ACSM Domain I: Initial Client Consultation & Assessment

Closed pack

A joint is the most stable when it is in which of the following positions? a) Closed pack b) Open pack c) Extended d) Flexed

Dorsiflexed for 60 seconds

A 48-year-old female client has very tight gastrocnemius muscles. To facilitate permanent changes in the length of these muscles, in what position should the foot be placed and for what duration? a) Plantarflexed position for 30 to 40 seconds b) Inverted position for 30 to 40 seconds c) Everted position for 2 to 3 minutes d) Dorsiflexed position for 60 seconds

Has good self-efficacy related to exercise

A client who states that he or she can participate confidently in an exercise program: a) Is intrinsically motivated. b) Has very strong self-esteem. c) Is in the contemplation stage of behavior change. d) Has good self-efficacy related to exercise.

Frontal

A lateral lunge is performed in which plane of movement?

Decrease, decrease

A physiologic adaptation to aerobic conditioning in untrained individuals will result in a/an ________ in resting heart rate and a/an ________ in exercise heart rate at a submaximal effort. a) Decrease, increase b) Decrease, decrease c) Increase, increase d) Increase, decrease

Flexion; extension

A posterior pelvic tilt produces lumbar ________ and an anterior pelvic tilt produces lumbar ________. a) Flexion; extension b) Flexion; flexion c) Extension; flexion d) Extension; extension

Maintenance

A potential client has been walking two miles, several times a week, for the past few months and would like to continue progress toward her goals. You suggest that she train with you for several sessions to teach her things she can do on her own. This would help reinforce which stage of change? a) Maintenance b) Preparation c) Action d) Contemplation

75%; 90%

A range of ________ to ________ of one repetition maximum (1 RM) is recommended for optimizing strength gains. a) 50%; 60% b) 60%; 75% c) 80%; 95% d) 75%; 90%

30 minutes of moderate intensity activity, at least 3 days per week, for at least 3 months.

A sedentary lifestyle is defined as NOT participating in at least: a) 30 minutes of moderate intensity activity, at least 3 days per week, for at least 3 months. b) 75 minutes of moderate intensity activity, at least 5 days per week, for at least 3 months. c) 30 minutes of moderate intensity activity, at least 5 days per week, for at least 3 months. d) 75 minutes of moderate intensity activity, at least 3 days per week, for at least 3 months.

Leg extension

An example of an open chain exercise is the: a) Push-up b) Squat c) Leg extension d) Pull-up

Contemplation

An overweight individual expresses motivation to lose weight after the birth of his son. He is in which stage of change? a) Contemplation b) Action c) Preparation d) Precontemplation

Palpitations

An uncomfortable rhythm of heart beats or forceful heart beats

Congestive heart failure

Ankle edema may be indicative of which of the following? a) Posterior compartment syndrome b) Claudication c) Anterior compartment syndrome d) Congestive heart failure

85%-90%

Approximately what percent of cardiac output is distributed to skeletal muscles during exercise? a) 15%-20% b) 85%-90% c) 35%-40% d) 55%-60%

Explain and demonstrate each assessment before the client is tested.

Before any health and fitness assessment is administered, the MOST important first course of action is to: a) Have the client read about the assessment and understand the testing norms. b) Ensure that the client is properly hydrated. c) Explain and demonstrate each assessment before the client is tested. d) Obtain baseline heart rate and respiration.

Determine and establish neutral pelvic position.

Before you design an abdominal exercise program for a client you should FIRST: a) Stretch the erector spinae muscles to minimize lumbar spine stress. b) Determine and establish neutral pelvic position. c) Ask if the client wants to emphasize the upper or lower abs. d) Determine how many full sit-ups can be performed.

Sagittal

Deviations in which plane are referred to as "hyperlordosis"? a) Sagittal b) Horizontal c) Frontal d) Transverse

a) Refer the client to another personal trainer who would be more compatible.

During the initial client-contact process, you find that your potential client would rather work with a trainer of another gender. You should: a) Refer the client to another personal trainer who would be more compatible. b) Discuss your experience, training style, and educational background to make the client more comfortable with you. c) Provide a complimentary session to demonstrate your professional competence. d) Ask the client to sign up for an initial block of training sessions first.

