Addiction

A client who is unable to control binge drinking requires increased amounts of alcohol to achieve the same level of intoxication. The client is experiencing marital strife and legal problems. The client's behaviors meet the criteria for which DSM-5 diagnostic category? 1) Dual diagnosis 2) Alcohol use disorder 3) Neurocognitive disorder 4) Alcohol intoxication

2) Alcohol use disorder This client has developed tolerance, cannot control alcohol intake, and has continued use despite persistent problems related to drinking. These symptoms meet the criteria for the diagnosis of alcohol use disorder in the DSM-5.

Which primary factor is critical in maintaining abstinence for the client diagnosed with alcohol use disorder? 1) Attendance at Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) meetings 2) Personal commitment to change 3) Family involvement 4) Compliance with pharmacological therapy

2) Personal commitment to change The first step in the recovery process necessitates that the client accept ownership of the problem and establish a behavioral change commitment to continued abstinence.

In evaluating learning, the nurse asked the client to answer the following statement: "When used in combination with anxiolytic medication, alcohol leads to _____________ effects and caffeine leads to _______________ effects." 1) Increased; increased 2) Increased; decreased 3) Decreased; decreased 4) Decreased; increased

2. Anxiolytic medications work through depression of certain CNS functions. Alcohol, which is a CNS depressant, would increase/potentiate their effects. Caffeine, which is a CNS stimulant, would decrease/inhibit their effects.

An impaired nurse is admitted to an inpatient substance abuse treatment facility. Which applies to his situation? 1) The nurse must relinquish his driver's license to the office of motor vehicles. 2) The nurse is mandated to comply with treatment and prescribed therapies. 3) The nurse is not mandated to meet specific requirements, because all civil rights are ensured. 4) The nurse must relinquish his registered nurse (RN) license to the state board of nursing.

3) The nurse is not mandated to meet specific requirements, because all civil rights are ensured. Although some variations occur from state to state, currently psychiatric clients maintain all of their civil rights. This nurse is not mandated by law to meet specific requirements, because all civil rights are ensured.

Symptoms of acute alcoholic myopathy include (select all that apply): A. Elevations of CPK B. Red-tinged urine C. parasthesias D. Calf swelling

A, B, D. In acute alcoholic myopathy creatine phosphokinase (CPK), lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), aldolase, and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) are elevated. Urine is red-tinged from myoglobin, a product of muscle breakdown. Parasthesias are characteristic of peripheral neuropathy, not myopathy. Calf swelling, as well as swelling of other muscle groups is also a sign.

A client was in an automobile accident and while there is the odor of alcohol on his breath, his speech is clear, and he is alert and answers questions posed to him. His blood alcohol level is determined to be 0.30 mg%. What conclusion can be drawn? A. The client has a high tolerance to alcohol. B. The client ate a high-fat meal before drinking. C. The client has a decreased tolerance to alcohol. D. The client's blood alcohol level is within legal limits.

A. The client has a high tolerance to alcohol. A nontolerant drinker would evidence staggering, ataxia, confusion, and stupor at this blood alcohol level.

A polysubstance abuser makes the statement, "The green and whites do me good after speed." How might the nurse interpret the statement? A. The ct abuses amphetamines and anxiolytics B. The Ct abused alcohol and cocaine C. The Ct is psychotic D. The ct abuses narcotics and marijuana

A. The ct abuses amphetamines and anxiolytics

Symptoms that would signal opioid withdrawal include A. lacrimation, rhinorrhea, dilated pupils, and muscle aches. B. illusions, disorientation, tachycardia, and tremors. C. fatigue, lethargy, sleepiness, and convulsions. D. synesthesia, depersonalization, and hallucinations.

A. lacrimation, rhinorrhea, dilated pupils, and muscle aches. Symptoms of opioid withdrawal resemble the "flu"; they include runny nose, tearing, diaphoresis, muscle aches, cramps, chills, and fever.

Nursing assessment of an alcohol-dependent client 6 to 12 hours after the last drink would most likely reveal the presence of A. tremors. B. seizures. C. blackouts. D. hallucinations.

