ACE VOCAB Ch. 1-3, ACE-Practice Exam #1, ACE-Section 3 Quiz, ACE Personal Training Exam Prep 3
A client you have been working for several months tells you that a close relative recently became seriously ill. Which of the following response is most appropriate?
"I am so sorry. I can't imagine how difficult that must be for you."
Which of the following statements best represents a SMART goal?
"I will run 4 days per week, progressing my run time from 10 to 40 minutes for a 5K in four months."
During the initial client investigation stage, which of the following questions is more important to ask?
"What are your likes and dislikes when it comes to activity?"
Which of the following is the best example of an open-ended question?
"how can I help you become more physically active?"
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is conducting an interview with a new client with obesity who has a physician referral to begin an exercise program. Which of the following best demonstrates a motivational interviewing approach?
"what steps do you feel would be best to take to improve your health?
Describe the five steps of evidence-based practice.
(1) formulating a question, (2) searching for health and fitness research evidence that bests answer the formulated question, (3) scrutinizing the quality of the research evidence, (4) incorporating the research evidence into exercise program design and implementation, and (5) evaluating exercise program outcomes and periodically reevaluating the research evidence.
Define the two main goals of a pre-exercise snack.
(1) to optimize glucose availability and glycogen stores and (2) provide the fuel needed to support exercise performance.
Sinus bradycardia:
(RHR 60 to 100 bpm)
Sinus tachycardia:
(RHR <60 bpm)
Normal sinus rhythm:
(RHR >100 bpm)
What is the waist-to-hip ratio for a client whose waist measures 29 inches and hip circumference measures 38 inches?
.76
Which of the following is the recommended initial frequency of muscular training for a client with osteoporosis?
1-2 nonconsecutive days/week
Muscular training- Diabetes time
1-3 sets of 8-10 reps (10-15 reps to start)
McGill suggests that a ratio between flexion and extension should be less than BLANK to indicate balanced endurance among the muscle groups.
1.0
What is the recommended weekly or biweekly exercise duration progression for cardiorespiratory training over the first four to six weeks of training a new client?
10%
Essential fat for women is:
10-13%
Which of the following is the recommended timing and amount of water to drink before exercise for a 130 lb. client?
10-14 ounces at least 4 hours before exercise
The current recommended dietary allowance for protein intake is:
10-35% of caloric intake
Which of the following is the recommended plyometric training volume for a client with plyometric experience?
100 to 120 contacts per session
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is working with a very active adult client who has asked about guidelines for protein intake. The client currently weighs 210 pounds. According to the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA), how much protein is most appropriate for this client to consume daily?
133 to 163 g
On the 6 to 20 RPE scale, what range is associated with training in zone 2?
14 to 17
According to the 2017 American College of Cardiology and American Heart Association guidelines, which of the following blood pressure readings would be categorized as stage 2 hypertension?
140/82 mmHg
Table 10-27 offers personal trainers a way to estimate a client's one repetition maximum (1-RM) without requiring the client to perform an exercise with maximal effort, in fact, the client's 1-RM can be estimated by simply observing a workout and make the appropriate calculation. For example, a client is performing bench presses during his or her workout and the personal trainer observes that he or she consistently completes eight repetitions with 145 pounds (65 kg). Using the coefficient of 1.255, calculi the client's 1-RM.
145 pounds (65.8 kg) x 1.255 = 181.9 pounds (82.7 kg)
According to the ACOG, what is the recommended time and frequency of exercise for a healthy woman who is pregnant?
150 minutes over three days per week
During McGill's torso muscular endurance test battery, a client's flexion score is 120 seconds with a flexion/extension ratio score of .80. What is the client's extension score?
150 seconds
Which of the following would be the most appropriate amount of weekly exercise time to prevent significant weight gain, reduce associated chronic disease risk factors, and produce modest weight loss for individuals with overweight or obesity?
150 to 200 minutes
Whole grains contain BLANK grams of whole grains per 1 ounce equivalent.
16
Muscular training- Hypertension frequency
2-3 days per week with a minimum of 48 hours separating exercise for the same muscle group.
Which rest interval is most appropriate between sets for a client whose goal is to improve his or her general muscular fitness?
2-3 minutes
You are working with a new client who wants to begin muscular training in order to build muscular endurance. Which of the following set and repetition combinations would be best for helping him achieve that goal?
2-3 sets of 12 or more reps
Essential fat for men is:
2-5%
Once a client can sustain steady state cardiorespiratory exercise for BLANK minutes in zone 1, he or she can move on to fitness training.
20
Which is the minimum amount of time a client should be able to perform steady-state cardiorespiratory exercise at a RPE of 3 to 4 before progressing to fitness training?
20 minutes
What is the appropriate body mass index of a client with the following information: height- 5 feet 5 inches, weight- 135 pounds?
22.5 kg/m^2
During a healthy pregnancy, it is recommended that a woman gain how much weight?
25-35 lbs.
You have a client who is 5'9" and weighs 185 pounds. What is his body mass index?
27.3 kg/m^2
Which is the most appropriate strength ratio between the hamstrings and quadriceps?
2:3
The Y balance test is performed in BLANK directions.
3
When clients indicate a pain level above a BLANK, the exercise should stop and a modification to that exercise or a different exercise should be chosen.
3
Pregnant women should engage in at least how many days of aerobic activity each week?
3-5
Where are the arms positioned when performing a shoulder press in the scapular plane?
30 degrees anterior to the frontal plane
Refueling should begin within BLANK after exercise.
30 mins
A client with obesity is participating in an exercise session and states that it is beginning to become difficult to talk during exercise and that the exercise has become somewhat hard. Using the 0 to 10 rating of perceived exertion (RPE) scale, to which of the following intensity ratings if the client most likely referring?
4
On the day of the event, an athlete should aim to eat a meal BLANK hours before the event.
4-6 hours
According to the resistance-exercise evidence-based recommendations, a minimum of how many hours of rest is needed between sessions training any single muscle group?
48 hours
The Dietary Guidelines for Americans are updated every BLANK years.
5
A long-standing client who has a 1-RM bench press of 200 lb. has a goal of increasing his 1-RM to 250 lb. which of the following load increase percentage is most appropriate initially?
5%
A weight loss of BLANK in people with overweight or obesity has been shown to significantly improve health-related outcomes for obesity-related comorbidities.
5-10%
On a physical exertion scale of 0 to 10, what is the suggested aerobic exercise intensity for older adults?
5-6 moderate intensity and 7-8 for vigorous intensity
Which of the following is the recommended fluid intake prior to exercise?
5-7 mL/kg
Which of the following is the recommended exercise time for a client diagnosed with metabolic syndrome who has a weight-loss goal?
50-60 minutes per session
Muscular training- Diabetes intensity
50-85% 1-RM (lower intensity to start)
Which of the following is the recommended daily caloric deficit range needed to achieve a weekly weight-loss goal of 1 to 2 pounds?
500 to 1,000 kcal
Which is the most commonly recommended training tempo for new exercises?
6 seconds
Which of the following indicates the average resting heart rate in males?
60 to 70 beats per minute
Resting energy expenditure contributes BLANK of the body's total energy expenditure.
60-75%
If using percentage pf maximal heart rate (%MHR), what percentage range is associated with training in zone 1?
64-76%
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is developing a Performance Training program for a client. What percentage of time should be spent training in zone 1?
70-80%
When working with a client who has no experience with plyometric drills, an appropriate beginning volume would be:
80-100 contacts per session
The evidence-based recommendation for frequency of flexibility exercise is:
>2-3 days a week
Frequency
>2-3 days/week with daily being most effective
When using percentage of heart rate reserve (%HRR), zone 3 would equate to what percentage range?
>90%
Load/speed training includes speed, agility, quickness, and power drills that would be most appropriate for which client?
A 45-year-old male competitive tennis player
Which of the following client types if most likely to exhibit positive health behaviors?
A client with an internal locus of control
Which of the following would be the best example of a healthy eating pattern?
A diet that includes a variety of vegetables, fruit, grains, low-fat dairy, and protein-rich foods.
Why is food safety important for clients to comprehend?
A key to healthy eating is to avoid foods contaminated with harmful bacteria, viruses, parasites, and other microorganisms. About one in six Americans, or 48 million people, become sick each year from foodborne illness, 128,000 are hospitalized, and approximately 3,000 die. Populations most at risk include pregnant women, infants and young children, older adults, and people who are immunocompromised. The majority of foodborne illnesses are preventable with a few simple precautions.
If a client exhibits lumber dominance in the squat movement, this indicates:
A lack or core and gluteal strength
Muscular training- Diabetes frequency
A minimum of 2 nonconsecutive days per week, preferably 3.
Before progressing into Fitness Training, a client should be able to consistently perform which of the following?
A minimum of 20 minutes of steady-state cardiorespiratory exercise in zone 1 on at least three days per week.
Describe the role and scope of practice of a personal trainer in working with clients who have experienced injuries.
A personal trainer may observe inefficiencies in movement during an assessment, or clients may report pain during movement. It is important that a personal trainer recognize the difference between pain associated with injury and physical discomfort during exercise, while keeping in mind that the scope of practice of a personal trainer does not include evaluation, assessment, or diagnosis of muscle or joint pain. In cases of pain or injury, it Is essential that clients are referred to an appropriate healthcare provider.
Explain the correlation between elevated blood pressure and the risk of cardiovascular events.
A positive correlation exists between elevated blood pressure in the risk of cardiovascular events. For individuals 40-to-70-years old, each 20 mmHg increase in resting systolic blood pressure or each 10 mmHg increase in resting diastolic blood pressure above normal double the risk of cardiovascular disease. A difference of 15 mmHg or more between arms it increases the risk of peripheral vascular disease in peripheral vascular disease and is associated with a 70% risk of dying from heart disease. If you discover an abnormal blood pressure reading, either at rest or during exercise, it is prudent to recommend the client visit his or her personal physician.
Volume
A reasonable target is to perform 60 seconds of total stretching time for each flexibility exercise.
Define "Scope of practice"
A scope of practice defines the legal range of services that professionals in a given field can provide, the settings in which those services can be provided, and the guidelines for parameters that must be followed.
Cardiorespiratory training- Diabetes type
A variety of rhythmic large-muscle-group exercises.
A periodized training plan that incorporates workouts below the first ventilatory threshold (VT1), between VT1 and the second ventilatory threshold (VT2) and above VT2, would be most appropriate for which of the following clients?
A woman training to qualify for the Boston Marathon
Which of the following movements occurs in the frontal plane?
Abduction of the leg
Which of the following best represents a benefit/advantage to operating a franchise?
Access to national advertising programs and the ability to share costs associated with marketing and brand identify with other franchise owners.
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer's new client is selecting to opt out of any physiological assessments. Which of the following is the best client-centered response?
Acknowledge the client's request and carefully design a program based on client preferences and health-history information.
What two skills can a personal trainer apply during the investigation stage to understand his or her client and elicit as much helpful information as possible when uncovering a client's motivation?
Active listening and motivational interviewing
Rehabilitation following stroke typically focuses on optimizing:
Activities of daily living
When selecting exercises to improve knee function, which of the following should be the first step?
Addressing any imbalances between right and left sides
When selecting exercises for improving shoulder function, what should be addressed first?
Addressing postural imbalances that may be causing a decrease in joint space
You have been working with a client for the past four months and he has been performing 25 minutes of cardiorespiratory exercise at an intensity below the talk test threshold three times per week for the past month. Which of the following would be the best next step to take with this client?
Administer the VT1 talk test and begin to include zone 2 intervals at heart rates at and above VT1 to just below VT2
Which of the following best describes the double-progression muscular-training protocol?
After being able to complete 15 leg presses with 100 pounds, increase the weight by 5% to 105 pounds, drop the reps to 12, and continue with this weight until able to complete 15 reps.
Given the ballistic nature of plyometric-training drills, when is the most appropriate time to include them in a workout session?
After the completion of a dynamic warm-up, before the client is fatigued, to reduce the risk of injury
Key Guideline 1: follow a healthy eating pattern across the lifespan.
All food and beverage choices matter. Choose a healthy eating pattern at an appropriate calorie level to help achieve and maintain a healthy body weight, support nutrient adequacy, and reduce the risk of chronic disease
Coronary artery disease
Also called atherosclerotic heart disease, CAD is characterized by a narrowing of the coronary arteries that supply the heart muscle with blood and oxygen.
Which of the following clients would most likely display anterior tilting of the pelvis?
An accountant working in an office environment seated for extended periods during a 12-hour shift.
While muscle strains are likely a result of unprepared exertion, ligament sprains more frequently occur as a result of:
An external force that applies sufficient pressure to stretch the ligament to the point of injury.
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is working with a client who discloses the use of nicotine replacement therapy. Which of the following should the personal trainer expect when assessing the client's resting heart rate?
An increasing resting heart rate
Ghrelin plays a chief role in:
Appetite regulation
Which of the following conditions describes the hardening and narrowing of the arteries due to plaque accumulation?
Arteriosclerosis
Conducting posture and flexibility assessments before movement assessments is especially important when working with older adults because:
Arthritis is prevalent in this population
Your client, Rebecca, is in the transition from the preparation stage to the action stage of the stage-of-change model. What should her training volume be? Why?
As a client begins a muscular-training program and is in the transition from the preparation to the action stages of behavioral change, the total training volume should be kept relatively low to allow for adaption and accommodation to the training stress. Another benefit of keeping the training volume by during the initial stages of an exercise program is to allow the client to feel successful after accomplishing the goal of performing a specific volume of training. Training volume can be gradually increased as the client develops adherence to the program, becoming stronger as a result.
Sarah is a postpartum client whose doctor told her she has a condition called diastasis recti. Concerned for her abdominal strength appearance, she tells you that she wants to focus mostly on "getting her abs back." Create a response to Sarah's concerns. How would you explain what this condition is and what it means? Describe the exercises you would include to help support the low back and pelvic floor. How can you display empathy for Sarah's concern while still sharing her evidence-based information to help her understand diastasis recti?
As a woman's abdomen begins to shrink, exercises that support trunk strength and stability, such as bird dogs, can be included in the program design. It is essential to take into consideration a healing C-section incision or the presence of diastasis recti. Diastasis recti is the separation of the two muscle bellies of the recuts abdominis that may be up to 1 to 2 inches in width. Personal trainers can further support by reminding them that their pre-pregnancy exercise intensity levels have been changing for nine months or longer. To remain realistic, an expectation, an expectation should be set for women to return to pre-pregnancy exercise-intensity levels over the subsequent nine to 12 months.
During an initial consultation, an ACE Certified Personal Trainer observes a client continually biting their lip. Which would be the most appropriate course of action?
Ask the client how he or she is feeling about the conversation.
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is working with a client who has recently met his long-term weight loss goal. The client posts on social media about the success with a before and after photo. Which of the following is the most appropriate way for the personal trainer to use this post for marketing purposes?
Ask the client to sign a release granting permission to share the post.
If an ACE Certified Personal Trainer makes the following statement early in a pre-participation health screening, which of the following is he or she trying to accomplish? "managing your diabetes is important to you. How do you envision me helping to support your goals?"
Asking open-ended questions to get more details
Which of the following is within the scope of practice for personal trainers?
Assessing clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design.
A new client interested in improving her overall lifestyle seeks your services. She indicates she would like to improve her energy and sleep, as well as build a foundation of muscular strength and flexibility. She is not a competitive athlete and has no desire to train for specific events. She enjoys leisure activities and purposeful exercise that targets the goals. Choose some assessments you think merit consideration. While would you include some and not others? Are there specific assessments you might forgo, given that she is not a competitive athlete and is interested in the health-related benefits of physical activity? Why
Assessment should be conducted only after you have reviewed the preparticipation health screening and conducted the initial interview to identify important program variables based on readiness to change, stage attained, and identified goals. In this case, the client is client is interested in improving overall lifestyle and specifically targeting muscular strength and flexibility. Consider what assessment target those goals. Conducting resting measurements such as heart rate and blood pressure is useful, but it may not be necessary to conduct a full body composition assessment. You can use the first session to evaluate basic movement patterns. You might also consider evaluating core strength, muscular strength, and flexibility. The client is not interested in performance related benefits, so it is not necessary to evaluate skill related components.
A client has mastered the basics of body-weight squats and is now ready for more specific feedback to help refine her squatting techniques. Which of the following stages of learned is best represented in this scenario?
Associative
A client who is beginning to master the hip-hinge basics of a squat and is ready to receive more specific feedback so the movement can be refined and perfected is in which stage of learning?
Associative stage
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is working with a client who wants to run a 10k. which of the following conditions would most likely prohibit the client from participating in a ventilatory threshold assessment?
Asthma
Clients with cardiovascular disease, once cleared for exercise, should perform cardiorespiratory exercise on how many days of the week?
At least 3 days/week
Explain why a person exercising at high altitude will not be able to deliver as much oxygen to the working muscles and will experience a reduction in exercise intensity.
At moderate (5,000-8,000 feet) to high altitudes (8,000-14,000 feet), the relative ability (i.e., partial pressure) of oxygen in the air is reduced. Because there is less pressure to drive the oxygen molecules into the blood as it passes through the lungs, oxygen carried in the blood is reduced.
Which of the following describes the most appropriate time for a client to perform plyometric drills in a training session?
