Adult Nursing I - Assessment of Cardiovascular Function

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A nurse is caring for a client with a history of renal insufficiency who is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. Which actions should the nurse take prior to the catheterization? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess for allergies to iodine. b. Administer intravenous fluids. c. Assess blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine results. d. Insert a Foley catheter. e. Administer a prophylactic antibiotic. f. Insert a central venous catheter.

A, B, C If the client has kidney disease (as indicated by BUN and creatinine results), fluids and Mucomyst may be given 12 to 24 hours before the procedure for renal protection. The client should be assessed for allergies to iodine, including shellfish; the contrast medium used during the catheterization contains iodine. A Foley catheter and central venous catheter are not required for the procedure and would only increase the client's risk for infection. Prophylactic antibiotics are not administered prior to a cardiac catheterization.

When hemodynamic monitoring is ordered for a patient, a catheter is inserted into the appropriate blood vessel or heart chamber. When assessing a patient who has such a device in place, the nurse should check which of the following components? Select all that apply. A. A transducer B. A flush system C. A leveler D. A pressure bag E. An oscillator

A, B, D To perform hemodynamic monitoring, a CVP, pulmonary artery, or arterial catheter is introduced into the appropriate blood vessel or heart chamber. It is connected to a pressure monitoring system that has several components. Included among these are a transducer, a flush system, and a pressure bag. A pressure monitoring system does not have a leveler or an oscillator

The patient has a homocysteine level ordered. What aspects of this test should inform the nurse's care? Select all that apply. A. A 12-hour fast is necessary before drawing the blood sample. B. Recent inactivity can depress homocysteine levels. C. Genetic factors can elevate homocysteine levels. D. A diet low in folic acid elevates homocysteine levels. E. An ECG should be performed immediately before drawing a sample.

A, C, D A 12-hour fast is necessary before drawing the blood sample, Genetic factors can elevate homocysteine levels, A diet low in folic acid elevates homocysteine levels Genetic factors and a diet low in folic acid, vitamin B6, and vitamin B12 are associated with elevated homocysteine levels. A 12-hour fast is necessary before drawing a blood sample for an accurate serum measurement. An ECG is unnecessary and recent inactivity does not influence the results of the test.

A nurse reviews a clients laboratory results. Which findings should alert the nurse to the possibility of atherosclerosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Total cholesterol: 280 mg/dL b. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol: 50 mg/dL c. Triglycerides: 200 mg/dL d. Serum albumin: 4 g/dL e. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol: 160 mg/dL

A, C, E A lipid panel is often used to screen for cardiovascular risk. Total cholesterol, triglycerides, and low-density lipoprotein cholesterol levels are all high, indicating higher risk for cardiovascular disease. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol is within the normal range for both males and females. Serum albumin is not assessed for atherosclerosis.

The nurse is calculating a cardiac patients pulse pressure. If the patients blood pressure is 122/76 mm Hg, what is the patients pulse pressure? A. 46 mmhg B. 99 mmhg C. 198 mmhg D. 76 mmhg

A. 46 mmhg Pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure. In this case, this value is 46

The nurse working on a cardiac care unit is caring for a patient whose stroke volume has increased. The nurse is aware that afterload influences a patients stroke volume. The nurse recognizes that afterload is increased when there is what? A. Arterial vasoconstriction B. Venous vasoconstriction C. Arterial vasodilation D. Venous vasodilation

A. Arterial vasoconstriction Arterial vasoconstriction increases the systemic vascular resistance, which increases the afterload. Venous vasoconstriction decreases preload thereby decreasing stroke volume. Venous vasodilation increases preload.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with angina who is scheduled for cardiac catheterization. The patient is anxious and asks the reason for this test. What is the best response? A. Cardiac catheterization is usually done to assess how blocked or open a patients coronary arteries are. B. Cardiac catheterization is most commonly done to detect how efficiently a patients heart muscle contracts. C. Cardiac catheterization is usually done to evaluate cardiovascular response to stress. D. Cardiac catheterization is most commonly done to evaluate cardiac electrical activity.

A. Cardiac catheterization is usually done to assess how blocked or open a patients coronary arteries are. Cardiac catheterization is usually used to assess coronary artery patency to determine if revascularization procedures are necessary. A thallium stress test shows myocardial ischemia after stress. An ECG shows the electrical activity of the heart.