A. tremors. Tremors are an early sign of alcohol withdrawal

A nursing instructor is teaching nursing students about cirrhosis of the liver. Which of the following statements about the complications of hepatic encephalopathy should indicate to the nursing instructor that further student teaching is needed? (Select all that apply.) 1. "A diet rich in protein will promote hepatic healing." 2. "This condition results from a rise in serum ammonia, leading to impaired mental functioning." 3. "In this condition, an excessive amount of serous fluid accumulates in the abdominal cavity." 4. "Neomycin and lactulose are used in the treatment of this condition." 5. "This condition is caused by the inability of the liver to convert ammonia to urea."

ANS: 1 Rationale: The nursing instructor should understand that further teaching is needed if the nursing student states that a diet rich in protein will promote hepatic healing. The treatment of hepatic encephalopathy requires abstention from alcohol and temporary elimination of protein from the diet.

A nurse is assessing a pathological gambler. What would differentiate this client's behaviors from the behaviors of a non-pathological gambler? 1. Pathological gamblers have abnormal levels of neurotransmitters, whereas non-pathological gamblers do not. 2. Pathological gambling occurs more commonly among women, whereas non-pathological gambling occurs more commonly among men. 3. Pathological gambling generally runs an acute course, whereas non-pathological gambling runs a chronic course. 4. Pathological gambling is not related to stress relief, whereas non-pathological gambling is related to stress relief

ANS: 1 Rationale: There is a correlation between pathological gambling and abnormalities in the serotonergic, noradrenergic, and dopaminergic neurotransmitter systems. This is not the case with non-pathological gambling. For a pathological gambler, the preoccupation with and impulse to gamble intensifies when the individual is under stress. This is not the case with non-pathological gambling. Pathological gambling occurs more commonly among men not women and generally runs a chronic not acute course.

Which of the following nursing statements exemplify the cognitive process that must be completed by a nurse prior to caring for clients diagnosed with a substance-related disorder? (Select all that apply.) 1. "I am easily manipulated and need to work on this prior to caring for these clients." 2. "Because of my father's alcoholism, I need to examine my attitude toward these clients." 3. "I need to review the side effects of the medications used in the withdrawal process." 4. "I'll need to set boundaries to maintain a therapeutic relationship." 5. "I need to take charge when dealing with clients diagnosed with substance disorders."

ANS: 1, 2, 4 Rationale: The nurse should complete a cognitive process prior to caring for clients diagnosed with substance-abuse disorders. It is important for nurses to identify potential areas of need within their own cognitions that may affect their relationships with clients diagnosed with this problem.

A nursing counselor is about to meet with a client suffering from codependency. Which of the following data would further support the assessment of this dysfunctional behavior? (Select all that apply.) 1. The client has a long history of focusing thoughts and behaviors on other people. 2. The client, as a child, experienced overindulgent and overprotective parents. 3. The client is a people pleaser and does almost anything to gain approval. 4. The client exhibits helpless behaviors but actually feels very competent. 5. The client can achieve a sense of control only through fulfilling the needs of others.

ANS: 1, 3, 5 Rationale: The codependent person has a long history of focusing thoughts and behavior on other people and is able to achieve a sense of control only through fulfilling the needs of others. Codependant clients are "people pleasers" and will do almost anything to get the approval of others. They usually have experienced abuse or emotional neglect as a child. They outwardly appear very competent, but actually feel quite needy, helpless, or perhaps nothing at all.

A nursing supervisor is offering an impaired staff member information regarding employee assistance programs. Which of the following facts should the supervisor include? (Select all that apply.) 1. A hotline number will be available in order to call for peer assistance. 2. A verbal contract detailing the method of treatment will be initiated prior to the program. 3. Peer support is provided through regular contact with the impaired nurse. 4. Contact to provide peer support will last for one year. 5. One of the program goals is to intervene early in order to reduce hazards to clients.

ANS: 1, 3, 5 Rationale: The peer assistance programs strive to intervene early, to reduce hazards to clients, and increase prospects for the nurse's recovery. Most states provide either a hotline number that the impaired nurse may call or phone numbers of peer assistance committee members, which are made available for the same purpose. Typically, a written, not verbal, contract is drawn up, detailing the method of treatment, which may be obtained from various sources, such as employee assistance programs, Alcoholics Anonymous, Narcotics Anonymous, private counseling, or outpatient clinics. Peer support is provided through regular contact with the impaired nurse, usually for a period of two years, not one year.