At the beginning, following a dynamic warm-up
BLANK is the underlying cause of cerebral and peripheral arterial diseases.
Atherosclerosis
Coronary artery disease is also known as:
Atherosclerotic heart disease
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is working with a new client who has had consistent exercise history. During the interview, the client explains that she enjoys all types of exercise and loves the way a workout makes her feel. Which of the following best describes this client's motivation?
Autonomous Motivation
Self-determination theory examines two types of motivation. What are they and how do they differ?
Autonomous motivation and controlled motivation. Autonomous motivation means that people feel as if they are behaving of their own free will. They are doing something because they want to do it. Controlled motivation, on the other hand, means people are doing something because they feel pressured by demands and external forces.
Jack is a 70-year-old personal-training client. He has some balance and coordination challenges. You have decided to incorporate some balance exercisers into Jack's program. However, you first need to assess Jack's balance. Knowing Jack already struggles with balance, you begin with the unipedal balance test. Describe what other assessments you might include.
Balance training is recommended for the older adult population. When assessing balance, it is important to provide a safe environment. Instead of starting with the Y balance test, it may be more prudent to begin with a simple single-leg balance test. For some individuals, it is ideal to begin by holding onto, or being near, an external stabilizer like a wall or doorframe on which to place a hand.it is also advised that the personal trainer stay close by, with hands outstretched so the client may grasp them as needed. The client may progress to holding a cane, walking stick, or dowel rod while balancing on one leg. These external supports are less stable than a wall but provide some assistance. Balancing without any external support is the next step. If the individual remains capable, the Y balance test may be modified by using an external support or can be skipped altogether if the risk is deemed unnecessary.
What type of stretching should be avoided when working with older adults?
Ballistic
BLANK: this technique is commonly used in athletic drills and in pretraining warm-ups. The bouncing movement trigger the stretch reflex and thus may be associated with an increased risk of injury.
Ballistic stretching
A client who can walk continuously for 10 minutes at a moderate intensity before needing to take a break would start in which Cardiorespiratory Training phase of the ACE IFT Model.
Base training
Any client who is not consistently performing moderate-intensity cardiorespiratory exercise should begin with:
Base training
List five advantages of using the talk test to determine exercise intensity.
Based on actual changes in ventilation due to physiological adaptions to increasing exercise intensities; very easy for practical measurement, no equipment required, can easily be taught by clients allows for personalized programming.
According to current exercise guidelines, pregnant women who have not been physically active before should:
Begin slowly and progress to a moderate level of exercise
Cardiorespiratory exercise in the fitness training phases includes training at which intensities?
Below, at, and above VT2 to just below VT2
Standing up from a chair is an example of which primary movement?
Bend-and-lift
Five primary movements
Bend-and-lift, single-leg, pushing, pulling, rotation
Which of the following responses lists the five movement patterns to be introduced when working with clients to develop movement efficiency?
Bend-and-lift, single-leg, pushing, pulling, rotation
Which of the following assessments may incorrectly categorize extremely muscular individuals?
Body mass index
Which of the following exercises best represents a closed-kinetic chain movement?
Body-weight squat
Muscular training is the most effective means for young people to build:
Bone density
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer working with a client makes the following statement: "You want to make these changes to manage your blood pressure, avoid medication, and improve your quality of life. What obstacles do you think might get in the way of these goals?" Which of the following best identifies the approach the personal trainer is taking?
Breaking down barriers
A client has been released from physical therapy for shoulder impingement and is now working with an ACE Certified Personal Trainer. Which course of action would be most appropriate for the personal trainer to take?
Build on the work done in physical therapy.
Which of the following is not part of the knowledge, skills, and abilities assessed by the ACE exam?
Building nutritional plans
Which of the following is the most important factor for personal trainers to focus on to create a client-centered approach to personal training?
Building rapport
Which of the following is the best course of action for a client suspected of having a bone fracture in the leg?
Call EMS
A client's vehicles in the repair shop and he is requesting a ride from the ACE Certified Personal Trainer. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?
Call the automobile insurance company to inquire if coverage for their client regarding injuries/accidents are covered.
The ACE IFT Model includes two training components:
Cardiorespiratory training and muscular training.
Clients with arthritis are at increased risk for which of the following conditions?
Cardiovascular disease
What muscles would you suspect are right in a client with a forward head position?
Cervical extensors
From the side view of a standing row assessment, the ACE Certified Personal Trainer notices the client's head migrates forward. Which of the following muscles are most likely underactive?
Cervical spine extensors
Key Guideline 4: shift to healthier food and beverage choices.
Choose nutrient-dense foods and beverages across and within all food groups in place of less healthy choices. Consider cultural and personal preferences to make these shifts easier to accomplish and maintain.
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is working with a client whose injury fails to progress through the stages of healing, and acute inflammation is present for months. Which of the following best categorizes this injury?
Chronic
Noncommunicable diseases are referred to as:
Chronic diseases
If a client has extreme obesity, somebody-composition assessment approaches will be inaccurate. In such cases, a practical approach a personal trainer can take is to use BMI or BLANK.
Circumference measurements
Describe the procedure you would follow if assessing a client's resting heart rate.
Clients should be resting comfortably for several minutes or more in a quiet, restful environment before obtaining resting heart rate. Resting heart rate may be measured indirectly by placing the fingertips on the pulse site or directly by listening through a Tessa scope. Place the tips of the index and middle fingers over the artery and lightly apply pressure period to determine resting heart rate, count the number of beats for 30 or 60 seconds and then correct that score to be permanent. When measuring by auscultation placed the Bell of the stethoscope to the left of the client's sternum just above or below the nipple line.
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is planning to include high intensity activities within a client's muscular training program. During which of the exercise session should the high-intensity activities be performed?
Close to the beginning of the conditioning portion when the client is less likely to be fatigued.
How are cognitive and behavioral processes of change different?
Cognitive processes result in new ways of thinking and reinforce a client's motivation to change. Behavioral processes, on the other hand, involve action-oriented learning where clients experience the behaviors and adopt those that work for them.
In which stage of learning should a personal trainer implement the "tell, show, do" teaching technique?
Cognitive stage
A client has informed their ACE Certified Personal Trainer that he will be going on vacation for three weeks. Which of the following would be most appropriate to reduce the risk of the client experiencing a lapse in his program?
Collaborate with the client to plan for a lapse before it happens
What assessments are essential according to the ACE IFT Model and should be completed prior to a client beginning an exercise program?
Collecting health-history data to identify limitations for exercise and the need for referral.
Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) represents:
Common daily activities such as walking, standing, and fidgeting
During a training session, a client incurs an injury, receives first aid, and is safe. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step for an ACE Certified Personal Trainer?
Complete an incident report
Which of the following is within the scope of practice for the ACE Certified Personal Trainers?
Conducting fitness assessments and health screens to identify exercise limitations.
Which of the following is MOST likely to create a barrier to fitness-related behavioral change for some clients?
Conducting initial comprehensive assessments of fitness and body composition.
Key Guideline 3: limit calories from added sugars and saturated fats and reduce sodium intake.
Consume an eating pattern low in added sugars, saturated fats, and sodium. Cut back on foods and beverages higher in these components to amounts that fit within healthy eating patterns.
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer receives a call from an individual who is inquiring about training in the gym, which she has never done previously. She seems very apprehensive and nervous, stating that she needs to be more active but is not sure training is right for her. Based on this scenario, which of the following best represents the caller's stage of change?
Contemplation
The gentleman sitting next to you on a plane asks a number of questions about exercise, nutrition, and health. He says that he does not currently exercise, but he has been thinking about joining a gym and asks you for recommendations. Based on this information, this gentleman is most likely in which of the following stages of behavioral change?
Contemplation
One property that all muscle tissue has in common is its ability to:
Contract
Which of the following nutritional supplements is the most effective supplement available to fitness enthusiasts to increase high-intensity exercise performance and muscle mass?
Creatine
Which of the following is outside the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope of practice?
Creating an individualized nutritional program with specific meal plans based on physician recommendations.
Because past performance experience is a critical source of self-efficacy, and what should eat early experience focus?
Creating success and building confidence
Individuals with hypertension are advised to follow the BLANK eating plan.
DASH
Which of the following eating plans is recommended to optimize health and decrease blood pressure in individuals with hypertension?
DASH eating plan
What are the ACOG recommendations for a woman to resume exercise after delivery?
Daily activity of 20-30 minutes
Describe the decisional balance.
Decisional balance refers to the evaluation of pros and cons about adopting and/or maintain an activity program.
Describe the typical physiological changes the body undergoes due to aging.
Decline in fitness levels, loss of height, reduced lean body mass, loss of skin elasticity, slow healing, changed in eyesight, and reduced coordination. Additionally, there are noticeable changes in the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and muscoskeletal systems.
Which of the following strategies is not one of the four interconnected components comprising the spirit of motivational interviewing?
Dependence
As people age, BLANK and BLANK increase.
Depression; anxiety
Which of the following is within the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope or practice regarding training clients with weight-loss goals?
Designing exercise programs that lead to increased energy expenditure and positive changes in body composition
Which of the following is a factor identified as an important risk modulator of exercise-related cardiovascular events?
Desired intensity level
Upon what foundational element is the ACE IFT Model built?
Developing rapport
Which of the following puts children at greater risk of health-related illnesses compared to adults?
Diminished sweating capacity
Jack, a personal-training client, has participated in regular exercise for 10 years. In his last session, jack complained of shortness of breath upon mild exertion, as well as dizziness. According to the algorithm, how would you respond?
Discontinue exercise and consult with a qualified medical professional. Jack may return to regular exercise following medical clearance.
During an initial exercise session, a client presents with symptoms of dizziness and mentions this occasionally occurs during workouts. Which would be the most appropriate action by an ACE Certified Personal trainer?
Discontinue exercise and have the client seek a qualified healthcare provider's clearance.
A client has soreness after a weekend tennis tournament. Which of the following is an appropriate action that is within the scope of practice for ACE Certified Personal Trainers?
Discuss proper techniques for stretching the affected muscles.
Which of the following antihypertensive medications increased the excretion of water and electrolytes trough the kidneys?
Diuretics
Benefits gained from exercise and physical activity are:
Dose-related
Exercise BLANK is the most appropriate variable to manipulate initially when progressing a program.
Duration
BLANK: this technique mimics movement patterns to be used in the upcoming workout or sporting event. It is commonly used to help athletes prepare for competition by allowing them to increase sport-specific flexibility.
Dynamic stretching
Dyslipidemia
Dyslipidemia is defined as undesirable levels of lipids in the body.
Which of the following is best defined as shortness of breath at rest or with mild exertion?
Dyspnea
120/78
Elevated
During the investigation stage, which of the following statements best describes active listening?
Empathetically listening to a client while maintain an open mind and trying to put yourself in the client's shoes.
A client who is cleared to exercise following physical therapy is hesitant to work out and claims she is feeling pain during the exercise session. Which of the following would be the best approach to take with this client?
Empathize with the client, identify the level of pain, and explain that you can offer exercise modifications that would provide a pain-free experience.
Cardiorespiratory training- Hypertension type
Emphasis should be placed on rhythmic, large-muscle-group activities (e.g., walk, jogging, cycling, and swimming).
Which of the following would be contraindicated for a client who has an acute muscular strain?
Encouraging the client to push through the pain
List the major factors that contribute to obesity.
Environment, genetic predisposition, and human behavior
Which of the following is necessary for hormone production, cushioning of vital organs, and maintenance of certain body functions?
Essential body fat
Breaks from sitting should take place:
Every 60 to 120 minutes
Key Guideline 5: support healthy eating patterns for all.
Everyone has a role in helping create and support healthy eating patterns in multiple settings nationwide, from home to school to work to communities.
The Physical Activity Guidelines suggest that BLANK is essential when making a lifestyle change because it increased the caloric deficit to speed weight loss and is crucial for maintaining weight loss.
Exercise
Describe each progression after an injury.
Exercise progression must always be conservative when working with individuals recovering from a musculoskeletal injury. It is common for personal trainers to conduct sessions with clients whose injuries are in the repair and modeling phase. It is essential that personal trainers stay in contact with the client's physician or physical therapist to obtain recommendations for contraindicated movements and recommended return-to-activity protocols. If a client asks about an injury, the personal trainer should refer him or her to an appropriate healthcare provider. With most common injuries, personal trainers can continue to move clients toward their physical activity goals. At the same time, it is essential to understand that pain at the injury site marks a stopping point for exercise.
Functional training focuses on core and balance exercises that improve the strength and function of the muscles that stabilize the spine and center of gravity during static positions and dynamic movements. You have a client who has progressed from the Movement Training phase to the Load/Speed Training phase. List ways you could still incorporate Functional training exercises in this phase. Where in a session might you add them? Why?
Exercises for Functional Training use primarily body-weight resistance. As clients progress to Movement Training and Load/Speed Training. It is important to still include Functional Training exercises in their workouts. These can be included as part of either the warm-up or cool-down, or by incorporating progressions that increase the challenge of the Functional Training exercise by increasing the resistance or balance challenges.
For the past two months, a client has been following his healthcare provider's exercise guidelines of 30 minutes of indoor cycling at a rating of perceived exertion of 8 (on the 6 to 20 scale), followed by mild stretching. The client has asked the ACE Certified Personal Trainer to add the elliptical machine to incorporate upper-body movements. Which would be the most appropriate response?
Explain that, for his safety, a new medical release would be necessary to incorporate additional exercise.
Your new client is a 47-year-old woman who wants to lose weight but is a bit apprehensive about muscular training because she does not want to "get big". Based on this information what response would best facilitate muscular-training program adherence and motivation?
Explain the average adult muscle tissue loss of 5 lb. per decade, and how resistance training can help her restore muscle and raise resting metabolism.
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer's client states she is interested in using an over-the-counter diuretic for rapid weight loss. Which of the following would be the most appropriate response?
Explain the dangers of using such a product
Which of the following is the most appropriate way for an ACE Certified Personal Trainer to introduce a new exercise to a client?
Explain the exercise, then demonstrate it before having the client perform the exercise
Which of the following is the primary biological purpose of the hormone leptin?
Facilitate energy intake when energy storage is too low.
T/F: if an individual has purchased a gym membership and personal-training sessions, this is a good indication that he or she is committed to making lasting behavior changes.
False
T/F: it is crucial that all personal-training clients be assessed using a comprehensive assessment protocol.
False
True or false: personal trainers can prescribe dietary supplements to clients interested in improving performance.
False
Which of the following claims is allowed on the packaging of a dietary supplement according to the regulatory requirements set forth by the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA) of 1994?
Fiber maintains bowel regularity
When a client can consistently perform moderate-intensity physical activity for 20 minutes or more on at least three days per week, he or she should be training on which cardiorespiratory phase of the ACE IFT Model?
Fitness Training
A regular group exercise participant who works at a moderate intensity for 20 to 30 minutes, three times per week, and with no competitive goals is ready to progress to which phase of the Cardiorespiratory Training component of the ACE IFT Model?
Fitness training
Cardiorespiratory interval training is typically introduced during which stage of training?
Fitness training
Extension is the opposite joint action of:
Flexion
Which of the following actions occurs in the sagittal plane?
Flexion
The four angular movements defined for synovial joints are:
Flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction
Which of the following is a primary characteristic of functional training for muscular fitness?
Focus on establishing/reestablishing postural stability and kinetic chain mobility
Anatomical position feres to a person standing erect with head, eyes, and palms facing:
Forward
Which of the following would be recommended muscular-training program for a client with osteoarthritis?
Frequency: 2-3 days/week, Intensity: 50-80% of 1-RM, Time 2-4 sets of 8-12 exercises.
A client who has problems performing activities of daily living would benefit most from improving which of the following?
Functional movements
In what phase of the Muscular Training component of the ACE IFT Model would a person be categorized if he has lumbar lordosis and limited range of motion in the hips and shoulders?
Functional training
When working with a client who has a history of plantar fasciitis, it would be most important to include stretching exercises for the:
Gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantar fascia
it is ACE's position that personal trainers can and should share what type of nutrition information with their clients?
General nonmedical nutrition information
During the concentric portion of a seated leg extension, which muscle group is performing as the antagonist?
Hamstrings
A rating of perceived exertion (RPE) of 5 to 6 on the 0 to 10 scale equates to what RPE terminology?
Hard
Which of the following would be the most credible source for providing a client with nutrition information?
Harvard University's Healthy Eating Plate
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer begins working with a new client who has obesity and is apprehensive about beginning an exercise program. Which of the following approaches would be most effective in helping the client achieve early success in this first session?
Have the client perform exercises that provide the trainer with basic feedback about the client's current movement abilities and fitness.
Which of the following is the easiest method for monitoring exercise intensity for clients who are not already consistently performing cardiorespiratory exercise?
Have the client perform the talk test
Which of the following most effective in helping a client develop program adherence?
Having the client self-monitor by keeping an exercise journal.
·Which behavioral theory states that at least four variables influence a person's decision to change?
Health belief model
BLANK is a valid indicator of work intensity or stress on the body during exercise.
Heart rate
Cardiac output is the product of BLANK and BLANK. It is the quantity of blood pumped per heartbeat.
Heart rate; stroke volume
After a warm outdoor training session with a client, which of the following signs or symptoms would most likely suggest heat stroke and require medical attention?
