AEMT Final Ch 1 -29

A patient in shock is experiencing tachycardia, among other signs. What physiologic response causes tachycardia during times of decreased perfusion? Select one: A. Beta1 receptor stimulation B. Alpha1 receptor stimulation C. Beta2 receptor stimulation D. Alpha2 receptor stimulation

A. Beta1 receptor stimulation

Following severe head trauma, a patient presents with an irregular rate, pattern, and depth of breathing with brief periods of apnea. This breathing pattern is characteristic of: A. Biot's respirations. B. agonal respirations. C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations. D. central neurogenic hyperventilation.

A. Biot's respirations

Which of the following statements regarding type O blood is ? A. It contains no surface antigens. B. It contains type A surface antigens. C. It contains type B surface antigens. D. It contains both type A and B surface antigens.

A. It contains no surface antigens

Which of the following potential complications of IV therapy are you LEAST likely to encounter in the prehospital setting? A. Phlebitis B. Occlusion C. Infiltration D. Vein irritation

A. Phlebitis

While attempting resuscitation of a patient in cardiac arrest, you initiate CPR, defibrillate the patient with an AED, and insert a multilumen airway prior to contacting medical control. What does this scenario most accurately describe? A. Standing orders B. Off-line medical control C. Online medical control D. Indirect medical control

A. Standing orders

Which of the following is the MOST significant consequence of inappropriate documentation? A. Subsequent patient care that is inappropriate B. Litigation due to negligence or slanderous comments C. Revocation of your EMS certification or license D. Punitive action by your supervisor or medical director

A. Subsequent patient care that is inappropriate

A 22-year-old female presents with lower abdominal pain; a frothy, yellow, odorous vaginal discharge; and dysuria. She tells you that she experiences severe pain during sexual intercourse. Her clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: A. Trichomoniasis. B. secondary syphilis. C. Chlamydia. D. bacterial vaginosis.

A. Trichomoniasis

In descending order, what are the three layers of the blood vessel? A. Tunica adventitia, tunica media, tunica intima B. Tunica intima, tunica adventitia, tunica media C. Tunica media, tunica intima, tunica adventitia

A. Tunica adventitia, tunica media, tunica intima

Which of the following statements regarding diabetes is correct? A. Type 1 diabetes occurs most commonly in children. B. Type 1 diabetes is typically managed by changes in diet habits. C. Patients with type 2 diabetes must take daily injections of insulin. D. Type 2 diabetes is more likely to cause organ damage.

A. Type 1 diabetes occurs most commonly in children

A hemorrhagic stroke occurs as a result of: A. a ruptured cerebral artery. B. uncontrolled hypertension. C. a blot clot within the brain. D. blood in the arachnoid space.

A. a ruptured cerebral artery

The preferred method for ventilating an apneic patient is the: A. bag-mask device with two rescuers. B. mouth-to-mouth or mask technique. C. bag-mask device with one rescuer. D. manually-triggered ventilation device.

A. bag-mask device with two rescuers

In order for continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) to be beneficial, the patient must: A. be able to follow commands. B. weigh more than 110 pounds. C. have a slow respiratory rate. D. not have a history of asthma.

A. be able to follow commands

While assessing a patient with blunt head trauma, you note an unstable segment of the skull and a large laceration to the scalp. You should control active bleeding, administer 100% oxygen, and: A. be alert for increased intracranial pressure. B. apply a tight pressure dressing to the scalp. C. administer 1-2 liters of isotonic crystalloid D. immobilize the patient's head prior to the torso.

A. be alert for increased intracranial pressure

When assessing a patient for peripheral edema, you should check the sacral area if the patient is: A. bedridden. B. sitting up. C. ambulatory. D. semireclined.

A. bedridden

The epiglottis can be described as: A. cartilage that covers the larynx during swallowing. B. a ligament that closes the trachea during swallowing. C. a ligament that attaches the vocal cords to the glottic opening. D. cartilage that is inferior to the glottis and keeps the esophagus open.

A. cartilage that covers the larynx during swallowing

Shortly following a meal, a 49-year-old female complains of acute pain to the right upper quadrant of her abdomen with referred pain to her right shoulder. This is MOST suggestive of acute: A. cholecystitis. B. pancreatitis. C. appendicitis. D. pyelonephritis.

A. cholecystitis

Common signs of left-sided congestive heart failure include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. chronic pedal edema. B. tachypnea and tachycardia. C. increased work of breathing. D. production of blood-tinged sputum.

A. chronic pedal edema

Perfusion is MOST accurately defined as: A. circulation of blood within an organ or tissue. B. adequate supplies of glucose within the brain. C. removal of carbon dioxide from the body. D. oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange in the lungs.

A. circulation of blood within an organ or tissue

The skin and underlying tissues of the face: A. have a rich blood supply and bleed heavily. B. swell minimally when exposed to blunt trauma. C. contain a relatively small number of nerve fibers. D. are well protected by the maxillae and mandible.

A. have a rich blood supply and bleed heavily

Patients with a significant abdominal injury: A. have increased pain with movement. B. develop hypotension as an early sign. C. most commonly have an injured spleen. D. become tachycardic after severe blood loss.

A. have increased pain with movement

All of the following conditions would require immediate transport after the primary assessment and treatment phase, EXCEPT: A. headache without mental status change. B. inability to move the extremities following trauma. C. abdominal pain and cool, clammy skin. D. responsiveness but inability to follow commands.

A. headache without mental status change

The cervical spine is MOST protected from whiplash-type injuries when the: A. headrest is appropriately positioned. B. air bag correctly deploys upon impact. C. rear end of the vehicle is initially struck. D. patient tenses up at the time of impact.

A. headrest is appropriately positioned

All of the following are common signs and symptoms of chronic renal failure, EXCEPT: A. hematuria. B. jaundice. C. oliguria. D. uremic frost.

A. hematuria

Compared to a 16-gauge catheter, a 22-gauge catheter would be more appropriate for an elderly patient because: A. it reduces the risk of fluid extravasation. B. the risk of catheter shear is much lower. C. larger fluid volumes can be administered. D. it more easily penetrates their tough skin.

A. it reduces the risk of fluid extravasation

Which of the following maneuvers should be used to open a patient's airway when a spinal injury is suspected? Select one: A. jaw-thrust B. tongue-jaw lift C. head tilt-neck lift D. head tilt-chin lift

A. jaw-thrust

The superficial temporal artery can be palpated: A. just anterior to the tragus. B. at the angle of the jaw. C. slightly above the ear. D. over the mastoid process.

A. just anterior to the tragus

The sebaceous glands of the skin secrete sebum, which: A. keeps the skin soft and prevents cracking. B. kills microorganisms on the skin surface. C. allows the body to cool itself through sweating. D. contracts the muscles that pull hair into an erect position.

A. keeps the skin soft and prevents cracking

Approximately 80% of all injuries to the genitourinary system involve the: A. kidneys. B. bladder. C. ureters.

A. kidneys

When choosing an IV site on an elderly patient, you should: A. know that varicose veins allow minimal circulation. B. always cannulate veins in the antecubital fossa. C. choose a vein that weaves back and forth. D. cannulate a sclerosed vein since it is less likely to infiltrate.

A. know that varicose veins allow minimal circulation

Ventilation is defined as the: A. physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs. B. exchange of gases between the body and its environment. C. removal of carbon dioxide during the exhalation phase. D. delivery of oxygen to the alveoli during the inhalation phase.

A. physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs

A 56-year-old male complains of difficulty breathing. His wife tells you that he complained of chest discomfort a few days prior, but would not allow her to call EMS. Your assessment reveals rales in the apices and bases of both lungs. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: A. chronic bronchitis. B. acute pulmonary embolism. C. cardiogenic pulmonary edema.

C. cardiogenic pulmonary edema

An ion that has an overall positive charge is called a/an: A. electrolyte. B. buffer. C. cation. D. anion.

C. cation

The manually triggered ventilation device is used less commonly than other ventilation devices because it: A. is only beneficial in children. B. delivers inadequate tidal volume. C. causes severe gastric distention.

C. causes severe gastric distention

The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from the bullet, causing damage remote from its path, is known as: A. capitation. B. conversion. C. cavitation. D. congruent.

C. cavitation

Which of the following is consistent with a narcotic (opiate/opioid) toxidrome? A. Hyperventilation, tachycardia, and agitation B. Increased salivation, seizures, and dilated pupils C. Respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils, and coma D. Hyperthermia, dilated pupils, and blurred vision

C. Respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils, and coma

Which of the following patients has the legal right to refuse treatment? A. Confused 17-year-old male with hypoglycemia B. Disoriented 60-year-old male with a possible stroke C. Responsive and alert 45-year-old male with chest pressure D. Responsive and alert 15-year-old male with abdominal pain

C. Responsive and alert 45-year-old male with chest pressure

Just before striking a tree with her car, a 17-year-old female suddenly gasps and holds her breath. What type of injury will she MOST likely experience? A. Disruption of the great vessels B. Compression of the myocardium C. Rupture of the lung parenchyma D. Multiple pulmonary contusions

C. Rupture of the lung parenchyma

What type of valves are the aortic and pulmonic valves? A. Papillary B. Chordis C. Semilunar D. Atrioventricular

C. Semilunar

Which of the following is the MOST effective way of preventing the spread of disease? A. Keep your immunizations current. B. Always wear gloves when assessing a patient. C. Thoroughly wash your hands after every patient contact. D. Take prophylactic antibiotics after treating of all patients

C. Thoroughly wash your hands after every patient contact

Which of the following cardiac rhythms or conditions requires defibrillation? A. Asystole B. Pulseless electrical activity C. Ventricular tachycardia without a pulse D. Any tachycardic rhythm with a weak pulse

C. Ventricular tachycardia without a pulse

A patient who was bitten by a mosquito and presents with signs and symptoms of illness should be suspected of having: A. avian flu. B. hantavirus. C. West Nile virus.

C. West Nile virus

When is it appropriate to palpate a trauma patient's pelvis? A. If he or she presents with signs of shock B. When a spinal injury is not suspected C. When he or she does not report pelvic pain D. Only if there is gross evidence of injury

C. When he or she does not report pelvic pain

Under which of the following situations would the AEMT NOT have a legal duty to act? A. Your ambulance responds to the scene of a drowning. B. You initiate bleeding control of a man who was shot. C. You are off duty and encounter a man in cardiac arrest.

C. You are off duty and encounter a man in cardiac arrest

In which of the following situations would the AEMT have a legal duty to act? A. At all times, whether you are on duty or off duty. B. Arriving at a motor-vehicle crash outside your jurisdiction. C. You initiate CPR on a young child outside of your jurisdiction. D. Encountering a man in cardiac arrest while you are off duty.

C. You initiate CPR on a young child outside of your jurisdiction

You remove the shirt of a patient in cardiac arrest and note an adhesive patch applied to his upper right arm. This medication is MOST likely: A. transdermal calamine. B. absorbed glucose. C. a fentanyl patch. D. transcutaneous atropine.

C. a fentanyl patch

Definitive treatment to reduce acute respiratory distress in a patient with a pleural effusion involves: A. endotracheal intubation. B. needle decompression. C. a fluid thoracentesis. D. antibiotic therapy.

C. a fluid thoracentesis

An AEMT administers the wrong medication to a patient. This is an example of: A. a rules-based error. B. a skills-based error. C. a knowledge-based error. D. an administrative error.

C. a knowledge-based error

In most states, the AEMT has a legal obligation to report: A. injury to a minor during a high school sporting event. B. an older patient who fell in a nursing home bathroom. C. a man who was shot during an attempt to rob a bank. D. inadvertent overdose by a patient with bipolar disorder.

C. a man who was shot during an attempt to rob a bank.

When defibrillating a 6-month-old infant, you should recall that: A. adult AED pads cannot be used. B. you should only deliver one shock. C. a manual defibrillator is preferred. D. all shocks are delivered in sets of three.

C. a manual defibrillator is preferred

You are assessing a 52-year-old male with respiratory distress. The MOST ominous sign(s) of severe hypoxemia and imminent cardiac arrest is/are: A. minimal-word dyspnea and pallor. B. audible stridor and facial cyanosis. C. a marked decrease in the heart rate. D. a marked increase in the heart rate.

C. a marked decrease in the heart rate

You should be MOST suspicious for serious bleeding when: A. the MOI suggests injury to the lower extremities. B. the typical signs of shock are not present. C. a patient has a poor general appearance. D. a patient has a normal BP for his or her age

C. a patient has a poor general appearance

Approximately 2 weeks following a total hip replacement, a 70-year-old female complains of a sudden onset of dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain. Your assessment reveals perioral cyanosis, blood-tinged sputum, and wheezing to the base of her right lung. As your partner applies high-flow oxygen, the patient states that she has a history of hypertension. You should be MOST suspicious of: A. an acute asthma attack. B. acute left heart failure. C. a pulmonary embolism.

C. a pulmonary embolism

A behavioral crisis occurs when: A. an individual reacts violently when faced with danger. B. a person experiences stress without other people's knowledge. C. a reaction to an event interferes with daily living activities. D. an individual suppresses feelings of anger, guilt, or depression.

C. a reaction to an event interferes with daily living activities

Acute epiglottitis in the adult is characterized by: A. a productive cough. B. a low-grade fever. C. a severe sore throat. D. a seal-bark cough.

C. a severe sore throat

When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is MOST important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injury because: A. it saves time on repeat assessments at the hospital. B. most patients with facial trauma will need surgery. C. a specialist may be needed to manage the injury. D. they must make arrangements for an ICU bed.

C. a specialist may be needed to manage the injury

Radios that operate at 800 MHz allow for trunking, which is the: A. only method of communication approved by the FCC. B. ability to use multiple radios when transmitting. C. ability of multiple agencies to share frequencies. D. operation of a dedicated line for emergency use

C. ability of multiple agencies to share frequencies

Hypovolemic shock caused by an atraumatic acute abdomen is usually the result of: A. excessive sweating from fluctuations in body temperature. B. spontaneous rupture of solid organs that are highly vascular. C. abnormal fluid shifts from the bloodstream into the body tissues. D. severe diarrhea that commonly accompanies an acute abdomen.

C. abnormal fluid shifts from the bloodstream into the body tissues

The chemical neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system is: A. epinephrine. B. norepinephrine. C. acetylcholine. D. acetylcholinesterase.

C. acetylcholine

Antidotes or reversal agents exist for all of the following drugs or chemicals, EXCEPT: A. opiates/opoids. B. acetaminophen. C. acetylsalicylic acid. D. organophosphates.

C. acetylsalicylic acid

In preconventional reasoning, children: A. make decisions based on their conscience. B. look for approval from their peers and society. C. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want. D. blame their actions on what they have observed in older children.

C. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want

The movement of a substance against a concentration or gradient, such as the cell membrane, is called: A. osmosis. B. crenation. C. active transport. D. facilitated diffusion.

C. active transport

The primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies: A. typically does not require the AEMT to contact medical control. B. focuses on definitive care, because a diagnosis can usually be made. C. addresses the patient's symptoms more than the actual disease process. D. involves transport only until treatment can be performed at the hospital.

C. addresses the patient's symptoms more than the actual disease process

Movement of an extremity towards the midline of the body is called: A. supination. B. pronation. C. adduction D. abduction.

C. adduction

The term perfusion is defined as: A. the production of waste products from metabolism. B. effective exchange of O2 and CO2 in the lungs. C. adequate circulation of blood to the body's cells. D. sufficient removal of waste products from the body.

C. adequate circulation of blood to the body's cells

Chemoreceptors send messages to the brain to increase respirations when: A. arterial blood pressure falls. B. arterial oxygen levels increase. C. arterial carbon dioxide levels increase.

C. arterial carbon dioxide levels increase

A young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation with a rival gang member. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control any obvious bleeding and then: A. auscultate bowel sounds. B. apply a cervical collar. C. assess for an exit wound. D. obtain baseline vital signs.

C. assess for an exit wound

A 29-year-old confused female has a blood glucose reading of 50 mg/dL. After administering one tube of oral glucose, you note marked improvement in her mental status. As you are taking her vital signs, her level of consciousness suddenly decreases. You should: A. reassess her blood glucose level. B. administer another tube of oral glucose. C. assess her airway and treat accordingly. D. start an IV and administer 50 mL of D50.

C. assess her airway and treat accordingly

An agonistic drug is defined as one that: A. attaches to the receptor site to block a response. B. inhibits the response from a particular receptor. C. binds to a receptor site and stimulates a response. D. stimulates only certain responses from a receptor.

C. binds to a receptor site and stimulates a response

Carbon monoxide (CO) causes severe tissue hypoxia because it: A. obstructs the pulmonary capillary bed and prevents gas exchange. B. causes anemia by destroying the body's circulating red blood cells. C. binds to the hemoglobin molecule and inhibits cellular oxygenation. D. produces excess carbon dioxide when it binds to the red blood cells.

C. binds to the hemoglobin molecule and inhibits cellular oxygenation

Patients with cyanide poisoning often have breath odor that resembles: A. camphor. B. wintergreen. C. bitter almonds. D. acetone.

C. bitter almonds

Atropine increases the heart rate by: A. blocking the release of norepinephrine. B. increasing sympathetic nervous system discharge. C. blocking the vagus nerve and preventing innervation by ACh. D. agonizing the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system.

C. blocking the vagus nerve and preventing innervation by ACh

While assessing the abdomen of a 37-year-old female who experienced blunt abdominal trauma, you note the presence of bruising over the left flank area. This finding suggests: A. bleeding from a lacerated liver. B. the presence of an aortic aneurysm. C. blood in the retroperitoneal space. D. direct trauma to the anterior abdomen.

C. blood in the retroperitoneal space

The renin-angiotensin system in the kidneys helps to regulate: A. heart rate. B. cardiac contractility. C. blood pressure. D. the release of ADH.

C. blood pressure

Factors that alter a patient's response to a drug include: A. the type of drug given. B. the route of administration. C. body mass and psychologic factors. D. over-the-counter versus prescription

C. body mass and psychologic factors

A patient with neurogenic shock would be expected to present with: A. hyperthermia and tachycardia. B. pallor and profuse diaphoresis. C. bradycardia and hypothermia. D. unilateral paralysis and tachycardia.

C. bradycardia and hypothermia

Chronic carbon dioxide retention, as seen in patients with certain lung diseases, may cause the patient to: A. develop extended periods of hypocarbia. B. experience acute tidal volume increases. C. breathe on the basis of decreased oxygen. D. develop tachypnea if given 100% oxygen.

C. breathe on the basis of decreased oxygen

Patients with emphysema are commonly referred to as "pink puffers" because they: A. develop polycythemia and often grunt during exhalation. B. grunt when they breathe and maintain high arterial O2 levels. C. breathe through pursed lips and may develop polycythemia.

C. breathe through pursed lips and may develop polycythemia

Loud, high-pitched and hollow sounds auscultated over the manubrium are called: A. tracheal sounds. B. vesicular sounds. C. bronchial sounds. D. bronchovesicular sounds.

C. bronchial sounds

The respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is a common cause of: A. pertussis and the flu. B. MRSA and whooping cough. C. bronchiolitis and pneumonia. D. asthma and chronic bronchitis.

C. bronchiolitis and pneumonia

A 60-year-old male presents with shortness of breath and a productive cough of two days' duration. He denies chest pain or any other associated symptoms. Auscultation of his lungs reveals scattered bilateral rhonchi in all fields. His skin is pink, warm, and dry and the pulse oximeter reads 94% on room air. This patient is MOST likely experiencing: A. acute asthma. B. emphysema. C. bronchitis. D. pneumonia.

C. bronchitis

In addition to widespread urticaria, _____________ is a common response in patients experiencing a severe allergic reaction. A. cephalgia B. rhinorrhea C. bronchospasm D. vasoconstriction

C. bronchospasm

When an IV line is not available, glucose should be administered to a conscious patient via the __________ route. A. rectal B. transdermal C. buccal D. sublingual

C. buccal

After an advanced airway device has been inserted during cardiac arrest, you should ventilate an infant or child: Select one: A. at a rate of at least 20 breaths/min. B. by giving one breath every 5 to 6 seconds. C. by giving one breath every 6 to 8 seconds. D. with greater force to enhance chest compressions.

C. by giving one breath every 6 to 8 seconds.

Unlike the honeybee, wasps and hornets: A. have weaker venom, which is less likely to cause anaphylactic shock. B. are typically easier to identify as the species that caused an allergic reaction. C. can sting multiple times, because their stinger is not left imbedded in the skin. D. have a barbed stinger, which will remain imbedded in the skin.

C. can sting multiple times, because their stinger is not left imbedded in the skin

Migraine headaches are thought to be caused by: A. an intracranial lesion, such as a tumor or abscess. B. shunting of excess amounts of blood from the brain. C. changes in blood vessel size within the base of the brain. D. excess psychological stress that is poorly managed.