A nursing supervisor is about to meet with a staff nurse suspected of diverting client medications. Which of the following assessment data would lead the supervisor to suspect that the staff nurse is impaired? (Select all that apply.) 1. The staff nurse is frequently absent from work. 2. The staff nurse experiences mood swings. 3. The staff nurse makes elaborate excuses for behavior. 4. The staff nurse frequently uses the restroom. 5. The staff nurse has a flushed face.

ANS: 2, 3, 4, 5 Rationale: A number of clues for recognizing substance impairment in nurses have been identified. They are not easy to detect and will vary according to the substance being used. There may be high absenteeism if the person's source is outside the work area, or the individual may rarely miss work if the substance source is at work. Some other possible signs are irritability, mood swings, tendency to isolate, elaborate excuses for behavior, unkempt appearance, impaired motor coordination, slurred speech, flushed face, inconsistent job performance, and frequent use of the restroom.

A client diagnosed with a gambling disorder asks the nurse about medications that may be ordered by the client's physician to treat this disorder. The nurse would give the client information on which medications? 1. Escitalopram (Lexapro) and clozapine (Clozaril) 2. Citalopram (Celexa) and olanzapine (Zyprexa) 3. Lithium carbonate (Lithobid) and sertraline (Zoloft) 4. Naltrexone (ReVia) and ziprasidone (Geodon)

ANS: 3 Rationale: The SSRIs and clomipramine have been used successfully in the treatment of pathological gambling as a form of obsessive-compulsive disorder. Lithium, carbamazepine, and naltrexone have also been shown to be effective. The antipsychotic medications clozapine, olanzapine, and ziprasidone are not treatments of choice for this disorder.

Which medication orders should a nurse anticipate for a client who has a history of benzodiazepine withdrawal delirium? 1. Haloperidol (Haldol) and fluoxetine (Prozac) 2. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) and donepezil (Aricept) 3. Disulfiram (Antabuse) and lorazepan (Ativan) 4. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) and phenytoin (Dilantin)

ANS: 4 Rationale: The nurse should anticipate that a physician would order chlordiazepoxide and phenytoin for a client who has a history of benzodiazepine withdrawal delirium. It is common for long-lasting benzodiazepines to be prescribed for substitution therapy. Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant used to prevent seizures.

A client is questioning the nurse about a newly prescribed medication, acamprosate calcium (Campral). Which is the most appropriate reply by the nurse? A. "This medication will help you maintain your abstinence." B. "This medication will cause uncomfortable symptoms if you combine it with alcohol." C. "This medication will decrease the effect alcohol has on your body." D. "This medication will lower your risk of experiencing a complicated withdrawal."

ANS: A Campral has been approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for the maintenance of abstinence from alcohol in clients diagnosed with alcohol dependence who are abstinent at treatment initiation.

A client diagnosed with chronic alcohol dependency is being discharged from an inpatient treatment facility after detoxification. Which client outcome related to Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) would be most appropriate for a nurse to discuss with the client during discharge teaching? A. After discharge, the client will immediately attend 90 AA meetings in 90 days. B. After discharge, the client will rely on an AA sponsor to help control alcohol cravings. C. After discharge, the client will incorporate family in AA attendance. D. After discharge, the client will seek appropriate deterrent medications through AA.

ANS: A The most appropriate client outcome for the nurse to discuss during discharge teaching is attending 90 AA meetings in 90 days after discharge. AA is a major self-help organization for the treatment of alcoholism. It accepts alcoholism as an illness and promotes total abstinence as the only cure.

A lonely, depressed divorcée has been self-medicating with cocaine for the past year. Which term should a nurse use to best describe this individual's situation? A. The individual is experiencing psychological dependency. B. The individual is experiencing physical dependency. C. The individual is experiencing substance dependency. D. The individual is experiencing social dependency.

ANS: A The nurse should use the term "psychological dependency" to best describe this client's situation. A client is considered to be psychologically dependent on a substance when there is an overwhelming desire to use a substance in order to produce pleasure or avoid discomfort.

