person regardless of his/her uniqueness?" Empathy Warmth Genuiness Honesty

Warmth Warmth is the unconditional positive regard, or respect, for another person regardless of his/her individuality. This quality will convey a climate that communicates safety and acceptance.

When should behavior contracts and written agreements be revised or updated? Whenever the client has a relapse into inactivity Never; they should be permanent documents When goals are met or programs are modified After the client finishes his final purchased workout

When goals are met or programs are modified

Which of the following statements about the ratings of perceived exertion scale is CORRECT? When using the 0-10 scale, an RPE of 6 corresponds to a heart rate of 60 bpm When using the 6-20 scale, an RPE of 11 is considered "somewhat hard" When using ratings of perceived exertion, men tend to underestimate exertion, while women tend to overestimate exertion. Most deconditioned individuals find using the RPE scale to be very easy and intuitive

When using rate of perceived exertion, men tend to underestimate exertion, while women tend to overestimate exertion. (pg. 144-145 Personal Trainer Manuel)

At what point does a candidate for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification (or any other ACE certification) agree to uphold the ACE Code of Ethics? While registering for the ACE certification exam Once the candidate earns his/her first ACE certification Upon receiving a printed copy of the ACE Code of Ethics with the printed ACE certification When accepting his/her first job as an ACE Certified Personal Trainer

While registering for the ACE certification exam

Which of the following cardiorespiratory fitness tests uses the immediate post-recovery HR to assess a client's fitness levels? First ventilatory threshold test Rackport fitness walking test YMCA bike test YMCA submax. step test

YMCA submax. step tests (PTM pg. 230) In step tests, fitness level is determined by the immediate post-recovery HR. The lower the exercise recovery HR, the higher the fitness level

A client yo have been working with for several months tells you that a close relative recently became seriously ill. Which of the following responses is MOST appropriate? "I'm so sorry, I can't imagine how difficult that must be for you." "Have you considered counseling? Some of my clients have had great success with it." "I'm sorry! What happened?' "That's terrible! Tell me more about what is worrying you."

"I'm so sorry, I can't imagine how difficult that must be for you."

During the initial client investigation stage, which of the following questions are LEAST important to ask? "Can you describe your previous experiences with physical activity?" "What forms of activity do you like and dislike?" "Why did you stop exercising in the past?" "What kind of learner are you - Visual, kinesthetic, auditory?"

"What kind of learner are you - Visual, kinesthetic, auditory?" It is during the action stage that a personal trainer can identify which learning pathway a client prefers by observing actions during learning situations and listening for clues.

A male client who weighs 190 pounds has a one-repetition maximum of 225 pounds on the bench press exercise. His relative strength for this exercise is __________. 225 pounds 1.18 0.84 35 pounds

1.18

A male client who weighs 190 lb. has a 1RM of 225 lb. on bench. His relative strength for this exercise is BLANK. 225 lb 0.84 35 lb 1.18

1.18 (PTM pg. 240) Relative strength is the max. force a person is able to exert in relation to body weight. = Absolute strength/Body weight

Question 11 of Nutrition Quiz: How many calories come from carbohydrates in one serving? Sample_Food_Label

124 (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 173) To calculate the number of calories coming from carbohydrates in one serving of a food, multiply the number of grams of carbohydrate per serving by 4 calories per gram. In this case, one serving contains 31 grams of carbohydrate; therefore, one serving contains 124 calories of carbohydrates.

Most health benefits occur with at least __________ a week of moderate-intensity physical activity, such as brisk walking. Additional benefits occur with more physical activity. 75 minutes 150 minutes 60 minutes 180 minutes

150 minutes ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th edition, p. 2

You are working with a client who weight 180 lb. with a body fat percentage of 20%. What will his approx. weight be when he reaches his goal of 15% body fat, assuming that his lean body mass remains constant? 144 lb. 149 lb. 169 lb. 175 lb.