C. changes in blood vessel size within the base of the brain

The inner surface of the eyelids and the exposed surface of the eye itself are covered by a delicate membrane called the: A. retina. B. cornea. C. conjunctiva. D. sclera.

C. conjunctiva

During Stage 1 hemorrhage, the body compensates primarily by: A. increasing systolic blood pressure. B. narrowing the pulse pressure. C. constriction of the vascular bed. D. increasing the respiratory rate.

C. constriction of the vascular bed

A 61-year-old female called EMS after suddenly being awakened in the middle of the night with a feeling that she was "smothering." You arrive to find the patient, very apprehensive and restless, sitting on the living room couch in obvious respiratory distress. Her BP is 160/90 mm Hg, pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular, and respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored. Auscultation of her lungs reveals diffuse rhonchi in all fields. Treatment for this patient should include: A. oxygen at 4 to 6 L/min via nasal cannula and up to 3 nebulizer treatments. B. oropharyngeal suctioning and assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device. C. continuous positive airway pressure and an IV line set to keep the vein open. D. an IV line with a 250 mL normal saline bolus and oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

C. continuous positive airway pressure and an IV line set to keep the vein open

Law enforcement requests your assistance at a local nightclub for a patient who was assaulted. Upon arrival, an officer escorts you to the patient, a 21-year-old male, who is bleeding severely from a lacerated brachial artery. The patient is conscious and is screaming in pain. You should immediately: A. manually stabilize the patient's head. B. ensure the patient's airway is patent. C. control the bleeding with direct pressure. D. apply 100% supplemental oxygen.

C. control the bleeding with direct pressure

Priority management for a patient with an amputated penis and stable vital signs includes: A. locating the amputated part. B. rapid transport to a trauma center. C. controlling any active hemorrhage. D. placing moist dressings on the wound.

C. controlling any active hemorrhage

A 40-year-old male was in his woodworking shop when he felt a sudden, sharp pain in his left eye. Your assessment reveals a small splinter of wood embedded in his cornea. You should: A. remove the object with a cotton-tipped applicator. B. scrape the splinter away with moist, sterile gauze. C. cover both of his eyes and transport to the hospital. D. cover his right eye and flush the left eye with saline.

C. cover both of his eyes and transport to the hospital

When caring for an open wound that has small pieces of glass and other debris inside of it, you should: A. remove the glass and debris with hemostats. B. leave the wound open unless it is bleeding. C. cover the wound with a sterile dressing. D. irrigate the wound with sterile water.

C. cover the wound with a sterile dressing

When selecting the most appropriate site for IV cannulation, you should avoid veins that: A. have the straightest appearance. B. are springy when palpated. C. cross or lie over joints. D. have a rounded appearance.

C. cross or lie over joints

The portion of the tidal volume that does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange is called: A. vital reserve. B. residual air. C. dead space air. D. inspiratory reserve.

C. dead space air

When attempting to ventilate an unconscious patient, you note decreased lung compliance. This indicates: A. increased alveolar expansion. B. decreased airway resistance. C. decreased alveolar expansion.

C. decreased alveolar expansion

Afterload is defined as the: A. volume of blood returned to the left and right atrium. B. amount of blood pumped from the heart per contraction. C. degree of pressure against which the left ventricle pumps. D. volume of blood pumped throughout the circulatory system per minute

C. degree of pressure against which the left ventricle pumps

A young male is found to be unconscious. When assessing his pupils, you note that they dilate when exposed to bright light. This clinical finding is MOST suggestive of: A. congenital anisocoria. B. a barbiturate overdose. C. depressed brain function. D. a hemorrhagic stroke.

C. depressed brain function

Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the nose following severe head trauma suggests: A. fracture of the basilar skull. B. damage to the nasal sinuses. C. fracture of the cribriform plate. D. damage to the auditory canal.

C. fracture of the cribriform plate

The uppermost portion of the uterus is called the: A. os. B. neck. C. fundus. D. cervix.

C. fundus

Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. rib fractures. B. liver laceration. C. gastric distention. D. a fractured sternum.

C. gastric distention.

Assessment of a patient's pelvis is appropriately performed by: A. using a slight rocking motion. B. pushing inward while lifting the patient. C. gently compressing it inward. D. firmly compressing to elicit crepitus.

C. gently compressing it inward

The transfer of patient care officially occurs when you: A. arrive at the receiving hospital or facility. B. advise the hospital of the situation via radio. C. give an oral report to a nurse or physician. D. complete all documentation regarding the call.

C. give an oral report to a nurse or physician

Cells or organs that selectively remove, concentrate, or alter materials in the blood and then secrete them back into the body are called: A. hormones. B. neoplasms. C. glands. D. neurotransmitters

C. glands

The narrowest portion of the adult's trachea is the: A. cricoid ring. B. cricoid cartilage. C. glottic opening. D. thyroid cartilage.

C. glottic opening

The primary fuels for cellular metabolism are: A. glucagon and insulin. B. oxygen and glucagon. C. glucose and oxygen. D. oxygen and insulin.

C. glucose and oxygen

The metabolic conversion of glucose into energy is called: A. glucogenesis. B. glycogenolysis. C. glycolysis. D. gluconeogenesis.

C. glycolysis

Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it: A. is less resistant to treatment. B. is a more contagious type of disease. C. has a greater ability to produce disease. D. leads to chronic infection after exposure.

C. has a greater ability to produce disease

Compared to drugs such as phenobarbital and diazepam (Valium), heroin: A. is a Schedule II drug and has no medical application. B. has acceptable medical uses in certain circumstances. C. has a much higher potential for abuse and dependence. D. has a low abuse potential and a limited dependence potential.

C. has a much higher potential for abuse and dependence

In contrast to the Combitube, the King LT airway: A. is not associated with the risk of laryngospasm. B. can be used in patients with esophageal disease. C. has two cuffs that are simultaneously inflated. D. eliminates the risks of regurgitation and aspiration.

C. has two cuffs that are simultaneously inflated

In contrast to upper-airway injury following a burn, lower-airway injury is usually the result of: A. inhalation of superheated gases. B. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli. C. inhalation of chemicals and particulate matter. D. interstitial fluid shifts and pulmonary edema.

C. inhalation of chemicals and particulate matter

The three basic pathways by which radiation enters the body are: A. inhalation, absorption and direct exposure. B. ingestion, direct exposure, and injection. C. inhalation, ingestion, and direct exposure. D. absorption, inhalation, and injection.

C. inhalation, ingestion, and direct exposure

If you suspect that your patient has ingested a poisonous substance, you should: A. transport the patient to the closest medical facility. B. administer activated charcoal as soon as possible. C. initiate emergency care and notify medical control. D. call poison control for specific treatment guidelines.

C. initiate emergency care and notify medical control

A 50-year-old male has fallen from a significant height. He is conscious and alert, but is unable to feel or move both of his lower extremities. This is MOST likely the result of: A. local nerve injury. B. traumatic brain injury. C. injury to the spinal cord. D. a response to severe pain.

C. injury to the spinal cord

A 7-year-old child has swallowed a bottle of aspirin. Medical control orders you to give the child 0.5 g/kg of activated charcoal. Based on the child's weight of 45 pounds, how much charcoal will you administer? A. 15 g B. 10 g C. 20 g D. 5 g

B. 10 g

What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minute to a 4-month-old infant? Select one: A. 90 B. 100 C. 110 D. 120

B. 100

Which of the following weapons would MOST likely result in the largest surface area of tissue damage? A. .22 caliber handgun B. 12-gauge shotgun C. 357 magnum D. 9.0 mm handgun

B. 12-gauge shotgun

Prior to administering oral glucose to your diabetic patient, you look at the dosage, which reads 15g. How many milligrams is this equivalent to? A. 150 B. 15,000 C. 1,500 D. 150,000

B. 15,000

A 32-year-old male was involved in a motorcycle crash and sustained bilateral femur fractures as he was ejected over the handlebars of his bike. He is experiencing signs and symptoms of shock. On the basis of his injury, what is the approximate volume of blood that he has lost? A. 3 L B. 2 L C. 4 L D. 1 L

B. 2 L

A 6-year-old, 44-lb male ingested an unknown quantity of aspirin approximately 20 minutes ago. He is conscious and alert and has stable vital signs. The appropriate dose of activated charcoal for this child is: A. 10 g. B. 20 g. C. 30 g. D. 40 g.

B. 20 g

You have been requested to infuse 1,000 mL of lactated ringers over six hours. You have macrodrip (10 gtts/mL) tubing and a 16-gauge IV catheter. At how many drops per minute will you set the IV flow rate? A. 26 B. 28 C. 22 D. 24

B. 28

Medical control has ordered you to start an IV on a dehydrated patient and administer normal saline at a rate of 200 mL/hr. Using macrodrip (10 gtts/mL) tubing and an 18-gauge catheter, how many drops per minute will you set the flow rate at? A. 66 B. 33 C. 46 D. 74

B. 33

What is the approximate cardiac output of a person with a heart rate of 70 beats/min and a stroke volume of 75 mL? A. 4 L/min B. 5 L/min C. 6 L/min D. 7 L/min

B. 5 L/min

Routine treatment for a patient who has just experienced a generalized tonic-clonic seizure and is postictal includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. an IV of normal saline or a saline lock. B. 50% dextrose via IV administration. C. assessing for trauma to the long bones or spine. D. 100% oxygen and ventilatory assistance as needed.

B. 50% dextrose via IV administration

A portable oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is at ________ psi or below: A. 200 B. 500 C. 750 D. 1,000

B. 500

The normal tidal volume, including dead space volume, in the average adult male is approximately: A. 350 mL. B. 500 mL. C. 650 mL. D. 800 mL.

B. 500 mL

Which of the following conditions would allow an adult patient to MOST effectively compensate for external blood loss? A. 500 mL of blood loss over 30 seconds B. 500 mL of blood loss over 15 minutes C. 1,000 mL of blood loss over 20 minutes D. 750 mL of blood loss over 10 minutes

B. 500 mL of blood loss over 15 minutes

During a lengthy transport of a 120-lb 29-year-old female with partial- and full-thickness burns to 45% of her BSA, medical control orders you to begin IV fluid replacement based on the Parkland formula. What volume of IV crystalloid should you administer per hour? A. 690 mL B. 620 mL C. 720 mL D. 780 mL

B. 620 mL

During a long distance transport, you initiate an IV of normal saline and infuse 125 mL over 2 hours. Using microdrip tubing, how many drops per minute (gtts/min) is your IV flow rate set at? A. 53 gtts/min B. 63 gtts/min C. 39 gtts/min D. 58 gtts/min

B. 63 gtts/min

The normal pH of the human body ranges from: A. 7.25 - 7.30. B. 7.35 - 7.45. C. 7.50 - 7.55. D. 7.60 - 7.75.

B. 7.35 - 7.45

How many milliliters per kilogram (mL/kg) of blood are contained within the average adult male's body? A. 60 B. 70 C. 80 D. 90

B. 70

What is the approximate weight in kilograms of a 155 lb patient? A. 72 kg B. 70 kg C. 76 kg D. 74 kg

B. 70 kg

The pulse rate of a child from ages 6 to 12 years is approximately: A. 60 to 100 beats/min. B. 70 to 120 beats/min. C. 100 to 150 beats/min. D. 90 to 140 beats/min.

B. 70 to 120 beats/min

In adult females and adolescents, systolic blood pressure is considered critically low when it is less _____ mm Hg or less. A. 70 B. 80 C. 90 D. 60

B. 80

In most people, a systolic BP of _______ is sufficient to adequately perfuse the brain and other vital organs. Select one: A. 70 - 80 mm Hg B. 80 - 90 mm Hg C. 90 - 100 mm Hg D. greater than 100 mm Hg

B. 80 - 90 mm Hg

The normal range for blood glucose levels in nonfasting adults and children ranges from: A. 70 to 100 mg/dL. B. 80 to 120 mg/dL. C. 90 to 130 mg/dL. D. 100 to 130 mg/dL.

B. 80 to 120 mg/dL

The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of: A. 3 and 4 months. B. 9 and 18 months. C. 6 and 8 months. D. 7 and 14 months.

B. 9 and 18 months

Which of the following statements regarding the automated external defibrillator (AED) is NOT correct? A. Human error is the most common reason for AED failure. B. A pulse should be checked immediately after the AED shocks. C. The AED will deliver one shock every 2 minutes as needed. D. Pulseless V-tach may respond to defibrillation with an AED.

B. A pulse should be checked immediately after the AED shocks

Which of the following scenarios is MOST consistent with abandonment? A. You give a verbal report to the charge nurse in the emergency department. B. A report is given to a hospital clerk because you must respond to another call. C. A paramedic assumes care of a critical cardiac patient from an AEMT. D. Emergency medical responders provide an AEMT with a patient's vital signs.

B. A report is given to a hospital clerk because you must respond to another call

Which of the following pairs of cranial nerves only carry sensory fibers? A. Oculomotor, trigeminal, and abducens B. Olfactory, optic, and vestibulocochlear C. Vagus, trochlear, and spinal accessory

B. Olfactory, optic, and vestibulocochlear

Which of the following chemicals reacts violently and may ignite when they come into contact with water? A. Chloride and calcium B. Sodium and phosphorus C. Calcium and magnesium D. Potassium and bicarbonate

B. Sodium and phosphorus

Which of the following statements regarding the King LT airway is ? A. It features single lumen that is designed for tracheal insertion B. Studies show that it is easier and quicker to insert than a Combitube C. The King LT airway can be used in patients of any age and height D. The Combitube protects the airway more effectively than the King LT

B. Studies show that it is easier and quicker to insert than a Combitube

When managing any patient, the AEMT should: A. focus exclusively on the patient's medical needs. B. reassure the patient that everything will be alright. C. maintain a nonjudgmental and compassionate attitude. D. function beyond his or her scope of practice in critical situations.

C. maintain a nonjudgmental and compassionate attitude

You should NOT administer emergency care to a patient who inhaled a toxic substance until: A. an antidote, if available, has been given. B. he or she has been properly decontaminated. C. you have assessed his or her oxygen saturation. D. it has been determined how the exposure occurred.

B. he or she has been properly decontaminated

Signs of a ruptured urinary bladder include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hematuria. B. hematemesis. C. perineal bruising. D. urethral bleeding.

B. hematemesis

An acute accelerated drop in the hemoglobin level, which is caused by red blood cells breaking down at a faster rate than normal, occurs during a(n) __________ crisis. A. aplastic B. hemolytic C. vasoocclusive D. splenic sequestration

B. hemolytic

The body's ability to spontaneously cease bleeding by forming a clot is called: A. fibrinolysis. B. hemostasis. C. homeostasis. D. thrombolysis.

B. hemostasis

The separation of the intracellular and extracellular areas by a selectively permeable membrane helps to maintain: A. endocytosis. B. homeostasis. C. hemostasis. D. exocytosis.

B. homeostasis

The MOST common contraindication for any medication is: A. hypertension. B. hypersensitivity. C. tachycardia. D. seizure disorder.

B. hypersensitivity

Common physical signs and symptoms of agitated delirium include: A. constricted pupils, drowsiness, and cool skin. B. hypertension, tachycardia, and diaphoresis. C. chest pain, shortness of breath, and bradycardia. D. confusion, hypotension, and pallor.

B. hypertension, tachycardia, and diaphoresis

A solution that has a greater concentration of sodium than does the cell is referred to as being: A. hypotonic. B. hypertonic. C. isotonic. D. hyperosmolar.

B. hypertonic

A solution that hydrates the cells while depleting the vascular compartment is referred to as being: A. hypertonic. B. hypotonic. C. isotonic. D. hyperosmolar.

B. hypotonic

A solution that results in water flowing into a cell, causing it to burst, is referred to as being: A. hyperosmolar. B. hypotonic. C. isotonic. D. hypertonic.

B. hypotonic

An adverse condition induced in a patient as a result of the treatment given is called a/an: A. side effect. B. iatrogenic response. C. teratogenic response. D. idiosyncrasy.

B. iatrogenic response

A 30-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the neck when he was attacked outside a nightclub. During your assessment, you should be MOST alert for: A. alterations in his mental status. B. potential airway compromise. C. injury to the cervical spine. D. damage to internal structures.

B. potential airway compromise

When assessing a female patient with chest pain and shortness of breath, you note that her blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, her heart rate is 120 beats/min, and she has cyanosis around her mouth. In addition to supporting her ventilations, you should: A. perform a secondary assessment. B. prepare for immediate transport. C. give her a bronchodilator drug.

B. prepare for immediate transport

You have just completed your primary assessment of a 48-year-old man with crushing chest pain. The patient has been given 324 mg of aspirin and is receiving high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. As you begin your secondary assessment, you note that his mental status has deteriorated and he is now bradycardic. You should: A. continue with your secondary assessment. B. prepare the patient for immediate transport. C. insert a nasal airway and assist his breathing. D. request a paramedic unit to respond to the scene.

B. prepare the patient for immediate transport

During an explosion, a metal worker sustained a large laceration to the left side of his neck by flying debris. He is conscious, but restless; the wound is moderately bleeding. Appropriate care for this patient's injury includes: A. circumferentially wrapping the neck with gauze to secure a dressing in place. B. preventing air from entering the wound and applying a pressure dressing. C. controlling the bleeding by applying direct pressure to both carotid arteries. D. applying a pressure dressing to the wound and then apply a cervical collar.

B. preventing air from entering the wound and applying a pressure dressing

The Good Samaritan law is designed to afford legal protection for providers who: A. accept payment in exchange for providing care. B. provide good faith care while not on duty. C. exceed their respective scope of practice. D. act inconsistently with the standard of care.

B. provide good faith care while not on duty

Minute volume would increase if: A. tidal volume was reduced. B. respiratory rate was increased. C. a patient's breathing was shallow. D. the amount of dead space air increased.

B. respiratory rate was increased

During an acidotic state, the kidneys attempt to maintain a normal pH by: A. excreting bicarbonate. B. retaining bicarbonate. C. retaining hydrogen ions. D. secreting hydrogen ions.

B. retaining bicarbonate

The optic nerve endings are located within the: A. cornea. B. retina. C. pupil. D. sclera.

B. retina

A young female complains of acute pain located in the left lower quadrant of her abdomen. When palpating her abdomen for tenderness, and rigidity, you should FIRST palpate the: A. left lower quadrant. B. right upper quadrant. C. left upper quadrant. D. right lower quadrant.

B. right upper quadrant

The skin sends messages to the brain to regulate various functions via: A. efferent nerves. B. sensory nerves. C. motor nerves. D. axonal nerves.

B. sensory nerves

A patient who is in a tripod position is: A. standing and leaning against an object, such as a wall, and has noticeable accessory muscle use B. sitting and leaning forward on outstretched arms with the head and chin thrust slightly forward. C. kneeling and supporting himself with his hands with his head in a hyperextended position D. in a semisitting position, leaning slightly forward, with the chin drawn in toward the chest

B. sitting and leaning forward on outstretched arms with the head and chin thrust slightly forward

When the parasympathetic nervous system is stimulated, it: A. enhances conduction through the atrioventricular node. B. slows the heart rate by decreasing SA node discharge. C. produces epinephrine and increases cardiac contractility. D. increases the heart rate by increasing SA node discharge.

B. slows the heart rate by decreasing SA node discharge

Most of the digestive process occurs in the: A. stomach. B. small intestine. C. large intestine. D. cecum.

B. small intestine

All of the following are voluntary muscles, EXCEPT: A. skeletal muscle. B. smooth muscle. C. striated muscle.

B. smooth muscle

A 79-year-old female is complaining of shortness of breath. When you ask her when this episode began, she does not answer you. You should: A. ask a different question about her problem. B. speak clearly and repeat the question. C. move closer and speak loudly in her ear. D. immediately ask a family member

B. speak clearly and repeat the question

A 26-year-old female, who is at the end of her first trimester of pregnancy, complains of vaginal bleeding. She denies abdominal pain, and states that her last menstrual cycle was approximately 2 months ago. She is conscious and alert and her vital signs are stable. You should be MOST suspicious for: A. placenta previa. B. spontaneous abortion. C. uterine rupture. D. premature labor.

B. spontaneous abortion

While assessing an unconscious 30-year-old female's airway, you note that her respirations are rapid, shallow, and gurgling. What is your initial course of action? A. Reposition her airway. B. Apply 100% oxygen. C. Begin assisted ventilations. D. Suction her oropharynx.