Hip joint

Flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, internal rotation, and external rotation are possible joint actions found in the: a) Wrist joint b) Hip joint c) Carpal-metacarpal joint d) Saddle joint

Review paperwork and clarify goals.

Following the initial client contact, what are the next steps after the client has completed and returned all forms to you? a) Conduct client consultation. b) Recommend appropriate personal training packages. c) Discuss expectations. d) Review paperwork and clarify goals.

Right; chest, abdomen, and thigh

For men, a 3-site skinfold assessment is taken on the ________ side of the body at the ________. a) Right; chest, abdomen, and thigh b) Left; triceps, suprailium, and thigh c) Left; chest, abdomen, and thigh d) Right; triceps, suprailium, and thigh

150

Health and fitness benefits occur with at least ______ minutes a week of moderate-intensity physical activity.

Lower mortality rates

Higher levels of cardiovascular fitness are associated with:

Prediabetes

Impaired glucose tolerance is consistent with which of the following? a) Type 2 diabetes b) Type 1 diabetes c) Prediabetes d) Dyslipidemia

Shifted over the base of support

In a sit-to-stand movement, where is the center of gravity? a) Shifted over the base of support b) Posterior to the axis of the knee joint c) Slightly anterior to the axis of the hip joint d) Over the second sacrum

Exercising in heat

In which environmental condition is it MOST important to replace body fluids?? a) Exercising in heat b) Exercising in both heat and cold c) Exercising in humidity d) Exercising in the cold

Chronic cardiorespiratory activity.

Increased mitochondrial density is a result of: a) Chronic resistance training. b) Acute bouts of resistance training. c) Chronic cardiorespiratory activity. d) Acute bouts of cardiorespiratory fitness.

Moderate soreness

Individuals reporting ________ following resistance training should significatnly reduce the overload and volume and increase the amount of rest. a) Joint tightness b) Moderate soreness c) Transient hypertrophy d) Minor soreness

A lack of oxygen.

Ischemia is caused by: a) Chest pain. b) Left ventricular dysfunction. c) A lack of oxygen. d) Decreased stroke volume.

The convexity of the spinal curve is posterior.

Kyphosis is defined as: a) The convexity of the spinal curve is medial. b) The convexity of the spinal curve is anterior. c) The convexity of the spinal curve is lateral. d) The convexity of the spinal curve is posterior.

Horizontal Adduction

Movement toward the midline in the transverse plane describes which term? a) Adduction b) Horizontal adduction c) Abduction d) Horizontal abduction

A one-time maximal force that may be exerted and is localized to a joint or muscle group.

Muscular strength is defined as: a) The ability to apply a force repeatedly over time. b) A one-time maximal force that may be exerted and is localized to a joint or muscle group. c) The number of muscle spindles recruited during a maximal contraction. d) The amount of motor units recruited in 8 to 12 reps.

Intermittent claudication

Pain that occurs in the lower extremities during walking and disappears after stopping.

Increased force requirements of the quadriceps

Performing a squat with a board placed under the heels results in which of the following? a) Increased force requirements of the quadriceps b) Lengthened gastrocnemius and soleus c) Minimized patellofemoral joint forces d) Assists in establishing neutral spine

The transverse plane.

Pronation of the wrist joint occurs in: a) The transverse plane. b) Multiple planes. c) The sagittal plane. d) The frontal plane.

Erector spinae; multifidus

Respectively, lateral flexion and axial rotation are produced by which of the following muscles during unilateral contraction? a) Rectus abdominis; mid-trapezius b) Erector spinae; multifidus c) Piriformis; semispinalis d) Iliopsoas; erector spinae

Rapid breakdown of muscle tissue

Rhabdomyolysis is a clinical pathology that is characterized by ________. a) Rapid breakdown of muscle tissue b) Mild muscle soreness c) Delayed onset muscle soreness d) Reduced lactic acid production

He is incorrect in his approach and rationale, as he should be training using a constant repetition speed to maximize muscle work.