169 lb. (PTM pg. 206)

Which if the following is the BEST tool for assessing lower body muscular strength? Body weight squat test 10RM leg press test Standing ling jump test 1RM squat test

1RM squat test (PTM pg. 240)

Approximately what percent of the US population meets both aerobic activity and muscle strengthening guidelines? 35% 50% 20% 10%

20%

Which if the responses represents the predicts 1RM bench for a client who can perform 10 reps. of the exercise with 150 lb. with good form? 188 lb. 200 lb. 214 lb. 224 lb.

200 lb. (PTM pg. 243) 10 reps. represent 75% of predicted 1RM 150/0.75=200 lb

To renew certification for a new two-year cycle, ACE-certified professionals must complete a minimum of _____ hours of continuing education and maintain a current certificate in ________________ and, if living in North America, automated external defibrillation. 10; cardiopulmonary resuscitation 20; risk management 20; cardiopulmonary resuscitation

20; cardiopulmonary resuscitation

If an activity requires a functional capacity of 6 METs, what is the total oxygen consumption of someone performing that activity? 21 mL/kg/min 10.5 mL/kg/min 0.6 mL/kg/min 6 mL/kg/min

21 mL/kg/min

As a general rule, ACE recommends that candidates allow (BLANK) of study time to adequately prepare for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification Exam. 1-2 months 3-4 months 5-6 months 7-8 months

3-4 months

Carbohydrates, which are the body's preferred energy source, contain how many kilocalories per gram? 4 kcal/g 2 kcal/g 7 kcal/g 9 kcal/g

4 kcal/g Protein: 4 kcla/g Fat: 9 kcal/g

A personal trainer could design an exercise program without requiring a physician's release prior to participation for which of the following? 42 year old female who has lumbar lordosis 54 year old male who has type 2 diabetes 61 year old female who takes a calcium channel blocker 35 year old male who has asthma

42 year old female who has lumbar lordosis If a client has no contraindications for exercise, but presents with lumbar lordosis, he or she can begin working with a personal trainer following a fitness program

More than ____% of people who start a new program will drop out within the first six months.

50%

When preparing a client for a 1RM test, what % of client's estimated 1RM should the personal trainer encourage the client to use during the 1st warm up set? 25% 50% 75% 90%

50% (PTM pg. 242, 245, & 247) Rest for one minute after warms up

What is the waist-to-hip ratio threshold at which a female client's health is considered at risk? >0.86 >0.82 >0.79 >0.95

>0.86

Which personal attribute is the MOST reliable predictor of an individual;s participation in an exercise program? Limited access to exercise facility A lack of support Being too old to participate in exercise A lack of time

A lack of time

Which of the following individuals is MOST LIKELY to adhere to a supervised physical-activity program? A highly motivated beginner who elects to begin a vigorous-intensity exercise program An obese man who is motivated by a fear of adverse health conditions that are common in his family An individual who perceives his health to be poor and had been encouraged by his doctor to exercise A middle-aged man who has prehypertension but believes he has personal control over his health

A middle-aged man who has prehypertension but believes he has personal control over his health A belief in personal control over health outcomes is a consistent predictor of unsupervised exercise activity participation among healthy adults. Regarding the other options, the drop-out rate in vigorous-intensity exercise programs is almost twice as high as in moderate-intensity activity programs; those who perceive their health to be poor are unlikely to start or adhere to an activity program; and obese individuals are typically less active than normal-weight individuals, and are less likely to adhere to supervised exercise programs.

Which of the following responses correctly describes a phenomenon called "winged scapula?" A protrusion of the inferior angle and vertebral (medial) border of the scapula A protrusion of the vertebral (medial) boarder outward A protrusion of the superior angle and spine of the scapula A protrusion of the inferior angle and glenohumeral (lateral) boarder of scapula

A protrusion of the inferior angle and vertebral (medial) border of the scapula (PTM pg. 161-162)

Scapular protraction is also known as _______________. Adduction Elevation Abduction Depression

Abduction (EES pg. 138) Scapular protraction is also known as abduction. Concentric activity of the pectoralis minor results in abduction of the scapula.