Which of the following nursing statements exemplify the cognitive process that must be completed by a nurse prior to caring for clients diagnosed with substance-abuse disorders? (Select all that apply.) A. "I am easily manipulated and need to work on this prior to caring for these clients." B. "Because of my father's alcoholism, I need to examine my attitude toward these clients." C. "I need to review the side effects of the medications used in the withdrawal process." D. "I'll need to set boundaries to maintain a therapeutic relationship." E. "I need to take charge when dealing with clients diagnosed with substance disorders."

ANS: A, B, D The nurse should examine personal bias and preconceived negative attitudes prior to caring for clients diagnosed with substance-abuse disorders. A deficit in this area may affect the nurse's ability to establish therapeutic relationships with these clients.

A nursing instructor is teaching students about cirrhosis of the liver. Which of the following student statements about the complications of hepatic encephalopathy should indicate that further student teaching is needed? (Select all that apply.) A. "A diet rich in protein will promote hepatic healing." B. "This condition leads to a rise in serum ammonia resulting in impaired mental functioning." C. "In this condition, blood accumulates in the abdominal cavity." D. "Neomycin and lactulose are used in the treatment of this condition." E. "This condition is caused by the inability of the liver to convert ammonia to urea."

ANS: A, C The nursing instructor should understand that further teaching is needed if the nursing student states that a diet rich in protein will promote hepatic healing and that this condition causes blood to accumulate in the abdominal cavity (ascites), because these are incorrect statements. The treatment of hepatic encephalopathy requires abstention from alcohol, temporary elimination of protein from the diet, and reduction of intestinal ammonia using neomycin or lactulose. This condition occurs in response to the inability of the liver to convert ammonia to urea for excretion.

A mother who has a history of chronic heroin use has lost custody of her children due to abuse and neglect. She has been admitted to an inpatient substance-abuse program. Which client statement should a nurse associate with a positive prognosis for this client? A. "I'm not going to use heroin ever again. I know I've got the willpower to do it this time." B. "I cannot control my use of heroin. It's stronger than I am." C. "I'm going to get all my children back. They need their mother." D. "Once I deal with my childhood physical abuse, recovery should be easy."

ANS: B A positive prognosis is more likely when a client admits that he or she is addicted to a substance and has a loss of control. One of the first steps in accepting treatment is for the client to admit powerlessness over the substance.

In assessing a client diagnosed with polysubstance abuse, the nurse should recognize that withdrawal from which substance may require a life-saving emergency intervention? A. Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) B. Diazepam (Valium) C. Morphine (Astramorph) D. Phencyclidine (PCP)

ANS: B If large doses of central nervous system (CNS) depressants (like Valium) are repeatedly administered over a prolonged duration, a period of CNS hyperexcitability occurs on withdrawal of the drug. The response can be quite severe, even leading to convulsions and death.

Which is the priority nursing intervention for a client admitted for acute alcohol intoxication? A. Darken the room to reduce stimuli in order to prevent seizures. B. Assess aggressive behaviors in order to intervene to prevent injury to self or others. C. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) to reduce the rebound effects on the central nervous system. D. Teach the negative effects of alcohol on the body.

ANS: B Symptoms associated with the syndrome of alcohol intoxication include but are not limited to aggressiveness, impaired judgment, impaired attention, and irritability. Safety is a nursing priority in this situation.

A nurse is reviewing STAT laboratory data of a client presenting in the emergency department. At what minimum blood alcohol level should a nurse expect intoxication to occur? A. 50 mg/dL B. 100 mg/dL C. 250 mg/dL D. 300 mg/dL

ANS: B The nurse should expect that 100 mg/dL is the minimum blood alcohol level at which intoxication occurs. Intoxication usually occurs between 100 and 200 mg/dL. Death has been reported at levels ranging from 400 to 700 mg/dL.

A client with a history of heavy alcohol use is brought to an emergency department (ED) by family members who state that the client has had nothing to drink in the last 24 hours. Which client symptom should the nurse immediate report to the ED physician? A. Tactile hallucinations B. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg C. Mood rating of 2/10 on numeric scale D. Dehydration

ANS: B The nurse should recognize that high blood pressure is a symptom of alcohol withdrawal and should promptly report this finding to the physician. Complications associated with alcohol withdrawal may progress to alcohol withdrawal delirium and possible seizure activity on about the second or third day following cessation of prolonged alcohol consumption.