Ron is training for leg muscle hypertrophy on the squat. He believes that by utilizing an explosive, rapid repetition speed he will increase the amount of work he is doing and thus "overload his quads better." He wants to know if his rationale is correct. Which of the following is the MOST accurate response? a) He is incorrect in his approach and rationale, as he is using too much momentum in his training and should maximize acceleration in order to maximize work. b) He should continue to train using a rapid lifting technique to attain his goal, but his rationale is incorrect as he is increasing torque, not work. c) He is incorrect in his approach and rationale, as he should be training using a constant repetition speed to maximize muscle work. d) He is correct in his rationale and should try to increase his repetition speed.

Sagittal

Running is done predominately in what plane of movement?

Lateral deviation of the spine.

Scoliosis is defined as: a) Posterior deviation of the spine. b) A combination of kyphosis and lordosis. c) Lateral deviation of the spine. d) Medial deviation of the spine.

Minimize the amount of trunk flexion at the start of the concentric phase.

Sean is performing barbell squats with the intent of building up his quadriceps muscles. To make the quadriceps perform MORE work and INCREASE the efficiency of the exercise, he should: a) Minimize the amount of trunk flexion at the start of the concentric phase. b) Push up, utilizing the muscles around the hip joint. c) Maintain a cervical extension posture throughout the movement. d) Utilize the proper size weightlifting belt.

Nervous system

Strength gains during early phases of resistance training are largely due to changes in the: a) Respiratory system b) Myofilaments c) Nervous system d) Sarcomeres

Loss of consciousness

Syncope is defined as:

Sagittal

The elbow can performs movements in which plane? a) Horizontal b) Transitional c) Frontal d) Sagittal

Dynamic

The best types of stretches to include in a warm-up for walking or cycling are:

Dorsiflexion; talus

The foot's most stable position is in __________ due to the overall shape of the __________. a) Plantarflexion; talus b) Dorsiflexion; distal fibula c) Plantarflexion; calcaneus d) Dorsiflexion; talus

Posterior tibial compartment

The gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris are located in which lower leg area? a) Superficial posterior compartment b) Anterior tibial compartment c) Deep posterior compartment d) Posterior tibial compartment

DOMS

The most common manifestation of muscle injury is ________.

Pec major and anterior delt

The muscles involved in a dumbbell fly and cable fly are the: a) Teres major and pectoralis major b) Anterior deltoid and latissimus dorsi c) Pectoralis major and anterior deltoid d) Latissimus dorsi and teres major

Medial deltoid and supraspinatus

The muscles that abduct the shoulder joint are the: a) Anterior deltoid and pectoralis major b) Medial deltoid and supraspinatus c) Levator scapula and upper trapezius d) Serratus anterior and subscapularis

Medial

The muscles that function to adduct the hip joint are collectively in which area of the hip? a) Anterior b) Posterior c) Medial d) Lateral

Heart rate and stroke volume

The products that make up cardiac output are:

Load; volume

The resistance ________ and ________ of training need to be carefully progressed and monitored to limit muscle tissue damage. a) Load; volume b) Load; rest c) Sets; reps d) Intensity; reps

Scapulothoracic

The shoulder girdle refers to which specific joint? a) Acromioclavicular b) Sternoclavicular c) Glenohumeral d) Scapulothoracic

Kinesiology

The study of the mechanics of human movement is called: a) Kinesiology. b) Biomechanics. c) Biology. d) Kinematics.

Saddle

The thumb is classified as a ________ joint. a) Ball and socket b) Saddle c) Ellipsoidal d) Pivot

Cardiac output

The volume of blood pumped by the heart in liters per minute is defined as__________.

Use a client-centered approach.

To build a successful client relationship, you should: a) Use a client-centered approach. b) Provide unsolicited advice for motivation. c) Offer excellent customer service and hospitality. d) Demonstrate your knowledge and professionalism frequently.

Arrive early or on time.