A nurse assesses a client who had a myocardial infarction and is hypotensive. Which additional assessment finding should the nurse expect? a. Heart rate of 120 beats/min b. Cool, clammy skin c. Oxygen saturation of 90% d. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min

A. Heart rate of 120 beats/min When a client experiences hypotension, baroreceptors in the aortic arch sense a pressure decrease in the vessels. The parasympathetic system responds by lessening the inhibitory effect on the sinoatrial node. This results in an increase in heart rate and respiratory rate. This tachycardia is an early response and is seen even when blood pressure is not critically low. An increased heart rate and respiratory rate will compensate for the low blood pressure and maintain oxygen saturations and perfusion. The client may not be able to compensate for long, and decreased oxygenation and cool, clammy skin will occur later.

An emergency room nurse obtains the health history of a client. Which statement by the client should alert the nurse to the occurrence of heart failure? a. I get short of breath when I climb stairs. b. I see halos floating around my head. c. I have trouble remembering things. d. I have lost weight over the past month.

A. I get short of breath when I climb stairs. Dyspnea on exertion is an early manifestation of heart failure and is associated with an activity such as stair climbing. The other findings are not specific to early occurrence of heart failure.

The nurse is conducting patient teaching about cholesterol levels. When discussing the patients elevated LDL and lowered HDL levels, the patient shows an understanding of the significance of these levels by stating what? A. Increased LDL and decreased HDL increase my risk of coronary artery disease. B. Increased LDL has the potential to decrease my risk of heart disease. C. The decreased HDL level will increase the amount of cholesterol moved away from the artery walls. D. The increased LDL will decrease the amount of cholesterol deposited on the artery walls.

A. Increased LDL and decreased HDL increase my risk of coronary artery disease. Elevated LDL levels and decreased HDL levels are associated with a greater incidence of coronary artery disease.

A nurse assesses a client who has aortic regurgitation. In which location in the illustration shown below should the nurse auscultate to best hear a cardiac murmur related to aortic regurgitation? a. Location A b. Location B c. Location C d. Location D

A. Location A The aortic valve is auscultated in the second intercostal space just to the right of the sternum.

The physician has placed a central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring line in an acutely ill patient so right ventricular function and venous blood return can be closely monitored. The results show decreased CVP. What does this indicate? A. Possible hypovolemia B. Possible myocardial infarction (MI) C. Left-sided heart failure D. Aortic valve regurgitation

A. Possible hypovolemia Hypovolemia may cause a decreased CVP. MI, valve regurgitation and heart failure are less likely causes of decreased CVP.

29. The critical care nurse is caring for a patient who has been experiencing bradycardia after cardiovascular surgery. The nurse knows that the heart rate is determined by myocardial cells with the fastest inherent firing rate. Under normal circumstances where are these cells located? A. SA node B. AV node C. Bundle of His D. Purkinje cells

A. SA node The heart rate is determined by the myocardial cells with the fastest inherent firing rate. Under normal circumstances, the SA node has the highest inherent rate (60 to 100 impulses per minute).

A nurse is describing the process by which blood is ejected into circulation as the chambers of the heart 1 become smaller. The instructor categorizes this action of the heart as what? A. Systole B. Diastole C. Repolarization D. Ejection fraction

A. Systole Systole is the action of the chambers of the heart becoming smaller and ejecting blood. This action of the heart is not diastole (relaxations), ejection fraction (the amount of blood expelled), or repolarization (electrical charging).

The critical care nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery pressure monitoring system. The nurse is aware that pulmonary artery pressure monitoring is used to assess left ventricular function. What is an additional function of pulmonary artery pressure monitoring systems? A. To assess the patients response to fluid and drug administration B. To obtain specimens for arterial blood gas measurements C. To dislodge pulmonary emboli D. To diagnose the etiology of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

A. To assess the patients response to fluid and drug administration Pulmonary artery pressure monitoring is an important tool used in critical care for assessing left ventricular function (cardiac output), diagnosing the etiology of shock, and evaluating the patients response to medical interventions, such as fluid administration and vasoactive medications. Pulmonary artery monitoring is preferred for the patient with heart failure over central venous pressure monitoring. Arterial catheters are useful when arterial blood gas measurements and blood samples need to be obtained frequently. Neither intervention is used to clear pulmonary emboli.