Heat, dry skin and rapid, strong pulse
The primary emphasis for a personal trainer during Base Training is to:
Help clients have positive experiences with exercise
The greatest impact personal trainers can regularly have on the lives of their clients is to:
Help clients positively change health-related behaviors and establish positive relationships.
Which of the following is within the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope of practice?
Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices.
A nutrition fact label states that one serving of the product contains 3,300 mg of sodium. Which of the following best categorizes this product's sodium content?
High
For what conditions are diuretics usually prescriber?
High blood pressure
Discuss why children might be at a greater risk of heart-related illnesses than adults. What makes this demographic unique?
Higher ratio of body surface area to mass, lower exercise economy, diminished sweating capacity, and lower cardiac output at a similar workload.
The Thomas test is used to assess:
Hip flexor length
Anterior tilting of the pelvis frequently occurs in individuals with tight:
Hip flexors
The most important modifiable risk factor for stroke is:
Hypertension
Tightness in which of the following structures can be a cause of patellofemoral pain syndrome due to its lateral fascial connections to the patella?
IT band
Which of the following is a known health benefit associated with physical activity for adults and other adults?
Improved sleep
Discuss the contributing factors that have resulted in a decline in physical activity for youth.
In most of the US, youth have been negatively impacted by the decline in physical-activity requirements in schools. Around the globe, this is coupled with an increase in sedentary recreational activities like viewing social media and streaming video, computer gaming, and watching television.
Green exercise refers to exercise conducted:
In natural environments
Compare a directing style of communication with a guiding style. What are the primary differences? Is one more effective for helping clients explore their ambivalence toward change?
In the common directing style of communication, the personal trainer takes charge of the conversation and advises a client on what to do, telling him or her how to best proceed by offering advice and specific direction. In contrast, motivational interviewing employs a guiding style of communication in which the personal trainer encourages, supports, and assists the client in the process of change. Motivational interviewing emphasizes establishing rapport, reducing resistance, and eliciting a client's own argument for change, or change talk. The aims of the process are to support people as they resolve their ambivalence toward behavior change, decide to make a change, and then preserve with the new behavior. Miller and Rollnick note that confrontational, forceful, guilt-ridden, and authoritarian approaches are contraindicated in motivational interviewing.
Muscle imbalances and postural deviations can be attributed to many factors (correctible and non-correctible). Describe these factors as if you were explaining them to a client: non-correctible factors
Include congenital conditions, like scoliosis; some pathologies, like rheumatoid arthritis; structural deviations; and certain types of trauma, like surgery, injury, or amputation.
Muscle imbalances and postural deviations can be attributed to many factors (correctible and non-correctible). Describe these factors as if you were explaining them to a client: correctible factors
Include repetitive movements (muscular pattern overload), awkward positions and movements (habitual poor posture), side dominance, lack of joint stability, lack of joint mobility, and an imbalanced strength-training program.
Which of the following would best motivate a client for long-term program adherence?
Including process goals like completing an exercise workout, in addition to performance goals.
An Ace Certified Personal Trainer is working with a client who has recently transitioned into the action stage. Which of the following strategies is most appropriate for the trainer to use?
Increase awareness of inevitable lapses and bolster self-efficacy in coping with lapses
Which of the following best explains why a client who is a marathon runner has experienced a reduced heart rate at the same running speed that previously produced a higher heart rate?
Increased cardiac output
List some benefits of muscular training
Increased physical activity, enhanced metabolic function, reduced injury risk, and disease prevention.
List three signs of the overtraining syndrome.
Increased resting heart rate, disturbed sleep, and decreased hunger on multiple days.
The fitness training phase involves:
Increasing the time of the exercise
The role of personal trainers has changed over time. Explain what factors have contributed to the change and in what ways the role has changed.
Initially, the role of personal trainers was primarily focused on working with fitness enthusiasts in traditional fitness facilities. The role has changed due to the increasing number of adults and children who have overweight or obesity, are insufficiently physically active, and have related health uses stemming from physical inactivity. Personal trainers must now be prepared to work with clients ranging in age from youth to older adults and ranging in health and fitness statis from physically inactive to athletic.
Compare acute and chronic injuries. How are they different? What are some signs of chronic conditions?
Injuries may occur in an instant or manifest progressively over time. An acute injury has an onset that may identified by a single instance. For example, the popping sensation of a torn ligament or the breaking of a bone indicates the occurrence of an acute injury. On the other hand, a chronic injury or condition is one with an onset that is hard to pinpoint. For example, low-back pain that is consistent for more than six months is a chronic injury and osteoarthritis of the knee is a chronic condition that often takes several years to develop. When an injury fails to progress through the stages of healing and acute inflammation is present for months, the condition is termed chronic. Often, chronic injury can be avoided by proper care of an acute injury, as continued microtrauma to an area may result in a chronic condition.
The most difficult variable of an exercise program to represent quantitatively is:
Intensity
When increased too much or too soon, which of the following factors most increases the risk of potential musculoskeletal injury in a client with overweight or obesity?
Intensity
Which of the following statements about body mass index is most accurate?
It is associated with health, morbidity, and mortality
Which of the following is most likely to increase intrinsic motivation for exercise participation?
Joining a neighborhood walking group
An increase in the hormone relaxin will increase:
Joint laxity
Which of the following types of exercise would be contraindicated for a client with overweight or obesity?
Jumping
Which of the following if most effective when setting goals with a client?
Keep the number of goals manageable and attainable
Don't look down.
Keep your eyes looking directly in front of you.
Which of the following represents the best practice for client exercise record-keeping?
Keeping an updated exercise log in the client's files with specific notations for progress, program changes, or injuries.
A client mentions that he prefers tactile feedback and spotting while exercising. This strategy is most likely indicative of which learning style.
Kinesthetic
A client is experiencing a "collapsing" of the low back during a shoulder push stabilization. Which of the following is most likely causing the compensation?
Lack of abdominal strength
Which of the following is a correctible factor for a client whose assessment identifies muscular imbalances and postural deviations?
Lack of joint stability
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, which of the following is a key risk factor for chronic disease?
Lack of physical activity.
For a client returning to training after an ankle sprain, which of the following exercises should be used with caution?
Lateral shuffles
Which of the following forms collects more detailed medical and health information beyond the pre-participation health screening?
Lifestyle and health-history questionnaire
BLANK is the most important factor for sustainable weight-loss success.
Lifestyle change
Discuss how lifecycle factors and lifestyle factors are interrelated.
Lifestyle factors disrupt natural human development along the lifecycle, which results in individuals regressing doing the function-health-fitness-performance continuum.
Pharmacotherapy should be used in conjunction with:
Lifestyle intervention
Beta blockers block beta-adrenergic receptors and:
Limit sympathetic nervous system stimulation
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is developing a program for a client in her third micro cycle. The program consists of alternating days of exercise of the following workloads: o Session 1: 180 lb. x 4 reps o Session 2: 180 lb. x 4 reps o Session 3: 180 lbs. x 4 reps Which of the following is the best description of this training program?
Linear periodization
List the movement pattern progressions for plyometric exercises.
Linear-forward, lateral, backpedal, rotational, crossover/cutting curving
Strength training, body building, and training for muscular endurance all fall under which Muscular Training phase of the ACE IFT Model?
Load/speed training
An anterior pelvic tilt increase BLANK in the lumbar spine.
Lordosis
Which of the following will most likely be a result of an anterior pelvic tilt?
Lordosis
Adults who do not perform muscular training will typically see which of the following muscular tissue responses as they age?
Loss of 5 lbs. per decade
After conducting the McGill's torso muscular endurance test battery, an ACE Certified Personal Trainer notes a client's demonstrated deficiencies in these core functional assessments. Which of the following types of exercises would have the most benefit?
Low-back stabilization exercises
Calcium channel blockers:
Lower blood pressure
The body-weight squat assessment evaluates:
Lower-extremity muscular endurance
Which of the following best represents a benefit of the DASH eating plan?
Lowers systolic blood pressure by 5 to 6 mmHg
A client has recently lost a significantly amount of weight and is looking for recommendations for maintaining the weight loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation?
Maintain a food diary, record exercise activity, and monitor weight
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is working with a long-term client who is in the maintenance stage of change. Which of the following goals would be best for this client?
Maintain interest and reduce risk for boredom
During a personal trainer session, a client mentions feeling depressed due to problems in his marriage. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for an ACE Certified Personal Trainer?
Maintain the client's confidentially and listen with empathy.
A new client tells you that she used to participate in local 10K and half marathon running events before having twins. Although she had wanted to continue running, she has not been active since her children were born two years ago. Now that they are in daycare three days per week, she has begun walking a bit and wants to begin running, with an eventful goal of completing her first marathon. Based on this information, your client has most likely progressed through which of the following stages of behavior change from pre-pregnancy to meeting with you today?
Maintenance, contemplation, preparation
Which of the following describes a way an ACE Certified personal trainer can have a positive impact on a child's perception of exercise?
Make the activities fun
Which of the following is the best example of a process goal?
Making it to the fitness facility three times a week
Which of the following assessments would most likely be contraindicated for a client with low-back pain?
McGill's torso test battery
Which of the following techniques would provide the most accurate true resting heart rate?
Measure in the morning before rising from bed
Which nerve is commonly compressed due to carpal tunnel syndrome?
Median nerve
Which document includes a client's medical information and explains physical activity limitations and/or guidelines as outlined by his or her healthcare provider?
Medical Release
Mike has been a personal-training client for several years. He has performed planned, structure physical activity for at least 30 minutes on at least three days per week at a moderate intensity for the past year. However, he has an interest in adding two sessions of vigorous-intensity exercise to his weekly routine. He has a known history of diabetes. What would your next step be before having Mike engage in vigorous intensity exercise?
Medical clearance is recommended before engaging in vigorous-intensity exercise.
Sarah is a new personal-training client who does not currently participate in regular exercise and has type 2 diabetes. Is medical clearance recommended before initiating an exercise program?
Medical clearance is recommended, as she has a known metabolic condition.
Progression
Methods for optimal progression are not known.
Which of the following exercises best demonstrates isometric action?
Modified v-sit
It is recommended that clients with hypertension participate in cardiorespiratory exercise on:
Most, but preferably all, days of the week.
Cardiorespiratory training- Hypertension frequency
Most, but preferably all, days of this week
A training program for you should include:
Movement in all three planes of motion
Describe the typical structural changes the body undergoes due to aging.
Muscle mass declines, reduced muscular strength and endurance, bones become more fragile and porous, and body fat increases.
A new client provided a sample of a pervious workout that included 3 sets of 5 reps with a weight load of 90% of 1-RM and a rest interval of 2-5 minutes. This sample exercise plan is most likely to indicate the client had which of the following training goals?
Muscular strength
116/74
Normal
In your own words, explain why sequencing assessments properly is important.
Not all clients need or desire a full fitness assessment. Each client will come up with a unique set of goals, likes, dislikes, and skills. This should be considered when selecting and sequencing the assessments.
You have a client with asthma. How would you educate this client about how nutrition affects this condition? What information could you share?
Nutrition influences asthma in several ways. For example, dietary habits that result in overweight increase the risk of developing asthma. Obesity is associated with severity and frequency of asthma attacks. Food allergies are another possible problem as they increase inflammation and asthma attacks. Low intakes of fruits and vegetables, certain minerals, omega-3 fatty acids and omega-6 fatty acids, and vitamins B, C, and E may also influence asthma attacks. Self-test
When working with clients who have been refereed by their physicians for exercise programming, which of the following steps would be most important for the personal trainer to take?
Obtain written permission from the client prior to communicating with the referring physician.
Which of the following is within the personal trainer's scope of practice?
Offering grocery store tours
Which of the following would be outside the scope of practice for ACE Certified Personal Trainers?
Offering solutions to a client who exhibits signs of depression that impact exercise adherence.
Outline the evidence-based facts that describe why the belief that losing weight is simply a matter if "calories in versus calories out" is not accurate. In other words, how would you explain that process of weight loss to a client?
Often, overweight and obesity are described simplistically as the result of an imbalance between calories consumer (energy intake or EI) and calories expended (energy expenditure or EE). An increased EI, without an equal increase in EE, leads to an increase in weight. Similarly, decreased EE with no change in EI will also result in an energy imbalance and lead to weight gain. While these are contributing variables, obesity is a multifractional disease involving complex interplay among environmental, behavioral, genetic, and hormonal factors.
Current guidelines recommend physical activity be performed:
On most days of the week
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is incorporating supersets into a client's program. Which of the following would be most appropriate to include in the program?
Overhead press followed by push-ups and chin-ups without rest periods.
A long-standing client has significantly increased their exercise frequency and intensity to break through a recent plateau. Over the past week, their resting heart rate was averaged 78 beats per minute compared to their typical 70 beats per minute. Which of the following might best explain this increase?
Overtraining syndrome
Peripheral artery disease
PAD results from atherosclerosis of the arteries of the lower extremities. The most common sites for lower-extremity lesions include the abdominal aorta and the iliac, femoral, popliteal, and tibial arteries. Because there is narrowing of the arteries, blood flow distal to the lesion is reduced, significantly impacting the ability to walk. In general, the higher the lesion and the greater for narrowing, the greater the area that will be affected and the shorter the distance that a person can walk
Identify the six sources of self-efficacy.
Past performance experience, vicarious experience, verbal persuasion, physiological state appraisals, emotional state and mood appraisals, and/or imaginal experiences.
Which of the following will most strongly influence a client's current self-efficacy levels?
Past performance experiences
Which of the following muscles serve as the primary mover in a bench press exercise?
Pectoralis major
During the initial interview with a new client, you learn the client's desire to exercise regularly was based on the results of a recent medical exam revealing stage 1 hypertension, dyslipidemia, and a family history of cardiovascular disease. Based on this information, the client's motivation to exercise of most likely associated with which of the following components of behavioral change?
Perceived seriousness
According to the health belief model, which of the following refers to people's perceptions of how likely they are to develop an illness?
Perceived susceptibility
What are the four variables that influence a person's decision to change in the behavioral theory mentioned in question1?
Perceived susceptibility to an illness, perceived seriousness of the illness, beliefs about benefits of changing, and beliefs about barriers to change.
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is working with a client who has a bench press rep rang of 12-15. The client had been consistently bench pressing 175 pounds for 12 reps and can now complete 15 reps at the same weight. Utilizing the double-progression training protocol, which of the following would be most appropriate progression?
Perform 12 reps of 185 pounds
The risk of exercise-related acute myocardial infarction and sudden cardiac death is highest among individuals with underlying cardiovascular disease who:
Perform a level of physical activity to which they are not accustomed.
Anaerobic power is typically performed during which of the following stages of training?
Performance training
During which phase of the Cardiorespiratory Training component of the ACE IFT Model will intervals be introduced at intensities at and above the VT2 heart rate?
Performance training
Which of the following is an important consideration prior to starting a sports-conditioning session with a client?
Performing a specific low-intensity warm-up incorporating movements to be used during the conditioning segment of the workout
Becky, a personal-training client, is having a difficult time dealing with some emotional stress on the day of a scheduled training session. She arrives and confides to you that she's learned her best friend was diagnosed with cancer. You respond by stating: "let me give you the number to a counselor I know, I think she can really help you." Examine this response and decide if it was the best way to respond to Becky's situation. How might you respond differently to this difficult disclosure?
Personal trainers are sometimes unsure of how to respond when clients share information that is very sad, such as a disclosure of a client's serious illness or the illness or death of someone close to the client. Often, a short response is all that is required, such as "I am so sorry," "that must have been very hard," or "I can only imagine how difficult that must have been for you and your family." You should follow the client's lead as to whether he or she wants to say anything more on a topic or not. If the situation affects exercise program design in any way, the personal trainer can turn the conversation back to the practical details.
Describe how personal trainers can apply the ACE Mover Method.
Personal trainers can apply the ACE Mover Method through use of the ACE ABC Approach, which includes asking open ended questions, breaking down barriers, and collaborating with clients.
Time is an environment factor that influences program adherence. Many individuals struggle to balance the many demands they face and, therefore, perceive a lack of time to devote to physical activity. Offer three simple stratifies you can use to help a client reframe his or her thinking related to time. How can you encourage time-efficient activities? How might you coach your client toward lifestyle balance?
Personal trainers may encourage their clients to change their perception of time availability through the use of goal setting, time management, and prioritizing. Further, personal trainers should consider implementing time-efficient exercise sessions or collaborating with clients about opportunities to be physical active throughout their day. If a client considers health and physical activity to be top priorities, it is likely that he or she will find the time to be active.
What is the most appropriate way to approach a situation in which a personal trainer needs to touch a client when explaining or spotting an exercise? What might be the consequence if a personal trainer does not remain cognizant of this boundary?
Personal trainers should discuss their training methods early in the client-trainer relationship, explain the purpose of any physical contact, and ask clients for permission for this type of contact. If the personal trainer does not remain cognizant of this boundary, he or she risks making the client feel uncomfortable or violated in some way.
Discuss your approach if you are working with a client with obesity who does not see an initial drop in weight loss in the first few weeks (but does not gain weight either). How might you empower the client to see the positive and celebrate the win?
Personal trainers should discuss with clients that a weight loss of 5 to 10% in people with overweight and obesity has been shown to significantly improve health-related outcomes of obesity-related comorbidities, including preventing and managing type 2 diabetes and improving abnormal lipids, high blood pressure, osteoarthritis, stress incontinence, and gastroesophageal reflux disease.