D. Suction her oropharynx

You are assessing the quality of a trauma patient's respirations. Which of the following clinical findings would indicate labored breathing? A. Shallow chest movement B. Reduced tidal volume C. Gurgling in the upper airway D. Supraclavicular retractions

D. Supraclavicular retractions

Which of the following clinical presentations is consistent with a malfunctioning implanted pacemaker? A. Weakness and tachycardia B. Dizziness and hypertension C. Tachycardia and hypotension D. Syncope and bradycardia

D. Syncope and bradycardia

Which of the following is LEAST suggestive of a person's intent to commit suicide? A. Giving away personal possessions B. Developing or changing a will C. Procurement of a knife or gun D. Taking time away from a job

D. Taking time away from a job

Type 1 diabetes: A. typically occurs in patients between 50 and 70 years of age. B. is defined as a blood sugar level that is less than 120 mg/dL. C. is typically treated with medications such as metformin (Glucophage). D. is a metabolic condition in which no insulin is produced by the body.

D. is a metabolic condition in which no insulin is produced by the body

A 77-year-old man presents with hypertension, anuria, generalized edema, and tachypnea. This clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: A. congestive heart failure. B. acute pyelonephritis. C. a systemic infection. D. acute renal failure.

D. acute renal failure

In addition to improving systemic perfusion following an electrical burn injury, you should administer IV crystalloid fluid boluses in order to: A. abruptly increase the blood pressure. B. concentrate myoglobin in the renal tubules. C. maintain adequate urine output. D. prevent the occurrence of dysrhythmias.

C. maintain adequate urine output

The lower jawbone is called the: A. maxillae. B. zygoma. C. mandible. D. mastoid.

C. mandible

After applying supplemental oxygen to a patient with blunt abdominal trauma, you should: A. fully extend the patient's legs. B. vigorously palpate the abdomen. C. obtain a set of baseline vital signs. D. start an IV and give a fluid bolus.

C. obtain a set of baseline vital signs

Following a head injury, a patient complains of double vision. This suggests injury to the: A. temporal lobe. B. frontal lobe. C. occipital lobe. D. parietal lobe.

C. occipital lobe

The __________ nerve innervates the muscles that cause motion of the eyeballs and upper lid. A. optic B. trochlear C. oculomotor D. abducens

C. oculomotor

A projection of the second cervical vertebra (C2) that fits into the vertebral foramen of the first cervical vertebra (C1) is called the: A. vertebra prominens. B. foramen magnum. C. odontoid process. D. spinous process.

C. odontoid process

When attaching an administration set to a bag of IV fluid and priming the IV tubing, you should ensure that the drip chamber is: A. completely full. B. one fourth full. C. one half full. D. three fourths full.

C. one half full

The layer of tissue that lines the inside of the chest cavity is called the: A. visceral pleura. B. pulmonary pleura. C. parietal pleura.

C. parietal pleura

A 33-year-old female complains of acute intense pain in both lower abdominal quadrants. She is conscious and alert, tachycardic, and has a fever of 102.5ºF. You should suspect: A. acute bacterial cystitis. B. a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. C. pelvic inflammatory disease. D. a bacterial urinary tract infection.

C. pelvic inflammatory disease

Approximately 1 week following her menstrual period, a 33-year-old female complains of bilateral lower abdominal quadrant pain, vaginal discharge, and fever. This clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: A. an ovarian cyst. B. an ectopic pregnancy. C. pelvic inflammatory disease. D. a spontaneous abortion.

C. pelvic inflammatory disease

With regard to the heart, ejection fraction is defined as the: A. volume of blood that enters the lungs. B. volume of blood ejected from both atria. C. percentage of blood ejected from the heart. D. percentage of blood returned to the heart.

C. percentage of blood ejected from the heart

A 20-year-old male twisted his ankle while playing basketball. He is conscious and alert, is breathing adequately, and denies other trauma. After performing the primary assessment, you should: A. administer 100% oxygen. B. splint the ankle and transport. C. perform a focused assessment. D. obtain baseline vital signs.

C. perform a focused assessment

Carbonic acid is an ideal buffer because it: A. binds with water to form bicarbonate. B. is a strong acid and destroys only hydrogen ions. C. fully dissociates and maintains a high level of alkalinity. D. is a weak acid and can accept or donate hydrogen ions.

D. is a weak acid and can accept or donate hydrogen ions

Five percent dextrose in water (D5W) is an isotonic solution until it: A. is shaken to mix the ingredients. B. has expired and is no longer active. C. is mixed with a hypotonic medication. D. is administered to a patient.

D. is administered to a patient

The AEMT should wear double gloves when caring for a patient who: A. is infected with HIV or hepatitis B. B. is coughing and has a history of tuberculosis. C. has widespread abrasions and capillary bleeding. D. is bleeding heavily from a large artery laceration.

D. is bleeding heavily from a large artery laceration

A patient who remains flaccid without moving or making a sound with no indication of hearing you: A. likely requires defibrillation. B. needs advanced airway care. C. requires assisted ventilation. D. is considered unresponsive.

D. is considered unresponsive

A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will MOST likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she: A. experiences multiple impacts. B. remains within the vehicle. C. is wearing only a lap belt. D. is ejected or partially ejected.

D. is ejected or partially ejected

You are ventilating a stoma patient with a pocket mask device. As you ventilate, you hear the leakage of air. Your initial course of action should be to: A. suction the stoma and mouth. B. hyperextend the patient's neck. C. seal the patient's nose and mouth. D. use a larger size pocket mask device.

C. seal the patient's nose and mouth

When immobilizing a patient onto a long backboard, it is important to: A. follow the commands of the AEMT at the torso. B. secure the head prior to securing the torso. C. secure the torso prior to securing the head.

C. secure the torso prior to securing the head

A 30-year-old female with abdominal pain would be LEAST likely to answer your questions if she: A. is currently menstruating. B. has had a miscarriage. C. was sexually abused. D. is having unprotected sex.

C. was sexually abused

When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the AEMT must: A. consider the mechanism of injury. B. manually stabilize the patient's head. C. wear gloves and facial protection. D. closely assess the patient's airway.

C. wear gloves and facial protection

The absence of a pulse and breath sounds are NOT adequate in declaring death in patients who: A. also have rigor mortis. B. have terminal cancer. C. were acutely poisoned. D. have massive trauma.

C. were acutely poisoned

Internal injuries caused by gunshot wounds are difficult to predict because: A. exit wounds caused by the bullet are usually small. B. the caliber of the bullet is frequently unknown. C. the area of damage is usually smaller than the bullet. D. the bullet may tumble or ricochet within the body.

D. the bullet may tumble or ricochet within the body.

In addition to facilitating the uptake of sugar into the cells, insulin is also responsible for: A. the chemical conversion of glycogen to glucose. B. stimulating the liver and kidneys to produce glucose. C. the production of amino acids and carbohydrates. D. the chemical conversion of glucose to glycogen.

D. the chemical conversion of glucose to glycogen

A patient with a possible stroke is a potential candidate for fibrinolytic therapy unless he or she: A. has a history of coronary artery disease. B. is treated greater than 1 hour after the stroke. C. has a history of well-controlled hypertension. D. is experiencing an intracranial hemorrhage.

D. is experiencing an intracranial hemorrhage

A patient experiencing status epilepticus: A. commonly has a therapeutic anticonvulsant level. B. has a return of consciousness in between seizures. C. typically maintains bowel and bladder continence. D. is having a prolonged generalized motor seizure.

D. is having a prolonged generalized motor seizure

When properly placed, the distal tip of the Cobra perilaryngeal airway (CobraPLA): A. should be at least 3 to 5 cm into the esophagus. B. rests at the base of the tongue and is anchored by the cuff. C. abuts up against the esophagus and effectively occludes it. D. is proximal to the esophagus and seals the hypopharynx.

D. is proximal to the esophagus and seals the hypopharynx

A breakable glass container that is designed to carry a single medication dose is called a/an: A. ampule. B. aboject. C. tubex. D. vial.

A. ampule

What types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts? A. Rotational and rollover B. Rear-end and rotational C. Frontal and rotational D. Lateral and rollover

A. Rotational and rollover

Which of the following is the smallest unit of weight? A. Gram B. Milligram C. Microgram D. Kilogram

C. Microgram

Which layer of the blood vessel is composed of elastic tissue and smooth muscle cells, which allow the vessel to expand or contract in response to the body's demands? A. Tunica intima. B. Tunica interna. C. Tunica media. D. Tunica adventitia.

C. Tunica media

You are administering aspirin to a patient with crushing chest pain when he asks you if he is having a heart attack. An appropriate response to his question would be: A. "I believe you are." B. "An ECG will tell us." C. "Probably not." D. "I don't know."

D. "I don't know."

Which of the following skin findings suggest liver dysfunction? A. Ashen and moist B. Flushed and warm C. Jaundice and dry D. Cyanotic and cool

D. Cyanotic and cool

Which of the following is NOT a peripheral pulse in the adult? A. Popliteal B. Brachial C. Radial D. Femoral

D. Femoral

A pH of 7.30 indicates: A. a neutral pH. B. a basic pH. C. alkalosis. D. acidosis.

D. acidosis

Compared to the frontal region of the skull, the occiput is: A. anterior. B. exterior. C. inferior. D. posterior.

D. posterior

A restrained 19-year-old male was involved in a rollover motor-vehicle crash. With the exception of a small laceration to his forehead, he appears stable. When reconsidering the mechanism of injury, you should: A. treat him for potentially life-threatening injuries. B. perform a focused assessment since he is stable. C. guide your treatment based on his vital signs.

.

Which of the following is NOT a standard licensure requirement for the AEMT? A. Completion of an NREMT-developed AEMT course. B. Possession of a valid and current driver's license. C. Successful completion of a state-approved AEMT exam. D. Proof of immunization against communicable diseases.

A. Completion of an NREMT-developed AEMT course

Which of the following statements regarding pulmonary respiration is correct? Select one: A. There are more oxygen molecules in the alveoli than in the blood; therefore, the oxygen molecules move from the alveoli into the blood. B. There are more carbon dioxide molecules in inhaled air than in the blood; therefore, carbon dioxide moves from the alveoli into the blood. C. There are fewer oxygen molecules in the alveoli than in the blood; therefore, the oxygen molecules move from the blood into the alveoli. D. There are fewer carbon dioxide molecules in the blood than in inhaled air; therefore, carbon dioxide moves from the blood into the alveoli.

A. There are more oxygen molecules in the alveoli than in the blood; therefore, the oxygen molecules move from the alveoli into the blood.

Which of the following statements regarding over-the-counter (OTC) medications is correct? A. They do not require a prescription. B. Only a physician can prescribe them. C. They are not assigned a brand name. D. They do not have any contraindications.

A. They do not require a prescription

Which of the following statements regarding the fallopian tubes is correct? A. They extend from the uterus and terminate at the ovary. B. Their purpose is to carry an unfertilized egg to the uterus. C. They are too large to accommodate a male spermatozoa. D. Growth of the fetus typically occurs in the fallopian tubes.

A. They extend from the uterus and terminate at the ovary

You and your partner are caring for a 30-year-old female who sustained extensive partial- and full-thickness burns when she was near a gas heater that exploded. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is semiconscious with profoundly labored and stridorous respirations. Immediate management of this patient should include: A. assisting her breathing with a bag-mask device and oxygen. B. covering her with dry, sterile dressings and applying oxygen. C. insertion of a multilumen airway to protect her from aspiration. D. 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and rapid transport.

A. assisting her breathing with a bag-mask device and oxygen

Characteristics of adequate breathing in an adult include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. asymmetrical chest movement. B. pink oral mucous membranes. C. audible breath sounds bilaterally.

A. asymmetrical chest movement

The condition in which the alveoli collapse is called: A. atelectasis. B. pleuritis. C. bronchitis. D. pneumothorax.

A. atelectasis

The LEAST desirable method of bleeding control in the prehospital setting is: A. clamping a bleeding artery with hemostats. B. applying a tourniquet proximal to the injury. C. applying a pressure dressing and bandage. D. maintaining manual pressure over the injury.

A. clamping a bleeding artery with hemostats

You are caring for a 59-year-old male involved in a motor-vehicle crash. During your assessment, you note that his pelvis is unstable, he is pale and diaphoretic, and his blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg. Use of the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) would be absolutely contraindicated if further assessment of this patient revealed: A. coarse crackles in the lungs B. collapsed jugular veins. C. bilateral femur fractures D. a rigid, distended abdomen.

A. coarse crackles in the lungs

The primary role of the large intestine is to: A. complete the reabsorption of water. B. break down food so it can be digested. C. receive bile and begin the digestion process. D. receive digestive enzymes from the pancreas.

A. complete the reabsorption of water

The central nervous system (CNS) is: A. composed of the cerebrum, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. B. composed of fibers that link nerve cells to the body's vital organs. C. protected and cushioned by two meningeal layers.

A. composed of the cerebrum, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord

You receive a call to a local grocery store for a possible heart attack. Upon arrival at the scene, you find two bystanders performing CPR on the patient, a 49-year-old male. You should: A. confirm that the patient is in cardiac arrest. B. apply the AED and analyze his cardiac rhythm. C. continue CPR and insert a multilumen airway. D. look, listen, and feel for signs of breathing.

A. confirm that the patient is in cardiac arrest

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) targets the adrenal cortex and causes it to secrete: A. cortisol. B. calcitonin. C. adrenaline. D. antidiuretic hormone.

A. cortisol

Being aware and thoughtful about the needs of your patient describes the attribute of: A. empathy. B. integrity. C. sympathy. D. patient advocacy.

A. empathy

Prior to administering IV dextrose to an unresponsive 43-year-old male with a blood glucose reading of 35 mg/dL, you should: A. ensure that the IV line is patent and running effectively. B. assess the patient for signs of severe diabetic neuropathy. C. dilute 25 mL of D50 in 25 mL of normal saline solution. D. reassess his blood glucose to ensure an accurate reading.

A. ensure that the IV line is patent and running effectively

Internal respiration is defined as the: A. exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide at the cellular level. B. movement of oxygen to an area where there is less carbon dioxide. C. filtration of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the liver and the spleen. D. exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide across the pulmonary capillaries.

A. exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide at the cellular level

The __________ nerve carries parasympathetic stimulation to the salivary glands, lacrimal gland, and the glands of the nasal cavity and palate. A. facial B. vagus C. abducens D. trigeminal

A. facial

A 20-year-old male was shot multiple times during a drive-by shooting. You arrive at the scene, which has been secured by law enforcement, and approach the patient. He is semiconscious and is bleeding heavily from the chest. You should: A. follow proper standard precautions. B. ensure the patient's airway is patent. C. perform a primary assessment. D. immediately control all bleeding.

A. follow proper standard precautions

The large opening at the base of the skull is called the: A. foramen magnum. B. lamboid suture. C. vertebral foramen. D. mastoid process.

A. foramen magnum

More carbon dioxide diffuses out of the bloodstream when: A. fresh oxygen diffuses into the alveoli. B. arterial carbon dioxide levels decrease. C. tidal volume is significantly decreased. D. the pulmonary vasculature is constricted.

A. fresh oxygen diffuses into the alveoli

The eyeball itself is called the: A. globe. B. sclera. C. orbit. D. cornea.

A. globe

Glucagon will NOT be effective if: A. glycogen stores in the liver are depleted. B. blood glucose levels are less than 40 mg/dL. C. the patient weighs less than 20 kilograms. D. given in conjunction with 50% dextrose.

A. glycogen stores in the liver are depleted

The cells convert glucose into energy through the Krebs cycle and: A. glycolysis. B. gluconeogenesis. C. glycogenolysis. D. glucogenesis.

A. glycolysis

Common signs and symptoms of radiation sickness include: A. hair loss and skin burns. B. hyperactive organ function. C. thickening of the skin. D. increased visual acuity.

A. hair loss and skin burns

A 30-year-old female presents with severe acute pain to the left upper quadrant of her abdomen. During your assessment, she tells you that she has sickle cell disease. You should suspect that: A. her spleen is enlarged because of red blood cell engorgement. B. the pain in her abdomen is referred pain from an enlarged liver. C. she has gastrointestinal bleeding due to large blood vessel rupture. D. she is experiencing an aplastic crisis and needs a blood transfusion.

A. her spleen is enlarged because of red blood cell engorgement

Medications that the AEMT is authorized to administer are ultimately determined by: A. his or her medical director. B. his or her scope of training. C. the EMS chief or supervisor. D. the patient's personal physician.

A. his or her medical director

Common signs of a chest injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hyperpnea. B. tachycardia. C. hemoptysis. D. hypotension.

A. hyperpnea

Following a traumatic brain injury, a patient presents with Cushing's triad, which consists of: A. hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations. B. hypotension, tachycardia, and rapid respirations. C. hypotension, bradycardia, and shallow respirations. D. hypertension, tachycardia, and abnormal respirations.

A. hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations

The femoral artery gives rise to all of the following arteries, EXCEPT the: A. iliac arteries. B. popliteal arteries. C. dorsalis pedis arteries. D. posterior tibial arteries.

A. iliac arteries

The cricoid cartilage: A. is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea. B. is easier to see and palpate than the thyroid cartilage. C. lies superior to the thyroid cartilage in the neck. D. lies superior to the cricothyroid membrane in the neck.

A. is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea

A trauma patient complains of pain to the costovertebral angle. The organ(s) MOST likely injured is/are the: A. kidneys. B. liver. C. spleen. D. bladder.

A. kidneys

In most people, speech is controlled by the: A. left hemisphere. B. right hemisphere. C. frontal lobe. D. occipital lobe.

A. left hemisphere

Approximately two-thirds of the myocardium lies within the: A. mediastinum. B. pleural cavity. C. left hemithorax. D. right hemithorax.

A. mediastinum

The respiratory center of the brain is located in the: A. medulla. B. cerebrum. C. cerebellum. D. hypothalamus.

A. medulla

Severe aspirin toxicity would MOST likely cause: A. metabolic acidosis. B. metabolic alkalosis. C. respiratory acidosis. D. respiratory alkalosis.

A. metabolic acidosis

Damage to the ___________ valve may cause blood to regurgitate into the lungs. A. mitral B. tricuspid C. pulmonic D. papillary

A. mitral

When reassessing a patient during transport, you should: A. monitor treatment interventions and modify them as necessary. B. take the patient's blood pressure at least every 5 minutes. C. begin by repeating the focused history and physical examination. D. complete your patient care form and document all treatment given.

A. monitor treatment interventions and modify them as necessary

Agonal respirations can be described as: A. occasional gasping breaths. B. rapid irregular breaths. C. slow deep breaths. D. slow irregular breaths.

A. occasional gasping breaths

During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with a severe head injury, you note that her left pupil is dilated and unreactive to light. This suggests pressure on the: A. oculomotor nerve. B. abducens nerve. C. glossopharyngeal nerve. D. hypoglossal nerve.

A. oculomotor nerve

A 21-year-old male complains of acute shortness of breath with sharp chest pain during inspiration. You auscultate his lungs and hear a grating sound over the left lower lobe during inspiration. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST likely caused by: A. pleural inflammation. B. a tear in the pleural lining. C. perforation of the lung. D. excessive pleural fluid.

A. pleural inflammation

Typical signs and symptoms of pneumonia include: A. pleuritic chest pain, fever, and rhonchi. B. dry cough, high fever, and labored breathing. C. weakness, crushing chest pain, and wheezing.

A. pleuritic chest pain, fever, and rhonchi

A 67-year-old male who smokes three packs of cigarettes per day complains of a productive cough, chills, and generalized weakness. He is in mild respiratory distress; auscultation of his lungs reveals rhonchi to the lower left lobe. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: A. pneumonia. B. bronchitis. C. heart failure.

A. pneumonia

When forming a general impression of your patient, you can determine the: A. presence of gross external bleeding. B. nature of the patient's illness. C. patient's age and chief complaint. D. patient's pertinent medical history.

A. presence of gross external bleeding

In contrast to the dorsal respiratory group, the ventral respiratory group is: A. primarily responsible for motor control of the inspiratory and expiratory muscles. B. anatomically located within the pons and functions by terminating the inspiratory phase. C. responsible for initiating inspiration based on the information received from the chemoreceptors. D. controlled by the phrenic nerve, which innervates the diaphragm muscle and allows it to contract.

A. primarily responsible for motor control of the inspiratory and expiratory muscles

When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that: A. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked. B. solid organs usually rupture from the pressure wave. C. primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious. D. secondary blast injuries are usually the least obvious.

A. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked

Natural immunity occurs when a person's body: A. produces antibodies after being exposed to and experiencing all the symptoms of a disease. B. produces antibodies to a particular disease after he or she is vaccinated against the disease. C. does not produce antibodies after being exposed to or vaccinated against a particular disease. D. produces antibodies, even if he or she is not exposed to or vaccinated against a particular disease.

A. produces antibodies after being exposed to and experiencing all the symptoms of a disease

Functions of the ovaries include: A. production of oocytes, estrogen, and progesterone. B. fertilizing a spermatozoa and producing estrogen. C. production of a mature egg and estrogen excretion. D. receiving a spermatozoa and excreting progesterone.