The nurse is relating the deficits in a patient's synchronization of the atrial and ventricular events to his diagnosis. What are the physiologic characteristics of the nodal and Purkinje cells that provide this synchronization? Select all that apply. A. Loop connectivity B. Excitability C. Automaticity D. Conductivity E. Independence

B, C, D Three physiologic characteristics of two types of specialized electrical cells, the nodal cells and the Purkinje cells, provide this synchronization: automaticity, or the ability to initiate an electrical impulse; excitability, or the ability to respond to an electrical impulse; and conductivity, the ability t transmit an electrical impulse from one cell to another. Loop connectivity is a distracter for this question. Independence of the cells has nothing to do with the synchronization described in the scenario.

An emergency room nurse assesses a female client. Which assessment findings should alert the nurse to request a prescription for an electrocardiogram? (Select all that apply.) a. Hypertension b. Fatigue despite adequate rest c. Indigestion d. Abdominal pain e. Shortness of breath

B, C, E Women may not have chest pain with myocardial infarction, but may feel discomfort or indigestion. They often present with a triad of symptoms—indigestion or feeling of abdominal fullness, feeling of chronic fatigue despite adequate rest, and feeling unable to catch their breath. Frequently, women are not diagnosed and therefore are not treated adequately. Hypertension and abdominal pain are not associated with acute coronary syndrome.

A nurse prepares a client for a pharmacologic stress echocardiogram. Which actions should the nurse take when preparing this client for the procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Assist the provider to place a central venous access device. b. Prepare for continuous blood pressure and pulse monitoring. c. Administer the clients prescribed beta blocker. d. Give the client nothing by mouth 3 to 6 hours before the procedure. e. Explain to the client that dobutamine will simulate exercise for this examination.

B, D, E Clients receiving a pharmacologic stress echocardiogram will need peripheral venous access and continuous blood pressure and pulse monitoring. The client must be NPO 3 to 6 hours prior to the procedure. Education about dobutamine, which will be administered during the procedure, should be performed. Beta blockers are often held prior to the procedure.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering after a coronary catheterization. Which assessment findings in the first few hours after the procedure require immediate action by the nurse? (Select all that apply.) a. Blood pressure of 140/88 mm Hg b. Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L c. Warmth and redness at the site d. Expanding groin hematoma e. Rhythm changes on the cardiac monitor

B, D, E In the first few hours postprocedure, the nurse monitors for complications such as bleeding from the insertion site, hypotension, acute closure of the vessel, dye reaction, hypokalemia, and dysrhythmias. The client's blood pressure is slightly elevated but does not need immediate action. Warmth and redness at the site would indicate an infection, but this would not be present in the first few hours.

While auscultating a patients heart sounds, the nurse hears an extra heart sound immediately after the second heart sound (S2). An audible S3 would be considered an expected finding in what patient? A. An older adult B. A 20-year-old patient C. A patient who has undergone valve replacement D. A patient who takes a beta-adrenergic blocker

B. A 20-year-old patient S3 represents a normal finding in children and adults up to 35 or 40 years of age. In these cases, it is called a physiologic S3. It is an abnormal finding in a patient with an artificial valve, an older adult, or a patient who takes a beta blocker.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a history of heart disease. What factor should the nurse identify as possibly contributing to a decrease in cardiac output? A. A change in position from standing to sitting B. A heart rate of 54 bpm C. A pulse oximetry reading of 94% D. An increase in preload related to ambulation

B. A heart rate of 54 bpm Cardiac output is computed by multiplying the stroke volume by the heart rate. Cardiac output can be affected by changes in either stroke volume or heart rate, such as a rate of 54 bpm. An increase in preload will lead to an increase in stroke volume. A pulse oximetry reading of 94% does not indicate hypoxemia, as hypoxia can decrease contractility. Transitioning from standing to sitting would more likely increase rather than decrease cardiac output.

The nurse is doing discharge teaching with a patient who has coronary artery disease. The patient asks why he has to take an aspirin every day if he doesnt have any pain. What would be the nurses best response? A. Taking an aspirin every day is an easy way to help restore the normal function of your heart. B. An aspirin a day can help prevent some of the blockages that can cause chest pain or heart attacks. C. Taking an aspirin every day is a simple way to make your blood penetrate your heart more freely. D. An aspirin a day eventually helps your blood carry more oxygen that it would otherwise

B. An aspirin a day can help prevent some of the blockages that can cause chest pain or heart attacks. An aspirin a day is a common nonprescription medication that improves outcomes in patients with CAD due to its antiplatelet action. It does not affect oxygen carrying capacity or perfusion. Aspirin does not restore cardiac function.