Describe the principles of programming for youth that you would need to consider helping a client remain engaged with the program and avoid injury and burnout.
Personal trainers should remember the principles of periodization when programming for youth clients, as they can be applied to children involved with organized sport. Professional and Olympic athletes do not compete year-round, but instead vary their routines to increase performance and minimize the risk of injury. Youth should do the same. A program that includes fun, playful movements is often engaging, even for older teens. Vary the equipment to keep the workout fun, while maintaining attention to detailed and varied program design. A training program for youth should include movement in all three planes of motion and use different pieces of equipment throughout the workout. Exercises should be selected for their benefits to balance, coordination, muscle, and bone strengthening, as well as for their fun and engaging nature.
Which of the following pre-participation screening tools was designed with the primary goal of reducing unnecessary barriers to exercise?
Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire for Everyone (PAR+Q)
Which of the following strategies would be most likely to enhance a client's willpower?
Planning in advance for moments of weak self-control
Which of the following is not an environmental factor that contributes to obesity?
Pollution
It is estimated that reducing which three risk factors would dramatically reduce the incidence of chronic disease?
Poor diet, physical inactivity, and smoking
According to the principle of operant condition, which of the following consequences would be best for a personal trainer to use to ensure that a desired client behavior will reoccur in the future?
Positive reinforcement
A focus early in the pregnancy on BLANK can help ready the body for the increased weight and change in the center of gravity.
Posterior leg and trunk length
Which of the following should be the focus of a training program performed early in a pregnancy when designing a program for a pregnant woman?
Posterior leg and trunk strength
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is working with a client who is pregnant and cleared to exercise. During a recent exercise session, she complained of persistent calf pain and cramping. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?
Postpone the exercise session, document the incident, and have the client go to the doctor's
Muscular training- Hypertension progression
Progress following the ACE IFT based on client goals and availability
Muscular training- Diabetes progression
Progress following the ACE IFT model based on client goals and availability.
Cardiorespiratory training- Diabetes progression
Progress the following the ACE IFT Model based on client goals and availability.
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer's client has travelled to the mountains for a ski vacation and reports experiencing signs and symptoms of altitude sickness. Which of the following would be most appropriate for the client to become accustomed to exercising at a higher altitude?
Prolonged warm-up and cool-down
Describe three ways, you as a personal trainer, can create an environment in which the basic physiological needs of your client are met?
Promoting relatedness, promotion competence, and promoting autonomy.
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is facilitating a stretching session with a client. The client performs a passive 10 second pre-stretch, then pushes against the force provided by the personal trainer. Which of the following best identifies this type of stretching?
Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
BLANK: originally developed and used to treat increased tissue tonicity in the rehabilitation setting, this technique capitalizes on the principles of autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition. There are three basic techniques used: hold-relax, contract-relax, and hold-relax with agonist contraction.
Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
The primary purpose of professional certifications is to:
Protect the public from harm by assessing if candidates meet established levels of minimum competence.
BLANK may be used for energy if a person eats an insufficient number of calories.
Proteins
In the initial interview, a new client reveals that he or she would like information on basic nutrition. As an ACE Certified Personal Trainer, which of the following would be the most appropriate action?
Provide a handout with the MyPlate recommendations and a link to the website.
When assessing balance in older adults, it is important for the personal trainer to:
Provide a safe environment
Jim comes to a workout session with a flyer for a muscle-building supplement. He is excited about the claims and feels it might be right for him, as he perceives his muscle-building progress to be slow. You tell him that supplements are no good and that he should avoid them at all costs. You throw the flyer in the trash and proceed to lead Jim through his workout session. Analyze this response and describe how you would address this topic with a client. What would you do differently? Discuss how you could better educate the client about dietary supplements.
Provide evidence-based educational resources on the effectiveness of supplements. This will ensure that the client is able to make an informed decision and fully understand how the consumption of dietary supplements can impact his overall health, performance, and training. Further, provide Jim with a list of credible sources such as www.fda.gov or www.ods.od.nih.gov
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer has been training a client for six months. The client washes to increase muscle size and asks the personal trainer about recommended supplements to take. Which of the following actions in the most appropriate?
Provide the client with evidence-based educational resources on the use of supplements
A client is expressing interest in learning more about nutrition. Which of the following is within the ACE Certified Personal Trainer's scope of practice?
Provide the client with the Dietary Guidelines for Americans
During a squat pattern assessment, the ACE Certified Personal Trainer observes the client is driving the knees forward during the descent of the squat. Which of the following is most likely causing this compensation?
Quadriceps dominance
Resting heart rate is affected by a number of factors. List those factors.
RHR is influenced by many factors, including fitness, fatigue, genetics, body composition, drugs and medication, alcohol, caffeine, and stress.
The common sites for measuring the pulse are:
Radial and carotid arteries
Which of the following should be developed early in the client-personal trainer relationship in order to build a strong foundation?
Rapport
Identify the stages of the client-personal trainer relationship.
Rapport, investigation, planning, and action.
If a client is on a beta blocker, the best way to monitor exercise intensity is to use:
Rating of perceived exertion
BLANK is a subjective method of measuring exercise intensity.
Rating of perceiver exertion
Describe the principle of reciprocal inhibition.
Reciprocal inhibition is the principle stating that activation of a muscle on one side of a joint (i.e., the agonist) coincides with neural inhibition of the opposing muscle on the other side of the joint (i.e., the antagonist) to facilitate movement.
The level of intake of a nutrient that is adequate to meet the known needs of a practically all healthy persons is referred to as the:
Recommend Dietary Allowance (RDA)
The American Dietic Association's caloric deficit recommendations is to:
Reduce fat/ and or carbs to obtain a deficit of 500 to 1,000 kcal/day
Which of the following best describes the result of muscle mass decline in older adults?
Reduced muscular strength
Which of the following is a known health benefit associated with physical activity for children and adolescents?
Reduced risk of depression
The PAR-Q+ is evidence-based and was developed with a goal of:
Reducing unnecessary barriers to exercise
A client asks on ACE Certified Personal Trainer to give her an eating plan designed after a diet she found on the internet. What would be the most appropriate action for the personal trainer?
Refer the client to a registered dietitian or other qualified healthcare professional
The repair phase consists of both repair and BLANK of tissue.
Regeneration
During an initial consultation with a client, an ACE Certified Personal Trainer is taking steps to establish rapport. This best represents which element of the self-determination theory?
Relatedness
In general, a pre-exercise or pre-workout meal or snack should be:
Relatively low in fat and fiber and moderate in protein
Don't hold your breath.
Remember to breathe.
Don't arch your back.
Remember to keep your back in a long straight line.
You keep dropping your hips.
Remember to keep your hips elevated. Tighten the core and squeeze the glutes.
You're not keeping your shoulders back.
Remember to keep your shoulder blade muscles engaged. Think about pinching a pencil between your shoulder blades.
The preparticipation guidelines from the American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) are designed to:
Remove any unnecessary barriers to becoming more physically active.
During which stage of healing should an ACE Certified Personal Trainer suggest gentile, pain-free movement?
Repair
What are some considerations when using metabolic equivalents (METs) to measure intensity?
Requires measured VO2 max for most accurate programming; limited in programming by knowledge of METs for given activities; relative MET ranges for programming are population-specific and not individually specific.
Which of the following resources would be most appropriate for an ACE Certified Personal Trainer to utilize when providing dietary advice for clients?
Resources developed or endorsed by the Federal Government.
The standard practice for acute injury treatment is RICE, which stands for what?
Rest or restricted activity; ice; compression; elevation
Which of the following training principle refers to loss of muscle strength due to termination of a regular muscular training program?
Reversibility
Identify factors to consider when programming exercise for the following types of clients: Pregnant
Risk of preterm labor, vaginal bleeding, premature labor, rupture of membranes, or severe anemia.
Which of the following could cause a barrier to exercise if included in the exercise pre-participation health-screening process for a client?
Risk-factor profiling or classification
Which portion of the spine consists of five fused vertebrae?
Sacrum
Flexion occurs in what plan of motion.
Sagittal
During a postural assessment, an ACE Certified Personal Trainer notices that a client is displaying a kyphotic posture. Which of the following muscle or muscle groups is most likely inhibited?
Scapular stabilizers
Which of the following is considered a step in the formal process to determine evidence-based practice?
Scrutinizing the quality of research evidence
Compare the difference between sedentary behavior and physical inactivity.
Sedentary behavior refers to too much sitting, while physical inactivity signifies to little exercise. For example, an individual can be considered active according to the current-physical activity guidelines, but still spend too much time sitting in front of the TV. This is known as the "active couch potato" phenomenon.
Which of the following is the most important factor for an ACE Certified Personal Trainer to consider when designing an initial exercise program for a client with overweight or obesity?
Selecting exercises that the client will enjoy
Explain why the concept of self-efficacy is important to exercise-related behavior change.
Self-efficacy is strongly related to the program adoption and maintenance.
Describe self-myofascial release.
Self-myofascial release is a technique that applies pressure to tight, restricted areas of fascia and underlying muscle is an attempt to relieve tension and improve flexibility. It is thought that applying direct sustained pressure to a tight area inhibit the tension in a muscle. Tightness in soft tissue may be diminished through the application of pressure (e.g., self-myofascial release) followed by static stretching.
Jake has a goal of developing general muscular fitness.
Sets: 1-4; reps: 8-15; rest intervals: 2-3 minutes; intensity: 20-70% of one-rep max (1-RM)
Sarah has a goal of improving muscular endurance.
Sets: 2-3; reps: >12; rest interval <30 sec; intensity < 67% 1-RM
Jessica would like to develop greater muscular strength.
Sets: 2-6; reps <6; rest interval: 2-5 minutes; intensity: >85% 1-RM
David is a power lifter who performs single-effort events.
Sets: 3-5; reps: 1-2; rest interval: 2-5 minutes; intensity: 80-90% 1-RM
Ray would like to experience muscular hypertrophy.
Sets: 3-6; reps 6-12; rest interval: 30-90 seconds; intensity 67-85% 1-RM
What is the recommended frequency of aerobic activity for children and adolescents?
Seven days per week
A 68-year-old female client performs the unipedal stance test. With her eyes open, she holds the position for 40 seconds before the test is terminated because her nondominant foot touches the floor. How does this score compare to the normative data?
She exceeded the normative figure for her age and gender, which is 30.4 seconds
Identify factors to consider when programming exercise for the following types of clients: Postpartum
Shifting hormone levels, fatigue, postpartum anemia, and diastasis recti.
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is developing a program for a client with low-back pain, with a goal of targeting the lateral muscles of the torso in order to optimize stability. Which of the following exercises would be the best option to achieve this goal?
Side bridge
Which of the following refers to a resting heart rate that is less than 60 beats per minutes?
Sinus bradycardia
A client is progressing from the Functional Training phase to the Movement Training phase of Muscular Training. Which of the following exercises would be most appropriate to include in the program at this point?
Sit-to-stand
An approach to estimating body fat that incorporates the measure of subcutaneous fat is:
Skinfold measurements
Differentiate between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers.
Slow-twitch muscle fibers (also called slow-oxidative or type 1 muscle fibers) contain relatively large amounts of mitochondria and are surrounded by more capillaries than fast-twitch fibers. Additionally, slow-twitch fibers contain higher concentrations of myoglobin than do fast-twitch fibers (also called type 2 muscle fibers). The high concentration of myoglobin, the large number of capillaries, and the high mitochondrial content make slow-twitch fibers resistant to fatigue and capable of sustaining aerobic metabolism. As the name implies, slow-twitch fibers contract more slowly than fast-twitch fibers. Furthermore, slow-twitch fibers create lower force outputs and are more efficient than fast-twitch fibers.
Stretching which muscles has been shown to help relieve symptoms associated with medial tibial stress syndrome?
Soleus and gastrocnemius
Describe how some medications, such as beta blockers and calcium channel blockers, can affect the heart rate and how individuals taking these medications should monitor intensity of exercise.
Some medications (e.g., beta blockers and calcium channel blockers) can blunt the heart rate response and cause orthostatic hypertension and post-exercise hypotension. Individuals taking these medications should utilize rating of perceived exertion to monitor exercise intensity, change positions slowly, and conclude each exercise session with a gradual and prolonged cool-down period.
Explain why information about a client's medication use is important to gather during the screening process.
Some substances alter the biochemistry of the body and may affect a client's ability to perform or respond to exercise. The properties of these drugs must be understood by the personal trainer and discussed with the client. When designing and supervising and exercise program, it is important to realize that many substances, over the counter- medications, and prescription drugs affect the heart's response to exercise.
When meeting with a client for an initial consultation, which of the following personal trainer behaviors would most likely communicate professionalism and increase the client's confidence?
Speaking with a voice that's firm and confident
Which of the following behaviors would most likely help you develop rapport with a client during the initial session?
Speaking with confidence; using fluid hand gestures while speaking and hands resting when listening.
Which of the following exercises are most appropriate for a client whose goal is to increase muscular strength in her erector spinae muscles?
Squat, dead-lift, and prone back extension exercises
126/88
Stage 1 hypertension
During a recent assessment, an ACE Certified Personal Trainer identifies her adult client's blood pressure as 128/80 mmHg. Which of the following categories would best classify this client's blood pressure reading?
Stage 1 hypertension
Which of the following best categorizes a client's blood pressure measurement of 120/82 mmHg?
Stage 1 hypertension
134/86
Stage 2 hypertension
142/90
Stage 2 hypertension
Ultimately, an individual personal trainer's scope of practice related to nutrition is determined by:
State policies and regulations, education and experience, and competencies and skills
Which type of stretching is most effective during the cool-down for a client post-injury?
Static
BLANK: this technique places the targeted muscle group in an end-range position and is held for up to 30 seconds. This technique does not require a partner and does not elicit the stretch reflex, reducing the likelihood of injury. As long as the stretch is not too intense (i.e., does not provoke pain), there are no real disadvantages to this technique.
Static stretching
A client who is working on achieving her fitness goals has been performing body weight stationary lunges with good form and execution and is ready to advance this exercise. Which of the following is the most appropriate progression?
Stationary lunges with dumbbells in hand
The primary reason ACE has established to a minimum continuing education requirement for 20 hours every two years in order to maintain a certification is to help ACE Certified Personal Trainers:
Stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and health.
List the key steps for client-centered exercise programming.
Step 1- establish rapport and identify client goals; step 2- administer an exercise preparticipation health screening; step 3- identify barriers and collaborate on next; step 4- determine if physiological or movement assessments are necessary; step 5- determine in which phase (s) of the ACE FIT Model to begin; step 6- prioritize program design and select exercise order.
Chronic psychological influences hunger in which of the following ways?
Stimulates hunger
Which of the following processes is best exemplified by a client choosing a gym that is on the direct route between home and work?
Stimulus control
Which of the following is a primary goal of an exercise program for a client with rheumatoid arthritis?
Strengthen the muscles around affected joints
Intensity
Stretch to the point of feeling tightness or slight discomfort
Stroke
Strokes occur when the blood supply to the brain is cut off (ischemic stroke) or when a blood vessel in the brain bursts (hemorrhagic stroke). Like a heart attack, an ischemic stroke results from a blockage in a vessel- but instead of in the heart, it occurs in the brain.
In which section of a SOAP note would it be most appropriate to document a client's reporting of his or her own fitness levels as well as your notes regarding how the client feels about the exercise program?
Subjective
The acronym SOAP stands for:
Subjective, objective, assessment, plan
The most common type of joint in the body is the BLANK joint, which is freely moveable.
Synovial
The easiest method for monitoring intensity with clients during Base Training is to use the:
Talk test
Which of the following is the most appropriate cardiorespiratory assessment to determine intensity levels for a deconditioned client?
Talk test
What is the most appropriate solution for an ACE Certified Personal Trainer to provide a client who has tight iliotibial (IT) bands?
Teach the client self-myofascial release techniques.
What is the most effective way to teach a new exercise to a client?
Tell the client what the exercise is, demonstrate the exercise, and have the client perform the exercise while providing feedback.
Which of the following best defines exercise-induced bronchoconstriction?
Temporary narrowing of the airways following moderate to vigorous exercise
An inflammation of the wrist extensors near their origin is commonly referred to as:
Tennis elbow
Preparticipation health screening for individuals wanted to initiate and exercise program may be conducted using which document as a self-guided screening tool?
The PAR-Q+
If a client can perform the exercise and talk comfortably, he or she is likely exercising below:
The VT1
The oxygen carrying capacity of blood is determined primarily by what two variables
The ability to adequately ventilate alveoli in the lungs and the hemoglobin concentration of the blood.
Explain why personal trainers should focus on obvious, gross imbalances, and avoid getting caught up in minor postural asymmetries.
The body is rarely perfectly, symmetrical, so overanalyzing asymmetries is time-consuming potentially intimidating to clients, and may induce muscle fatigue in the client that can alter his or her posture even further.
Describe the role and purpose of pain.
The body uses pain as a quick and clear signal, indicating the need to stop whatever one is doing to determine the cause of the pain and proceed by decreasing stress on the painful area. Pushing through the pain of an injury can prolong healing or cause an acute injury to become chronic. While healing from an injury, the injury site is weaker and will become overloaded before the surrounding structures, causing pain. It is important to honor the body's need to stop.