To demonstrate outstanding customer service during your initial client contact, you should: a) Arrive early or on time. b) Speak respectfully to the client. c) Dress appropriately and professionally. d) Be prepared for the appointment.

extended; flexed

To fully stretch the quadriceps, the hip joint must be ________ and the knee joint ________. a) extended; flexed b) flexed; extended c) extended; extended d) flexed; flexed

Posture, functional movement, muscular strength, and endurance

What assessments are MOST important to complete before beginning resistance training? a) Cardio-respiratory fitness using the submaximal talk test to determine HR at VT1 b) Blood pressure, resting heart rate, body composition, and waist to hip ratio c) Posture, functional movement, muscular strength, and endurance d) Health-history data to identify contraindications for exercise and the need for referral

Cartilage

What is a resilient, semi-rigid form of connective tissue that reduces the friction and absorbs some of the shock in synovial joints?

Past exercise performance

What is the MOST influential source of self-efficacy information related to exercise? a) Emotional state of mind b) Persuasive verbal feedback c) Vicarious exercise experiences d) Past exercise performance

0.88

What is the waist-to-hip ratio threshold at which a female client's health is considered at risk? a) 0.79 b) 0.82 c) 0.85 d) 0.88

Right ventricle

Where does blood flow immediately after passing through the tricuspid valve?

Informed Consent

Which document acknowledges an "assumption of risk" with regard to the participation in physical activity?

ATP and creatine phosphate

Which energy system is utilized for a 100-meter sprint? a) Aerobic oxidation b) Anaerobic glycolysis c) ATP and creatine phosphate d) ATP

Informed Consent

Which evaluation form does a client sign to acknowledge that he or she has been educated about and understands the risks associated with being active?

Lateral raises in the frontal plane to 90°, humeral abduction with 30 lb dumbbells, elbows extended

Which exercise results in the greatest amount of torque from the muscles of the shoulder joint? a) Lateral raises in the frontal plane to 90°, humeral abduction with 30 lb dumbbells, elbows flexed 90° b) Shoulder shrugs, using 85 lb dumbbells, with elbows extended c) Shoulder shrugs, using 50 lb dumbbells, elbows extended d) Lateral raises in the frontal plane to 90°, humeral abduction with 30 lb dumbbells, elbows extended

Gluteus maximus and hamstrings

Which group of muscles function to extend the hip joint?

Adduction

Which joint movement occurs in the frontal plane? a) Circumduction b) Flexion c) Adduction d) Extension

Internal rotation

Which joint movement occurs in the transverse plane? a) Adduction b) Internal rotation c) Abduction d) Flexion

Compression of the tendons in the subacromial space with shoulder joint motion

Which of the following BEST describes shoulder impingement? a) Compression of the tendons in the subacromial space with shoulder joint motion b) Increased shoulder pressure on the superior aspect of the acromion process c) Crushing of only the supraspinatus tendon and bursa in the suprahumeral space d) Increased shoulder pain when moving into shoulder horizontal abduction

Seated calf raises emphasize the soleus muscle, while the standing calf raise emphasizes the gastrocnemius muscle.

Which of the following BEST describes the primary difference between standing and seated calf raises? a) Seated calf raises emphasize the gastrocnemius muscle, while the standing calf raise emphasizes the soleus muscle. b) The seated calf raise targets the soleus, while the standing calf raise targets the gastrocnemius and invertors. c) Seated calf raises emphasize the soleus muscle, while the standing calf raise emphasizes the gastrocnemius muscle. d) The seated calf raise targets the muscle primarily responsible for power in the lower leg, while the standing calf raise targets the muscle primarily responsible for endurance.

Decisional Balance

Which of the following assesses the number of pros and cons perceived about adopting and maintaining an activity? a) Process of change b) Self-efficacy c) Operant conditioning d) Decisional balance

30° anterior to the frontal plane

Which of the following best describes the scapular or caption plane? a) 30° anterior to the frontal plane b) 30° lateral to the sagittal plane c) In line with the sagittal plane d) In line with the frontal plane

Regular exercise can increase HDL cholesterol levels.

Which of the following best summarizes the effect of regular exercise on dyslipidemia? a) Exercise may have a favorable result in increasing the total cholesterol to HDL-C ratios b) Triglyceride levels are reduced for up to 36 hours following exercise. c) Exercises increases LDL-C levels d) Regular exercise can increase HDL cholesterol levels.