The nurse is caring for an acutely ill patient who has central venous pressure monitoring in place. What intervention should be included in the care plan of a patient with CVP in place? A. Apply antibiotic ointment to the insertion site twice daily. B. Change the site dressing whenever it becomes visibly soiled. C. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises to prevent venous stasis. D. Aspirate blood from the device once daily to test pH.

B. Change the site dressing whenever it becomes visibly soiled. Gauze dressings should be changed every 2 days or transparent dressings at least every 7 days and whenever dressings become damp, loosened, or visibly soiled. Passive ROM exercise is not indicated and it is unnecessary and inappropriate to aspirate blood to test it for pH. Antibiotic ointments are contraindicated.

A brain (B-type) natriuretic peptide (BNP) sample has been drawn from an older adult patient who has been experienced vital fatigue and shortness of breath. This test will allow the care team to investigate the possibility of what diagnosis? A. Pleurisy B. Heart failure C. Valve dysfunction D. Cardiomyopathy

B. Heart failure The level of BNP in the blood increases as the ventricular walls expand from increased pressure, making it a helpful diagnostic, monitoring, and prognostic tool in the setting of HF. It is not specific to cardiomyopathy, pleurisy, or valve dysfunction.

During a shift assessment, the nurse is identifying the clients point of maximum impulse (PMI). Where will the nurse best palpate the PMI? A. Left midclavicular line of the chest at the level of the nipple B. Left midclavicular line of the chest at the fifth intercostal space C. Midline between the xiphoid process and the left nipple D. Two to three centimeters to the left of the stern

B. Left midclavicular line of the chest at the fifth intercostal space The left ventricle is responsible for the apical beat or the point of maximum impulse, which is normally palpated in the left midclavicular line of the chest wall at the fifth intercostal space.

A nurse obtains the health history of a client who is newly admitted to the medical unit. Which statement by the client should alert the nurse to the presence of edema? a. I wake up to go to the bathroom at night. b. My shoes fit tighter by the end of the day. c. I seem to be feeling more anxious lately. d. I drink at least eight glasses of water a day.

B. My shoes fit tighter by the end of the day. Weight gain can result from fluid accumulation in the interstitial spaces. This is known as edema. The nurse should note whether the client feels that his or her shoes or rings are tight, and should observe, when present, an indentation around the leg where the socks end. The other answers do not describe edema.

The physical therapist notifies the nurse that a patient with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiences a much greater- than-average increase in heart rate during physical therapy. The nurse recognizes that an increase in heart rate in a patient with CAD may result in what? A. Development of an atrial-septal defect B. Myocardial ischemia C. Formation of a pulmonary embolism D. Release of potassium ions from cardiac cells

B. Myocardial ischemia Unlike other arteries, the coronary arteries are perfused during diastole. An increase in heart rate shortens diastole and can decrease myocardial perfusion. Patients, particularly those with CAD, can develop myocardial ischemia. An increase in heart rate will not usually result in a pulmonary embolism or create electrolyte imbalances. Atrial-septal defects are congenital.

The critical care nurse is caring for a patient who has had an MI. The nurse should expect to assist with establishing what hemodynamic monitoring procedure to assess the patients left ventricular function? A. Central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring B. Pulmonary artery pressure monitoring (PAPM) C. Systemic arterial pressure monitoring (SAPM) D. Arterial blood gases (ABG)

B. Pulmonary artery pressure monitoring (PAPM) PAPM is used to assess left ventricular function. CVP is used to assess right ventricular function; SAPM is used for continual assessment of BP. ABG are used to assess for acidic and alkalotic levels in the blood.

The nurses assessment of an older adult client reveals the following data: Lying BP 144/82 mm Hg; sitting BP 121/69 mm Hg; standing BP 98/56 mm Hg. The nurse should consequently identify what nursing diagnosis in the patients plan of care? A. Risk for ineffective breathing pattern related to hypotension B. Risk for falls related to orthostatic hypotension C. Risk for ineffective role performance related to hypotension D. Risk for imbalanced fluid balance related to hemodynamic variability

B. Risk for falls related to orthostatic hypotension Orthostatic hypotension creates a significant risk for falls due to the dizziness and lightheadedness that accompanies it. It does not normally affect breathing or fluid balance. The patient's ability to perform normal roles may be affected, but the risk for falls is the most significant threat to safety.