A client's wife has been making excuses for her alcoholic husband's work absences. In family therapy, she states, "His problems at work are my fault." Which is the appropriate nursing response? A. "Why do you assume responsibility for his behaviors?" B. "Codependency is a typical behavior of spouses of alcoholics." C. "Your husband needs to deal with the consequences of his drinking." D. "Do you understand what the term 'enabler' means?"

ANS: C The appropriate nursing response is to use confrontation with caring. The nurse should understand that the client's wife may be in denial and enabling the husband's behavior. Partners of clients with substance abuse must come to realize that the only behavior they can control is their own.

A client diagnosed with alcohol abuse joins a community 12-step program and states, "My life is unmanageable." How should the nurse interpret this client's statement? A. The client is using minimization as an ego defense. B. The client is ready to sign an Alcoholics Anonymous contract for sobriety. C. The client has accomplished the first of 12 steps advocated by Alcoholics Anonymous. D. The client has met the requirements to be designated as an Alcoholics Anonymous sponsor.

ANS: C The first step of the 12-step program advocated by Alcoholics Anonymous is that clients must admit powerlessness over alcohol and that their lives have become unmanageable.

During group therapy, a client diagnosed with chronic alcohol dependence states, "I would not have boozed it up if my wife hadn't been nagging me all the time to get a job. She never did think that I was good enough for her." How should a nurse interpret this statement? A. The client is using denial by avoiding responsibility. B. The client is using displacement by blaming his wife. C. The client is using rationalization to excuse his alcohol dependence. D. The client is using reaction formation by appealing to the group for sympathy.

ANS: C The nurse should interpret that the client is using rationalization to excuse his alcohol dependence. Rationalization is the defense mechanism by which people avoid taking responsibility for their actions by making excuses for the behavior.

A client with a history of insomnia has been taking chlordiazepoxide (Librium) 15 mg at night for the past year. The client currently reports getting to sleep. Which nursing diagnosis appropriately documents this problem? A. Ineffective coping R/T unresolved anxiety AEB substance abuse B. Anxiety R/T poor sleep AEB difficulty falling asleep C. Disturbed sleep pattern R/T Librium tolerance AEB difficulty falling asleep D. Risk for injury R/T addiction to Librium

ANS: C Tolerance is defined as the need for increasingly larger or more frequent doses of a substance in order to obtain the desired effects originally produced by a lower dose.

A nurse holds the hand of a client who is withdrawing from alcohol. What is the nurse's rationale for this intervention? A. To assess for emotional strength B. To assess for Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome C. To assess for tachycardia D. To assess for fine tremors

ANS: D The nurse is most likely assessing the client for fine tremors secondary to alcohol withdrawal. Withdrawal from alcohol can also cause headache, insomnia, transient hallucinations, depression, irritability, anxiety, elevated blood pressure, sweating, tachycardia, malaise, coarse tremors, and seizure activity.

Which medication orders should a nurse anticipate for a client who has a history of complicated withdrawal from benzodiazepines? A. Haloperidol (Haldol) and fluoxetine (Prozac) B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) and donepezil (Aricept) C. Disulfiram (Antabuse) and lorazepan (Ativan) D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) and phenytoin (Dilantin)

ANS: D The nurse should anticipate that a physician would order chlordiazepoxide (Librium) and phenytoin (Dilantin) for a client who has a history of complicated withdrawal from benzodiazepines. It is common for long-lasting benzodiazepines to be prescribed for substitution therapy. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is an anticonvulsant that would be indicated for a client who has experienced a complicated withdrawal. Complicated withdrawals may progress to seizure activity.

A nurse is interviewing a client in an outpatient substance-abuse clinic. To promote success in the recovery process, which outcome should the nurse expect the client to initially accomplish? A. The client will identify one person to turn to for support. B. The client will give up all old drinking buddies. C. The client will be able to verbalize the effects of alcohol on the body. D. The client will correlate life problems with alcohol use.

ANS: D To promote the recovery process the nurse should expect that the client would initially correlate life problems with alcohol use. Acceptance of the problem is the first step of the recovery process.