During a client's preparticipation health screening, an ACE Certified Personal Trainer learns that the client has some existing medical conditions. Who is most appropriate to provide approval before beginning an exercise program?
The client's healthcare professional
The most important factor in cardiorespiratory fitness is:
The delivery of blood to the active cells, which is a function of cardiac output.
The need for medical clearance before initiating an exercise program or increasing the frequency, intensity, and/or volume of an existing program is dependent upon the presence of clinically significant diseases and any signs of symptoms suggestive of such diseases. List the names of the diseases and the signs and symptoms of which a personal trainer should be aware in order to accurately assess the need for medical clearance.
The diseases a personal trainer should be aware of for making the determination for medical clearance would include cardiovascular disease, metabolic disease, and renal disease.
Describe the purpose of Base Training
The exercise programming in the base training phase is intended to help people move more consistently to establish basic cardiorespiratory endurance. This, in turn, will lead to improved overall health, energy, and mood, and increased caloric expenditure. Encouragement and exercise activities that can be successfully completed in each workout are crucial for building client self-efficacy in this phase.
A personal trainer who wants to provide massage to help clients who have tight or sore muscles can do so only if:
The personal trainer becomes a licensed massage therapist.
Which of the following best describes what is at the heart of a client-centered approach to personal training?
The personal trainer has specialized skills that help the client overcome barriers to achieve fitness and performance goals.
Describe what takes place during the planning and action stages of the client-personal trainer relationship.
The planning stage involves setting goals, generating and discussing alternatives, formulating a plan, and evaluating the exercise program. In contrast, the action stage involves the client participating in his or her exercise program. Here, the personal trainer may introduce the client to self-monitoring techniques.
Describe the right-angle rule of the body.
The right-angle rule describes how the body represents itself in vertical alignment across the major joints- the ankle, knee, hip, shoulder, and spine. Applying the right-angle rule allows the personal trainer to observe postural deviations in all three planes, nothing specific "static" asymmetries at the joints (e.g., front to back and left to right).
You are conducting a cardiorespiratory assessment with a client. Although the client was cleared to participate in exercise, five minutes into the test he starts to experience shortness of breath, lightheadedness, and leg cramping. You stop the assessment and instruct the client to drink some water and rest for a few minutes before resuming. What might you have done differently? Establish a three-zone model for this client:
The signs and symptoms this client is experiencing warrant immediate termination of the session. A referral to a qualified healthcare may be necessary. o HR at VT1 is 150 bpm o HR at V2 is 170 bpm § Zone 1- < 150 bpm § Zone 2- HR > 150 BPM TO <170 BPM § Zone 3- HR >170 BPM
Discuss the difference between the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.
The sympathetic nervous system is activated when there is a stressor or an emergency, such as severe pain, anger, or fear. Called the "fight or flight" response, this activation affects nearly every organ to enable the body to stop storing energy and mobilize all resources to respond to the stressful event or activity. The parasympathetic nervous system aids in controlling normal functions when the body is relaxed and aids in digesting food, storing energy, and promoting growth.
Hypertension
There are two types of hypertension. Most people with hypertension (90 to 95%) have what is designated essential hypertension or primary hypertension because there is no known or evident cause. In the other 5 to 10%, hypertension is the result of some identifiable cause (e.g., kidney disease) and is designated secondary hypertension.
Describe in your own words, the overall purpose and intent of the Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans.
These guidelines are intended to provide individuals throughout the lifespan, women during pregnancy and postpartum period, and adults with chronic conditions with specific physical-activity recommendations to follow in an effort to improve multiple aspects of health-related fitness. These aspects include cardiorespiratory fitness muscular strength, balance, and flexibility.
A client who has been using a beta blocker medication since she started working with you. As you do with several of your clients, you assign a target heart rate to this client as a means of gauging exercise intensity. Did you choose the most appropriate method for monitoring exercise intensity? Why or why not? What might you do differently and why?
These medications block beta-adrenergic receptors and limit sympathetic nervous system stimulation. In other words, they block the effects of catecholamines throughout the body and reduce resting, exercise, and maximal heart rates. This reduction in heart rate requires modifying the method used for determining exercise intensity. Using rating of perceived exertion or the talk test versus target heart rate for example, would be appropriate for a safe and effective cardiorespiratory exercise program for someone on beta blockers.
What do most allied health certification programs, such as the credentials for registered dietitians, occupational therapists, and nurse practitioners, have in common with certifications from the American Council on Exercise?
They are accredited by the National Commission for certifying Agencies
Which of the following statements about the role of type 1 muscle fibers during muscular training exercises is most accurate?
They contract more slowly and create lower force outputs
What is the purpose of the ACE Code of Ethics?
This code serves as a guide for ethical and professional practices for all ACE Certified Professionals.
What should you do first to ensure whatever modifications you make and guidance you provide is sound, safe, and effective? Describe the steps you should take to accomplish this.
This is an appropriate time for the personal trainer to review updated American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists guidelines and share these resources with the client. It is also a good opportunity for the personal trainer to connect with the client's physician (once written permission has been provided by the client) to discuss any health considerations. By taking these steps, a personal trainer will increase the client's confidence that she can continue personal-training sessions throughout her pregnancy.
How long does acute inflammatory phase last after an injury?
Three to four days
If a personal trainer observes that a client has a medically rotated humerus, it might indicate:
Tightness in the pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and subscapularis muscles
If it is observed that a client's shoulders are not level, it might indicate:
Tightness in the upper trapezium, levator scapulae, and rhomboids
When using the acronym FAST to recognize and respond to the needs of a client having a stroke, what does the T represent?
Time to call emergency services
What is the goal of a dietary intervention to decrease weight?
To create a caloric deficit so that fewer calories are consumed than are expended.
Which of the following identifies the primary purpose of the Thomas test?
To evaluate the length of the muscles involved in hip flexion
Describe the purpose of functional assessments.
To help the personal trainer observe a client's efficacies in postural stabilization, balance, and core function.
Key Guideline 2: focus on variety, nutrient density, and amount.
To meet nutrient needs within calorie limits, choose a variety of nutrient-dense food across and within all food groups in recommended amounts.
What is the primary purpose of the ACE Personal Trainer Certification program?
To protect the public from harm.
T/F: in reality, most adults experience some amount of controlled motivation.
True
T/F: some genetic disorders affect metabolism.
True
T/F: the risk of cardiovascular complications during resistance exercise is low.
True
True or false: to truly affect chronic disease on a global level, health equity must be a priority for professionals across the full spectrum of healthcare in all communities.
True
What type of diabetes is caused by an absolute insulin deficiency after the body's immune system attacks and destroys the beta cells?
Type 1 diabetes
A body mass index of 25 kg/m^2 or grater increases a person's risk for which of the following?
Type 2 diabetes
How does understanding the concept of willpower help you prepare clients to avoid a relapse?
Understanding willpower may help personal trainers empathize with their clients and help define strategies to employ when willpower is limited or diminished. For example, when a client makes food choices when he or she is hungry or tired, the choices made are often poorer nutritional quality. A better strategy is to organize meals for the day in advance when the client has higher resolve.
The BLANK can be used to test a client's static balance.
Unipedal stance test
Which of the following is most accurate regarding personal trainers recommending supplements tot their clients?
Unless the personal trainer has other credentials, he or she does not possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplements.
When designing an exercise program for youth, what is one of the most important components for the ACE Certified personal trainer to include?
Use all three planes of motion
A new client with low-risk coronary artery disease wants to start muscular-training program with an ACE Certified Personal Trainer. Which of the following is the best initial program design?
Using free weights (40-60% of 1-RM), complete one set of exercises for all major muscle groups.
Which of the following describes the point at which ventilation begins to increase in a nonlinear fashion?
VT1
Jenny, your personal-training client, has some questions about nutritional practices and health eating. Although Jenny gas tried to identify healthy foods and prepare nutritious meals, she still feels a bit loss in her process. She approaches you about her concerns. She feels what she really needs is a weekly meal plan, a specific shopping list, and recipes to follow. As Jenny's personal trainer, how would you approach this situation?
Validate jenny's concerns and desires and explain that you can refer her to the appropriated allied healthcare professional who can help address her concerns more specifically. Creating meal plans and menus is outside the scope of practice of a certified personal trainer. If a client wants specific nutritional direction, it is best to refer the client to registered dietician in your network.
When working with a client who has coronary artery disease, which of the following is contraindicated?
Valsalva maneuver
Many new clients will begin a program with a BLANK self-efficacy for exercise ability.
Very low
Dark green vegetables are highest in:
Vitamin K
During a recent treadmill training session, an ACE Certified Personal Trainer's client severely strained his hamstrings and missed three days of work. Which of the following forms would be most important for the client to have signed to bar him from potential recovery from their injury?
Wavier
Lifestyle medication is important to prevent and manage hypertension. Describe five ways clients can modify their lifestyle to prevent and/or manage this condition.
Weight reduction; adopt DASH eating plan; dietary sodium reduction; physical activity; moderation of alcohol
Which of the following is the best example of the ACE Certified Personal Trainer asking an open-ended question?
What is stopping you from doing additional training, like you mentioned?
Which of the following is the best question a personal trainer can encourage a client to ask him- or herself if he or she is experiencing a cognitive distortion?
What is the evidence for and against this thought?
Explain what happens when a person eats an insufficient number of calories?
When a person eats an insufficient number of calories, some proteins may be used for energy. Thus, protein needs increase, while protein intake usually decreases.
At what point does a candidate for the personal trainer certification agree to uphold the ACE Code of Ethics?
While registering for an ACE certification exam.
Discuss how willpower is a mind-body response and not a virtue.
Willpower is the ability to ignore temporary pleasure or discomfort to pursue a longer-term goal, and it is a biological function. Anyone using willpower for long periods or for multiple tasks will have less resolve to make better choices. Using willpower is essentially relying on one's rational side to control or dictate what the emotional side wants- and it is not really a fair fighting, as emotions are a more powerful driver for decisions than reason.
Compare the screening process for self-direct exercise and exercise being conducted under the supervision of a personal trainer.
With self-directed exercise, a standard questionnaire is completed by the individual with little to no feedback from the personal trainer. This questionnaire is designed to provide information regarding existing risks for participation in physical activity and the need for medical clearance beforehand. Initialing an exercise program under the guidance of a personal trainer offers an opportunity for the client and personal trainer to begin building rapport, as this step is included in the investigation stage of the client-personal trainer relationship. Also, the act of having the personal trainer conduct the screening process allows for the ACE Mover Method and the ACE ABC Approach to be implemented right away. The difference between a self-directed approach and a personal trainer-guided approach is that the latter turns an often intimidating and confusing individual experience into a collaborative one that draws upon the knowledge and experience of both the client and the personal trainer. Irrespective of the type of supervision, an exercise preparticipation health screening must be performed on all new participants, regardless of age, upon entering a gym. The screening procedures should be valid, simple, cost-efficient, time-efficient, and appropriate for the target population.
Describe Wolff's law.
Wolff's law indicates that changes in bone structure coincide with changes in bone changes. That is, when the skeleton is subjected to stressful forces, such as those that occur with exercise, it responds by laying down more bone tissue, thereby increasing its density. Conversely, when individuals experience prolonged periods of bed rest due to illness or injury, their bones lose mineral and become less dense. Maintaining adequate bone density is an important issue for all adults.
Which of the following situations would require a personal trainer to refer a client to a registered dietitian?
Working with clients who present with signs of disordered eating
To assesses dynamic balance, personal trainers can use the:
Y balance test
Providing feedback to clients about progress and performance is an important role of a personal trainer. What type of feedback would you provide to a client after he has completed his first few repetitions of a body-weight squat if you observe that he is lowering himself by driving his knees forward and he his holding his breath during the upward phase of the movement?
Your tempo of lowering and raising the body was just right. Remember to drive your hips back to lower down and breathe, even as the exercise feels harder. Breathing continuously and using your larger hip muscles to lower your body will make the movement feel easier.
If a client can talk comfortably during exercise, he or she is in zone:
Zone 1
Negative affect
a broad concept that can be summarized as feelings of emotional distress. More specifically, it is a construct that is defined by the common variance between anxiety, sadness, fear, anger, guilt, shame, irritability, and other unpleasant emotions.
Body fat
a component of the body, the primary role of which is to store energy for later use.
Diabetes
a disease of carbohydrate metabolism in which an absolute or relative deficiency of insulin results in an inability to metabolize carbohydrates normally.
Osteoporosis
a disorder, primarily affected postmenopausal women, in which bone mineral density decreases and susceptibility to fractures increase.
Cholesterol
a fatlike substance found in the blood and body tissues and in certain foods. Can accumulate in the arteries and lead to narrowing of the vessels.
Cardiovascular disease
a general term for any disease of the heart, blood vessels, or circulation.
Physical therapist
a healthcare provider specializing in treatments that help restore function, improve mobility, relieve pain, and prevent or limit permeant physical disabilities in patients of all ages suffering from medical problems, injuries, diseases, disabilities, or other health-related problems.
Operant conditioning
a learning approach that considers that manner in which behaviors are influenced by their consequences.
Stimulus control
a means to break the connection between events or other stimuli and a behavior.
Noncommunicable diseases
a medical condition or disease that is noninfectious and non-transmissible among people.
Second ventilatory threshold
a metabolic marker that represents the point at which high-intensity exercise can no longer be sustained due to an accumulation of lactate.
Health belief model
a model to explain health-related behaviors that suggests that an individual's decision to adopt healthy behaviors is based largely upon his or her perception of susceptibility to an illness and the provable severity of the illness. The person's view of the benefits and costs of the change are also considered.
educed-exertion high-intensity interval training
a modified form of high-intensity interval training that shortness the traditional HIIT workout by using fewer and shorter sprints, though those sprints are at a supra-maximized intensity.
Motivational interviewing
a person-centered conversation style that encourages clients to honestly exercise beliefs and behaviors, and that motivates clients to make a decision to change a particular behavior.
Automated external defibrillator
a portable electronic device used to restore normal heart rhythms victims of sudden cardiac arrest.
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
a procedure to support and maintain breathing and circulation for a person who has stopped breathing and or whose heart has stopped.
SMART goal
a properly designed goal; SMART stands for specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and time bound.
Self-determination theory
a psychological theory suggesting that people need to felt competent, autonomous, and connected to others in the many domains of life.
Rapport
a relationship marked by mutual understanding and trust.
Rating of perceived exertion
a scale, originally developed by notated Swedish psychologist Gunnar Bord, that provides a standard means for evaluating a participant's perception of exercise effort. The original scale ranged from 6 to 20; a revised category ratio scale ranges from 0 to 10.
Relatedness
a sense of belonging and connectedness with others; one of the three basic psychological needs that influence motivation according to self-determination theory.
Behavior chain
a sequence of events in which variables both preceding and following a target behavior help to explain and reinforce the target behavior, such as participation in an exercise session.
Emotional arousal
a state of heightened physiological activity, emotions, and emotional behavior.
Hyperlipidemia
an excess of lipids in the blood that could be primary, as in disorders of lipid metabolism, or secondary, as in uncontrolled diabetes.
Obesity
an excessive accumulation of body fat. Usually defined as more than 20% above ideal weight, or over 25% body fat for men and over 32% body fat for women; also can be defined as a body mass index of >30 kg or a waist girth of >40 inches in men and >35 inches in women.
High-intensity interval training
an exercise strategy alternating periods of shirt, intense anaerobic exercise with less-intense recovery periods.
Hypertrophy
an increase in the cross-sectional size of a muscle in response to progressive muscular training.
Perceived seriousness
an individual's feelings regarding the severity associated with developing an illness or disease. This is one of the four constructs of the health belief model.
Perceived susceptibility
an individual's perception of the risk of personal vulnerability to illness or disease. This is one of the four constructs of the health belief model.
Lapse
an unexpected slip or mistake that is usually a discreet event and is a normal part of the behavior-change process.
Contraindication
any condition that renders some particular movement, activity, or treatment improper or undesirable.
Lateral
away from the midline of the body, or the outside.
Which exercise would be most appropriate in the movement training phase of the ACE IFT Model Muscular Training component?
body-weight lunges
Stability
characteristic of the body's joints pr posture that represents resistance to change of position.
Which of the following components of motivational interviewing is being displayed when an ACE Certified Personal Trainer deliberately purses the welfare and best interests of the client?
compassion
Which of the following best describes the self-perception that a person can successfully perform a task?
competence
Cognitions
current thought or feeling that can function as an antecedents or consequence for overt behaviors.
Which of the following is the best strategy for an ACE Certified Personal Trainer to use when working with a client who is a visual leaner?
demonstrations
Which of the following is an important strategy for dealing with client lapses?
discuss lapses with the client in advance
Controlled motivation
doing a task with a sense of pressure, demand, or coercion.
Precontemplation:
during this stage, people are physically inactive and are not even intending to begin an activity program.
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
enacted by the US congress in 1996, HIPPA requires the US Department of Health and Human Services to establish national standards for electronic health care information to facilities efficient secure exchange of private health data.
Autonomous motivation
engaging in an activity out of free will and the desire to do so.
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer has a new client sign a behavior-change contract that awards a free-personal training session if the client complies with 100% of the contract's terms. Which of the following best describes the type of motivation used?
extrinsic motivation
The hormone leptin is found in
fat cells
Which of the following is a key consideration when setting goals with a client?
goals should be positive
Muscular fitness
having appropriate levels of both muscular strength and muscular endurance.