A resident of a long-term care facility has complained to the nurse of chest pain. What aspect of the resident's pain would be most suggestive of angina as the cause? A. The pain is worse when the resident inhales deeply. B. The pain occurs immediately following physical exertion. C. The pain is worse when the resident coughs. D. The pain is most severe when the resident moves his upper body.

B. The pain occurs immediately following physical exertion. Chest pain associated with angina is often precipitated by physical exertion. The other listed aspects of chest pain are more closely associated with noncardiac etiologies.

A nurse assesses clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease? a. An 86-year-old man with a history of asthma b. A 32-year-old Asian-American man with colorectal cancer c. A 45-year-old American Indian woman with diabetes mellitus d. A 53-year-old postmenopausal woman who is on hormone therapy

C. A 45-year-old American Indian woman with diabetes mellitus The incidence of coronary artery disease and hypertension is higher in American Indians than in whites or Asian Americans. Diabetes mellitus increases the risk for hypertension and coronary artery disease in people o any race or ethnicity. Asthma, colorectal cancer, and hormone therapy do not increase risk for cardiovascular disease.

A lipid profile has been ordered for a patient who has been experiencing cardiac symptoms. When should a lipid profile be drawn in order to maximize the accuracy of results? A. As close to the end of the day as possible B. After a meal high in fat C. After a 12-hour fast D. Thirty minutes after a normal meal

C. After a 12-hour fast Although cholesterol levels remain relatively constant over 24 hours, the blood specimen for the lipid profile should be obtained after a 12-hour fast.

A nurse assesses an older adult client who has multiple chronic diseases. The clients heart rate is 48 beats/min. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the finding in the chart. b. Initiate external pacing. c. Assess the clients medications. d. Administer 1 mg of atropine.

C. Assess the client's medications. Pacemaker cells in the conduction system decrease in number as a person ages, resulting in bradycardia. The nurse should check the medication reconciliation for medications that might cause such a drop in heart rate, then should inform the health care provider. Documentation is important, but it is not the priority action. The heart rate is not low enough for atropine or an external pacemaker to be needed

A nurse assesses a client 2 hours after a cardiac angiography via the left femoral artery. The nurse notes that the left pedal pulse is weak. Which action should the nurse take? a. Elevate the leg and apply a sandbag to the entrance site. b. Increase the flow rate of intravenous fluids. c. Assess the color and temperature of the left leg. d. Document the finding as left pedal pulse of +1/4.

C. Assess the color and temperature of the left leg. Loss of a pulse distal to an angiography entry site is serious, indicating a possible arterial obstruction. The pulse may be faint because of edema. The left pulse should be compared with the right, and pulses should be compared with previous assessments, especially before the procedure. Assessing color (pale, cyanosis) and temperature (cool, cold) will identify a decrease in circulation. Once all peripheral and vascular assessment data are acquired, the primary health care provider should be notified. Simply documenting the findings is inappropriate. The leg should be positioned below the level of the heart or dangling to increase blood flow to the distal portion of the leg. Increasing intravenous fluids will not address the clients problem.

A nurse assesses an older adult client who is experiencing a myocardial infarction. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect? a. Excruciating pain on inspiration b. Left lateral chest wall pain c. Disorientation and confusion d. Numbness and tingling of the arm

C. Disorientation and confusion In older adults, disorientation or confusion may be the major manifestation of myocardial infarction caused by poor cardiac output. Pain manifestations and numbness and tingling of the arm could also be related to the myocardial infarction. However, the nurse should be more concerned about the new onset of disorientation or confusion caused by decreased perfusion.

A nurse is preparing a patient for scheduled transesophageal echocardiography. What action should the nurse perform? A. Instruct the patient to drink 1 liter of water before the test. B. Administer IV benzodiazepines and opioids. C. Inform the patient that she will remain on bed rest following the procedure. D. Inform the patient that an access line will be initiated in her femoral artery.

C. Inform the patient that she will remain on bed rest following the procedure. During the recovery period, the patient must maintain bed rest with the head of the bed elevated to 45 degrees. The patient must be NPO 6 hours preprocedure. The patient is sedated to make him or her comfortable, but will not be heavily sedated, and opioids are not necessary. Also, the patient will have a peripheral IV line initiated preprocedure.