A client in detox for heroin can expect what symptoms as he goes through withdrawals? A. Nausea, vomiting, and euphoria B. Runny nose, bristling of the arm hairs and yawning C. Pupillary dilation, somnolence, and fever D. Muscle aches, diarrhea, and slurred speech.

B. Runny nose or rhinorrhea, piloerection, and yawning are symptoms of withdrawal. Other symptoms: nausea and vomiting, pupilary dilation, insomnia, fever, muscle aches, diarrhea, dysphoric mood, lacrimation, and sweating.

Cocaine exerts which of the following effects on a client? A. Stimulation after 15 to 20 minutes B. Stimulation and anesthetic effects C. Immediate imbalance of emotions D. Paranoia

B. Stimulation and anesthetic effects Cocaine exerts two main effects on the body, both anesthetic and stimulant.

A client brought to the emergency department after phenylcyclohexylpiperidine (PCP) ingestion is both verbally and physically abusive, and the staff is having difficulty keeping him and themselves safe. The nursing intervention that would be most therapeutic is A. taking him to the gym on the psychiatric unit. B. obtaining an order for seclusion and close observation. C. assigning a psychiatric technician to "talk him down." D. administering naltrexone as needed per hospital protocol.

B. obtaining an order for seclusion and close observation. Aggressive, violent behavior is often seen with PCP ingestion. The client will respond best to a safe, low-stimulus environment such as that provided by seclusion until the effects of the drug wear off. Talking down is never advised because of the client's unpredictable violent potential. Naltrexone is an opiate antagonist.

A student nurse asked how marijuana affects the cardiovascular system. Which response from the preceptor accurately explains the affects? A. "Cannabis does not affect the cardiovascular system." B. "Cannabis induces bradycardia as well as orthostatic hypotension, which decreases cardiac output." C. "Cannabis induces orthostatic hypotension and tachycardia. This increases the demand for oxygen while decreasing its supply." D. "Because of the increase in blood pressure, the work load of the heart increases greatly, putting the user at risk of MI."

C. "Cannabis induces orthostatic hypotension and tachycardia. This increases the demand for oxygen while decreasing its supply." pg. 386

A teaching need is revealed when a client taking disulfiram (Antabuse) states, A. "I usually treat heartburn with antacids." B. "I take ibuprofen or acetaminophen for headache." C. "Most over-the-counter cough syrups are safe for me to use." D. "I have had to give up using aftershave lotion."

C. "Most over-the-counter cough syrups are safe for me to use." The client taking disulfiram has to avoid hidden sources of alcohol. Many cough syrups contain alcohol.

Which of the drugs used by a polysubstance abuser is most likely to be responsible for withdrawal symptoms requiring both medical intervention and nursing support? A. Opiates B. Marijuana C. Barbiturates D. Hallucinogens

C. Barbiturates Withdrawal from central nervous system depressants is complicated, requiring carefully titrated detoxification with a similar drug. Abrupt withdrawal can lead to death.

Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal include: A. Euphoria, hyperactivity, and insomnia B. Depression, suicidal ideation, and hypertension C. Diaphoresis, nausea and vomiting, and tremors D. Unsteady gait, nystagmus, and profound disorientation

C. Diaphoresis, nausea and vomiting, and tremors

Which is not a physiological effect of hallucinogenic drugs? A. Elevation in blood sugar B. Loss of appetite C. Pupil constriction D. Chills

C. Pupil constriction is not a physiological effect of hallucinogens. Effects include: N & V, chills, pupil dilation, increased pulse, increased BP, increased temp, mild dizziness, trembling, loss of appetite, insomnia, sweating, a slowing of respirations, and elevation in blood sugar.

In helping an addicted individual plan for ongoing treatment, which intervention is the first priority for a safe recovery? A. Ongoing support from at least two family members must be secured. B. The client needs to be employed. C. The client must strive to maintain abstinence. D. A regular schedule of appointments with a primary care provider must be set up.

C. The client must strive to maintain abstinence. Abstinence is the safest treatment goal for all addicts. Abstinence is strongly related to good work adjustments, positive health status, comfortable interpersonal relationships, and general social stability.