A. production of oocytes, estrogen, and progesterone

In addition to obtaining a SAMPLE history and asking questions related to the chief complaint, what else should you inquire about when assessing a patient with a potentially infectious disease? A. recent travel B. HIV status C. sexual practices D. drug allergies

A. recent travel

The recognition by one state of another state's EMS licensure is called: A. reciprocity. B. state compliance. C. national registration. D. grandfathering.

A. reciprocity

After inserting the CobraPLA into your patient, you note that her tongue is protruding from her mouth. You should: A. recognize that the device is not inserted far enough. B. remove the device and use one that is one size larger. C. deflate the cuff and withdraw the device by 1 or 2 cm. D. remove 5 to 10 mL of air from the cuff and reassess.

A. recognize that the device is not inserted far enough

A 56-year-old male with a history of coronary artery disease complains of an acute onset of substernal chest discomfort and diaphoresis while moving a heavy box. After sitting down and taking one nitroglycerin tablet, the discomfort promptly subsides. This episode is MOST consistent with: A. stable angina pectoris. B. unstable angina pectoris. C. vasospastic angina pectoris. D. acute myocardial infarction.

A. stable angina pectoris

Factors that should be considered when assessing a patient who has fallen include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. the speed of the fall. B. the primary impact point. C. the surface struck.

A. the speed of the fall

The amount of force applied to the body during a motor-vehicle crash is directly related to: A. the speed of the vehicle at the time of impact. B. whether or not the patient was restrained. C. the weight and height of the patient. D. the gross weight of the patient's vehicle.

A. the speed of the vehicle at the time of impact

It is important to avoid giving anything by mouth to a patient with acute abdominal pain because: A. the stomach must be empty prior to surgical intervention. B. IV analgesia given by paramedics typically cause nausea. C. absent peristalsis will cause rapid digestion and diarrhea. D. food or drink will irritate the gastric lining of the stomach.

A. the stomach must be empty prior to surgical intervention

The Adam's apple is: A. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage. B. the lower part of the larynx that is formed by the cricoid cartilage. C. the small indentation in between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages. D. below the thyroid cartilage and forms the upper part of the trachea.

A. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage

The transverse plane divides the body into the: A. top and bottom. B. front and back. C. proximal and distal aspects.

A. top and bottom

When assessing and treating a female patient with a sexually transmitted disease, it is important to: A. treat the patient without moral judgment. B. report the disease to the appropriate authorities. C. wear full facial protection in addition to gloves. D. determine how the patient contracted the disease.

A. treat the patient without moral judgment

The atrioventricular (AV) valves of the heart include the: A. tricuspid and mitral. B. mitral and aortic. C. bicuspid and aortic. D. tricuspid and pulmonic.

A. tricuspid and mitral

High-voltage burn injuries occur MOST frequently in: A. utility workers. B. adults in the workplace. C. industrial plant workers. D. children in the home.

A. utility workers

In response to shock or stress, sympathetic nervous system stimulation causes: A. vasoconstriction. B. slowing of the heart rate. C. increased gastrointestinal function. D. shunting of blood to the extremities.

A. vasoconstriction

Blood leaves the capillary beds and is returned to the right side of the heart by the: A. venules and veins. B. pulmonary capillary vessels. C. cellular capillary vessels. D. arterioles and arteries.

A. venules and veins

While assessing a patient with an apparent behavioral crisis, he tells you that he sees a pink elephant in the corner of the room. This is an example of a(n): A. visual hallucination. B. visual delusion. C. auditory hallucination. D. auditory delusion.

A. visual hallucination

An idiopathic seizure is a seizure: A. without an identifiable etiology. B. resulting from alcohol withdrawal. C. caused by an intracranial pathology. D. caused by subtherapeutic drug levels.

A. without an identifiable etiology

An 80-kg patient has a lacerated brachial artery with severe bleeding. Based on his weight, what is the maximum amount of blood loss that his body can tolerate without developing severe shock? A. 500 mL B. 1,100 mL C. 950 mL D. 1,250 mL

B. 1,100 mL

The rapid body scan of a seriously ill or injured patient should take no longer than: A. 30 seconds. B. 60 to 90 seconds. C. 30 to 60 seconds. D. 90 to 120 seconds.

B. 60 to 90 seconds

The total body water of an average adult is approximately: A. 45% B. 60% C. 75% D. 80%

B. 60%

Which of the following scenarios is an example of an intentional poisoning? A. A 4-year-old male gets into the medicine cabinet and swallows approximately 10 sleeping pills. B. A 24-year-old female sprays mace into the eyes of a perpetrator during a burglary attempt. C. A 68-year-old female inadvertently takes too much of her high blood pressure medication. D. A 40-year-old male is exposed to organophosphates after failing to wear the appropriate protective gear.

B. A 24-year-old female sprays mace into the eyes of a perpetrator during a burglary attempt

You are the only AEMT in the back of the ambulance caring for an apneic patient. Which of the following ventilation devices would allow you to perform other patient care tasks while still ventilating the patient? A. Multilumen airway device B. Automatic transport ventilator C. Manually-triggered ventilation device D. Flow-restricted, oxygen-powered device

B. Automatic transport ventilator

Which of the following statements regarding scalp lacerations is correct? A. Children are less susceptible to hypovolemia from scalp lacerations. B. Scalp lacerations may contribute to hypovolemic shock in adult patients.

B. Scalp lacerations may contribute to hypovolemic shock in adult patients

Which cranial nerve passes through the internal auditory meatus and provides the senses of hearing and balance? A. Trochlear B. Vestibulocochlear C. Glossopharyngeal

B. Vestibulocochlear

During your assessment of a patient with blunt chest trauma, you note the presence of ecchymosis to the area of impact. This finding is MOST characteristic of a/an: A. crush injury. B. contusion. C. abrasion. D. hematoma.

B. contusion

The _____________ arteries arise from the aorta shortly after they leave the left ventricle. A. cerebral B. coronary C. pulmonary D. brachiocephalic

B. coronary

A 29-year-old male has sustained a large laceration across the lower abdomen and has a loop of bowel protruding through the wound. To minimize the amount of body heat that radiates from the open wound, you should: A. irrigate the wound with warm sterile water. B. cover the wound with moist sterile dressings. C. apply a pressure dressing to the open wound. D. cover the wound with a dry sterile dressing.

B. cover the wound with moist sterile dressings

The anterior portion of the cricoid ring is separated from the thyroid cartilage by the: A. cricoid cartilage. B. cricothyroid membrane. C. arytenoid cartilage.

B. cricothyroid membrane

Unlike an epinephrine auto-injector, a Twinject: A. can only be used in adults. B. delivers two doses of epinephrine. C. delivers a maximum of 0.3 mg. D. is specifically designed for children.

B. delivers two doses of epinephrine

You and your partner are standing by at the scene of a structural fire when two firefighters carry a patient to you that they rescued from one of the rooms inside the house. The patient is not moving and has no obvious burns. You should: A. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and apply the pulse oximeter. B. determine if the patient's airway is patent and then assess ventilatory effort. C. insert an advanced airway device and begin positive-pressure ventilation. D. rapidly assess the patient for gross external bleeding and apply 100% oxygen.

B. determine if the patient's airway is patent and then assess ventilatory effort

A 58-year-old man complains of chest pain and nausea. He is conscious and alert; his blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, his pulse is 104 beats/min, and his respirations are 16 breaths/min. The patient tells you that he was recently discharged from the hospital and takes numerous medications for his heart and blood pressure. You should: A. focus on the medications he takes for his heart, since his complaint is chest pain. B. determine what medications he takes, and ask him if he has been compliant with them. C. advise him that the hospital will have a current list of all the medications he takes. D. ask him to write down all of his medications and their doses on a piece of paper.

B. determine what medications he takes, and ask him if he has been compliant with them

As an AEMT, you may have to function as an advocate for your patient. This involves: A. paying for the patient's medical bills. B. determining the patient's primary physician. C. protecting the best interests of the patient. D. transporting the patient to the hospital of your choice.

B. determining the patient's primary physician

You are requested by law enforcement to assess a "drunken patient". When you arrive at the jail, you find the patient to be unresponsive with deep, rapid respirations. His skin is warm and dry and he is incontinent of urine. There is no evidence of trauma and the patient's medical history is not known. You should suspect: A. that he had a seizure. B. diabetic ketoacidosis. C. chronic hypoglycemia. D. acute alcohol intoxication.

B. diabetic ketoacidosis

Following an electrical burn, estimating the extent of the BSA involved is: A. not possible in the prehospital setting and can only be determined by a physician. B. difficult because the degree and depth may be greater internally than externally. C. easy because the external wound is often more dramatic than any internal injury. D. extremely difficult and should not be assessed in the field by the AEMT.

B. difficult because the degree and depth may be greater internally than externally

Blunt or penetrating trauma can be especially lethal in pregnant patients because the: A. fetus can sustain serious injury. B. gravid uterus is highly vascular. C. uterus descends into the pelvis.

B. gravid uterus is highly vascular

You are assessing a 59-year-old male who complains of a headache and note that his pupils are asymmetrical. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he: A. regularly sees a family physician. B. has a history of eye surgeries. C. took any medication for his headache. D. is allergic to any medications.

B. has a history of eye surgeries

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated for patients who: A. have an irregular pulse. B. have experienced a head injury. C. took an erectile dysfunction drug within the past week. D. have a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg.

B. have experienced a head injury

Diffuse (global) swelling of the abdomen is MOST suggestive of: A. acute bowel obstruction. B. intraabdominal bleeding. C. peritoneal inflammation.

B. intraabdominal bleeding

When performing your assessment of a 40-year-old male who is agitated and is displaying bizarre behavior, you should: A. put your hand on the patient's arm or shoulder. B. limit the number of personnel around the patient. C. ask a police officer to assess the patient first. D. have at least four personnel around the patient.

B. limit the number of personnel around the patient

A patient was struck in the right lower anterior chest with a baseball bat. In addition to fractured ribs, you should be suspicious of injury to the: A. spleen. B. liver. C. pancreas. D. stomach.

B. liver

Detoxification of toxic substances, production of bile, and production of certain clotting factors are all functions of the: A. pancreas. B. liver. C. kidney. D. gallbladder.

B. liver

The Narcotic Control Act of 1956: A. protected the public from mislabeled, poisonous, or otherwise harmful foods and medications. B. made the possession of heroin illegal and outlawed the acquisition and transportation of marijuana. C. assigned each controlled substance a specific schedule, based on its use and potential for addiction. D. regulated the import, manufacture, prescription, and sale of several nonnarcotic medications, as well as cocaine and opium.

B. made the possession of heroin illegal and outlawed the acquisition and transportation of marijuana

General management for a patient who has overdosed on a benzodiazepine includes: A. administering 0.4 to 2 mg of naloxone, administering oxygen, and transporting. B. maintaining airway patency, supporting ventilations as needed, and transporting. C. inserting an oropharyngeal airway, administering oxygen, and transporting promptly. D. inserting a multilumen airway, deferring IV therapy, and transporting without delay.

B. maintaining airway patency, supporting ventilations as needed, and transporting

Effectively performed CPR is a crucial treatment for a patient in cardiac arrest because it: A. often converts V-Fib to a perfusing rhythm. B. maintains myocardial and cerebral perfusion. C. enhances perfusion to the body's periphery. D. prevents the patient from developing asystole.

B. maintains myocardial and cerebral perfusion

You and your partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should: A. perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly. B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation, and consider requesting a paramedic unit. C. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, and obtain as much of his medical history as possible. D. load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital.

B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation, and consider requesting a paramedic unit

When performing a rapid trauma assessment (rapid body scan), you will usually assess all of the following, EXCEPT the: A. cervical spinal vertebrae. B. mastoid process. C. external jugular veins. D. position of the trachea.

B. mastoid process

When assessing the interior of a crashed motor vehicle for damage, you are gathering information regarding the: A. kinetic energy. B. mechanism of injury. C. index of suspicion. D. potential energy.

B. mechanism of injury

A patient who presents with a headache, fever, confusion, and red blotches on his or her skin should be suspected of having: A. hepatitis. B. meningitis. C. hantavirus. D. tuberculosis.

B. meningitis

When assessing a patient with a mandibular fracture, you would MOST likely encounter: A. pain directly over the chin. B. misalignment of the teeth. C. impaired ocular movement. D. lateral bulging of the jaw.

B. misalignment of the teeth

The AEMT should be MOST suspicious of a Le Fort fracture if a patient who experienced massive blunt force trauma to the face presents with: A. misalignment of the teeth. B. mobility of the facial bones. C. numbness of the chin. D. flattening of the cheekbones.

B. mobility of the facial bones

The secondary stage of syphilis is characterized by: A. swollen lymph nodes and high fever. B. mucous membrane lesions and a rash. C. poor muscle coordination and dementia. D. the appearance of a single, painless lesion.

B. mucous membrane lesions and a rash

The middle muscular layer of the heart is called the: A. pericardium. B. myocardium. C. epicardium. D. endocardium.

B. myocardium

The middle, muscular layer of the heart is called the: A. epicardium. B. myocardium. C. pericardium. D. endocardium.

B. myocardium

Pertinent information that is transmitted over the radio to the receiving hospital includes all of the following, EXCEPT the: A. patient's primary complaint. B. name and address of the patient. C. age and sex of the patient. D. patient's response to treatment.

B. name and address of the patient

In order to prevent catheter shear when starting an IV, you should: A. insert the IV in a vein where the catheter cannot bend. B. never rethread the needle into the catheter. C. place the patient on their side prior to starting the IV. D. use an 18-gauge or smaller catheter.

B. never rethread the needle into the catheter

Intrapulmonary shunting occurs when: A. blood returning to the left side of the heart is low in carbon dioxide. B. nonfunctional alveoli inhibit the diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide. C. a blockage in the pulmonary artery prevents blood from reaching the lungs. D. blood entering the lungs from the right side of the heart is hyperoxygenated.

B. nonfunctional alveoli inhibit the diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide

When treating a woman with vaginal bleeding and signs of shock, you must: A. assist her ventilations. B. observe standard precautions. C. establish two large-bore IV lines. D. perform a comprehensive assessment.

B. observe standard precautions

Alzheimer disease is an example of a/an: A. psychological behavioral disorder. B. organic psychiatric disorder. C. functional behavioral disorder. D. psychosocial psychiatric disorder.

B. organic psychiatric disorder

When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that: A. elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury. B. osteoporosis can cause a fracture that may have resulted in the fall. C. any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma. D. bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls.

B. osteoporosis can cause a fracture that may have resulted in the fall

The ____________ is a solid organ. A. gallbladder B. ovary C. stomach D. urinary bladder

B. ovary

The focused assessment of a patient is based primarily on the: A. nature of the patient's illness. B. patient's chief complaint. C. initial set of vital signs. D. presence of obvious injuries.

B. patient's chief complaint

Contraindications for intraosseous infusion include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. the ability to obtain IV access within 90 seconds. B. patients who are in cardiac arrest or status epilepticus. C. successful cannulation of a large antecubital vein. D. fracture of the bone in which you will place the catheter.

B. patients who are in cardiac arrest or status epilepticus

You respond to a call for a 39-year-old female with an altered mental status. Your primary assessment reveals that she is conscious but confused, has a heart rate of 88 beats/min, and has respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. After administering supplemental oxygen, you should: A. start an IV and assess her blood glucose level. B. perform a focused history and physical exam. C. start an IV and administer 50% dextrose (D50). D. start an IV and administer 2 mg of naloxone.

B. perform a focused history and physical exam

You are dispatched to an apartment complex, where a tenant was found unconscious by the landlord. There is no evidence of trauma. After completing the primary assessment and addressing immediate life-threats, you should: A. obtain baseline vital signs. B. perform a rapid body scan. C. transport to the closest hospital. D. perform a focused assessment.

B. perform a rapid body scan

You are dispatched to a local convenience store for a 30-year-old male who is actively seizing. Upon your arrival, the patient is confused and combative. This is indicative of the ___________ phase. A. tonic B. postictal C. myoclonic D. hypertonic

B. postictal

As with angina, the pain associated with acute myocardial infarction is often described as: A. sharp. B. pressure. C. pleuritic. D. stabbing.

B. pressure

When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest: Select one: A. until a radial pulse is felt. B. with one or two hands. C. to a depth of 1" to 2". D. 80 to 100 times per minute.

B. with one or two hands.

Which of the following situations would contraindicate use of the LMA? A. Ventilation is required for a short time. B. Apneic patients without a gag reflex C. Patients who are morbidly obese. D. Low ventilatory pressure is required.

C. Patients who are morbidly obese

If the amount of pulmonary surfactant is decreased: A. the alveoli will remain fully expanded. B. the lungs will produce excess mucous. C. alveolar surface tension will increase. D. intrapulmonary tension will decrease.

C. alveolar surface tension will increase

The two processes that occur during respiration are: A. diffusion and perfusion. B. ventilation and diffusion. C. inspiration and expiration. D. oxygenation and ventilation.

C. inspiration and expiration

An infant or small toddler would MOST likely gain trust in an individual who: A. stands at a level that is only slightly higher than him or her. B. frequently changes the infant or toddler's regular routine. C. provides a planned, organized, routine environment. D. maintains eye contact, even if the person is a stranger.

C. provides a planned, organized, routine environment

Relative to the wrist, the elbow is: A. anterior. B. posterior. C. proximal. D. distal.

C. proximal

An individual who poses a threat to the safety of his or her family, friends, or the AEMT is experiencing a/an: A. behavioral emergency. B. emotional crisis. C. psychiatric emergency. D. psychological crisis.

C. psychiatric emergency

Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) is indicated for patients with: A. apnea. B. pneumonia. C. pulmonary edema. D. inadequate tidal volume.

C. pulmonary edema

If used, inflation of the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) should continue until the: A. systolic BP reaches 120 mm Hg. B. carotid pulse is stronger. C. radial pulses return. D. patient develops dyspnea.

C. radial pulses return

Following the primary assessment, your actions prior to transport of a critically-injured patient should include: A. focused physical exam, spinal immobilization, IV therapy. B. detailed physical examination, spinal immobilization, vital signs. C. rapid trauma assessment, spinal immobilization, vital signs. D. rapid trauma assessment, vital signs, spinal immobilization, IV therapy.

C. rapid trauma assessment, spinal immobilization, vital signs

When managing a critically-burned patient, it is important to: A. administer topical analgesia to the burned areas to afford the patient pain relief. B. break the integrity of any formed blisters as these can result in infection. C. rapidly estimate the burn's severity and then cover with dry, sterile dressings. D. perform a detailed physical exam at the scene to look for occult injuries.

C. rapidly estimate the burn's severity and then cover with dry, sterile dressings

Life-long immunity would MOST likely occur after a patient is infected with: A. HIV. B. syphilis. C. rubella D. chickenpox.

C. rubella

A 60-year-old male with a history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of a sudden, severe headache. Within a few minutes, his level of consciousness rapidly deteriorates. This is MOST suggestive of a(n): A. frontal lobe infarction. B. acute ischemic stroke. C. ruptured cerebral artery. D. transient ischemic attack.

C. ruptured cerebral artery

The white portion of the eye is called the: A. iris. B. retina. C. sclera. D. cornea.

C. sclera

Fracture of the first and second ribs following severe blunt trauma would MOST likely result in a: A. massive hemothorax. B. myocardial contusion. C. tracheobronchial injury. D. pericardial tamponade.

C. tracheobronchial injury

When energy impacts a body structure it: A. dissipates locally. B. causes a broad area of injury. C. translates into injury. D. penetrates the skin surface.

C. translates into injury

The 31 pairs of spinal nerves serve all of the following functions EXCEPT: A. conducting sensory impulses to the spinal cord. B. controlling movement of the upper and lower extremities. C. transmitting sensations directly to and from the brain. D. conducting motor impulses to the muscles.

C. transmitting sensations directly to and from the brain

You respond to a nursing home's call regarding an older patient who fell. During your assessment, you note injuries that are not consistent with the mechanism described. You should: A. ask the staff if the patient was abused. B. notify the police before initiating care. C. transport the patient and report your suspicions. D. document that you believe the patient was abused.

C. transport the patient and report your suspicions

How many pairs of ribs are attached to the thoracic spine? A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12

D. 12

A microdrip administration set features a small, needle-like orifice inside the drip chamber and delivers: A. 100 gtts/mL. B. 15 gtts/mL. C. 10 gtts/mL. D. 60 gtts/mL.

D. 60 gtts/mL

The low normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year-old is: A. 60 mm Hg. B. 70 mm Hg. C. 80 mm Hg. D. 90 mm Hg.