A patient has had a myocardial infarction and has been diagnosed as having damage to the layer of the heart responsible for the pumping action. You are aware that the damage occurred where? A. Endocardium B. Pericardium C. Myocardium D. Visceral pericardium

C. Myocardium The myocardium is the layer of the heart responsible for the pumping action.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering after a left-sided cardiac catheterization. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention? a. Urinary output less than intake b. Bruising at the insertion site c. Slurred speech and confusion d. Discomfort in the left leg

C. Slurred speech and confusion A left-sided cardiac catheterization specifically increases the risk for a cerebral vascular accident. A change in neurologic status needs to be acted on immediately. Discomfort and bruising are expected at the site. If intake decreases, a client can become dehydrated because of dye excretion. The second intervention would be to increase the clients fluid status. Neurologic changes would take priority.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with unstable angina. The laboratory result for the initial troponin I is elevated in this patient. The nurse should recognize what implication of this assessment finding? A. This is only an accurate indicator of myocardial damage when it reaches its peak in 24 hours. B. Because the patient has a history of unstable angina, this is a poor indicator of myocardial injury. C. This is an accurate indicator of myocardial injury. D. This result indicates muscle injury, but does not specify the source.

C. This is an accurate indicator of myocardial injury. Troponin I, which is specific to cardiac muscle, is elevated within hours after myocardial injury. Even with a diagnosis of unstable angina, this is an accurate indicator of myocardial injury.

The nurse is performing an intake assessment on a patient with a new diagnosis of coronary artery disease. What would be the most important determination to make during this intake assessment? A. Whether the patient and involved family members understand the role of genetics in the etiology of the disease B. Whether the patient and involved family members understand dietary changes and the role of nutrition C. Whether the patient and involved family members are able to recognize symptoms of an acute cardiac problem and respond appropriately D. Whether the patient and involved family members understand the importance of social support and community agencies

C. Whether the patient and involved family members are able to recognize symptoms of an acute cardiac problem and respond appropriately During the health history, the nurse needs to determine if the patient and involved family members are able to recognize symptoms of an acute cardiac problem, such as acute coronary syndrome (ACS) or HF, and seek timely treatment for these symptoms. Each of the other listed topics is valid, but the timely and appropriate response to a cardiac emergency is paramount.

A nurse assesses a client who is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. Which assessment should the nurse complete prior to this procedure? a. Clients level of anxiety b. Ability to turn self in bed c. Cardiac rhythm and heart rate d. Allergies to iodine-based agents

D. Allergies to iodine-based agents Before the procedure, the nurse should ascertain whether the client has an allergy to iodine-containing preparations, such as seafood or local anesthetics. The contrast medium used during the procedure is iodine based. This allergy can cause a life-threatening reaction, so it is a high priority. Second, it is important for the nurse to assess anxiety, mobility, and baseline cardiac status.

A patient is brought into the ED by family members who tell the nurse the patient grabbed his chest and complained of substernal chest pain. The care team recognizes the need to monitor the patients cardiac function closely while interventions are performed. What form of monitoring should the nurse anticipate? A. Left-sided heart catheterization B. Cardiac telemetry C. Transesophageal echocardiography D. Hardwire continuous ECG monitoring

D. Hardwire continuous ECG monitoring Two types of continuous ECG monitoring techniques are used in health care settings: hardwire cardiac monitoring, found in EDs, critical care units, and progressive care units; and telemetry, found in general nursing care units or outpatient cardiac rehabilitation programs. Cardiac catheterization and transesophageal echocardiography would not be used in emergent situations to monitor cardiac function.

The critical care nurse is caring for a patient with a central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring system. The nurse notes that the patients CVP is increasing. Of what may this indicate? A. Psychosocial stress B. Hypervolemia C. Dislodgment of the catheter D. Hypomagnesemia

D. Hypervolemia CVP is a useful hemodynamic parameter to observe when managing an unstable patient's fluid volume status. An increasing pressure may be caused by hypervolemia or by a condition, such as heart failure, that results in decreased myocardial contractility. Stress, dislodgement of the catheter, and low magnesium levels would not typically result in increased CVP.

A critically ill patient is admitted to the ICU. The physician decides to use intra-arterial pressure monitoring. After this intervention is performed, what assessment should the nurse prioritize in the plan of care? A. Fluctuations in core body temperature B. Signs and symptoms of esophageal varices C. Signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome D. Perfusion distal to the insertion site

D. Perfusion distal to the insertion site The radial artery is the usual site selected. However, placement of a catheter into the radial artery can further impede perfusion to an area that has poor circulation. As a result, the tissue distal to the cannulated artery can become ischemic or necrotic. Vigilant assessment is thus necessary. Alterations in temperature and the development of esophageal varices or compartment syndrome are not high risks.