Competence
having the necessary ability, knowledge or skill to do something successfully; one of the three basic psychological needs that influence motivation according to self-determination theory.
Hypertension
high blood pressure, or the elevation of resting blood pressure above 130/80 mmHg.
Plyometrics
high-intensity movements, such as jumping, involving high-force loading of body weight during the landing phase of the movement that take advantage of the stretch-shortening cycle.
Relapse
in behavioral change, the return of an original problem after many lapses have occurred.
Which stage of the client-personal trainer relationship is characterized by discussions about the client's health, fitness, and lifestyle?
investigation
In which muscular training phase of the ACE IFT Model would drills to build agility and power be incorporated?
load/speed training
Intrinsic motivation
motivation that comes from internal states, such as enjoyment or personal satisfaction.
Examine the scope of practice as it relates to nutrition and the various resources listen in chapter 6 and choose three or four strategies you can use to help educate a client who struggles with portion control and random, mindless eating about adopting healthier habits.
o Any of the strategies are appropriate within the identified scope or practice of an ACE Certified Personal Trainer: § Host grocery shopping tours · Hold cooking demonstrations o Share evidence based dietary guidelines § Share MyPlate recommendations § Share information about the types of foods to be included in a balanced daily diet § Teach a client about the principles of healthy nutrition and food preparation
A client returns to you after the delivery of her baby. Describe how you would educate her about the benefits regular exercise can provide during this time in her life. What are some considerations to keep in mind? Are there risks?
o Benefits: benefits of regular exercise after pregnancy include reduced diastasis recti width, improved low back and pelvic floor function, and the building of muscular balance to support good posture. According to ACOG, exercise in the postpartum period also support lifelong healthy habits and improves maternal cardiovascular fitness without affecting milk production or composition, or infant growth. o Considerations: things to consider include established guidelines, childcare needs, mommy and me activities, short-duration exercise bouts, diastasis recti or C-section concerns, and muscle imbalances (due to breastfeeding or sitting with the baby for long periods of time). o Risks: additional fatigue, potential for postpartum anemia, C-section requires additional recovery time (healing will vary), fluctuating emotions and postpartum depression.
To establish baseline measurements, you conduct the following types of assessments with a client in the following sequence during the client's first session prior to reviewing the preparticipation health-screening questionnaire. This client is interested in improving flexibility and physical endurance and would like to lose 15 pounds.
o Cardiorespiratory assessment o Static posture and movement o Body mass index o Resting vital signs
Identify the three Cardiorespiratory Training phases in the ACE IFT Model.
o Cardiorespiratory training- performance, fitness, base o Muscular training- load/speed, movement, functional
Identify five ways to reduce the risk of foodborne illness while grocery shopping.
o Check produce for bruises and feel and smell for ripeness. o Look for a "sell-by" date for breads and bakes goods, a "use-by" date on some packaged foods, and "expiration date" on yeast and baking powder, and a "packaged date" on canned and some packaged foods. o Make sure packaged goods are not torn and cans are not dented, cracked, or bulging. o Separate fish and poultry from other purchases by wrapping them separately in plastics bags. o Pick up refrigerated and frozen foods last. Make sure all perishable items are refrigerated within one hour of purchase.
Neck
o Common conditions/injuries: § An exaggerated posterior curve of the thoracic spine will result in forward-head posture, putting an abnormal stress on the muscles of the neck. o Program design considerations: § First, observe the relationship of neck position to that of the thoracic spine and shoulder. Forwarded-rounded shoulders and exaggerated kyphosis will be especially common. If faulty posture is observed, address the spine and shoulder position first. § Strengthening the beck muscles in isolation should not be the goal of a personal training session. Instead, focus should be on exercises that support postural alignment. § Next, introduce gentle movement and stretching that can be executed by the client at any time of day when discomfort occurs (e.g., lateral and rotational neck stretches) § Finally, refer to a physician if pain is persistent.
Knee
o Common conditions/injuries: § Iliotibial band (IT band) friction syndrome § Tendinitis § Patellofemoral pain syndrome § Chondromalacia o Program design considerations: § First, address any imbalance between the right and left sides. § Next, address any tightness and instability in the hip, ankle, and foot that may be contributing to femoral internal rotation. § Then, improve hip-hinge mobility and stability. § Lastly, improve the strength of the muscles in the posterior chain. In general, knee pain is exacerbated by open-chain extension exercise. Therefore, these exercises should be avoided in favor of weight-bearing closed chain exercises
Elbow, wrist, hand
o Common conditions/injuries: § Lateral and medial epicondylitis § Carpal tunnel syndrome o Program design considerations: § First, limit by introducing various grips for comfort and/or wearing gloves to increase friction between the hand and handle or device when doing pulling exercises. § Next, increase the range of motion through gentle stretches in all planes of motion. § Then, improve strength of the wrist and hand through exercises such as a wall push-up and wrist flexion and extension. Finally, remove grips or gloves
Low back
o Common conditions/injuries: § Many causes, such as muscle strain, soft-tissue stress from prolonged faulty static posture, poor physical fitness, disc disease, as well as other conditions like osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing, spondylitis, and cancer. § Common postural dysfunction is exaggerated lordosis. o Program design considerations: § Program design should include static stretching to inhibit overactive muscles that might be contributing to postural dysfunction, as well as exercises to improve ROM of the hips and strengthening of the gluteal muscles, hamstrings, rectus abdominis, and internal and external obliques. § Low-back exercises performed for maintenance of health need not emphasize strength; rather, more reps of less-demanding exercises will assist in the enhancement of endurance and strength. § First, address any imbalance between left and right sides. § Next, address any anterior/posterior postural imbalance. § Then, increase function internal and external rotation of the hip. § Finally, strengthen the posterior chain, especially the hamstrings and gluteal muscles, to provide powerful support.
Hip
o Common conditions/injuries: § Piriformis syndrome § Hip arthritis § Hip replacement o Program design considerations: § First, address any imbalance between the right and left sides. § Next, improve range of motion in hip internal and external rotation, as well as single-leg stance stability. § Then, improve hip-hinge mobility and stability. § Lastly, improve the strength of the muscles of the posterior chain.
Ankle and Lower leg
o Common conditions/injuries: § Shin splints § Ankle sprains § Achilles tendinitis § Plantar fasciitis o Program design considerations: § First, address mobility and stability in the foot and ankle. § Next, improve strength in the muscles that control movement in the sagittal plane. § Then, improve strength in the muscles that control movement in the transverse and sagittal plane. § Lastly, improve strength in the muscles of the posterior chain. § Daily balance work can be included without risk of overtraining.
Shoulder
o Common conditions/injuries: impingement syndrome o Program design considerations: § First, address postural balances that may cause a decrease in space between the acromion process and humeral head (e.g., forward rounded shoulders or exaggerated kyphosis) § Next, strengthen the scapular stabilizing muscles, including the rotator cuff. § Then, improve strength of the anterior shoulder muscles and pectoralis major through controlled pushing motions. § Finally, introduce overhead movements as functionally necessary. Instruct clients to perform the exercise in the scapular plane (i.e., shoulder positioned 30 degrees anterior to the frontal plane) to prevent impingement.
List three key deviations of the thoracic spine and shoulders.
o Correct responses include the following: § Shoulders not level § Asymmetry to midline § Protracted (forward, rounded) § Medially rotated humerus § Kyphosis and depressed chest
Low-energy density food
o Definition- Energy density is determined by measuring the amount of energy per gram of food o Characteristics: § Low energy-dense foods help create feelings of satiety and curb hunger, increasing the chances of successful weight-loss program § Whole-food, plant based o Examples- § Fruits § Vegetables § Whole grains § Legumes § water o Non-examples- § Sweetened beverages § Alcohol
NEAT
o Definition- activity that is not a part of a structured period of exercise o Characteristics- physical activity done outside of a structured exercise plan o Examples- § Walking § Fidgeting § Standing o Non-examples- § Structured, planned physical activity § Personal-training sessions
High-nutrient density foods
o Definition- high in nutrient and low in calories (nutrients per calorie of food) o Characteristics- low in food that provide most of the body's needed nutrients, vitamins, minerals, and phytochemicals. o Examples- § Fruits § Vegetables § Beans § Grains § Healthy fats § Complex crabs lean protein o Non-examples- § Candies § Ice cream § Sweetened products
Monitoring clinical progress for medically referred clients
o Documenting progress and reporting it to the appropriate healthcare professional or physician after receiving the client's permission to do so. o Following recommendations from a physician, physician therapist, registered dietitian, or other healthcare professional.
Discuss some general considerations personal trainers should keep in mind when working with clients with obesity who are starting to exercise.
o Emphasis on total energy expenditure (focus on total distance or time walked or run) o Challenges clients with obesity might face when exercising in the heat- how would you modify intensity? o Skin chafing and potential joint concerns o Psychological impact of certain types of exercises (aquatic exercise) o Mobility or balance challenges, when require a different approach than the use of traditional equipment. o Lifestyle physical activity (NEAT)
Diagnosing illness or disease
o Following accepted guidelines for exercise programming for diseases and disorders as presented by the appropriate governing body. o Assessing for exercise limitations. o Identifying potential risk factors through health screening and fitness assessment. o Referring clients to appropriate healthcare professionals as needed. o Adhering to guidance and limitations outlined in a medical release form provided by a client's physician or other healthcare professional.
Adult Frequency recommendations
o Frequency aerobic: >5 days/week for moderate intensity; >3 days/week for vigorous intensity; 3-5 days/week for a combination of moderate and vigorous intensity. o Frequency resistance: >2 days/week o Frequency flexibility: >2 days/week
Children Frequency recommendations
o Frequency aerobic: daily o Frequency resistance: >3 days/week o Frequency bone strengthening: >3 days/week
Identify five practical tips a personal trainer can share to help prepare the gut for exercise or competition.
o Get acclimatized to heat o Stay hydrate o Practice drinking during training to improve competition- day comfort o Avoid eating too much before and during exercise o Avoid high-energy, hypertonic food and drinks before (within 30 to 60 minutes) and after exercise. Limit protein and fat intake before exercise. o Ingest a high-energy, high-carbohydrate diet o Avoid high-fiber foods before exercise o Limit nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen and naproxen, alcohol, caffeine, antibiotics, and nutritional supplements before and during exercise, as they can cause gastrointestinal (GI) discomfit. The client should experiment during training to identify his or her triggers. o Urinate and defecate prior to exercise o Consult a physician if GI problems persist, especially abdominal pain, diarrhea, or bloody stool
Discuss the precautionary guidelines associated with plyometric drills.
o Given the ballistic nature of plyometric-training drills, appropriate strength, flexibility, and postural mechanics are required to avoid injury. The following recommendations are provided to reduce the potential for injury. The following recommendations are provided to reduce the potential for injury and increase the likelihood of performance-related goal achievement for goals. § Plyometric drills should be performed at the beginning of a training session after the completion of a dynamic warm-up (while clients are not fatigued) to reduce the risk of injury. § Proper technique is crucial. Clients should not jump unless they know how to land. Ensure that clients are capable of landing correctly by initially teaching small, low intensity jumps and using appropriate landing techniques.
A client you've been working with for the past year is in the maintenance stage of change for engaging in regular physical activity. He reveals to you that in a month he will be starting a new job that requires a considerable amount of travel-something that was not required for his previous job. As you know, you can't assume permanency with any stage of change, so it is important to consider how to prepare for and prevent potential lapses and relapses. Your client will be traveling up to four times a month, staying in hotels, and "eating on the road." Create a plan by first identifying the high-risk situation your client is likely to face and then come up with three strategies to help your client stay on track and avoid a derailment of his progress thus far.
o High risk situation: traveling four times per month, eating on the road, and staying in hotels. o Strategy 1: address the situation before it happens. You may inform your client about the likelihood of a lapse and prepare him in advance so that he is are able to get back on track with his activity programs soon after experiencing a lapse. o Strategy 2: collaborate on ways to stay active and make healthy dietary choices while on the road. Ideas for staying physically active may include staying at hotels that provide a fitness center and are in walkable communities and creating a body-weight exercise program that can be completed within a hotel room. Options for making healthy dietary choices while traveling may include discussing healthier options when eating out, eating a healthy meal or snack before going out to eat with colleagues, and being mindful of portion control, especially if physical activity is decreased. The ACE ABC Approach can be used during this conversation to allow the client to remain in control of his program and behavior-change journey. o Strategy 3: enhance social support. You can offer support outside of the training session, whether in the form of a phone call, email, text message, or social media platform. Further, you may explore with the client enhanced support at home, as it is important to get family members and/or friends involved to some degree when a client is embarking on a behavior-change plan.
Rewrite the following goal statements as SMART goals.
o I want to exercise more. § I will begin exercising by walking 30 minutes at lunch on 3 or more days of the week. o I want to be healthier. § I will take walk breaks for every 1 hour I sit at my desk on 5 days of the week. o I want to tone up. § I will lift weight 3 days a week and practice yoga on 2 days of the week.
Children Intensity Recommendations
o Intensity aerobic: most should be moderate (noticeable increase in HR and breathing) to vigorous intensity (substantial increase in HR and breathing). Include vigorous intensity at least 3 days/week. o Intensity resistance: use of body weight as resistance or 8-15 submaximal reps of an exercise to the point of moderate fatigue with good mechanical form. o Intensity bone strengthening: N/A
Adult Intensity recommendations
o Intensity aerobic: on a scale of 0-10 for level of physical exertion, 5-6 for moderate intensity and 7-8 for vigorous intensity. o Intensity resistance: light intensity (i.e., 40-50% 1-RM) for beginners; progress to moderate-to-vigorous intensity (60-80% 1-RM); alternatively, moderate (5-6) to vigorous (7-8) intensity on a 0-10 scale. o Intensity flexibility: stretch to the point of feeling tightness or slight discomfort
In your own words, describe how the hormones leptin and adiponectin function. What are their primary roles? How are they related to energy metabolism?
o Leptin resides in all fat cells and communicates directly with the hypothalamus in the brain, providing information about how much energy is currently stored in the body's fat cells. Leptin functions in what is referred to in biology as a negative feedback loop. For example, when fat cells decrease in size, leptin decreases, sending a message to the hypothalamus to direct the body to eat more. Similarly, when fat cells increase in size, leptin increases, and the message sent to the hypothalamus is to instruct the body to eat less. However, it appears that the primary biological role of leptin is to facilitate energy intake when energy storage is low, as opposed to slowing does overconsumption when energy storage is high. Another specialized hormone secreted by fat is adiponectin, which helps insulin by sending blood glucose into the body's cell for storage or use as fuel, thus increasing the cells' insulin sensitivity or glucose metabolism. It also helps decrease blood levels of triglycerides by working with insulin to stimulate fat breakdown.
Linda is a new client who has been physically inactive for a number of years prior to seeking the services of a personal trainer. Her primary goals in hiring you are to lose weight, lower her blood pressure, and reduce stress. Based on this information, in what phase of the Cardiorespiratory Training component of the ACE IFT Model would Linda begin? What, if any assessments, are recommended? And how should you respond if Linda, given her physically inactive status, is only able to initially complete five minutes of activity during the cardiorespiratory training segment of planned workouts?
o Linda is in the base training phase. o Any client who is not consistently performing moderate-intensity cardiorespiratory exercise for bouts of at least 20 minutes on at least three days per week should begin with Base Training. o No cardiorespiratory assessments are recommended during the Base Training phase, since many clients who start in this phase will be unfit and may have difficulty completing an assessment of this nature. o In this case, you should give the client positive feedback for completing the five-minute exercise bout, remind the client that bouts of physical activity of any length are beneficial in reducing health risks, and document the total time completed. o This would serve as the client's baseline cardiorespiratory fitness data and the starting point for cardiorespiratory training progressions to build an aerobic base. o Regardless of the initial duration, the goal for all clients in Base Training is to gradually increase exercise duration and frequency until the client is performing cardiorespiratory exercise three to five days per week for a duration of 20 minutes or more. o The easiest method for monitoring intensity with clients during Base Training is to use the talk test.
Identify an example for each component of OARS you can use with your clients.
o Open ended questions: what would you gain by exercising more? o Affirmations: you really worked hard this week! o Reflective listening: you're concerned that you're not making progress fast enough. o Summarizing: after you exercise, you feel strong and healthy.
Describe how personal trainers can use and apply the function-health-fitness-performance continuum.
o Personal trainers can utilize this concept to understand that clients ebb and flow along this continuum based on where they are in their lifecycle and lifestyle factors that are impacting, positively or negatively, their opportunities for, and participation in, physical activity. o Personal trainers can help clients progress along this continuum by meeting them where they are and providing personalized exercise programs and coaching based on each client's current health, fitness, and goals.
Describe how you can identify scapular winging and scapular protraction on a client.
o Personal trainers may perform a quick observational assessment to identify scapular winging and scapular protraction. While looking at the client from the posterior view, if the vertebral (medial) and/or inferior angle of the scapulae protrude outward, this indicates an inability of the scapular stabilizers (primarily the rhomboids and serratus anterior) to hold the scapulae in place. Noticeable protrusion of the vertebral (medial) border outward is termed "scapular protraction," while protrusion of the inferior angle and vertebral (medial) border outward is termed "winged scapulae". o Scapular protraction can also be identified from the anterior view. If the palms face backward instead of to the sides, this generally indicates internal (medial) rotation of the humerus and/or scapular protraction.