D. 90 mm Hg

Which of the following personnel are typically NOT involved in a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)? A. Peer counselors B. Mental health professionals C. Workers directly involved in the incident. D. Supervisors of those involved in the incident

D. Supervisors of those involved in the incident

Which of the following information is NOT considered confidential? A. Patient history B. Treatment provided C. Assessment findings D. The time of dispatch

D. The time of dispatch

Signs and symptoms of infection with cytomegalovirus include: A. low back pain and pain during intercourse. B. a rash on the palms of the hands and fatigue. C. dysuria, foul-smelling discharge, and fever. D. fever, chills, fatigue, and an enlarged spleen.

D. fever, chills, fatigue, and an enlarged spleen

The formulation of an appropriate treatment plan is ultimately based on the: A. findings in the primary assessment. B. AEMT's differential diagnosis. C. patient's vital signs and medical history. D. field impression of the patient.

D. field impression of the patient

Glycogenolysis is a metabolic process in which: A. insulin facilitates the cellular uptake of glucose. B. glucagon destroys glycogen in the bloodstream. C. insulin causes increased production of glycogen. D. glucagon converts stored glycogen into glucose.

D. glucagon converts stored glycogen into glucose

A patient with acute chest discomfort took two of his prescribed nitroglycerin tablets and is now experiencing a pounding headache. However, he tells you that he is still experiencing chest discomfort. You should suspect that: A. his prescribed nitroglycerin has lost its potency. B. the nitroglycerin has caused severe hypotension. C. he has stable angina, but still requires transport. D. he is experiencing ongoing myocardial ischemia.

D. he is experiencing ongoing myocardial ischemia

Perfusion occurs in the capillaries as a result of __________ hydrostatic pressures and __________ in the capillary beds. A. low, osmosis B. low, diffusion C. high, diffusion D. high, osmosis

D. high, osmosis

A buffer is a substance that can absorb or donate: A. water. B. sodium. C. bicarbonate. D. hydrogen ions.

D. hydrogen ions.

As electricity travels down the left and right bundle branches, it first stimulates the: A. purkinje fibers. B. interatrial pathways. C. ventricular myocardium. D. interventricular septum.

D. interventricular septum

Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22-year-old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be MOST concerned with the possibility of: A. airway compromise. B. spinal cord injury. C. a fracture of the skull. D. intracranial bleeding.

D. intracranial bleeding

You have attempted to cannulate a vein in a patient's hand; however, shortly after inserting the IV catheter, the vein infiltrates. You should: A. search for a vein in the opposite extremity. B. attempt to cannulate the distal part of the same vein. C. reattempt to cannulate the same vein when the swelling subsides. D. look for a vein that is proximal to the infiltrated vein.

D. look for a vein that is proximal to the infiltrated vein

Cerebral edema is aggravated by: A. low CO2 levels in the blood. B. increased pH of the CSF. C. high O2 levels in the blood. D. low O2 levels in the blood.

D. low O2 levels in the blood

The upper section of the sternum is called the: A. jugular notch. B. xiphoid process. C. angle of Louis. D. manubrium.

D. manubrium

The thyroid gland is responsible for the: A. release of TSH. B. breakdown of glycogen. C. production of glucose. D. metabolic rate.

D. metabolic rate

Basic life support (BLS) is defined as: Select one: A. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management. B. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses. C. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency. D. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.

D. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.

You are preparing to administer a medication to a pregnant patient. You read the medication information and note that, according to the FDA, it is a "Category X" drug. You should: A. administer the medication as usual. B. administer half of the normal dose. C. ensure that an antidote is available. D. not administer the drug to the patient.

D. not administer the drug to the patient

During your assessment of a 33-year-old female with an altered mental status, you note a fruity odor on her breath. You should: A. treat her for cyanide poisoning. B. ask her if she has been drinking. C. administer a tube of oral glucose. D. obtain a blood glucose reading.

D. obtain a blood glucose reading

Facial injuries must be identified and treated as soon as possible because: A. bleeding must be controlled early. B. swelling may mask hidden injuries. C. the spine may be injured as well. D. of the risk for airway problems.

D. of the risk for airway problems

A 33-year-old male complains of generalized weakness and chest discomfort that began following his morning workout at the gym. He is conscious and alert, but restless. Your assessment reveals a BP of 130/64 mm Hg, pulse of 78 beats/min and occasionally irregular, respirations of 16 breaths/min and unlabored, and an SpO2 of 98% on room air. He has prescribed nitroglycerin tablets and states that he took one without relief. Appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, one chewable baby aspirin, an IV fluid bolus, and prompt transport. B. oxygen via nasal cannula, up to two more doses of nitroglycerin, saline lock, and transport. C. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, up to 324 mg aspirin, supine with his legs elevated, and transport. D. oxygen via nasal cannula, up to 324 mg aspirin, saline lock, additional nitroglycerin per medical control, and transport.

D. oxygen via nasal cannula, up to 324 mg aspirin, saline lock, additional nitroglycerin per medical control, and transport

What happens when the PaCO2 of the arterial blood increases? A. pH increases and ventilations increase. B. pH decreases and ventilations decrease. C. pH increases and ventilations decrease. D. pH decreases and ventilations increase.

D. pH decreases and ventilations increase

When a section of the ribs has been fractured, the injured section falls during inspiration and bulges during expiration. This is called: A. apical chest movement. B. symmetrical chest movement. C. asymmetrical chest movement. D. paradoxical chest movement.

D. paradoxical chest movement

Disease or inflammation of organs that lie behind or beneath the abdominal cavity can cause signs of peritonitis because the: A. organs become significantly enlarged due to the disease process. B. visceral peritoneum is highly vascular and prone to hemorrhage. C. large volumes of fluid accumulate in the retroperitoneal space. D. parietal peritoneum is richly supplied with very sensitive nerves.

D. parietal peritoneum is richly supplied with very sensitive nerves

The study of the body functions in a diseased state is called: A. anatomy. B. physiology. C. pathogenesis. D. pathophysiology.

D. pathophysiology

Indicators to the patient that you are actively listening to him or her include: A. basing your initial questions on the patient's medical history. B. asking the patient if he or she has any questions for you. C. taking detailed notes throughout the assessment process. D. periodically repeating back important points to the patient.

D. periodically repeating back important points to the patient

Stimulation of alpha receptors of the sympathetic nervous system result in: A. tachycardia. B. bronchodilation. C. peripheral vasodilation. D. peripheral vasoconstriction.

D. peripheral vasoconstriction

You are assessing the pupils of a patient who was struck in the back of the head. You note that his pupils differ in size by slightly less than 1 mm. The patient is conscious, alert, and oriented to person, place, time, and event. You should suspect: A. injury to the pons or medulla. B. increased intracranial pressure. C. that he ingested an opiate drug. D. physiologic anisocoria.

D. physiologic anisocoria

When asking a patient to supinate his or her hand, you would expect him or her to: A. turn the hand on its side. B. bend the hand at the wrist. C. place the hand palm down. D. place the hand palm up.

D. place the hand palm up

When injury occurs to tissues in the healthy human body: Select one: A. red blood cells are less able to clump. B. blood vessels near the injury site dilate. C. the breakdown of fibrinogen forms a clot. D. platelets aggregate at the site of the injury

D. platelets aggregate at the site of the injury

When managing a semiconscious patient with adequate breathing, you should administer oxygen and: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway, and assist ventilations as needed. B. position the patient in a full Fowler position to prevent aspiration. C. give D50 if the blood glucose reading is less than 90 mg/dL. D. position the patient on his or her side and have suction ready.

D. position the patient on his or her side and have suction ready

As an AEMT, you may legally restrain a patient if he or she: A. is under the influence of a CNS depressant drug. B. is acutely intoxicated and verbally abusive to you. C. refuses to allow you to begin treatment or transport. D. presents harm to you, your partner, or bystanders.

D. presents harm to you, your partner, or bystanders

Afterload is defined as the: A. volume of blood returned to the left or right atrium. B. amount of blood ejected per ventricular contraction. C. percentage of blood ejected from the left ventricle. D. pressure against which the left ventricle must pump.

D. pressure against which the left ventricle must pump

A direct relationship between a patient's injury and the AEMT's actions or inactions is called: A. libel. B. slander. C. gross negligence. D. proximate cause.

D. proximate cause

Patients with thrombophilia are at an increased risk for: A. various cancers. B. hemorrhagic stroke. C. acute arterial rupture. D. pulmonary embolism.

D. pulmonary embolism

The MOST reliable indicator that suggests crystalloid IV fluids have improved perfusion is when the: Select one: A. pulse becomes more regular. B. capillary refill is less than 3 seconds. C. systolic BP reaches 120 mm Hg. D. radial pulses become stronger.

D. radial pulses become stronger.

The ability of a person to effectively compensate for acute blood loss is MOST directly related to the: A. patient's weight. B. location of the injury. C. patient's total blood volume. D. rate of blood loss.

D. rate of blood loss

When performing your assessment of a 22-year-old male with hypoglycemia, you note that his mental status has improved and he is now verbally responsive. You should: A. give an IV fluid bolus. B. discontinue the oxygen. C. administer oral glucose. D. reassess his vital signs.

D. reassess his vital signs

During your assessment of an elderly woman, you note a shunt on her left forearm. This indicates that she: A. has had peritoneal dialysis in the past. B. has had numerous IVs in her forearm. C. receives chemotherapy for cancer. D. receives hemodialysis treatments.

D. receives hemodialysis treatments

While ventilating an apneic 33-year-old man, you note that his stomach is becoming slightly distended. You should: A. insert a multilumen airway device. B. suction his airway for 15 seconds. C. perform 5 to 10 abdominal thrusts. D. recheck and reposition his airway.

D. recheck and reposition his airway

While starting an IV on a patient, you see bright red blood quickly traveling up the IV tubing. You should: A. lower the IV bag to ensure viability of the IV line. B. evaluate the puncture site for signs of infiltration. C. secure the IV line and apply direct pressure. D. remove the catheter and apply direct pressure.

D. remove the catheter and apply direct pressure

Following insertion of a needle into a patient's skin to administer an intramuscular injection, you pull back on the plunger and note the presence of blood in the syringe. You should: A. advance the needle 1 cm further and administer the drug. B. slightly withdraw the needle and administer the drug. C. administer the medication since this is a normal finding. D. remove the needle and apply pressure to the site.

D. remove the needle and apply pressure to the site

A 29-year-old male with a history of type 1 diabetes presents with excessive urination and marked thirst. These signs indicate that the: A. kidneys are excreting excess insulin. B. blood glucose has exceeded 120 mg/dL. C. cells of the body are producing fructose. D. renal system is excreting excess glucose.

D. renal system is excreting excess glucose

Long-term control of blood pressure is regulated by the: Select one: A. respiratory system. B. cardiovascular system. C. vasomotor center. D. renal system.

D. renal system.

Medical control has ordered your paramedic partner, via two-way radio, to administer 40 mg of Lasix to a patient with congestive heart failure. You should anticipate that your partner will first: A. determine the concentration of Lasix. B. document the order on her patient care form. C. administer the medication and document the time and dose. D. repeat the drug order to the physician as she heard it.

D. repeat the drug order to the physician as she heard it

During transport of a 34-year-old male with a possible femur fracture, you perform a reassessment. This process begins with: A. assessing his splinted extremity. B. conducting a head-to-toe assessment. C. reassessing his pulse, BP, and respirations. D. repeating the primary assessment.

D. repeating the primary assessment

End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring is clearly indicated for patients who present with: A. a headache. B. abdominal pain. C. high blood pressure. D. respiratory distress.

D. respiratory distress

You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will MOST likely find that she: A. is unable to track your movements with her eyes. B. has bulging fontanelles secondary to severe dehydration. C. will readily allow you to separate her from her mother. D. responds to her name but is fearful of your presence.

D. responds to her name but is fearful of your presence

The kidneys lie within the: A. left upper quadrant. B. right upper quadrant. C. anterior abdomen. D. retroperitoneal space.

D. retroperitoneal space

After blood diffuses across the capillary membrane and perfuses the cells, it: A. drops off carbon dioxide and returns oxygenated blood to the heart. B. returns carbon dioxide to the left side of the heart, starting with the veins. C. forms lactic and pyruvic acids, which are used by the cells to form energy. D. returns waste products to the right side of the heart, starting with the venules.

D. returns waste products to the right side of the heart, starting with the venules

You respond to a call for an unconscious person. Upon arriving at the scene, you find an unconscious young male lying in a prone position in his front yard. After taking standard precautions, you should: A. apply 100% supplemental oxygen and perform a quick primary assessment. B. assess the quality of the patient's breathing by looking for rise and fall of his back. C. maintain control of his c-spine and open his airway while he is in the prone position. D. roll the patient into a supine position, without twisting his body, and open his airway.

D. roll the patient into a supine position, without twisting his body, and open his airway

The presence of a scaphoid abdomen and bowel sounds in the lower hemithorax are MOST suggestive of a: A. pneumothorax. B. perforated lung. C. perforated bowel. D. ruptured diaphragm.

D. ruptured diaphragm

A 69-year-old male with a history of hypertension and insulin-dependent diabetes complains of an acute onset of tearing pain in the lower quadrants of his abdomen that radiates to the back. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, pulse is 110 beats/min and thready, and respirations are 24 breaths/min and shallow. This clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: A. inflammation of the liver or spleen. B. acute inflammation of the pancreas. C. rupture of the vermiform appendix. D. ruptured or dissecting aortic aneurysm.

D. ruptured or dissecting aortic aneurysm

All patients with closed soft-tissue injuries should be assessed for: A. intra-abdominal bleeding. B. trauma to the spinal cord. C. signs of impending infection. D. serious hidden injuries.

D. serious hidden injuries

The primary function of the atrioventricular (AV) node is to: A. serve as the backup pacemaker if the ventricular conduction system fails. B. regenerate the atrial-initiated electrical impulse before it enters the ventricles. C. increase conduction from the atria to the ventricles to allow for atrial filling. D. slow conduction from the atria to the ventricles to allow for ventricular filling.

D. slow conduction from the atria to the ventricles to allow for ventricular filling

A 55-year-old male sustained partial-thickness burns to his face and neck when he opened the hot radiator cap on his car. He is conscious and alert, but complains of dyspnea and difficulty swallowing. His oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. You should be MOST concerned about the: A. possibility of blindness. B. degree of burns. C. risk of infection. D. status of his airway.

D. status of his airway

When administered to a normally hydrated patient, normal saline will: A. cause fluid to shift into the cell. B. engorge the intracellular space. C. cause fluid to shift out of the cell. D. stay in the intravascular space.

D. stay in the intravascular space

Epinephrine is classified as a/an: A. sympatholytic. B. parasympatholytic. C. antiadrenergic. D. sympathomimetic.

D. sympathomimetic

A 65-year-old man takes two medications for two separate disorders, and notices that the effects he experiences are greater when he takes both medications but less when he only takes one of the medications. This is an example of: A. potentiation. B. habituation. C. tolerance. D. synergism.

D. synergism

An 18-year-old female is experiencing an anxiety attack and is breathing at a rate of 40 breaths/min. Which of the following acid-base derangements will occur if her condition is not promptly treated? A. ↑ O2 → ↑ H2CO3 → ↑ pH B. ↓ O2 → ↓ HCO3- → ↓ pH C. ↑ CO2 → ↑ H2CO3 → ↓ pH D. ↓ CO2 → ↓ H2CO3 → ↑ pH

D. ↓ CO2 → ↓ H2CO3 → ↑ pH

During your assessment of a patient, you ask, "Can you tell me more about your problem? I am listening." Which communication tool is this an example of? A. Facilitation. B. Reflection. C. Confrontation. D. Clarification.

A. Facilitation

Which of the following organs is the MOST tolerant of low blood flow? Select one: A. Skin B. Lungs C. Brain D. Heart

A. Skin

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide, at the cellular level or in the lungs, is called: A. breathing. B. respiration. C. ventilation, D. oxygenation.

B. respiration

Which of the following injuries presents the greatest risk for severe internal bleeding? A. Pelvic fractures B. Rib fractures C. Tibial fractures D. Bilateral femur fractures

A. Pelvic fractures

Which of the following MOST accurately describes the correct sequence of events after attaching an AED to a patient in cardiac arrest and pushing the analyze button? A. "Shock advised" message, stand clear, defibrillate, immediately resume CPR, reanalyze after 2 minutes B. "No shock advised" message, check pulse for up to 10 seconds, resume CPR, reanalyze after 2 minutes C. "No shock advised" message, stand clear, reanalyze, "no shock advised" message, perform CPR for 2 minutes D. "Shock advised" message, stand clear, defibrillate, perform CPR for 1 minute, stand clear, reanalyze, defibrillate if needed

A. "Shock advised" message, stand clear, defibrillate, immediately resume CPR, reanalyze after 2 minutes

A 40-year-old female complains of a sudden onset of chest pressure. When assessing the history of her present illness, which of the following patient responses would identify a palliating factor? A. "The pressure seems to subside when I sit down." B. "The pressure did not subside after three nitroglycerin tablets." C. "I cannot walk too far without experiencing chest pressure." D. "This pressure awakened me from my sleep."

A. "The pressure seems to subside when I sit down."

With regard to potential treatment in the hospital, which of the following questions is MOST important to ask the spouse of a 66-year-old female who presents with signs and symptoms of an acute ischemic stroke? A. "When did you first notice the symptoms?" B. "Does your wife have high blood pressure?" C. "Did your wife pass out or have a seizure?" D. "When was the last time that your wife ate?"

A. "When did you first notice the symptoms?"

A 47-year-old male ingested an unknown type of medication. After ensuring scene safety, you approach the patient and begin to assess him. Which of the following questions would be of LEAST pertinence with regard to the acute management of this patient? B. "What kind of medication did you take?" C. "Do you know how much you weigh?" D. "When did you take the medication?"

A. "Why did you take the medication?"

Significant vital signs changes, including increased heart and respiratory rates and a decreasing blood pressure, would likely occur if an 80-kg adult patient acutely loses as little as _____ L of blood. A. 1 B. 2 C. 0.5 D. 2.5

A. 1

One milliliter (mL) is the equivalent of: A. 1 cubic centimeter. B. 1 deciliter. C. 1 cubic deciliter. D. 1 microgram.

A. 1 cubic centimeter

One deciliter (dL) is equivalent to: A. 100 mL B. 1000 mL C. 0.1 mL D. 10 mL

A. 100 mL

Damage to the myocardium following infarction can be minimized if fibrinolytic therapy is administered no later than _____ hours following the onset of symptoms. A. 12 B. 14 C. 16 D. 18

A. 12

A 30-year-old construction worker lacerated his brachial artery and has lost a significant amount of blood. His blood pressure is 70/40 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 130 beats/min. Which of the following IV catheters would be MOST appropriate for this patient? A. 14 gauge B. 20 gauge C. 18 gauge D. 16 gauge

A. 14 gauge

You are assessing the blood pressure of a 36-year-old male who was assaulted. A normal systolic blood pressure for a patient of this age should be approximately: A. 140 mm Hg. B. 150 mm Hg. C. 120 mm Hg. D. 145 mm Hg.

A. 140 mm Hg

Appropriate management for a patient with a serious closed injury and signs of shock includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. 15" to 20" elevation of the lower extremities. B. IV fluid boluses to maintain perfusion. C. prompt transport to a local trauma center. D. high-flow oxygen or assisted ventilation.

A. 15" to 20" elevation of the lower extremities

How many pounds does a 90-kg patient weigh? A. 198 lb B. 186 lb C. 189 lb D. 194 lb

A. 198 lb

In general, you should assess the blood pressure in all patients who are at least ____ years of age. A. 3 B. 5 C. 8 D. 1

A. 3

During an attempted resuscitation of a 9-year-old boy in cardiac arrest, your paramedic partner asks you to prepare epinephrine in a dose of 0.01 mg/kg. The child's mother tells you that he weighs approximately 65 pounds. You have a prefilled syringe of epinephrine containing 1 mg in 10 mL. How many milliliters should be administered to this child? A. 3 mL B. 4 mL C. 3.5 mL D. 4.5 mL

A. 3 mL

You are transporting a patient who is receiving 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min. Your onboard oxygen, an M cylinder, contains 2,000 psi. How long can you administer oxygen to the patient at this flow rate? A. 3.1 hours B. 3.8 hours C. 4.0 hours D. 4.4 hours

A. 3.1 hours

The high normal respiratory rate for a neonate is: A. 60 breaths/min. B. 80 breaths/min. C. 50 breaths/min. D. 70 breaths/min.

A. 60 breaths/min

During your assessment of a patient with a head injury, you note that he opens his eyes when you pinch his trapezius muscle, is mumbling, and has his arms curled in toward his chest. You should assign him a GCS score of: A. 7. B. 9. C. 8. D. 10.