The cardiac care nurse is reviewing the conduction system of the heart. The nurse is aware that electrical conduction of the heart usually originates in the SA node and then proceeds in what sequence? A. SA node to bundle of His to AV node to Purkinje fibers B. SA node to AV node to Purkinje fibers to bundle of His C. SA node to bundle of His to Purkinje fibers to AV node D. SA node to AV node to bundle of His to Purkinje fibers

D. SA node to AV node to bundle of His to Purkinje fibers The normal electrophysiological conduction route is SA node to AV node to bundle of HIS to Purkinje fibers.

The nurse is caring for an 82-year-old patient. The nurse knows that changes in cardiac structure and function occur in older adults. What is a normal change expected in the aging heart of an older adult? A. Decreased left ventricular ejection time B. Decreased connective tissue in the SA and AV nodes and bundle branches C. Thinning and flaccidity of the cardiac values D. Widening of the aorta

D. Widening of the aorta Changes in cardiac structure and function are clearly observable in the aging heart. Aging results in decreased elasticity and widening of the aorta, thickening and rigidity of the cardiac valves, increased connective tissue in the SA and AV nodes and bundle branches, and an increased left ventricular ejection time (prolonged systole).

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The clients pulmonary artery pressure reading is 25/12 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Compare the results with previous pulmonary artery pressure readings. b. Increase the intravenous fluid rate because these readings are low. c. Immediately notify the health care provider of the elevated pressures. d. Document the finding in the clients chart as the only action.

a. Compare the results with previous pulmonary artery pressure readings. Normal pulmonary artery pressures range from 15 to 26 mm Hg for systolic and from 5 to 15 mm Hg for diastolic. Although this clients readings are within normal limits, the nurse needs to assess any trends that may indicate a need for medical treatment to prevent complications. There is no need to increase intravenous fluids or notify the provider.

A nurse auscultated heart tones on an older adult client. Which action should the nurse take based on heart tones heard? (Click the media button to hear the audio clip.) a. Administer a diuretic. b. Document the finding. c. Decrease the IV flow rate. d. Evaluate the clients medications.

b. Document the finding. The sound heard is an atrial gallop S4. An atrial gallop may be heard in older clients because of a stiffened ventricle. The nurse should document the finding, but no other intervention is needed at this time.

A nurse cares for a client who has an 80% blockage of the right coronary artery (RCA) and is scheduled for bypass surgery. Which intervention should the nurse be prepared to implement while this client waits for surgery? a. Administration of IV furosemide (Lasix) b. Initiation of an external pacemaker c. Assistance with endotracheal intubation d. Placement of central venous access

b. Initiation of an external pacemaker The RCA supplies the right atrium, the right ventricle, the inferior portion of the left ventricle, and the atrioventricular (AV) node. It also supplies the sinoatrial node in 50% of people. If the client totally occludes the RCA, the AV node would not function and the client would go into heart block, so emergency pacing should be available for the client. Furosemide, intubation, and central venous access will not address the primary complication of RCA occlusion, which is AV node malfunction.

A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the heart. The clients health history includes a previous myocardial infarction and pacemaker implantation. Which action should the nurse take? a. Schedule an electrocardiogram just before the MRI. b. Notify the health care provider before scheduling the MRI. c. Call the physician and request a laboratory draw for cardiac enzymes. d. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake the day before the MRI.

b. Notify the health care provider before scheduling the MRI. The magnetic fields of the MRI can deactivate the pacemaker. The nurse should call the health care provider and report that the client has a pacemaker so the provider can order other diagnostic tests. The client does not need an electrocardiogram, cardiac enzymes, or increased fluids.

A nurse teaches a client with diabetes mellitus and a body mass index of 42 who is at high risk for coronary artery disease. Which statement related to nutrition should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. The best way to lose weight is a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet. b. You should balance weight loss with consuming necessary nutrients. c. A nutritionist will provide you with information about your new diet. d. If you exercise more frequently, you wont need to change your diet.

b. You should balance weight loss with consuming necessary nutrients. Clients at risk for cardiovascular diseases should follow the American Heart Association guidelines to combat obesity and improve cardiac health. The nurse should encourage the client to eat vegetables, fruits, unrefined whole-grain products, and fat-free dairy products while losing weight. High-protein food items are often high in fat and calories. Although the nutritionist can assist with client education, the nurse should include nutrition education and assist the client to make healthy decisions. Exercising and eating nutrient-rich foods are both important components in reducing cardiovascular risk.