Exercising in the heat requires certain considerations. How would you educate a client about exercising in the heat? Are there three strategies or tips you can share to help you client safely participate in activity in higher temperatures and humidity?
o Personal trainers should share the following tips with clients before they consider exercising in the heat: § Begin exercising in the heat gradually § Always wear lightweight, well-ventilated clothing § Never wear impermeable or nonbreathable garments § Replace body fluids as they are lost
List nutrition topics personal trainers should be prepared to discuss with their clients.
o Principles of healthy nutrition and food preparation o Food to be included in the balanced daily diet o Essential nutrients needed by the body o Actions of nutrients on the body o Effects of deficiencies or excesses of nutrients o How nutrient requirements vary through the Lifecyle o Principles of pre- and post- workout nutrition and hydration o Information about nutrients contained in foods or supplements
Prescribing diets or nutritional supplements
o Referring clients to a registered dietician for meal planning or a specific diet plan. o Providing general information or health, evidence-based nutrition.
Review the www.choosemyplate.gov website and familiarize yourself with the many resources available. As it is within your scope of practice to share this resource with future clients, it is crucial you be familiar with what this site has to offer. List three resources on the website you could use when working with your clients.
o Resources found at www.choosemyplate.gov include the following: o Creating a MyPlate plan o Add the MyPlate Plan widget to my website o Use MyPlate graphics o Share the tip library o Share MyPlate print materials
List and describe the planes of motion.
o Sagittal- divides the body into right and left halves o Transverse- divides the body into superior and inferior halves o Frontal- divides the body into anterior and posterior halves
Sarah is a personal training client who falls into the "active couch potato" domain. She exercises for 45 minutes each day but spends the rest of the day sitting at her desk or in her car. List five strategies Sarah can employ in her daily life to help her sit less and move more.
o Set a time to get up and move once every 90 minutes o Take regular stretch breaks o Hold walking meetings whenever possible o Rely less on email and electronic communication and visit coworkers face to face o Walk for an additional 10 minutes at lunch
Jill is a new client of yours who has been active off and on for years. She followed exercise routines before but once the newness wore off, she became bored and didn't enjoy her sessions. In gathering more information, you learn that Jill likes variety and becomes bored easily if she's "bored in" to a specific program. As you know lack of enjoyment can negatively influence adherence to a workout program. Create a list of ideas you have for making activity fun and enjoyable. Consider how you can challenge clients. Think about ways you might be able to add variety to a workout.
o Strategy 1: ask questions to find out what types of activities Jill has enjoyed in the past. o Strategy 2: use interval training and varied equipment while staying focused on training goals. o Strategy 3: collaborate with the client on creating the exercise program and consider the client's stage of change in that she perceives boredom as a con to becoming a regular exerciser. o Strategy 4: evaluate goals and come up with a plan for adding challenges and showing progress.
You're working with a client and he suddenly experiences confusion and begin having trouble speaking. He also struggles to walk and appear dizzy. These symptoms are among the warning signs of what condition? What are the other warning signs for this same condition?
o The client is most likely experiencing a stroke. Personal trainers should be aware of the following warning signs: § Sudden numbness or weakness of the face, arms, or legs § Sudden confusion or trouble speaking or understanding others § Sudden trouble seeing on one or both eyes § Sudden walking problems, dizziness, or loss of balance and coordination
Explain the function-health-fitness-performance continuum.
o The function-health-fitness performance continuum is based on the premise that human movement and fitness can progress and regress along a spectrum that starts with developing or reestablishing basic functional movements and extends to performing highly advanced and specialized motions and physical work seen in athletics. o Each individual is at a unique point on this continuum based upon factors that include health status and physical limitations, frequency, intensity, and types of physical activities and any participation in, and goals for athletic performance. o Both lifecycle and lifestyle factors can influence where an individual currently falls on the continuum.
You have a new client who is seeking your services to lose wight, increase her energy level, and reduce stress. After evaluating her stage of change, you note she is in the preparation stage. What strategies and processes of change would apply to this stage? How might you start coaching this client?
o The goal with this stage is to collaborate on an action plan that includes frequent positive feedback and reinforcements on the client's progress. Some strategies might include the following: (1) verifying that the individual has the skills necessary to change his or her behavior and encouraging small steps toward building self-efficacy; (2) identifying and assisting with overcoming/addressing obstacles the client may face; (3) assisting the client in identifying necessary social support and developing goals.
The new health-screening process is based on what three factors?
o The individual's current level of physical activity o Diagnosed cardiovascular metabolic, or renal disease and/or the presence of signs or symptoms. o The desired exercise intensity
The new health-screening process is designed to identify what three categories of individuals?
o Those who should receive medical clearance before initiating an exercise program or increasing the frequency, intensity, and/or volume of their current program. o Those with clinically significant disease (s) who may benefit from participating in a medically supervised exercise program. o Those with medical conditions that may require exclusion from exercise programs until those conditions are resolved or better controlled.
Adult Time recommendations
o Time aerobic: 30-60 minutes/day of moderate-intensity exercise; 20-30 minutes/day of vigorous-intensity exercise; or an equivalent combination of moderate- and vigorous-intensity exercise; may be accumulated in bouts of at least 10 minutes each day. o Time resistance: 8-10 exercise involving the major muscle groups; 1-3 sets of 8-12 reps each. o Time flexibility: hold stretch for 30-60 seconds
Children Time Recommendations
o Time aerobic: as part of >60 minutes/day of exercise o Time resistance: as part of >60 minutes/day of exercise o Time bone strengthening as part of >60 minutes/day of exercise
Describe the three main functions of intramuscular fascia (deep fascia).
o To provide a framework that ensures proper alignment of muscle fibers, blood vessels, and nerves. o To enable the safe and effective transmission of forces throughout the whole muscle. o To provide the necessary lubricated surfaces between muscle fibers that allow muscles to change shape during contraction and elongation.
Analyze the food label presented as Figure 6-13 on page 190 of your textbook and identify the total number of calories; calories from fat; calories from protein, and calories from carbohydrate. Examine the overall nutritional quality of the food and write your conclusion.
o Total calories per container § 230 calories per serving x 8 servings per container = 1,840 calories per container o Calories from fat § 8 g of fat x 9 calories/gram = 72 calories from fat o Calories from protein § 3 g of protein x 4 calories/gram = 12 calories from protein o Calories from carbohydrate § 37 g of carbohydrate x 4 calories/gram = 148 calories from carbohydrate o Overall nutritional quality conclusion § This product is low in protein, high in carbohydrate and added sugar, and high in calories per serving. While the product has 4 g of fiber per serving, the additional sugars means this product is not nutrient dense. A product with fewer added sugars, more protein, and whole grains would be a healthier option.
Adult Type recommendations
o Type aerobic: any modality that does not impose excessive orthopedic stress such as walking. Aquatic exercise and stationary cycle exercise may be advantageous for those with limited tolerance for weight-bearing activity. o Type resistance: progressive weight-training programs or weight-bearing calisthenics, stair climbing, and other strengthening activities that use the major muscle groups. o Type flexibility: any physical activities that maintain or increase flexibility using slow movements that terminate in static stretches for each muscle group rather than rapid ballistic movements.
Children Type Recommendations
o Type aerobic: enjoyable and developmentally appropriate activities, including running, brisk walking, swimming, dancing, bicycling, and sports such as soccer, basketball, or tennis. o Type resistance: muscle-strengthening physical activities can be unstructured (e.g., playing on playground equipment, climbing trees, tug of war) or structured (e.g., lifting weights, working with resistance bands). o Type bone strengthening bone-strengthening activities include running, jump rope, basketball, tennis, resistance training, and hopscotch.
Counseling clients
o Using coaching techniques to support clients through behavior change. o Providing general health and wellness information. o Referring clients to appropriate healthcare professionals as needed.
Treating injury or disease or rehabilitating clients following injury
o Using exercise programming to help clients improve overall health. o Helping clients adhere to advice from a physician or physical therapist. o Designing an exercise program after a client has been release from rehabilitation. o Referring clients to appropriate healthcare professionals as needed.
· Use the following information to determine this client's waist-to-hip ratio and relative risk, as well as his disease risk relative to waist circumference. o Abdominal circumference: 45.7 inches (116 cm) o Hip circumference: 42.5 inches (108 cm) o Waist circumference: 46.1 (117 cm) o Age: 41 o Sex: male
o Waist-to-hip ratio/relative risk: 1.08 (at risk) o Disease risk relative to wait circumference: high
Tracy, a personal-training client, has recently discovered a new diet plan she would like to try and asks for your opinion. Draw on your knowledge of nutrition and describe what you can do that is within a personal trainer's scope of practice. Take it a step further and create a response to Tracy's inquiry about this new diet approach. What questions would you suggest she ask? What would you suggest she consider? In other words, how would you educate this client about how to examine a diet plan?
o When evaluating a diet plan, clients should be able to answer these questions: § How does the diet cut calories? § What is the nutrient density of the diet? § Does the diet recommend exercise? § Does it make sense? § Where is the evidence? § Does it meet individual needs? § How much does it cost? § What kind of social support does the client have? § How easy is it to adhere to the diet? o As a personal trainer, you are in a unique position to empower your clients to thoughtfully and critically evaluate any diet plan they encounter. One way to create an educational effort is to engage in a discussion based on these questions. Another suggestion is to create a worksheet for the client so that he or she can research answers to these questions and then hold a discussion with him or her about the findings.
Describe how scope of practice relates to the health screening process.
o While the identification of the signs and symptoms refereed in the health-screening algorithm may be within the scope of practice of most personal trainers, interpretation of those same signs and symptoms should be made only by qualified healthcare professional within the context in which they appear.
Which of the following OARS skills is being used when an ACE Certified Personal Trainer states, "your intention to exercise 5 days this week was good, even though you were only able to make it to the gym 3 days"?
offering affirmations
Decisional balance
one of the four components of the transtheoretical model of behavior change, refers to the numbers of pros and cons an individual perceives regarding adapting and/or maintaining an activity program.
Self-efficacy
one's perception of his or her ability to change or to perform specific behaviors.
During a training session, an ACE Certified Personal Trainer asks the client to explain what benefits might be gained by increasing her exercise frequency from 2 day/week to 3 days/week. Which of the following best identifies the type of communication skill used by the trainer?
open-ended questions
Cognitive
pertaining to, or characterized by, that operation of the mind by which we become aware of objects of thought or perception; includes all aspects of perceiving, thinking, and remembering.
Ventilatory threshold
point of transition between predominantly aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production; involves recruitment of fast-twitch muscle fibers and is identified via gas exchange during exercise testing.
During an initial client interview, an ACE Certified Trainer "breaks the ice" by asking the new client about how her day has been going. Which of the following best identifies this stage of the client-personal trainer relationship?
rapport
Speed
rate of movement; a skill-related component of physical fitness.
During a training session, a client begins talking about intimate personal issues and problems at home. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the ACE Certified Personal Trainer to take?
redirect the conversation
Which of the following is one of the five primary movement patterns that are the focus of movement training?
single-leg movement
Muscular endurance
the ability of a muscle or muscle group to exert force against a resistance over a sustained period of time; a health-related component of physical fitness.
Static balance
the ability to maintain the body's center of mass (COM) within its base of support (BOS).
Balance
the ability to maintain the body's position over its base of support within stability limits, both statically and dynamically; a health-related component of physical fitness.
Agility
the ability to move quickly and easily; a skill-related component of physical fitness.
Cardiorespiratory
the ability to perform large muscle movement over a sustained period related to the capacity of the heart-lung system to deliver oxygen for sustained energy production. Also called cardiorespiratory endurance or aerobic fitness.
Cardiorespiratory fitness
the ability to perform large muscle movement over a sustained period; related to the capacity of the heart-lung system to deliver oxygen for sustained energy production.
Coordination
the ability to use different parts of the body together efficiently; a skill-related component of physical fitness.
Dynamic balance
the act of maintaining postural control while moving.
Autonomy
the capacity of a rational individual to make an informed, un-coerced decision.
Power
the capacity to move with a combination of speed and force; a skill related component of physical fitness.
Kinetic chain
the concept that joints and segments have an effect on one another during movement.
Mobility
the degree to which an articulation is allowed to move before being restricted by surrounding tissues.
Locus of control
the degree to which people attribute outcomes to internal factors, such as effort and ability, as opposed to external factors, such as lack or the action of others. People who tend to attribute events and outcomes to internal factors are said to have an internal locus of control, while those who generally attribute outcomes to external factors are said to have an external locus of control.
Adherence
the extent to which people follow their plans or treatment recommendations. Exercise adherence is the extent to which people follow an exercise program.
Body composition
the makeup of the body in terms of the relative percentage of fat-free mass and body fat, a health-related component of physical fitness.
Muscular strength
the maximal force a muscle or muscle group can exert during contraction; a health-related component of physical fitness.
Range of motion
the number of degrees that an articulation will allow one of its segments to move.
Center of gravity
the point around which all weight is evenly distributed.
Positive reinforcement
the presentation of a positive stimulus following a desired behavior. This increases the likelihood that the behavior will occur again.
Punishment
the presentation of oversize stimuli following any behavior, good or bad. Decreases the likelihood that the behavior will occur again.
Conditioning phase
the primary component of a workout. This should be aligned with client goals and should be based on frequency, duration, intensity, and modality.
Quickness
the quality of moving fast.
Extinction
the removal of a positive stimulus that has in the past followed a behavior.
Negative reinforcement
the removal or absence of aversive stimuli following a desired behavior, this increases the likelihood that the behavior will occur again.
Action
the stage of the transtheoretical model of behavior change during which the individual is actively engaging in a behavior that was started less than six months ago.
Preparation
the stage of the transtheoretical model of behavior change during which the individual is getting ready to make a change.
Maintenance
the stage of the transtheoretical model of behavior change during which the individual is incorporating the new behavior into his or her lifestyle and has been doing so far more than six months.
Precontemplation
the stage of the transtheoretical model of behavior change during which the individual is not intending to change within the next six months.
Contemplation
the stage of the transtheoretical model of behavior change during which the individual is weighing the pros and cons of behavioral change.
Warm up
this is a period of later exercise preceding the conditioning phase and should last for five to 10 minutes for most healthy adults.
Cool-down
this phase occurs after the primary workout has concluded. It should last five to 10 minutes and has the goal of helping the body return to pre-exercise state. An active cooldown can help remove metabolic waste as well.
Contemplation:
this stage consists of people who are still inactive but are thinking about becoming more active in the near future, within the next six months.
Action:
this stage is comprised of people who are engaging in regular physical activity but have been doing so for less than six months.
Maintenance:
this stage is marked by regular physical-activity participation for longer than six months.
Preparation:
this stage is marked by some engagement in physical activity, as individuals are mentally and physically preparing to adopt an activity program.
Cognitive distortions
unproductive thought process that can paralyze a client when making a positive and lasting behavior change.
Antecedents
variable or factor that precedes and influences a client's behavior.
Consequences
variable that occurs following a target behavior, such as exercise, that influences a person's future behavior-change decisions and efforts.
Muscular training- Hypertension time
§ 2-4 sets of 8-12 reps § Each major muscle group should be trained
Cardiorespiratory training- Diabetes frequency
§ 3-7 days per week § 3 days of vigorous or 5 days of moderate intensity (greater regularity may facilitate diabetes management).
Cardiorespiratory training- Hypertension intensity
§ 40-59% VO2R pr HRR § RPE 12-13 § Below VT1 HR; can talk comfortably
Muscular training- Hypertension intensity
§ 60-80% 1-RM § 40-50% 1-RM for older adults and novice exercisers
Type
§ A series of flexibility exercises for each of the major muscle-tendon units is recommended. § Static flexibility (i.e., passive or active), dynamic flexibility, ballistic flexibility, and PNF are each effective.
Muscular training- Diabetes type
§ All major muscle groups § At least 8-10 exercises to near fatigue § Resistance machines and free weights
Ankle and foot:
§ Anterior Tibialis- dorsiflexion at ankle; inversion at foot § Gastrocnemius- plantar flexion at ankle; eversion at foot
Using the ACE Mover Method, show how you could help Tracy establish goals and maintain adherence and enjoyment as her pregnancy progresses. What questions could you ask and how might you break down barriers and collaborate with Tracy?
§ Ask: use powerful open-ended questions during the conversation to find out what Tracy hopes to accomplish by continuing her work with you as her pregnancy progresses. § Break down barriers: at this point, you may ask more open-ended questions to learn what may be interfering with Tracy's consistency. You can also uncover what potential obstacles may impede her progress. § Collaborate: after you've worked together to identify barriers and goals, the focus of this collaborative process can switch to eliciting action items from the client, so that she feels ownership over the program.
Elbow and radioulnar joints:
§ Biceps brachii- flexion at elbow; supination at forearm § Triceps brachii- extension at elbow; arm extension (long head)
Respiratory
§ Both strength and fatigue resistance of respiratory muscles improve with training. § May lead to an increase in tidal volume making ventilation more efficient
Muscular training- Hypertension type
§ Either machine weights or free weights should be used to supplement cardiorespiratory training. § Avoid the Valsalva maneuver during resistance training.