A. 7

During your assessment of a patient with closed head trauma, you note that he opens his eyes in response to pain, groans when you speak to him, and withdraws his shoulder when you pinch his earlobe. You should assign him a Glasgow Coma Scale score of: A. 8 B. 11 C. 10 D. 9

A. 8

Which of the following patients should be placed in the recovery position? A. A 33-year-old unconscious male without injury who has respirations of 22 breaths/min and good chest rise. B. A 29-year-old semiconscious female who fell 20 feet and has respirations of 16 breaths/min and good chest rise. C. A 36-year-old unconscious male without injury who has respirations of 24 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume. D. A 40-year-old semiconscious female with severe head trauma who has respirations of 30 breaths/min and irregular chest rise.

A. A 33-year-old unconscious male without injury who has respirations of 22 breaths/min and good chest rise

On which of the following patients should you perform a rapid trauma assessment (rapid scan)? A. A 38-year-old male who was wearing a helmet while involved in a motorcycle crash. B. A 28-year-old male who fell approximately 10' from the roof of a small shed. C. A 33-year-old female with a penetrating injury to the left lower aspect of her leg. D. A 24-year-old female restrained driver who struck a pedestrian at 20 mph.

A. A 38-year-old male who was wearing a helmet while involved in a motorcycle crash

Which of the following situations is NOT an example of a patient with a mental illness? A. A 55-year-old male who experiences a panic attack after being diagnosed with cancer B. A 41-year-old male with sadness and despair with no appreciable underlying cause C. A 38-year-old female with depression and anxiety for at least one month's duration D. A 29-year-old female whose violent actions are no longer tolerated by society

A. A 55-year-old male who experiences a panic attack after being diagnosed with cancer

Which of the following emotionally disturbed patients could legally refuse EMS treatment and transport? A. A 77-year-old male who is severely depressed over the death of his wife B. A 55-year-old confused male with auditory and visual hallucinations C. A 60-year-old female with a history of schizophrenia and bizarre behavior D. A 43-year-old female who is mumbling incomprehensible words

A. A 77-year-old male who is severely depressed over the death of his wife

You are transporting a 37-year-old male with a head injury to a local trauma center. When performing your reassessment, which of the following clinical findings would be the earliest indicator of increasing intracranial pressure? A. A decreasing level of consciousness B. An acute decrease in systolic blood pressure C. The presence of decorticate posturing D. A progressive narrowing of the pulse pressure

A. A decreasing level of consciousness

A person with type A+ blood could receive which of the following blood types? A. A+ B. B- C. AB- D. O+

A. A+

As an electrical impulse travels down the electrical conduction system, it transiently slows at the: A. AV node. B. bundle of His. C. sinoatrial node. D. interatrial septum.

A. AV node

Which of the following is NOT an element of the Fick principle? Select one: A. Adequate platelets to promote blood-clotting B. Adequate number of oxygen-carrying red blood cells C. Efficient off-loading of oxygen at the tissue level D. An adequate concentration of inspired oxygen (FIO2)

A. Adequate platelets to promote blood-clotting

Which of the following respiratory medications is exclusively indicated for chronic asthma treatment or as asthma prevention? A. Advair B. Atrovent C. Alupent D. Proventil

A. Advair

Which of the following blood pressure readings indicates orthostatic hypotension? A. BP lying down, 112/60 mm Hg; BP sitting up, 100/54 mm Hg B. BP lying down, 116/66 mm Hg; BP standing up, 114/68 mm Hg C. BP lying down, 122/82 mm Hg; BP sitting up, 118/78 mm Hg D. BP lying down, 134/84 mm Hg; BP standing up, 136/72 mm Hg

A. BP lying down, 112/60 mm Hg; BP sitting up, 100/54 mm Hg

You respond to the home of a 75-year-old man who is in cardiac arrest. The family states that the patient is terminally ill and has an advance directive; however, they are unable to locate it. How should you manage this situation? A. Begin CPR and contact medical control. B. Honor the family's wishes and call the coroner. C. Initiate full resuscitative measures and transport promptly. D. Allow the family to locate the document and then decide on further action

A. Begin CPR and contact medical control

Which of the following is a systemic complication associated with IV therapy? A. Air embolus B. Infiltration C. Hematoma D. Phlebitis

A. Air embolus

Which of the following general statements regarding infectious diseases is correct? A. All contagious diseases are infectious. B. All infectious diseases are contagious. C. Pneumonia is a contagious disease process. D. Hepatitis B is infectious, but not contagious.

A. All contagious diseases are infectious

What is the function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle? A. Allows movement of the head B. Allows flexion of the neck C. Connects the scapulae together D. Facilitates chest movement

A. Allows movement of the head

Of the following clinical findings, which one would you MOST likely encounter during the early phase following a fracture of the basilar skull? A. Altered mental status B. Mastoid ecchymosis C. Periorbital ecchymosis D. CSF draining from the nose

A. Altered mental status

A 19-year-old male sustained major head trauma following a motorcycle crash. During your assessment, you note the presence of blood draining from his left ear. What is the MOST important reason for not attempting to control the flow of this bleeding? A. An increase in intracranial pressure may occur. B. The patient may develop a life-threatening infection. C. It would likely skew the physician's assessment. D. Its origin is from a location that you cannot access.

A. An increase in intracranial pressure may occur

Which of the following statements regarding psychosocial development in the adolescent age group is correct? A. Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak during the eighth or ninth grade. B. Because they think rationally, adolescents are at the lowest risk for suicide. C. Adolescents are less fixated on their public image than younger children. D. Family conflict decreases as the adolescent gains control of his or her life.

A. Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak during the eighth or ninth grade

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely occur as a direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash? A. Aortic rupture B. Forehead lacerations C. Flail chest D. Extremity fractures

A. Aortic rupture

Which of the following causes of an acute abdomen would be LEAST likely to present with fever? A. Appendicitis prior to rupture and abscess formation B. Inflammation of the small pockets in the large intestine C. Acute cholecystitis caused by the presence of gall stones D. Acute pancreatitis secondary to an infectious process

A. Appendicitis prior to rupture and abscess formation

Patients who have developed partial immunity to a particular disease: A. Are protected against new infections, but not from germs that remain in the body from the initial illness. B. are highly susceptible to new infections, but are immune to the germs that caused the initial illness. C. are not protected against new infections or from the germs that remain in the body from the initial illness. D. are carriers of the disease, but cannot transmit it to another person unless their immune system is weak.

A. Are protected against new infections, but not from germs that remain in the body from the initial illness

Which of the following medications would the AEMT LEAST likely administer to a patient with a medical complaint? A. Atropine B. Aspirin C. Albuterol

A. Atropine

Which of the following statements regarding the dermal layer of the skin is correct? A. Blood vessels in the dermis do not penetrate into the epidermis. B. The dermis forms a watertight covering for the body. C. Cells of the dermis are constantly worn away and replaced. D. Most of the skin's melanin granules are contained in the dermis.

A. Blood vessels in the dermis do not penetrate into the epidermis

Which of the following clinical manifestations is MOST consistent with irreversible shock? Select one: A. Bradycardia and decreased respirations B. A systolic BP that is less than 90 mm Hg C. Dilated pupils and narrowing pulse pressure D. GCS score of less than 10 and tachycardia

A. Bradycardia and decreased respirations

Which of the following structures is NOT a part of the upper airway? A. Bronchioles B. Nasopharynx C. Vallecular space D. Arytenoid cartilage

A. Bronchioles

Approximately 12 hours after eating at a restaurant with his wife, a 49-year-old male complains of blurred vision, severe weakness, and difficulty breathing. This patient's clinical signs are MOST consistent with exposure to: A. C botulinum B. Salmonella C. Toxoplasma D. Listeria

A. C botulinum

Which of the following lists, in the correct order, the return of blood from the systemic circulation to the heart? A. Capillaries, venules, veins, vena cava B. Venules, capillaries, veins, vena cava C. Capillaries, arterioles, arteries, aorta D. Arterioles, capillaries, arteries, aorta

A. Capillaries, venules, veins, vena cava

Which of the following medications will NOT respond to the administration of naloxone (Narcan)? A. Cocaine B. Fentanyl C. Morphine D. Oxycodone

A. Cocaine

Which of the following statements regarding intraosseous infusion is correct? A. Compared to an IV line, fluid does not flow well into the bone because of resistance B. Manual IO insertion is performed by approaching the bone at a 45° angle. C. The incidence of osteomyelitis is high following intraosseous infusion. D. Intraosseous needles consist of a solid boring needle inside a hollow Teflon catheter

A. Compared to an IV line, fluid does not flow well into the bone because of resistance

Which of the following is a LATE sign of a tension pneumothorax? A. Contralateral tracheal shift B. Bulging intercostal muscles C. Narrowing pulse pressure D. Profound shortness of breath

A. Contralateral tracheal shift

What is the difference between a crystalloid and a colloid solution? A. Crystalloids do not contain large protein molecules. B. Colloids rapidly move from the vascular space. C. Crystalloids contain large protein molecules. D. Colloids poorly expand the vascular compartment.

A. Crystalloids do not contain large protein molecules

Which of the following is a Schedule II substance? A. Demerol B. Marijuana C. Diazepam D. Codeine

A. Demerol

Which of the following is your BEST protection against being accused of defamation of character? A. Documenting objective findings only. B. Not speaking with anyone regarding a call. C. Reporting patient information only to a physician. D. Documenting personal opinions in quotation marks.

A. Documenting objective findings only

Which of the following statements regarding ethyl alcohol (ETOH) is correct? A. ETOH dulls the sense of awareness and slows reflex times. B. ETOH is associated with a relatively low incidence of suicide. C. Acute ETOH intoxication often results in severe hyperglycemia. D. ETOH results in profound CNS stimulation regardless of the dose.

A. ETOH dulls the sense of awareness and slows reflex times

Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy? A. Educating the public regarding the use of helmets and seat belts B. Constructing a guardrail to prevent an accident from occurring C. Advocating childhood vaccinations following CDC guidelines D. Placing childproof locks on cabinets that contain harmful chemicals

A. Educating the public regarding the use of helmets and seat belts

Which of the following substances are vital in the function of the sympathetic nervous system? A. Epinephrine and norepinephrine B. Aldosterone and dopamine C. Cortisol and epinephrine D. Aldosterone and cortisol

A. Epinephrine and norepinephrine

You respond to a call for a 56-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea. He asks you to take him to a local community hospital. What type of consent has this patient given to you? A. Expressed consent B. Implied consent C. Informed consent D. Passive consent

A. Expressed consent

Which of the following drugs dissolves a thrombus and prevents it from entering the bloodstream? A. Fibrinolytic B. Antiplatelet C. Anticoagulant D. Diuretic

A. Fibrinolytic

A patient with congestive heart failure requires medication administration. Which of the following IV solutions would be MOST appropriate to use? A. Five percent dextrose in water B. An isotonic colloid C. Lactated ringers

A. Five percent dextrose in water

Which of the following is the MOST significant complication associated with IV therapy in geriatric patients? A. Massive hematoma. B. Easily infiltrated veins. C. Fluid extravasation. A. Fluid overloading.

A. Fluid overloading

You are caring for a patient with a possible myocardial infarction. When communicating with medical control, you are able to speak to the physician and send an ECG tracing at the same time. What type of radio system is required to do this? A. Full duplex mode B. Uniplex system C. Simplex system D. Trunking system

A. Full duplex mode

Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? A. HIV cannot enter the bloodstream through intact skin. B. A vaccination for HIV is available for EMS personnel. C. Most patients infected with HIV have signs and symptoms. D. HIV is an acute bacterial infection that affects the lymph nodes

A. HIV cannot enter the bloodstream through intact skin

Although painful and difficult to manage, what is the location of choice for starting IVs in pediatric patients? A. Hand vein B. Antecubital vein C. Foot vein D. Forearm vein

A. Hand vein

A 66-year-old female's daughter called EMS because her mother was having chest pain. When you arrive, the patient states that she does not need EMS and will not go to the hospital on her own. The patient is conscious, alert, and oriented and will not sign a refusal form. You should: A. Have the daughter sign the form verifying her mother's refusal. B. Have your partner sign the form verifying the patient's refusal. C. Sign the refusal form yourself and document any care given. D. Advise the patient that the law requires her to sign the refusal form.

A. Have the daughter sign the form verifying her mother's refusal

Which of the following questions would be of LEAST pertinence when obtaining a focused history of a patient with an acute onset of chest discomfort? A. Have you ever been told you have low blood pressure? B. Have you experienced paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea? C. Do you have any respiratory diseases, such as emphysema? D. Do you have diabetes or any problems with your blood sugar?

A. Have you ever been told you have low blood pressure

In addition to administering supplemental oxygen, what is the MOST appropriate management for a patient with circulatory overload caused by excessive IV fluid administration? A. Head elevated, medical control notified B. Trendelenburg's position, event documented C. Lateral recumbent position, event documented D. Head lowered, medical control notified

A. Head elevated, medical control notified

Which of the following statements regarding hepatitis A is correct? A. Hepatitis A can only be transmitted by a patient who has an acute infection. B. Infection with hepatitis A causes chronic illness with a high mortality rate. C. Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted via contact with blood or other body fluids. D. Although there is no vaccine against hepatitis A, treatment is usually successful.

A. Hepatitis A can only be transmitted by a patient who has an acute infection

Which of the following conditions can cause the skin to be abnormally flushed and red? A. High blood pressure B. Poor peripheral circulation C. Hypothermia D. Liver failure

A. High blood pressure

When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of his or her problem? A. History taking B. Rapid body scan C. Baseline vital signs D. Primary assessment

A. History taking

You administer 0.4 mg of nitroglycerin to your 55-year-old patient with chest pain. Which of the following adverse reactions should you be MOST observant for? A. Hypotension B. Palpitations C. Headache D. Nausea

A. Hypotension

Warning signs of stress include which of the following? A. Indecisiveness B. Increased appetite C. Increased sexual drive D. Willingness to work extra shifts

A. Indecisiveness

Which of the following medication administration routes would result in uneven, unreliable absorption if given to a patient with decreased peripheral perfusion? A. Intramuscular B. Intravenous C. Inhalation D. Intraosseous

A. Intramuscular

When treating a patient with decompensated shock, which of the following interventions is best performed en route to the hospital as opposed to at the scene? Select one: A. Intravenous therapy B. Thermal management C. Trendelenburg position D. Ventilation assistance

A. Intravenous therapy

__________ brain cells receive a minimal supply of oxygen and are unable to function normally. A. Ischemic B. Infarcted C. Anoxic D. Hypocarbic

A. Ischemic

Which of the following statements regarding a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) is CORRECT ? A. It administers the same dose of medication each time it is used. B. It delivers varying doses of the medication each time it is used. C. MDIs must not be shaken as this may decrease drug effectiveness. D. An MDI is typically prescribed to patients with cardiac chest pain.

A. It administers the same dose of medication each time it is u

What is the term used to describe the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of a drug? A. Pharmacokinetics B. Pharmacodynamics C. Pharmaceuticals D. Pharmacology

A. Pharmacokinetics

How does an enhanced 9-1-1 system function? A. It displays the caller's information on the dispatcher's computer. B. It prevents the dispatcher and the caller from being disconnected. C. It provides the caller with initial emergency care for the patient. D. It is a universal number that can be accessed from any phone.

A. It displays the caller's information on the dispatcher's computer

Which of the following statements regarding hyperglycemic crisis (diabetic coma) is correct? A. It usually progresses over hours or days. B. Insulin overdose is the most common cause. C. It is typically associated with overhydration. D. Fat metabolism results in severe lactic acidosis.

A. It usually progresses over hours or days

Which of the following is a presumptive sign of death? A. Lack of a palpable pulse B. Tissue decomposition C. Dismemberment at the waist D. Pooling of blood to the back

A. Lack of a palpable pulse

A 45-year-old female is found semiconscious by a neighbor. She is incontinent of urine and is bleeding from her mouth. Which of the following medications found in her residence would lead you to suspect that she experienced a seizure? A. Lamictal B. Valium C. Ativan D. Elavil

A. Lamictal

Which of the following findings does NOT indicate the potential for violence? A. Large physical body size B. Agitated or depressed C. Uncoordinated movements D. Withdrawn or detached

A. Large physical body size

When writing your patient care form involving an acutely intoxicated patient, you document that the patient was "drunk." What does this statement constitute? A. Libel B. Slander C. Negligence D. Breach of confidentiality

A. Libel

Which of the following abdominal organs would cause the MOST profuse bleeding when severely injured? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Pancreas D. Kidneys

A. Liver

Which of the following defines your scope of practice within your local response area? A. Local protocols and standing orders B. The US Department of Transportation C. The National Registry of EMTs D. American Heart Association guidelines

A. Local protocols and standing orders

Which of the following is the MOST acute and serious complication associated with a break in the integrity of the skin? A. Loss of fluids B. Hyperthermia C. Severe infection D. Vasodilation

A. Loss of fluids

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely mimic the signs and symptoms of an acute ischemic stroke? A. Low blood glucose level B. Severe intracranial pressure C. Ruptured cerebral aneurysm D. Hyperglycemic ketoacidosis

A. Low blood glucose level

What is the function of a baroreceptor? A. Monitoring changes in arterial pressure. B. Sensing changes in arterial oxygen levels. C. Monitoring the pH of cerebrospinal fluid. D. Sensing the arterial level of carbon dioxide.

A. Monitoring changes in arterial pressure

Which of the following mechanisms of injury would MOST likely cause a shearing injury of the bladder from the urethra in a male? A. Motorcycle crash B. Blunt trauma to the flank C. Fall from a significant height D. Rear-end motor-vehicle crash

A. Motorcycle crash

Which of the following organs or tissues requires only intermittent circulation of blood? A. Muscles B. Brain C. Lungs D. Kidneys

A. Muscles

During your assessment of a 19-year-old male who has abused an unknown type of drug, you note severe deformity to his hand. The patient, who is very agitated, states that he bent his fingers back in an attempt to break them. This abnormal behavior is MOST consistent with the use of: A. PCP. B. LSD. C. cocaine. D. marijuana.

A. PCP

While treating a man with severe chest pain and difficulty breathing, you are presented with a valid do not resuscitate (DNR) order by the patient's wife. She tells you that her husband does not want any "heroics." How should you manage this situation? A. Provide supportive care and transport the patient B. Obtain a signed refusal from the wife and return to service C. Provide no treatment and transport the patient to the hospital D. Be prepared to start CPR if the patient develops cardiac arrest

A. Provide supportive care and transport the patient

You respond to a call for an unresponsive diabetic. Upon arrival, you find a 23-year-old female unresponsive on her couch. During your assessment, you determine that her blood glucose level is 38 mg/dL. You attempt to start an IV, but are unsuccessful after several attempts. Which of the following routes could be used as a last resort to administer 50% dextrose? A. Rectal B. Subcutaneous C. Intralingual D. Oral

A. Rectal

A 32-year-old male ingested a large quantity of Dilaudid, a powerful opiate. Which of the following clinical signs would you MOST likely encounter during your assessment? A. Respiratory depression and hypotension B. Slurred speech and combative behavior C. Pupillary dilation and severe hypertension D. Hyperventilation and excessive tachycardia

A. Respiratory depression and hypotension

Which of the following statements regarding poisonous-plant ingestion is correct? A. Ricin is the poison in castor beans and often causes death due to kidney failure. B. If symptoms are not present within 4 hours after ingestion, poisoning did not occur. C. The dieffenbachia plant is called "dumb cane" because it causes acute delirium. D. Most plant ingestions produce clinical symptoms of toxicity within 24 to 36 hours.

A. Ricin is the poison in castor beans and often causes death due to kidney failure

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of electrical conduction through the myocardium? A. SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers B. AV node, SA node, bundle branches, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers C. SA node, Bundle of His, AV node, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers D. AV node, Purkinje fibers, SA node, Bundle of His, bundle branches

A. SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers

Which of the following statements regarding severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is correct? A. SARS is caused by a virus and usually starts with flulike symptoms that deteriorate to pneumonia and respiratory failure. B. Most cases of SARS are caused by a bacterium that is spread from person to person via direct contact with infected blood. C. SARS is caused by a virus that occurs naturally in the bird population, although it usually does not cause illness in humans. D. Although SARS can cause pneumonia and other respiratory infections, it rarely causes death, even in immunocompromised patients.

A. SARS is caused by a virus and usually starts with flulike symptoms that deteriorate to pneumonia and respiratory failure

Which of the following bodily fluids has the LEAST chance of transmitting an infectious disease? A. Saliva B. Blood C. Amniotic fluid D. Cerebrospinal fluid

A. Saliva

Which DEA classification is given to a drug that has no accepted medical uses and a high abuse and dependence potential? A. Schedule I B. Schedule II C. Schedule III

A. Schedule I

Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the early adolescent age group? A. Secondary sexual development begins. B. The normal pulse rate steadily increases. C. Muscle and bone growth both decrease. D. The systolic blood pressure decreases.