Which of the stages of a successful client-trainer relationship includes implementing strategies to improve motivation and promoting long-term adherence? Rapport Investigation Planning Action

Action The action stage involves the successful implementation of all programming components and providing the appropriate instruction, feedback, and progressions as needed. This stage included, instruction, demonstration, and execution of programs; implementing strategies to improve motivation and promote long term adherence.

An individual is using a resistance band to perform very short-duration (less than 2 seconds per stretch) hamstring stretches in sets of eight repetitions. What flexibility-training technique is this person using? Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation Ballistic stretching Dynamic stretching Active isolated stretching

Active isolated stretching (EESFP pg. 243) Instead of holding stretches for 15 to 30 seconds at a point of resistance (i.e., mild discomfort), stretches are never held for more than two seconds. The stretch is then released, the body segment returned to the starting position, and the stretch is repeated for several repetitions.

What is arguably the most important and influential personal attribute variable when predicting adherence to physical activity? Activity history Cardiovascular disease status Obesity level Social support network

Activity history

During what phase of the general adaptation syndrome will a client see progressive increases in muscle size and strength? Alarm phase Exhaustion phase Shock phase Adaptation phase

Adaptation phase The adaptation phase, or resistance phase, generally begins around weeks four through six and represents major muscular adaptations (biochemical, mechanical, and structural). This phase is characterized by progressive increases in muscle size and strength.

What muscles are strengthened when a client performs side-lying leg lifts with the lower leg? Abductors Internal rotators Adductors work concentrically in the upward phase and ecentrically in the downward phase. External rotators

Adductors work concentrically in the upward phase and ecentrically in the downward phase. (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 121)

At what stage of an exercise bout are phosphagen stores being replenished, remaining lactate being removed from the blood, and the metabolic rate decreasing? Immediately after the commencement of exercise After the cessation of exercise As the body approaches steady state During steady-state training

After cessation of exercise The energy produced after the cessation of exercise (excess postexercise oxygen consumption - EPOC) is used to replenish the depleted phosphagens, to eliminate accumulated lactate if it has not already been cleared from the blood, and to restore other homeostatic conditions (e.g., thermoregulation, tissue resynthesis). As the body returns to normal temperature, the metabolic rate will return to normal

Which of the following factors is MOST likely unrelated to adherence levels in supervised exercise settings? Education Age Income Gender

Age Adherence to physical activity programs has proven to be consistently related to education, income, age, and gender. Specifically, lower levels of activity are seen with increasing age, fewer years of education, and lower income. Age, however, has been shown to be UNRELATED to adherence levels when examined in supervise exercise settings.

According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, __________. 25 to 30% of daily caloric intake should be from saturated fat Americans should eat more dark-green, red, and orange vegetables Americans should try several diets to determine which one will help them lose weight fastest All Americans looking to prevent disease should engage in at least 60 minutes of moderate-intensity activities most days of the week

Americans should eat more dark-green, red, and orange vegetables (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 168)

ACE Certified Personal Trainers looking to advance their knowledge, skills, and abilities beyond their ACE Personal Trainer Certification would be BEST served by completing what type of continuing education? A second NCCA-accredited personal trainer certification A workshop that focuses on how to incorporate supplemtation into a nutrition plan An online personal training certification from an organization that is not NCCA-accredited An advanced fitness certification that is NCAA-accredited

An advanced fitness certification that is NCAA-accredited

Which of the following postural deviations MOST LIKELY indicates that a client has medially (internally) rotated shoulders? Posterior view: scapular winging visible Side view: Upper back has an exaggerated curve Anterior view: backs of hands are visible Posterior view: spine not in line with plumb line

Anterior view: backs of hands are visible (PTM pg. 161-162) Scapular protraction can also be identified from the anterior view. If the knuckles or the backs of the client's hands are visible when the hands are positioned at the sides, this generally indicates internal (medial) rotation of the humerus and/or scapular protraction.