Cardiorespiratory training- Hypertension time
§ Eventful goal of at least 30 minutes of continuous accumulated exercise § Clients with limited exercise capacity can accumulate bouts of intermittent exercise (10 minutes) throughout the day.
Wrist
§ Flexor carpi radialis- flexion
Load/speed training
§ Focus on application of external loads to movements to create increased force production to meet desired goals. § Integrate the five primary movement patterns through exercises that load them in different planes of motion and combinations. § Integrate Functional Training exercises to enhance postural stability and kinetic chain mobility to support increased workloads. § Programs should focus on adequate resistance training loads to help clients reach muscular strength, endurance, and hypertrophy goals. § Clients with goals for athletic performance will integrate exercises and drills to build speed, agility, quickness, and power.
Load/speed training:
§ Focus on application of external loads to movements to create increased force production to meet desired goals. § Integrate the five primary movement patterns through exercises that load them in different planes of motion and combinations. § Integrate functional training exercises to enhance postural stability and kinetic chain mobility to support increased workloads. § Programs should focus on adequate resistance training loads to help clients reach muscular strength, endurance, and hypertrophy goals. § Clients with goals for athletic performance will integrate exercises and drills to build speed, agility, quickness, and power.
Movement training
§ Focus on developing good movement patterns without compromising postural or joint stability. § Program should include exercises for all five primary movement patterns in varies planes of motion. § Integrate Functional Training exercises to help clients maintain and improve postural stability and kinetic chain mobility.
Movement training:
§ Focus on developing good movement patterns without compromising postural or joint stability. § Programs should include exercises for all five primary movement patterns in varied planes of motion. § Integrate functional training exercises to help clients maintain and improve postural stability and kinetic chain mobility.
Functional training:
§ Focus on establishing/reestablishing postural stability and kinetic chain mobility. § Exercise programs should improve muscular endurance, flexibility, core function, and static and dynamic balance. § Progress exercise volume and challenge as function improves
Functional training
§ Focus on establishing/reestablishing postural stability and kinetic chain mobility. § Exercise programs should improve muscular endurance, flexibility, core function, and statistic and dynamic balance. § Progress exercise volume and challenge as function improves.
Base training:
§ Focus on moderate-intensity cardiorespiratory exercise (RPE = 3 to 4), while keeping an emphasis on enjoyment. § Keep intensities below the talk-test threshold (below VT1). § Increase duration and frequency of exercise bouts. § Progress to fitness training when the client can complete at least 20 minutes of cardiorespiratory exercise below the talk test threshold.
Base training
§ Focus on moderate-intensity cardiorespiratory exercise (RPE = 3 to 4), while keeping an emphasis on enjoyment. § Keep intensities below the talk—test threshold (below VT1). § Increase duration and frequency of exercise bouts. § Progress to Fitness Training when the client can complete at least 20 minutes of cardiorespiratory exercise below the talk test threshold.
Using the FITT general guidelines/recommendations for Cardiorespiratory training.
§ Frequency- be active on most days of the week, but at least three to four days. Work up to five days a week. Lifestyle activities should be often throughout each day. § Intensity- exercise at a moderate level of intensity. To maximize energy expenditure, work at the highest intensity that can be sustained comfortably for a long time. § Time- exercise 30 to 60 minutes per day. This can be done in one session or in multiple shorter bouts of exercise. Lifestyle activities are usually done in shorter segments throughout the day. § Type- perform low-impact, rhythmic exercises using large muscle groups. Exercise can be either weight-bearing (e.g., brisk walking) or non-weight bearing (e.g., cycling and swimming).
Using the FITT general guidelines/recommendations for Muscular Training
§ Frequency- perform muscular training at least two days per week, with a day of rest between sessions. § Intensity- exercise at a moderate level. If a client can lift a weight only eight to 15 times per set, this would be a moderate intensity. The goal of a client with obesity should be to improve muscular strength and endurance so that daily activities will be less challenging. § Time- this will depend on the number of exercises done. A full-body muscular-training program should require 20 to 30 minutes to complete. § Type- exercise all major muscle groups using free weights, machines, or body-weight exercises. The decision regarding what form of resistance to use is largely a function of personal preference, training experience, and a client's goals.
Hip
§ Gluteus maximus- extension and external rotation; superior fibers: abduction § Biceps femoris- extension, abduction, and slight external rotation
Cardiovascular
§ Heart muscle hypertrophy § Large stroke volume § Same evidence suggests that redistribution of cardiac output to active muscles may improve after training.
Time
§ Holding a static stretch for 10-30 seconds is recommended for most adults. § In older individuals, holding a stretch for 30-60 seconds may confer greater benefit. § For proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) stretching, a 3-6 second light-to-moderate contraction (e.g., 20-75% of maximum voluntary contraction) followed by a 10- to 30- second assisted stretch is desirable.
Muscular
§ Increased size and number of mitochondria § Growth in more capillaries around the recruited muscle fibers. § Could also be adaptions to contractile mechanisms § Increase in number of anerobic enzymes § May also be hypertrophy of the contractile proteins within the muscle fiber
Metabolic syndrome
§ MetsS is not a disease but rather a cluster of conditions that increases a person's risk for developing heart disease, type 2 diabetes, and stroke. The American Heart Association and the National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute recommend that MetS be identified by the presence of three or more of the following components: · Elevated waist circumference · Elevated triglycerides · Reduced high-density lipoprotein cholesterol · Increased blood pressure (systolic and/or diastolic) · Elevated fasting blood glucose
Cardiorespiratory training- Diabetes intensity
§ Moderate intensity: · Below VT1 HR; can talk comfortably · 40-59% HRR or VO2R · RPE 12-13 § Vigorous intensity · HR from VT1 to just below VT2 · 60-89% HRR or VO2R · RPE 14-17
Shoulder grille
§ Pectoralis major- flexion, extension, adduction, internal rotation, and horizontal adduction § Deltoid- entire muscle: abduction; anterior fibers: flexion, internal rotation, and horizontal rotation; posterior fibers: external rotation and horizontal abduction § Latissimus dorsi- extension, adduction, horizontal abduction, and internal rotation
Seated single-arm overhead press in the scapular plane:
§ Plane (s) of motion- frontal and sagittal (multiplanar) § Joint actions- shoulder abduction and adduction; elbow and shoulder flexion and extension; scapular upward and downward rotation
Squat:
§ Plane (s) of motion- sagittal § Joint actions- downward phase: hip and knee flexion and ankle dorsiflexion; upward phase: hip and knee extension and ankle plantar flexion
Biceps curl:
§ Plane (s) of motion- sagittal § Joint actions- upward phase: elbow flexion; downward phase: elbow extension
Step-up with dumbbells:
§ Plane (s) of motion- sagittal § Joint actions- upward phase: knee and hip flexion; downward phase: hip and knee extension
Front arm raise:
§ Plane (s) of motion- sagittal § Joint actions- upward phase: shoulder flexion; downward phase: hip and knee extension
Modified curl-up
§ Plane (s) of motion- sagittal § Joint actions- upward phase: trunk flexion; downward phase: trunk extension
Standing single-leg reach:
§ Plane (s) of motion- sagittal and frontal (multiplanar) § Joint actions- forward each: hip flexion; side reach: hip abduction; backward reach: hip extension; back and across reach: hip extension and adduction
Lunge with rotation:
§ Plane (s) of motion- sagittal and transverse § Joint actions- downward phase: hip and knee flexion; upward phase: hip extension; trunk rotation
Standing gate opened:
§ Plane (s) of motion- sagittal and transverse (multiplanar) § Joint actions- hip and knee flexion; hip lateral and medial rotation
Quadruped thoracic spine rotation:
§ Plane (s) of motion- transverse § Joint actions- spinal rotation is in the transverse plane; the knees and hips are flexed, but no motion is taking place. The elbow is also flexed, but no extension occurs.
High plank thoracic spine rotation:
§ Plane (s) of motion- transverse and frontal (multiplanar) § Joint actions- spinal and hip rotation; arm abduction when in the rotational phase
Seated cable chest press:
§ Plane (s) of motion- transverse and sagittal (multiplanar) § Joint actions- upward phase: horizontal adduction and elbow extension; downward phase: abduction and elbow flexion
Standing cable wood chop:
§ Plane (s) of motion- transverse, sagittal, and frontal (multiplanar) § Joint actions- trunk rotation (some shoulder flexion and extension as well as abduction and adduction)
Side lunge:
§ Plane (s) of motion-frontal and sagittal § Joint actions- downward phase: hip abduction and hip and knee flexion; upward phase: hip and knee extension and hip adduction
Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
§ Premise- Measures electrical signals as they pass through fat tissue, lean mass, and water in the body. § Pros- Noninvasive, simple to administrate § Cons- accuracy can vary based on hydration level of the client, sophistication of the machine, and validity the of the prediction algorithms § Practical for a personal training setting? yes
Air displacement plethysmography (ADP)
§ Premise- Measures the amount of air that is displaced when a person sits in the machine. § Pros- high accuracy § Cons- equipment is expensive § Practical for a personal training setting? no
Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
§ Premise- delivers a low dose x-ray that reads bone and soft tissue mass to identify regional body fat distribution § Pros- accuracy, precision § Cons- § Practical for a personal training setting? no
Hydrostatic weighing
§ Premise- measures the amount of water displaced when a person is completely submerged in water; indirectly measures body fat via body density. § Pros- gold standard for body fat assessment § Cons- uncomfortable procedure for many individuals, size of apparatus § Practical for a personal training setting? no
Near-infrared interactance (NIR)
§ Premise- uses a fiber optic probe connected to a digital probe that indirectly measures tissues composition § Pros- relatively inexpensive and fast § Cons- not as accurate as other techniques § Practical for a personal training setting? yes
Total body electrical conductivity (TOBEC)
§ Premise- uses an electromagnetic force field to assess relative body fat § Pros- § Cons- impractical an expensive § Practical for a personal training setting? no
Skinfold measurements
§ Premise- uses calipers to pinch a fold of skin and fat; equations are used to calculate body fat percentage § Pros- ease of administration and low cost § Cons- large margin of error with lack of experience § Practical for a personal training setting? yes
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
§ Premise- uses magnetic fields to assess how much fat a person has an where it has deposited § Pros- § Cons- not practical for assessing body fat § Practical for a personal training setting? no
You've been working with a client for the past three months who has made excellent progress with her fitness goals but is now interested in making more specific dietary changes. She asks you to create a weekly meal plan for her and provide recommend grocery lists. Knowing the defined scope of practice of a personal trainer, how might you address her desires while remaining within your scope? What other options can you offer her?
§ Principles of healthy nutrition and food preparation § Food to be included in the balanced diet § Essential nutrients needed by the body § Actions of nutrients on the body § Effects of deficiencies or excesses of nutrients § How nutrient requirements vary through the lifecycle § Principles of pre- and post-workout nutrition and hydration § Information about nutrients contained in foods or supplements
Performance training:
§ Program moderate- and vigorous-intensity cardiorespiratory exercise § Program sufficient volume for the client to achieve goals § Integrate near-maximal and maximal intensity (RPE = 7 to 10) intervals performed at and above VT2 to increase aerobic capacity, speed, and performance. § Periodized training plans can be used to incorporate adequate training time below VT1, from VT1 to just below VT2, and at or above VT2.
Fitness training
§ Progress cardiorespiratory exercise duration and frequency based on the client's goals and available time. § Integrate vigorous-intensity (RPE = 5 to 6) cardiorespiratory exercise intervals with segments performed at intensities below, at, and above VT1 to just below VT2.
Fitness training:
§ Progress cardiorespiratory exercise duration and frequency based on the client's goals and available time. § Integrate vigorous-intensity (RPE = 5 to 6) cardiorespiratory exercise intervals with segments performed at intensities below, at, and above VT1 to just below VT2.
Cardiorespiratory training- Hypertension progression
§ Progress following the ACE IFT Model based on client goals and availability. § Progression should be personalized dependent on tolerance, client goals, and consideration of the following factors: · Recent changes in antihypertensive drug therapy · Medication-related adverse effects · The presence of target-organ disease and/or other comorbidities
Performance training
§ Progress moderate and vigorous intensity cardiorespiratory exercise. § Program sufficient volume for the client to achieve goals. § Integrate near maximal and maximal intensity (RPE = 7 to 10) intervals performed at and above VT2 to increase aerobic capacity, speed, and performance. § Periodized training plans can be used to incorporate adequate training time below VT1, from VT1 to just below VT2, and at or above VT2.
Spine
§ Rectus abdominis- flexion and lateral flexion of the trunk § Erector spinae- extension (both sides) and lateral flexion
Knee
§ Rectus femoris- extension (most effective when hip is extended) § Biceps femoris- flexion and internal rotation
Pattern
§ Repetition of each flexibility exercise 2-4 times is recommended. § Flexibility exercise is most effective when the muscle is warmed through light-to-moderate aerobic activity or passively through external methods such as moist heat packs or hot baths.
Calculate the target heart rate (using the Karvonen Method) for a 35-year-old client with a resting heart rate of 60 bpm who wants to participate in vigorous-intensity exercise at 60% of heart rate reserve: Standardized (220-age)
§ THR = (HRR X %intensity) + RHR § Where: HRR = MHR - RHR § MHR = 220 - 35 = 185 bpm § HRR = 185 (MHR) - 60 (RHR) = 125 bpm § THR = 125 (HRR) X 0.60 (exercise intensity) + 60 (RHR) = 135 bpm
Calculate the target heart rate (using the Karvonen Method) for a 35-year-old client with a resting heart rate of 60 bpm who wants to participate in vigorous-intensity exercise at 60% of heart rate reserve: Gellish et al. (206.9 - (0.67 x age))
§ THR = (HRR x % intensity) + RHR § Where: HRR = MHR - RHR § MHR = 206.9 - (0.67 X 35) = 183 bpm § HRR = 183 (MHR) - 60 (RHR) = 123 bpm § THR = 123 (HRR) X 0.60 (exercise intensity) + 60 (RHR) = 134 bpm
Calculate the target heart rate (using the Karvonen Method) for a 35-year-old client with a resting heart rate of 60 bpm who wants to participate in vigorous-intensity exercise at 60% of heart rate reserve: Tanaka, Monahan, and Seals (208 - (0.7 x age))
§ THR = (HRR x intensity) + RHR § Where: HRR = MHR - RHR § MHR = 208 - (0.7 x 35) = 184 bpm § HRR = 184 (MHR) - 60 (RHR) = 124 bpm § THR = 124 (HRR) x 0.60 (desired intensity) + 60 (RHR) = 134 bpm
Phase 2: repair
§ Time- 3 days to 6 weeks § Characteristics- initial formation of scar § Movement- weight bearing as tolerated, gentile, pain-free movement § Contradictions- exercise and movement is contraindicated when pain and/or swelling is present at the site of injury.
Phase 3: remodeling
§ Time- 4 weeks to 2 years § Characteristics- increased strength of scar tissue § Movement- progressive, pain-free exercise § Contradictions- exercise and movement is contraindicated when pain and/or swelling is present at the site of injury.
Phase 1: inflammation
§ Time- first 3-4 days § Characteristics- redness, swelling, pain, and local heat § Movement- non-weight bearing, active range of motion § Contradictions- exercise and movement is contraindicated when pain and/or swelling is present at the site of injury.
Base training
§ Training focus- the principal focus is on getting clients who are either physically inactive or have little cardiorespiratory fitness to begin engaging in regular exercise. § Program design purpose- to create positive experiences for clients in order to facilitate program adherence and success. § Associated zone- zone 1 § Who it is for- this phase is the starting point for all deconditioned individuals, but these intensities will continue to be incorporated after progressing beyond Base Training to maintain cardiorespiratory fitness.
Performance training
§ Training focus- this phase focuses on endurance-performance objectives that require specialized training to ensure that adequate training volume and appropriate training intensity and recovery are included to create performance changes that help her client reach his or her objectives. § Program design purpose- to focus on helping the client enhance his or her cardiorespiratory to ensure completion of goal events, while building anaerobic capacity to achieve endurance-performance goals. § Associated zone- all three zones can be utilized. § Who is it for- clients who have endurance-performance objectives
Fitness training
§ Training focus- this phase has a principal training focus of increasing the time of cardiorespiratory exercise while introducing intervals to improve fitness and health. § Program design purpose- to enhance the client's cardiorespiratory efficiency by progressing the program through increased duration of sessions, increased frequency of sessions when possible, and the introduction of zone 2 intervals. § Associated zone- zone 1 introduction and zone 2 intervals. § Who it is for- regular clients in a fitness facility who have goals for improving or maintaining fitness and/or health.
Cardiorespiratory training- Diabetes time
§ Type 1 diabetes · 150 minutes/week at moderate intensity; 75 minutes at vigorous intensity, or combination of both § Type 2 diabetes · 150 minutes/week at moderate intensity
Examples of questions:
§ What motivated you to seek the services of a personal trainer? § What do you hope to gain or accomplish by working with a personal trainer? § What has worked for you in the past? § What do you need to start doing now to move closer to your goals? § What do you need to stop doing that will enable you to reach your goals?
Examples of strategies for collaborating:
§ Work together to identify SMART goals and establish specific action-oriented steps to take. § Allow the client to lead the discussion of how to monitor and measure progress (this fosters client ownership in the process).