An appropriate long-term goal/outcome for a recovering substance abuser would be that the client will A. discuss the addiction with significant others. B. state an intention to stop using illegal substances. C. abstain from the use of mood-altering substances. D. substitute a less addicting drug for the present drug.

C. abstain from the use of mood-altering substances. Abstinence is a highly desirable long-term goal/outcome. It is a better outcome than short-term goal because lapses are common in the short term.

Paula is attending an education class on addictive disorders. She suspects that her husband may be abusing opiates since he has been taking pills given to him by his brother and she knows the brother had been taking oxycodone for back pain. She asks the nurse how to interpret her husband's behaviors. Which of the following observations by Paula are consistent with opioid intoxication? Select all that apply. 1) "Sometimes he seems euphoric and other times he acts like he doesn't care about anything." 2) "Last night he went out without a coat on and it was 15 degrees outside." 3) "While we were talking at dinner his speech was rapid and he seemed hyperalert to everything in the environment." 4) "He's been having trouble remembering things." 5) "Sometimes it looks like his pupils are very small."

Correct 1: One manifestation of opioid intoxication is an initial period of euphoria followed by apathy, which is indicated by her statement that "sometimes he acts like he doesn't care about anything." Correct 2: Going outside without a coat in subfreezing weather could be inferred as impaired judgment, which is consistent with opioid intoxication. Feedback 3: Rapid speech and hypervigilance are more consistent with stimulant intoxication. In opioid intoxication one would expect to see mental cloudiness. Correct 4: Impairment in attention and memory is consistent with opioid intoxication. Correct 5: Paula is describing pupillary constriction, which is consistent with opioid intoxication.

Which issues influence an individual's predisposition to substance-related disorders? Select all that apply. 1) Genetic history 2) Fixation at the oral stage of psychosexual development 3) Punitive ego 4) Personality traits 5) Behavior modeling

Correct 1: Research has indicated that an apparent hereditary factor is involved in the development of substance-use disorders. This is especially evident with alcoholism. Correct 2: Theories of psychosexual development state that anxiety in people fixated at the oral stage may be reduced by their consumption of substances such as alcohol. Feedback 3: A psychodynamic approach to the etiology of substance abuse focuses on a punitive superego, not ego. According to psychodynamic theory, individuals with punitive superegos turn to alcohol to diminish unconscious anxiety. Correct 4: Certain personality traits, such as low self-esteem, depression, and passivity, are thought to increase a tendency toward addictive behavior. Correct 5: Studies have shown that children and adolescents are more likely to use substances if they have parents who provide a model for substance use.

Paul, a 65-year-old Caucasian, is being seen at the health clinic for hypertension and has a history of alcohol use disorder. Which of the following observations by the nurse are consistent with physical complications associated with chronic alcohol use disorders? Select all that apply. 1) His skin is yellow. ) He has a butterfly-shaped rash on his cheeks and nose. 3) His abdomen is distended. 4) He is coughing up blood. 5) He complains of acute pain in his left eye.

Correct 1: Yellowish skin is evidence of jaundice, which is secondary to cirrhosis of the liver. Cirrhosis of the liver is a common manifestation of end-stage alcoholic liver disease. Feedback 2: Although facial flushing is a common manifestation in chronic alcohol use disorders, a distinctly butterfly-shaped rash may be indicative of other autoimmune conditions such as lupus erythematosis. Further assessment is warranted. Correct 3: Abdominal distention can be a manifestation of alcoholic hepatitis, cirrhosis of the liver, and pancreatitis, all of which are complications of alcohol use disorder. Further assessment is warranted. Correct 4: Coughing up blood may be evidence of several complications of alcoholism, including esophageal varices, which can culminate in potentially fatal hemorrhage. Further assessment is warranted to evaluate for these as well as other potential causes of coughing up blood. Feedback 5: A complaint of pain or pressure in or behind one's eyes is not directly associated with alcoholism but suggests a potentially emergent concern that requires further assessment.

Withdrawal symptoms from CNS depressants may begin: A. 4-8 hours after cessation B. 24-72 hours after cessation C. 5-10 days after cessation D. 12-24 hours after cessation

D. 12-24 hours after the last dose. They reach peak intensity between 24-72 hours later and subside within 5-10 days. pg.376