Francine practices hot yoga. The room is 103º F (39º C) and she is in class for 60 minutes. The release of _______________ will help reduce the excretion of water in her urine, thereby helping prevent any further dehydration. Norepinephrine Insulin Growth hormone Antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin)

Antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin) Fluid loss to sweat contributes to a loss of blood volume, which, in turn, triggers the release of antidiuretic hormone, or vasopressin, to help reduce water and sodium losses from the body.

During the investigation stage, which of the following statements BEST pertains to effecting listening? Asking clients closed ended questions to encourage him/her to share relevant information Listening carefully to the client while reconstructing the information based on the listener's own beliefs Asking the client questions and responding to answers with encouraging words and further open ended questions Recording detailed notes while the client is speaking

Asking the clients closed ended questions to encourage him/her to share relevant information

A client is beginning to preform basic body weight squats with fairly decent form is now ready for more specific feedback to help refine their squatting technique. Which of the following stages of learning is BEST represented in this scenario? Associative Cognitive Autonomous Independent

Associative In associative stage, clients begin to master basics and are ready for more specific feedback that will help them refine the motor skill.

Clients who are beginning the basics of a particular movement and are ready for specific feedback are in which stage of motor learning? Associative Autonomous Affective Cognitive

Associative In the associative stage of learning, clients begin to master the basics and are ready for more specific feedback that will help them refine the motor skill.

Which of the following is NOT among the 10 insights gleaned from the experiences of the National Weight Control Registry? Eat breakfast Be mindful Be optimistic Avoid the scale

Avoid the scale

_______________ provides an objective ratio describing the relationship between body weight and height. NIR BMI MRI DEXA

BMI

Which of these medications causes a dose-related decrease in a person's resting, exercise, and maximal heart rates? Beta blockers Antihistamines Diuretics Antidepressants

Beta blockers (pg. 133 Personal Trainer Manuel)

Which body composition method produces % fat estimates that can vary greatly from day to day based on hydration status of the client tested? Skinfolds Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) Hydrostatic weighing Dual energy x-ray absorptiomerty (DEXA)

Bioelectrical impedance analysis (PTM pg. 198) Optimal hydration is necessary for accurate results from BIA, thus it can be difficult to account for client's level of hydration at the time of testing

Arlene has gained 65 pounds in the past two years as a result of poor nutritional choices. Her doctor has just informed her that she is prediabetic. Which fitness component would MOST likely need to be improved to help this client? Muscular endurance Body composition Flexibility Mind/body vitality

Body composition

Which of the following strategies is NOT a recommended method for practicing motivational interviewing with a client? Ask probing questions Build dependence between trainer and client Keep the conversation friendly Encourage clients to generate ideas

Build dependence between trainer and client Personal trainers should work to build confidence in their clients and help clients identify areas of success.

Question 12 of Nutrition Quiz: What percentage of total calories comes from 1 serving of carbohydrates, protein, and fat in this product? Sample_Food_Label

Carbohydrate = 50%, Protein = 8%, Fat = 43% (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 173) To calculate the percentage of calories from carbohydrate, protein, and fat in 1 serving of a product, divide the number of calories from each macronutrient by the total number of calories in 1 serving.

Your client has just signed up for her first half-marathon. Which fitness component would MOST likely need to be improved to help this client? Cardiovascular endurance Muscular strength Muscular endurance Flexibility

Cardiovascular endurance

Contributing to cell membrane function, making bile acids essential for fat absorption, metabolizing fat-soluble vitamins, and making vitamin D are all functions of which nutrient? Omega-3 fatty acids Carbohydrate Protein Cholesterol

Cholesterol ...and some hormones such as estrogen and testosterone.