Self-efficacy

Which of the following can help a client transition from one stage of change to the next? a) Self-efficacy b) Role models c) Health concerns d) Self-directed goals

Arteriovenous oxygen difference

Which of the following cardiac variables will increase as a result of regular aerobic training at a submaximal effort? a) Systolic blood pressure b) Arteriovenous oxygen difference c) Blood lactate d) Exercise heart rate

"Heaviness"

Which of the following common characteristics are reported by those experiencing symptoms consistent with coronary artery disease? a) "Heaviness" b) "Light-headed" c) "Pounding" d) "Beating"

Mechanical disadvantage

Which of the following decreases efficiency during resistance training? a) Biomechanical angle velocity b) Mechanical disadvantage c) Acceleration torque production d) Torsional maximization

124 mg·dL-1

Which of the following fasting blood glucose levels are indicative of prediabetes? a) 145 mg·dL-1 b) 96 mg·dL-1 c) 124 mg·dL-1 d) 82 mg·dL-1

Aerobic exercise training

Which of the following has the greatest effect on the reduction of blood pressure? a) Strength training b) Interval training c) Circuit training d) Aerobic exercise training

The client is talking more than the Personal Trainer.

Which of the following indicates that a client-centered approach is being used? a) The client is talking more than the Personal Trainer. b) The client is speaking at a normal pace. c) The Personal Trainer is helping the client make connections between risk factors and health. d) The Personal Trainer is asking closed-end questions.

Goals bring focus and energy toward desired behavior

Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding Goal Setting Theory? a) Goals become secondary to the process of reaching them b) Goals actually provide little intrinsic and extrinsic motivation c) Goals provide guidance to trainers on the type of expert guidance required d) Goals bring focus and energy toward the desired behavior

Behavior change is linked to relationships, environment, and community.

Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding the socioecological model? a) Gradual changes in behavior are linked to social support. b) Support is mainly provided through knowledge and skills. c) Behavior change is linked to relationships, environment, and community. d) Ecological mapping often discourages physical activity.

Scapulothoracic

Which of the following is NOT considered a true joint? a) Glenohumeral b) Sternoclavicular c) Scapulothoracic d) Acromioclavicular

Increased exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs and symptoms

Which of the following is a chronic benefit of regular cardiovascular exercise? a) Decreased capillary density in skeletal muscle b) Increased exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs and symptoms c) Increased heart rate and blood pressure at a given submaximal intensity d) Decreased maximal oxygen uptake resulting from both central and peripheral adaptations

Thigh

Which of the following is a similar site for both a male and a female when performing a 3-site skinfold test? a) Thigh b) Abdomen c) Chest d) Supraliac

Increase in stroke volume

Which of the following is an acute response to cardiorespiratory exercise? a) Decrease in blood pressure b) Increase in resting heart rate c) Increase in stroke volume d) Decrease in cardiac output

Reduced blood flow to the gut

Which of the following is an acute response to exercise? a) Reduced body fat b) Reduced blood flow to the gut c) Reduced resting heart rate d) Reduced resting blood pressure

Glenohumeral

Which of the following is an example of an enarthrodial joint? a) Radiounlar b) Glenohumeral c) Acromioclavicular d) Carpal-metacarpal

Prevents blood pooling in the extremities

Which of the following is the MOST important rationale for a cool-down phase? a) Prevents blood pooling in the extremities b) Elevates plasma levels of β-endorphins c) Prevents blood glucose levels from dropping below pre-exercise levels d) Minimizes muscle adhesions and post-exercise soreness

Isokinetic

Which of the following muscle actions controls the movement and maintains a constant speed throughout the range of motion? a) Isokinetic b) Isometric c) Eccentric d) Concentric

Erector spinae

Which of the following muscles exerts an upward pull on the posterior surfaces of the pelvis resulting in a neutral pelvic position? a) Erector spinae b) Rectus abdominis c) Hamstrings d) Hip flexors