A. Secondary sexual development begins

Which of the following complications is MOST commonly associated with hypoglycemic crisis (insulin shock)? A. Seizures B. Alkalosis C. Dehydration D. Cardiac arrest

A. Seizures

Which of the following patients would benefit MOST from a nasopharyngeal airway? A. Semiconscious patient with a gag reflex B. Unconscious patient without a gag reflex C. Semiconscious patient with head trauma D. Actively seizing patient with a gag reflex

A. Semiconscious patient with a gag reflex

Which of the following patients requires immediate transport following initial stabilization at the scene? A. Severe pain to the left lower quadrant of the abdomen B. Large laceration to the arm with controlled bleeding C. Decreased movement of an extremity following trauma D. Conscious patient involved in a low-speed MVC

A. Severe pain to the left lower quadrant of the abdomen

You are assessing a semiconscious patient's respirations and note that they are 18 breaths/min. When further assessing the patient's breathing, which of the following signs would indicate inadequate breathing? A. Shallow movement of the chest B. A regular pattern of breathing C. Equal rise and fall of the chest D. Skin that is pink, warm, and dry

A. Shallow movement of the chest

Which of the following seatbelt positions will MOST likely result in severe intraabdominal injuries when a vehicle suddenly decelerates? A. Shoulder harness and lap belt placed superior to the iliac crest B. Use of the lap belt only with the shoulder harness behind the back C. Shoulder harness used and lap belt across the anterior iliac crest D. Shoulder harness not used and lap belt across the anterior iliac crest

A. Shoulder harness and lap belt placed superior to the iliac crest

Which of the following statements regarding severe burns is correct? A. Significant hypovolemia may not occur for several hours following the burn injury. B. Immediately following the burn, fluid shifts to the injured area and creates edema. C. Sodium is shunted away from the burned area as the body attempts to compensate. D. Following the burn, there is an immediate shift of fluid out of the vascular space.

A. Significant hypovolemia may not occur for several hours following the burn injury

Which of the following describes the Trendelenburg's position? A. The body is supine on an incline with the feet higher than the head. B. The head is elevated at a 45° angle and the legs are elevated 8″. C. The body is supine with the both the head and the legs elevated. D. The body is turned onto the left side with the head elevated 6″.

A. The body is supine on an incline with the feet higher than the head

Which of the following describes the Moro reflex? A. The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled B. When the sole of the foot is stroked with a blunt object, the big toe lifts upward and the other toes fan outward. C. When something touches a neonate's cheek, he or she instinctively turns his or her head toward the touch. D. An infant's heart rate decreases secondary to hypoxia because he or she depends heavily on the heart rate to perfuse the body.

A. The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled

A 22-year-old male, who was trapped in a confined space during a structural fire, is conscious and alert and refuses EMS treatment and transport. He is breathing without difficulty, but has singed nasal hair and facial redness. Which of the following statements regarding this patient is correct? A. The patient may die several hours later due to pulmonary complications. B. Signs and symptoms of upper airway swelling are rapidly progressing. C. It is likely that this patient has not experienced a serious airway burn. D. You should encourage this patient to drive himself to the hospital.

A. The patient may die several hours later due to pulmonary complications

When establishing negligence, which of the following factors is NOT a consideration? A. The patient's injury was life threatening. B. The AEMT deviated from the standard of care. C. An injury occurred due to the AEMT's actions. D. The AEMT had a legal duty to act.

A. The patient's injury was life threatening

Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct? A. The speed of a bullet has a greater impact on causing injury than the mass. B. The size of a bullet has the greatest impact on producing injury. C. High-velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries. D. Low-velocity bullets will cause the greatest amount of internal injury.

A. The speed of a bullet has a greater impact on causing injury than the mass

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the family's reaction to the death of a loved one who had an extended or terminal illness? A. They often feel relieved that the illness is over. B. They initially express guilt but then experience relief. C. They usually seek immediate care because of severe guilt. D. They rarely blame themselves because of the patient's death

A. They often feel relieved that the illness is over

What might happen if a drug is given to a patient with liver disease? A. Toxic blood levels of the drug B. Increased detoxification of the drug C. The drug would be rendered ineffective. D. Decreased elimination time of the drug

A. Toxic blood levels of the drug

Which of the following physiologic responses occurs initially following a burn injury? A. Vasoconstriction and decreased blood flow to the burned area B. Massive edema as the fluid shifts into the extravascular space C. An inflammatory response and increased capillary permeability D. Electrolyte derangements and significant hypovolemia

A. Vasoconstriction and decreased blood flow to the burned area

What physiologic response occurs when a person loses blood? A. Vessels constrict and myocardial contractility increases. B. The heart rate increases and cardiac afterload decreases. C. The sympathetic nervous system decreases SA node discharge. D. Blood vessels dilate in order to increase arterial blood pressure.

A. Vessels constrict and myocardial contractility increases

A 56-year-old female called EMS because of shortness of breath. During your assessment, she tells you that this began four days ago. Which of the following questions would be MOST appropriate to ask her regarding the duration of her chief complaint? A. What prompted you to call EMS today? B. Why didn't you call EMS when this began? C. Why is this suddenly an emergency today? D. Why haven't you called your physician?

A. What prompted you to call EMS today?

Which of the following is NOT a crystalloid? A. Whole blood B. Five percent dextrose in water C. Normal saline D. Lactated ringers

A. Whole blood

A 21-year-old male has lost approximately 35% of his blood volume following a penetrating injury to the chest. Which of the following signs or symptoms would you NOT expect to see? A. Widened pulse pressure B. Marked tachypnea C. Diaphoresis and pallor D. Decreased systolic BP

A. Widened pulse pressure

Which of the following statements regarding patient refusals is correct? A. You cannot legally mandate that a patient sign a refusal form. B. Only a law enforcement officer can witness a signed refusal. C. A court of law must approve all patient refusals for care. D. At least three witnesses are needed when a patient refuses care.

A. You cannot legally mandate that a patient sign a refusal form

When assessing a conscious patient who experienced an electrical injury, you note irregularity in his pulse. This is MOST indicative of: A. a cardiac dysrhythmia. B. impending respiratory arrest. C. ventricular fibrillation. D. decreased perfusion.

A. a cardiac dysrhythmia

When assessing a middle-aged male patient with chest pain, you note a large vertical scar in the center of his chest. This indicates that he has MOST likely had: A. a coronary artery bypass graft. B. coronary artery stent placement. C. a percutaneous coronary angioplasty. D. a surgically implanted cardiac pacemaker.

A. a coronary artery bypass graft

A 67-year-old female complains of nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain that woke her from her sleep. As you and your partner enter her residence, you immediately note the smell of natural gas. Suspecting carbon monoxide toxicity, you quickly remove the patient from her home and place her in the ambulance. When assessing her, it is important to remember that: A. a pulse oximetry reading that is high does not rule out significant hypoxemia. B. hyperbaric oxygen must be given within 20 minutes in order to prevent death. C. definitive airway management is the most effective treatment for her condition. D. breathing room air will not eliminate any carbon monoxide from the bloodstream.

A. a pulse oximetry reading that is high does not rule out significant hypoxemia

A 19-year-old female presents with severe pain to the left lower quadrant of her abdomen. She is restless, tachypneic, and tachycardic. When you inquire about her last menstrual period, she tells you that it was approximately 2 months ago. You should suspect: A. a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. B. pelvic inflammatory disease. C. acute abruption of the placenta. D. acute rupture of an ovarian cyst.

A. a ruptured ectopic pregnancy

A 22-year-old female was involved in a traumatic incident. She is exhibiting signs of shock, but there are no obvious external signs of trauma. You should suspect bleeding within the: A. abdominal cavity. B. lower extremities. C. cranial vault. D. thoracic cavity.

A. abdominal cavity

Insulin is produced when: A. absorbed carbohydrates stimulate the beta cells of the pancreas. B. the alpha cells of the pancreas sense a decrease in blood glucose. C. the metabolization of glucose in the brain significantly decreases. D. complex carbohydrates stimulate the alpha cells of the pancreas.

A. absorbed carbohydrates stimulate the beta cells of the pancreas

An important neurotransmitter in the parasympathetic nervous system is: A. acetylcholine. B. dopamine. C. epinephrine. D. norepinephrine.

A. acetylcholine

Five minutes after administering a patient's epinephrine auto-injector to him, you reassess him and note that his symptoms have not improved. You should: A. administer a second dose of epinephrine, if the patient has another auto-injector. B. assist the patient's ventilations, and begin transport to the hospital without delay. C. elevate the patient's lower extremities 12 inches, and reassess him in 5 minutes. D. conclude that the patient's epinephrine was probably expired and ineffective.

A. administer a second dose of epinephrine, if the patient has another auto-injector

When peripheral vascular resistance is increased: A. afterload increases and stroke volume decreases. B. blood return to the heart and cardiac output both increase. C. systolic blood pressure decreases and cardiac output increases. D. arterial blood pressure decreases and stroke volume increases.

A. afterload increases and stroke volume decreases

The concept of standard precautions assumes that: A. all blood, body fluids, nonintact skin, and mucous membranes may pose a substantial risk of infection. B. body fluids, such as sputum, urine, and sweat are potentially infectious only if they contain visible blood. C. certain body fluids, such as blood and vaginal secretions, are infectious until proven otherwise. D. gloves, a face shield, and a gown will virtually eliminate the risk of you being exposed to an infectious disease.

A. all blood, body fluids, nonintact skin, and mucous membranes may pose a substantial risk of infection

The cell membrane is selectively permeable, which means that it: A. allows only certain substances to pass through it. B. will allow any substance to readily pass through it. C. only allows potassium and calcium to pass through it. D. only allows sodium and chloride to pass through it.

A. allows only certain substances to pass through it

The substance epinephrine (adrenaline) has an affinity for: A. alpha and beta receptors. B. alpha-1 receptors only. C. beta-1 receptors only.

A. alpha and beta receptors

Factors that can cause an insufficient or absent flow of fluid through an IV line include: A. an IV bag that is placed too low. B. small air bubbles in the IV line. C. a drip chamber that is half full. D. an IV bag that is placed too high.

A. an IV bag that is placed too low

Severe abdominal distention may be caused by ascites, which is: A. an accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal space. B. a collection of blood in the retroperitoneal space. C. inflammation of the bowel due to a blockage.

A. an accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal space

A common clinical finding in patients with hypo- or hyperglycemic crisis is: A. an altered mental status. B. profound dehydration. C. diaphoresis and pale skin. D. rapid and shallow breathing.

A. an altered mental status

All of the following conditions would cause a decreased concentration of oxygen in the blood, EXCEPT: A. an increased respiratory rate. B. a markedly decreased respiratory rate. C. decreased mechanical effort during breathing. D. conditions that create a physical barrier to diffusion.

A. an increased respiratory rate

A foreign substance that stimulates the body's immune response is called a(n): A. antigen. B. antibody. C. histamine. D. leukotriene.

A. antigen

A 37-year-old male was struck on the driver side of his vehicle by another car traveling at 45 mph. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is semiconscious and in respiratory distress. When extricating this patient from his car, you should: A. apply a C-collar and rapidly remove him on a long backboard. B. apply a vest-style extrication device and remove him from the car. C. manually stabilize his head and quickly pull him from the car.

A. apply a C-collar and rapidly remove him on a long backboard

A patient has severe bleeding from a large laceration to the anterior forearm. Direct pressure and a pressure dressing are not immediately effective in controlling the bleeding. You should: A. apply a tourniquet above the level of the bleeding. B. elevate the arm and apply ice to the injury. C. apply additional dressings and elevate the arm. D. locate and apply digital pressure to the brachial artery.

A. apply a tourniquet above the level of the bleeding

If massive gastric distention makes it impossible to adequately ventilate a patient, you may have to: Select one: A. apply manual pressure to the abdomen. B. suction the airway for up to 45 seconds. C. insert an oropharyngeal airway adjunct. D. increase the force of your ventilations.

A. apply manual pressure to the abdomen.

A young female experienced a laceration to her left eyeball from flying glass when her boyfriend broke a soda bottle against a wall. There is moderate bleeding and the patient states that she cannot see out of the injured eye. You should: A. avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering her eye. B. apply firm direct pressure to the injured eye and cover the opposite eye. C. carefully examine her eye and remove any foreign objects if needed. D. ask her to move the injured eye to assess the integrity of the optic nerve.

A. avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering her eye

A 52-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her face when her truck collided with another vehicle. She has obvious swelling to her face and several dislodged teeth. A visual exam of her mouth reveals minimal bleeding. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, a pulse of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. You should: A. apply supplemental oxygen, immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport. B. assist ventilations with a bag-mask device, immobilize her spine, suction her oropharynx for 30 seconds, and transport. C. fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, tilt the backboard to the left side, and transport. D. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, suction her airway as needed, disregard the dislodged teeth, and transport.

A. apply supplemental oxygen, immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport

When evaluating the mechanism of injury of a car-versus-pedestrian collision, you should first: A. approximate the speed of the vehicle that struck the pedestrian. B. determine if the patient was propelled away from the vehicle. C. evaluate the vehicle that struck the patient for structural damage. D. determine if the patient was struck and pulled under the vehicle.

A. approximate the speed of the vehicle that struck the pedestrian

The coronary arteries of a person with arteriosclerotic heart disease: A. are thickened and hardened and lose their elasticity. B. begin to dissect through the layers of the arterial wall. C. develop plaque deposits from cholesterol and fatty substances. D. become engorged with blood as cardiac oxygen demand increases.

A. are thickened and hardened and lose their elasticity

Retinal injuries that are caused by exposure to extremely bright light: A. are typically not painful, but may result in permanent damage to vision. B. are intensely painful, but usually only result in temporary blindness. C. usually do not immediate medical attention unless vision is impaired. D. damage the motor cells of the eye, resulting in reduced eye movement.

A. are typically not painful, but may result in permanent damage to vision

The hypoxic drive, a backup system to control breathing, is stimulated when: A. arterial PaO2 levels decrease. B. arterial PaCO2 levels increase. C. arterial PaO2 levels increase. D. arterial PaCO2 levels decrease.

A. arterial PaO2 levels decrease

The pyramid-like cartilaginous structure that forms the posterior attachment of the vocal cords is called the: A. arytenoid cartilage. B. epiglottic cartilage. C. subglottic cartilage. D. thyroid cartilage.

A. arytenoid cartilage

A 33-year-old female presents with lower abdominal quadrant pain. She is conscious and alert, but in moderate pain. While your partner is asking her questions about her medical history, you take her vital signs. When you assess her radial pulse, you are unable to locate it. You should: A. assess the rate, regularity, and quality of her carotid pulse. B. advise your partner that the patient's blood pressure is low. C. immediately take her blood pressure to see if she is hypotensive. D. conclude that she is perfusing adequately since she is conscious.

A. assess the rate, regularity, and quality of her carotid pulse

A 21-year-old female was sexually assaulted with a glass bottle. Your assessment reveals that she is semiconscious with shallow breathing. The bottle is still inside her vagina. You should: A. assist ventilations, perform a head-to-toe assessment, and stabilize the bottle in place. B. apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, remove the object and place it in a plastic bag. C. intubate the patient, perform a detailed physical exam, and stabilize the bottle in place. D. assist ventilations, obtain baseline vital signs, and carefully remove the impaled bottle.

A. assist ventilations, perform a head-to-toe assessment, and stabilize the bottle in place

In an attempt to kill herself, a 56-year-old female ingested a large quantity of Darvon. Your primary assessment reveals that she is semiconscious; has slow, shallow respirations; and a heart rate of 40 beats/min. Further assessment reveals that her BP is 80/50 mm Hg. Initial management for this patient includes: A. assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen. B. 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and suction as needed. C. a large-bore IV and 20 mL/kg fluid boluses to increase her BP. D. insertion of a King airway and hyperventilation with 100% oxygen.

A. assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen

Approximately 20 minutes after receiving a penicillin injection at the doctor's office, a 41-year-old female presents with acute respiratory distress, facial swelling, and intense itching to her entire body. Her level of consciousness is decreased and her breathing is labored with minimal chest rise. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient should include: A. assisted ventilations, IV of normal saline, and epinephrine. B. oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, IV of normal saline, and albuterol. C. insertion of a King LT airway and a 1,000 mL bolus of normal saline. D. hyperventilation with a bag-mask device and epinephrine via IV push.

A. assisted ventilations, IV of normal saline, and epinephrine

The point where the first cervical vertebra (C1) articulates with the base of the skull is called the: A. atlanto-occipital joint. B. odontoid process. C. vertebral foramen. D. vertebra prominens.

A. atlanto-occipital joint

Elderly patients with diabetes commonly develop neuropathy, which predisposes them to: A. atypical acute coronary syndrome. B. a massive hemorrhagic stroke. C. an increased risk of septic shock. D. poor healing following an injury.

A. atypical acute coronary syndrome

Prior to applying and inflating the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG), you should: A. auscultate bilateral breath sounds. B. palpate the pelvis at least two times. C. palpate the abdomen for rigidity. D. perform a secondary assessment.

A. auscultate bilateral breath sounds

The myocardium is the only muscle that can generate its own electrical impulses. This process is called: A. automaticity. B. excitability. C. conductivity. D. dromotropy.

A. automaticity

When treating a patient who experienced a pulmonary blast injury, you should: A. avoid giving oxygen under positive pressure. B. administer large amounts of intravenous fluid. C. use a demand valve to ventilate the patient. D. suspect an accompanying cardiac tamponade.

A. avoid giving oxygen under positive pressure

You respond to call at a residence for a "man down." Your primary assessment reveals that the patient, a 66-year-old male, is unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. His wife tells you that he has recently had the flu, and that he collapsed about 10 minutes ago. You should: A. begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as it is available. B. begin CPR, start an IV, and give a 20 mL/kg fluid bolus. C. elevate the patient's legs, begin CPR, and attach an AED. D. begin CPR, insert a King airway, and request a paramedic unit.

A. begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as it is available

Following defibrillation with the AED, you have achieved return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) in a 42-year-old man. However, he remains unresponsive and apneic. You insert a multilumen airway device, continue ventilations, and begin immediate transport to the hospital. En route, you reassess the patient and determine that he is in cardiac arrest. You should: A. begin CPR, tell your partner to stop the ambulance, and analyze the patient's cardiac rhythm with the AED. B. analyze the patient's rhythm with the AED, defibrillate if indicated, and tell your partner to stop the ambulance. C. tell your partner to stop the ambulance, perform CPR for 2 minutes, and analyze the patient's cardiac rhythm with the AED. D. tell your partner to continue to the hospital, perform 2 minutes of CPR, and analyze the patient's cardiac rhythm with the AED.

A. begin CPR, tell your partner to stop the ambulance, and analyze the patient's cardiac rhythm with the AED

You are transporting a 60-year-old male to the hospital for suspected COPD exacerbation. He is receiving 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. As you reassess him, you note that his respirations have decreased and have become shallow. You should: A. begin assisting his ventilations. B. apply a nasal cannula at 4 L/min. C. remove the oxygen mask and reassess. D. prepare to insert a multilumen airway.

A. begin assisting his ventilations

A subdural hematoma is an accumulation of blood: A. beneath the dura mater but outside the brain. B. above all of the meningeal layers. C. between the dura mater and the skull.

A. beneath the dura mater but outside the brain

Neonates are defined as children A. between birth and 1 month of age. B. who are at least 1 month premature. C. who weigh at least 5.5 pounds. D. during the first few hours of life.

A. between birth and 1 month of age

Major cations in the body include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. bicarbonate. B. potassium. C. sodium. D. calcium.

A. bicarbonate

The liver secretes ________, which is an enzyme that the body uses to: A. bile, dissolve fats into solution. B. glucagon, convert glycogen to glucose. C. chyme, remove waste products. D. hydrochloric acid, break down foods.

A. bile, dissolve fats into solution

If a patient is hemorrhaging, he or she is: A. bleeding. B. bleeding externally. C. bleeding internally. D. in severe shock.

A. bleeding

Hemostasis is a natural response of the body in which: A. bleeding spontaneously clots through vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation. B. all body systems work together to maintain stability of the internal environment. C. blood is diverted away from the skin to areas where it is needed the most. D. platelets lose their ability to aggregate due to severe internal bleeding.

A. bleeding spontaneously clots through vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation

An infant's blood pressure typically increases with age because: A. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight. B. as the infant gets older, his or her blood vessels dilate. C. the infant's total blood volume decreases with age. D. his or her normal heart rate usually increases with age.

A. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight

A fracture of the orbital bone is commonly referred to as a: A. blowout fracture. B. midface fracture. C. lefort fracture. D. basilar fracture.

A. blowout fracture

Visceral injuries in the chest that occur from shearing forces, compression, or rupture, are MOST commonly seen with: A. blunt chest trauma. B. projectile injuries. C. rapid acceleration. D. penetrating chest trauma.

A. blunt chest trauma

The first artery to branch from the aortic arch is the: A. brachiocephalic artery. B. internal carotid artery. C. external carotid artery. D. common iliac artery.