In your notes regarding a client performing the external and internal shoulder rotation tests, you recorded that the client displayed potential tightness in the infraspinatus and teres minor. What might you have observed during the test that led to that conclusion? Client externally rotated the forearms 90 degrees to touch the mat Client internally rotated the forearms 70 degrees toward the mat Client displayed discrepancies between arms when externally rotating the forearms Client displayed inability to internally rotate the forearm 70 degrees toward the mat

Client displayed inability to internally rotate the forearm 70 degrees toward the mat (PTM pg. 183-184) If a client displays an inability to internally rotate the forearm 70 degrees, or shows discrepancies between the limbs, there are two possible reasons: potential tightness in the lateral rotators of the arm (i.e., infraspinatus and teres minor) or the joint capsule and ligaments may be tight and limit rotation.

Which of the following is NOT a reason to stop a client while he or she is performing the sharpened Romberg test? The client exceeds 30 seconds with good postural control The client's feet move on the floor The client's arms move from the folded position The client's eyes open

Client exceeds 30 seconds with good postural control (PTM pg. 186) During the sharpened Romberg test, the trainer should continue to time the client's performance until one of the following occurs: the client loses postural control and balance, the client's feet move on the floor, the client's eyes open, the client's arms move from the folded position, or the client exceeds 60 seconds with good postural control.

Which of the following statements about flexibility is CORRECT? As people age, flexibility naturally increases due to decreased collagen levels. Males are generally more flexible than females. Collagen is made up of proteins that limit motion and resist stretch. The build-up of scar tissue after injury often increases flexibility.

Collagen is made up of proteins that limit motion and resist stretch.

Which of the following is OUTSIDE the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope of practice? Developing exercise programs for clients who have type 2 diabetes and medical clearance for exercise Providing guidance, motivation, and feedback to empower individuals to adhere to their exercise programs Implementing post-rehabilitative exercise programs for clients following their physicians' recommendation Compiling detained nutritional programming and specific meal planning recommended by their physician

Compiling detained nutritional programming and specific meal planning recommended by their physician

During the up-phase of a shoulder overhead press, the middle deltoid is _______________ contracting. Kinetically Eccentrically Isometrically Concentrically

Concentrically (Essentials of Exercise Science pg. 142) The fibers of the middle deltoid are aligned perfectly with the frontal plane, and thus this muscle is the primer mover in concentric abduction of the shoulder joint, as seen during the upward phase of a shoulder overhead press.

A man asks you about exercise, nutrition, and health. He does not currently exercise but has been thinking about joining the gym. This man is MOST likely in which stage of behavioral change? Precontemplation Contemplation Preperation Action

Contemplation In this stage, people are still sedentary. However, they are starting to consider activity as important and begin to identify implications of being inactive.

Which hormone promotes triglyceride breakdown to aid in maintaining blood glucose? Norepinephrine Cortisol Vasopressin Estrogen

Cortisol Cortisol is a glucocorticoid and plays a major role in maintaining blood glucose during prolonged exercise by promoting protein and triglyceride breakdown. Cortisol is also a major stress hormone and is elevated when the body is under too much stress, either from too much exercise or inadequate regeneration.

Which slow-acting hormone stimulates the mobilization of free fatty acids from adipose tissue, mobilizes glucose synthesis in the liver, and decreases the rate of glucose utilization in the cells? Cortisol Growth hormone Insulin Glucagon

Cortisol Cortisol is a glucocorticoid released from the adrenal cortex that stimulates free fatty acid (FFA) mobilization from adipose tissue, mobilizes glucose synthesis in the liver (i.e., gluconeogenesis), and decreases the rate of glucose utilization by the cells. Its effect is slow, however, allowing other fast-acting hormones such as epinephrine and glucagon to primarily deal with glucose and FFA mobilization.

Which of the following identifiable signs or symptoms that merit immediate test termination and possible referral to a qualified healthcare professional is related to poor perfusion? Claudication Cyanosis Fatigue Ataxia

Cyanosis (PTM pg. 196) Signs of poor perfusion include: lightheadedness, pallor, cyanosis (bluish coloration, especially around mouth), nausea, or cold & clammy skin