Palmaris longus

Which of the following muscles is involved in a dumbbell wrist curl? a) Palmaris longus b) Extensor carpi radialis c) Extensor carpi ulnaris d) Pronator quadratus

Levator scapulae

Which of the following muscles is superior to the latissimus dorsi? a) Erector spinae b) Lower trapezius c) Levator scapulae d) External oblique

Waist of 36 inches for females

Which of the following profiles is considered a risk factor with respect to obesity? a) Body fat percent of 25% for males b) Waist of 36 inches for females c) Body fat percent of 25% for females d) Waist of 38 inches for males

Plyometric training

Which of the following provides for an ideal stress on the bone to promote positive adapations in the bone? a) Indoor cycling b) Swimming c) Plyometric training d) Indoor rowing

Educate the client about the risks of being inactive and the associated increase in morbidity and mortality.

Which of the following strategies is LEAST effective in promoting client ownership of the exercise program? a) Educate the client about the risks of being inactive and the associated increase in morbidity and mortality. b) Reinforce the client's behavior by teaching how to self-regulate. c) Have the client document their thoughts, experiences, and emotions in a journal. d) Empower the client through education in determining the program outcomes.

Over-developed anterior deltoid

Which of the following would MOST likely lead to impingement syndrome? a) Over-developed mid-trapezius b) Over-developed anterior deltoid c) Over-developed posterior deltoid d) Over-developed lower trapezius

Over developed anterior deltoid

Which of the following would MOST likely lead to impingement syndrome? a) Over-developed posterior deltoid b) Over-developed anterior deltoid c) Over-developed lower trapezius d) Over-developed mid-trapezius

Sagittal

Which plane of movement divides the body between the left and right?

Subscapularis

Which rotator cuff muscle internally rotates the shoulder joint? a) Teres minor b) Subscapularis c) Teres major d) Supraspinatus

Golf

Which sport is performed primarily in the ATP (anaerobic) pathway? a) 400-meter dash b) Golf c) Swimming d) Tennis

Unable to externally rotate the shoulder joint past 60°.

While supine, your client performs range of motion on the shoulder joint. She displays tightness in the infraspinatus and teres minor. You were led to this conclusion since the client was: a) Unable to abduct the arm to shoulder level. b) Able to reach overhead to the contralateral shoulder. c) Able to internally rotate the shoulder joint to about 60°. d) Unable to externally rotate the shoulder joint past 60°.

Reschedule the appointment, and underscore the importance of having all forms completed and signed.

You client forgets to bring the service introduction packet but is dressed appropriately for exercise. You should do what?

Rhomboids and mid-trapezius

Your client needs to strengthen her scapular retractors to enhance her scapulothoracic stability. Given this need, you should strengthen which of the following muscles? a) Latissimus dorsi and subscapularis b) Pectoralis minor and trapezius c) Rhomboids and mid-trapezius d) Posterior deltoid and triceps brachii

Neural adaptations

Your client notices that he is able to perform several resistance exercises with more weight and a few more repetitions after the first two weeks of training. Which of the following BEST explains these training effects? a) Neural adaptations b) Aerobic enzyme changes c) Anaerobic enzyme changes d) Muscle capillary density

Health/Medical History Evaluation, Medical Clearance Form, and Informed Consent

Your new client is ready to start training next week. You provide her with a service introduction packet which must include, at a minimum, which of the following forms? a) Medical Clearance Form, Personal Trainer-Client Agreement, and liability waiver b) PAR-Q, Personal Trainer-Client Agreement, and training log c) Health/Medical History Evaluation, liability waiver, and training log d) Health/Medical History Evaluation, Medical Clearance Form, and Informed Consent

High risk and require that the client obtain a physician's clearance.

Your potential client has a history of swollen ankles and reports shortness of breath when walking up the stairs. You would classify this as: a) Moderate risk and start the client on a low-intensity exercise that progresses gradually. b) Moderate risk and require that the client undergo exercise testing under a physician's supervision. c) High risk and start the client on a low-intensity exercise that progresses gradually. d) High risk and require that the client obtain a physician's clearance.

Systolic blood pressure

____________ is the pressure exerted on the arterial wall during the ventricular contraction phase.