The physician has ordered a high-sensitivity C-reactive protein (hs-CRP) drawn on a patient. The results of this test will allow the nurse to evaluate the role of what process that is implicated in the development of atherosclerosis? A. Immunosuppression B. Inflammation C. Infection D. Hemostasis

b. inflammation High-sensitivity CRP is a protein produced by the liver in response to systemic inflammation. Inflammation is thought to play a role in the development and progression of atherosclerosis

A nurse prepares a client for coronary artery bypass graft surgery. The client states, I am afraid I might die. How should the nurse respond? a. This is a routine surgery and the risk of death is very low. b. Would you like to speak with a chaplain prior to surgery? c. Tell me more about your concerns about the surgery. d. What support systems do you have to assist you?

c. Tell me more about your concerns about the surgery. The nurse should discuss the clients feelings and concerns related to the surgery. The nurse should not provide false hope or push the clients concerns off on the chaplain. The nurse should address support systems after addressing the clients current issue.

A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The client states, I will need to stop eating so much chili to keep that indigestion pain from returning. How should the nurse respond? a. Chili is high in fat and calories; it would be a good idea to stop eating it. b. The provider has prescribed an antacid for you to take every morning. c. What do you understand about what happened to you? d. When did you start experiencing this indigestion?

c. What do you understand about what happened to you? Clients who experience myocardial infarction often respond with denial, which is a defense mechanism. The nurse should ask the client what he or she thinks happened, or what the illness means to him or her. The other responses do not address the clients misconception about recent pain and the cause of that pain

An emergency department nurse triages clients who present with chest discomfort. Which client should the nurse plan to assess first? a. A 42-year-old female who describes her pain as a dull ache with numbness in her fingers b. A 49-year-old male who reports moderate pain that is worse on inspiration c. A 53-year-old female who reports substernal pain that radiates to her abdomen d. A 58-year-old male who describes his pain as intense stabbing that spreads across his chest

d. A 58-year-old male who describes his pain as intense stabbing that spreads across his chest All clients who have chest pain should be assessed more thoroughly. To determine which client should be seen first, the nurse must understand common differences in pain descriptions. Intense stabbing, vise-like substernal pain that spreads through the clients chest, arms, jaw, back, or neck is indicative of a myocardial infarction. The nurse should plan to see this client first to prevent cardiac cell death. A dull ache with numbness in the fingers is consistent with anxiety. Pain that gets worse with inspiration is usually related to a pleuropulmonary problem. Pain that spreads to the abdomen is often associated with an esophageal-gastric problem, especially when this pain is experienced by a male client

A nurse assesses a client after administering a prescribed beta blocker. Which assessment should the nurse expect to find? a. Blood pressure increased from 98/42 mm Hg to 132/60 mm Hg b. Respiratory rate decreased from 25 breaths/min to 14 breaths/min c. Oxygen saturation increased from 88% to 96% d. Pulse decreased from 100 beats/min to 80 beats/min

d. Pulse decreased from 100 beats/min to 80 beats/min Beta blockers block the stimulation of beta1-adrenergic receptors. They block the sympathetic (fight-or-flight) response and decrease the heart rate (HR). The beta blocker will decrease HR and blood pressure, increasing ventricular filling time. It usually does not have effects on beta2-adrenergic receptor sites. Cardiac output will drop because of decreased HR.

A nurse cares for a client who has advanced cardiac disease and states, I am having trouble sleeping at night. How should the nurse respond? a. I will consult the provider to prescribe a sleep study to determine the problem. b. You become hypoxic while sleeping; oxygen therapy via nasal cannula will help. c. A continuous positive airway pressure, or CPAP, breathing mask will help you breathe at night. d. Use pillows to elevate your head and chest while you are sleeping.

d. Use pillows to elevate your head and chest while you are sleeping. The client is experiencing orthopnea (shortness of breath while lying flat). The nurse should teach the client to elevate the head and chest with pillows or sleep in a recliner. A sleep study is not necessary to diagnose this client. Oxygen and CPAP will not help a client with orthopnea.


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