A. brachiocephalic artery

The soft, breezy, and lower pitched sounds found at the midclavicular line are known as _________________ sounds. A. bronchovesicular B. adventitious C. vesicular D. bronchial or tracheal

A. bronchovesicular

Your scene size-up begins: A. by preparing for a specific situation based on the dispatch information. B. as soon as you arrive at the scene, but prior to exiting the ambulance. C. after receiving additional information from other units at the scene. D. as you are donning your PPE and approaching the patient or patients.

A. by preparing for a specific situation based on the dispatch information

A major advantage of the multilumen airway device is that it: A. cannot be improperly inserted. B. requires visualization of the airway. C. protects the airway better than an ET tube. D. provides superior protection from aspiration.

A. cannot be improperly inserted

During your assessment of a 39-year-old female with acute abdominal pain, you note the presence of diffuse pain while palpating her abdomen. With this information, you: A. cannot identify the underlying organ that is causing the pain. B. can conclude that the upper abdominal organs are inflamed. C. should suspect that she has blood in the retroperitoneal space. D. may be able to localize the problem organ or area causing her pain.

A. cannot identify the underlying organ that is causing the pain

A form of solid drug that is stored in a gelatin shell filled with liquid or powder is called a: A. capsule. B. tablet. C. solution. D. suspension.

A. capsule

Common hazards associated with a structural fire include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. carbon dioxide deficiency. B. high ambient temperatures. C. decreased oxygen availability. D. the risk of building collapse

A. carbon dioxide deficiency

A 52-year-old man complains of chest pressure. He is diaphoretic and has a blood pressure of 110/90 mm Hg. He has a prescription for nitroglycerin (NTG), but has not taken any. After administering oxygen to the patient you should: A. contact medical control for permission to administer the NTG. B. give 1 NTG dose and contact medical control. C. continue oxygen and transport the patient to the hospital. D. administer up to 3 NTG doses and reassess his BP.

A. contact medical control for permission to administer the NTG

During your assessment of a 43-year-old male with suicidal thoughts, he becomes agitated and appears uncomfortable. You should: A. continue talking to him while your partner requests police backup. B. immediately assess his blood glucose level to rule out hypoglycemia. C. immediately restrain him to prevent him from injuring himself. D. call for a paramedic unit so they can administer a sedative to him.

A. continue talking to him while your partner requests police backup

The _____________ is the end of the great cardiac vein and collects blood returning from the walls of the heart. A. coronary sinus B. foramen ovale C. inferior vena cava D. superior vena cava

A. coronary sinus

Prinzmetal's angina is caused by: A. coronary vasospasm. B. coronary artery rupture. C. atherosclerotic blockage. D. an isolated coronary occlusion.

A. coronary vasospasm

The adrenal cortex, a portion of the adrenal gland, produces: A. corticosteroids. B. epinephrine. C. norepinephrine. D. dopamine.

A. corticosteroids

Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they: A. cough. B. vomit. C. are bleeding.

A. cough

Signs of a pulmonary blast injury include: A. coughing up blood. B. an irregular pulse. C. multiple rib fractures. D. vomiting blood.

A. coughing up blood

A 59-year-old male has a partial amputation of his left arm, just proximal to the elbow. Bleeding has been controlled and you note that the arm is attached by only a few strands of tissue. You should: A. cover the arm with a bulky dressing and carefully splint it. B. splint the arm but do not cover it so you can assess for bleeding. C. carefully detach the arm and wrap it in a moist sterile dressing. D. immerse the arm, still attached, in a container of cool water.

A. cover the arm with a bulky dressing and carefully splint it

Appropriate management of a patient with an abdominal evisceration includes: A. covering the exposed organs with a moist, sterile dressing and securing the dressing in place with a dry, sterile dressing. B. applying and inflating all compartments of the PASG to protect the exposed organs and treat for shock. C. carefully irrigating the exposed organs with sterile saline and replacing them back into the abdomen. D. avoiding flexion of the patient's knees as this may exacerbate bleeding and enlarge the evisceration.

A. covering the exposed organs with a moist, sterile dressing and securing the dressing in place with a dry, sterile dressing

Prior to inserting an LMA, you must ensure that the: A. cuff is fully deflated of air. B. cuff is inflated with 50 mL of air. C. apex of the device is lubricated. D. patient's neck is in a flexed position.

A. cuff is fully deflated of air

If the concentration of H+ increases, the pH of the blood will: A. decrease. B. increase. C. remain unchanged. D. increase, then decrease.

A. decrease

The layer of skin that lies below the germinal layer and contains nerves, sebaceous glands, and blood vessels is called the: A. dermis. B. melanin layer. C. subcutaneous layer. D. epidermis.

A. dermis

The layer of the skin that plays a key role in the cooling of the body is the: A. dermis. B. epidermis. C. sebaceous layer. D. germinal layer.

A. dermis

In a responsive patient, capnography is used to: A. determine the amount of carbon dioxide produced by aerobic metabolism. B. confirm the presence of shock if the ETCO2 is greater than 45 mm Hg. C. determine the partial pressure of oxygen in the arterial blood. D. assess the percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen.

A. determine the amount of carbon dioxide produced by aerobic metabolism

A 23-year-old female called EMS because of a sudden onset of abdominal pain. During your assessment, you ask her to point to the area of her abdomen that is painful. She encircles a large area of her left lower quadrant with her finger. You would describe this patient's pain as being: A. diffuse. B. focal. C. radiating. D. referred.

A. diffuse

Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveocapillary membrane through a process called: A. diffusion. B. osmosis. C. perfusion. D. metabolism.

A. diffusion

In addition to supplemental oxygen, treatment for a conscious and alert patient who is experiencing a migraine headache includes: A. dimming the lights in the back of the ambulance and transporting without lights and siren. B. applying a chemical heat pack to the back of the neck and transporting without lights and siren. C. a 250 mL normal saline bolus and transporting to the closest appropriate medical facility. D. placing a cold washcloth on the patient's forehead and transporting with lights but no siren.

A. dimming the lights in the back of the ambulance and transporting without lights and siren

CPAP produces all of the following physiologic effects, EXCEPT: A. dispersing thick secretions within the lung tissue. B. forcing interstitial fluid into the pulmonary circulation. C. pushing more oxygen across the alveolar membrane. D. opening collapsed alveoli and improving respiration.

A. dispersing thick secretions within the lung tissue

A 38-year-old male committed suicide by hanging himself. This mechanism of injury MOST likely resulted in: A. distraction of the upper cervical spine. B. complete spinal cord transection. C. separation of the lower cervical vertebrae. D. brainstem separation from the spinal cord.

A. distraction of the upper cervical spine

During your reassessment of a patient with an illness or injury, it is important to: A. document any changes in his or her condition. B. reassess vital signs only if a change is noted. C. perform a head-to-toe assessment every 15 minutes. D. repeat the secondary assessment every 5 minutes.

A. document any changes in his or her condition

You arrive at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash where a small car has struck a tree head-on. You see one patient sitting in the driver's seat with the door open. Prior to exiting the ambulance, you should: A. don the appropriate protective equipment. B. document your observations on the run form. C. request a rescue team for vehicle extrication. D. observe the patient's mental status.

A. don the appropriate protective equipment

The first portion of the small intestine that receives food from the stomach is the: A. duodenum. B. jejunum. C. ilium. D. ileum.

A. duodenum

The length and severity of an acute psychotic episode caused by a mind-altering substance depends on the: A. duration of the substance being metabolized within the body. B. patient's vital signs at the time the substance was introduced. C. AEMT's ability to effectively communicate with the patient. D. patient's gender, age, and socioeconomic background.

A. duration of the substance being metabolized within the body

Approximately 60% to 70% of deaths due to acute myocardial infarction occur: A. during the first 2 to 3 hours after symptom onset. B. in the hospital setting and are the result of asystole. C. while the patient is in the cardiac catheterization lab. D. in the workplace, even when an AED is readily available.

A. during the first 2 to 3 hours after symptom onset

The movement and utilization of oxygen in the body is dependent on all of the following, EXCEPT: A. effective alveolar-capillary osmosis. B. adequate concentration of inspired oxygen. C. adequate number of functional erythrocytes. D. efficient off-loading of oxygen in the tissues.

A. effective alveolar-capillary osmosis

In addition to controlling bleeding and immobilizing the spine as needed, appropriate care for a patient with a penetrating abdominal wound and signs of shock includes: A. ensuring adequate ventilation, maintaining adequate perfusion with IV fluids, and transporting to the most appropriate facility. B. assisting ventilations, infusing normal saline to increase the systolic blood pressure, and transporting to the closest hospital. C. administering high-flow oxygen, limiting IV fluids to a maximum of 500 mL, and transporting to a regional trauma center. D. starting two large-bore IV lines, running the IVs wide open, and promptly transporting to the closest, most appropriate facility.

A. ensuring adequate ventilation, maintaining adequate perfusion with IV fluids, and transporting to the most appropriate facility

The visceral pericardium, which lies closely against the heart, is also called the: A. epicardium. B. endocardium. C. foramen ovale. D. coronary sinus.

A. epicardium

Clues about the potential seriousness of your patient's injury or injuries are MOST reliably obtained by: A. evaluating the mechanism of injury. B. determining the age of the patient. C. questioning witnesses about the incident. D. forming a general impression.

A. evaluating the mechanism of injury

When palpating the abdomen of a female in pain, you should: A. examine the area farthest away from the pain first. B. palpate vigorously to determine the problem organ. C. auscultate bowel sounds for at least 3 to 5 minutes. D. locate the area of pain and palpate that area first.

A. examine the area farthest away from the pain first

You respond to the scene of a 16-year-old pregnant woman with abdominal pain. Her friend called EMS because she was concerned. As you begin your assessment, the patient tells you that she feels better and does not want to go to the hospital. You should: A. explain the consequences of refusal of care. B. contact the patient's parents to obtain consent. C. advise the patient that she cannot refuse care.

A. explain the consequences of refusal of care

In adults, most bone marrow in the long bones of the extremities contains: A. fat. B. endosteum. C. leukocytes. D. red blood cells.

A. fat

In contrast to bronchitis, pneumonia typically presents with: A. fever and chills. B. fluid in the lungs. C. a productive cough. D. varying levels of hypoxia.

A. fever and chills

Typical chief complaints in patients with an infectious disease include: A. fever, rash, nausea, and difficulty breathing. B. crushing chest pain, vomiting, and weakness. C. headache, low back pain, and arm numbness. D. joint pain, muscle aches, and blurred vision.

A. fever, rash, nausea, and difficulty breathing

In cases of pulmonary edema, diffusion is impaired primarily because of: A. fluid-filled alveoli. B. widespread atelectasis. C. decreased cardiac contractility. D. severe pulmonary vasoconstriction.

A. fluid-filled alveoli

When performing a secondary assessment on a responsive patient with nontraumatic abdominal pain and stable vital signs, you should: A. focus on his or her chief complaint. B. examine him or her from head to toe. C. prepare the patient for transport first. D. only palpate tender areas of the abdomen.

A. focus on his or her chief complaint

To minimize the risk of legal implications when managing an emotionally disturbed 33-year-old male, you should: A. gain his confidence so that he consents to care. B. allow him to refuse transport if he appears alert. C. transport him to a specialized psychiatric facility. D. restrain him to prevent him from injuring himself.

A. gain his confidence so that he consents to care

The MOST significant risk associated with ventilating a patient too rapidly is: A. gastric distention and regurgitation. B. barotrauma and a pneumothorax. C. inadvertent respiratory alkalosis.

A. gastric distention and regurgitation

The __________ layer is located at the base of the epidermis, and continuously produces new cells that gradually rise to the surface. A. germinal B. subcutaneous C. stratum corneal D. mucous membrane

A. germinal

In most states, a person may be denied certification as an AEMT if he or she: A. has been convicted of a felony. B. is older than 45 years of age. C. is not a certified firefighter. D. is certified in another state.

A. has been convicted of a felony

When assessing a woman who has been sexually assaulted, it is important to: A. have a female AEMT present if possible. B. place potential evidence in plastic bags. C. thoroughly examine the genitalia for injuries. D. document minimally to protect the patient's privacy.

A. have a female AEMT present if possible

While assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock, you notice angioedema of the face and neck. This is caused by: A. histamine release that results in an increase in vascular permeability. B. decreased function of the right side of the heart with blood regurgitation. C. histamine release that causes internal bleeding due to vascular damage. D. decreased vascular permeability and shifting of fluid into the soft tissues.

A. histamine release that results in an increase in vascular permeability

When assessing the severity of nocturnal dyspnea in a patient with a chronic respiratory disease, you should determine: A. how many pillows he or she sleeps with at night. B. how far he or she can walk before dyspnea occurs. C. if he or she uses a beta2 agonist at least twice per day.

A. how many pillows he or she sleeps with at night

The anterior pituitary gland secretes thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in response to the: A. hypothalamus' secretion of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH). B. thyroid gland, which is constantly regulating the metabolic rate. C. core body temperature, which is regulated by the hypothalamus. D. secretion of growth hormone by somatotroph cells within the pituitary gland.

A. hypothalamus' secretion of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)

When caring for a patient with a behavioral crisis, you should ensure your own safety and then: A. identify any life-threatening conditions. B. frisk the patient for dangerous weapons. C. determine if the patient is seeing a psychiatrist. D. apply oxygen with a nonrebreathing mask.

A. identify any life-threatening conditions

When assessing a patient with multiple gunshot wounds, you should: A. identify the number and location of all wounds. B. carefully assess the patient to predict the bullet's path. C. control the bleeding that you see and then transport. D. distinguish between entrance and exit wounds.

A. identify the number and location of all wounds

An elderly woman slipped on a throw rug and fractured her hip. This type of fracture could involve any of the following bony structures, EXCEPT the: A. iliac crest. B. femoral head. C. femoral neck.

A. iliac crest

Commotio cordis is a condition in which: A. immediate cardiac arrest occurs when the chest is impacted during the heart's repolarization period. B. shearing forces tear the aorta from its point of attachment, resulting in profound intrathoracic hemorrhage. C. a patient takes a deep breath just before blunt trauma to the chest, resulting in rupture of one or both lungs. D. increased intrathoracic pressure causes the intercostal muscles to bulge from in between the ribs.

A. immediate cardiac arrest occurs when the chest is impacted during the heart's repolarization period

Chest compressions will NOT be effective if the patient is: Select one: A. in a bed. B. on his or her back. C. in a horizontal position. D. on the ground.

A. in a bed.

In most states, a minor can be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to emergency care and transport if he or she is: A. in the armed forces. B. at least 16 years old. C. living with his or her parents. D. in possession of a valid driver's license.

A. in the armed forces

A patient is given a medication that possesses a positive chronotropic effect. This means that it: A. increases the heart rate. B. decreases cardiac contractility. C. increases the blood pressure.

A. increases the heart rate

Actions taken after administering a medication to a patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. inquiring about drug allergies. B. notifying medical control of any changes. C. carefully assessing the patient. D. documenting the time the drug was given.

A. inquiring about drug allergies

When inserting an IV into the external jugular vein, you should: A. insert the catheter with the tip pointing toward the shoulder. B. ensure that the patient is sitting in a fully upright position. C. insert the catheter with the tip pointing toward the head. D. use the same technique that you use for any other IV.

A. insert the catheter with the tip pointing toward the shoulder

A 70-year-old male with a history of esophageal cancer is unresponsive with slow, shallow respirations. Appropriate airway management for this patient includes: A. inserting an oral airway and ventilating with a bag-mask device. B. preoxygenation with a BVM device and insertion of a Combitube. C. inserting a nasal airway and administering oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. D. inserting an esophageal airway and requesting a paramedic to intubate the patient.

A. inserting an oral airway and ventilating with a bag-mask device

A full-thickness burn is typically characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. intense pain. B. muscle involvement. C. eschar. D. leathery skin.

A. intense pain

A factory worker was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical. He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. If you do not have sterile saline or water, you should: A. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water. B. neutralize the acid chemical in his eye with an alkaline chemical. C. mix baking soda with water and irrigate his eyes with the solution. D. flush both eyes with an alcohol-based solution and transport.

A. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water

In contrast to an epidemic, a pandemic: A. is a disease outbreak that occurs on a global scale. B. occurs in more of the population than was expected. C. is usually confined to a specific geographic location. D. is a disease for which a vaccine is readily available.

A. is a disease outbreak that occurs on a global scale.

Nitroglycerin is especially useful in treating patients with cardiac ischemia because it: A. is a vasodilator and lowers preload on the heart. B. increases the amount of blood returned to the heart. C. constricts the smooth muscles in the coronary arteries. D. increases blood pressure and improves perfusion.

A. is a vasodilator and lowers preload on the heart

In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin-induced hepatitis: A. is not a communicable disease. B. typically does not cause yellow skin. C. is a far more transmittable disease.

A. is not a communicable disease

While treating a critically injured 23-year-old male with a gunshot wound to the chest, the perpetrator who shot the patient returns to the scene. You should: A. leave the scene immediately and request help. B. quickly move the patient to an area of safety. C. attempt to surprise and subdue the perpetrator. D. ask the perpetrator why he shot the patient.

A. leave the scene immediately and request help

The left main coronary artery rapidly divides into the: A. left anterior descending and circumflex arteries. B. right coronary artery and acute marginal branch. C. posterior descending artery and left atrial branch. D. left posterior ventricular and acute marginal arteries.

A. left anterior descending and circumflex arteries

Collagen is a substance that: A. lends flexible strength to the bone. B. allows the bone to grow in length. C. produces blood cells within the bone. D. destroys other minerals within the bone

A. lends flexible strength to the bone

When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should: A. limit your time at the scene before transport to 10 minutes or less, if possible. B. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient. C. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital. D. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away.

A. limit your time at the scene before transport to 10 minutes or less, if possible

The complex network of spinal nerves that controls the lower extremities is called the: A. lumbosacral plexus. B. coccygeal plexus. C. brachial plexus. D. solar plexus.

A. lumbosacral plexus

To prevent the tissues from becoming edematous, the __________ system must absorb excess fluid and return it to the central venous circulation. A. lymphatic B. endocrine C. hematologic D. cardiovascular

A. lymphatic

The goal of IV fluid replacement for the patient in shock is to: Select one: A. maintain adequate perfusion. B. rapidly increase the blood pressure. C. facilitate the body's hemostatic effect. D. increase the blood's oxygen-carrying ability.

A. maintain adequate perfusion.

The ascending reticular activating system in the brain is responsible for: A. maintaining consciousness. B. balance and movement. C. blood vessel diameter. D. heart rate and blood pressure.

A. maintaining consciousness

A 70-year-old male tells you that he took three of his wife's nitroglycerin tablets for chest pain prior to calling EMS. This information is clinically important to you because it: A. may have an effect on the treatment you provide. B. confirms that the patient is having a heart attack. C. identifies that his wife has a cardiac history. D. is illegal to obtain medication from other people.

A. may have an effect on the treatment you provide

The heart muscle lies within a space in the thoracic cavity called the: A. mediastinum. B. hemithorax. C. pericardium. D. endocardium.

A. mediastinum

Shortly after starting an IV on a patient with a possible femur fracture, the patient experiences a sudden onset of shortness of breath and develops cyanosis. After reassessing airway patency and breathing adequacy, you should position the patient: A. on the left side with the head down. B. on the left side with the head elevated. C. in a semi-Fowler's position. D. in Trendelenburg's position.

A. on the left side with the head down

The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant is at least: Select one: A. one third the diameter of the chest. B. one half the diameter of the chest. C. one half the diameter of the chest or about 1". D. two thirds the diameter of the chest or about 2".

A. one third the diameter of the chest.

An ectopic pregnancy occurs when an ovum develops: A. outside of the uterus. B. inside a fallopian tube. C. within the abdominal cavity D. inside of one of the ovaries.

A. outside of the uterus

The greatest danger in displaying a personal bias or "labeling" a patient who frequently calls EMS is: A. overlooking a potentially serious medical condition. B. making the entire EMS system look unprofessional. C. demeaning or humiliating the patient and his family. D. discouraging the patient from calling EMS in the future.

A. overlooking a potentially serious medical condition

The measurement of the level of a solution's acidity is called: A. pH. B. OH-. C. H+. D. H2CO3.

A. pH

A 44-year-old male sustained a laceration to his left ear during a minor car accident. Your assessment reveals minimal bleeding. Appropriate care for this injury includes: A. padding between the ear and the scalp. B. covering the wound with a moist dressing. C. applying a tight pressure dressing. D. packing the ear with sterile gauze pads.

A. padding between the ear and the scalp

You and your partner arrive at the side of a 60-year-old woman who suddenly collapsed about 7 minutes ago. She is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should: Select one: A. perform CPR for about 2 minutes and then apply the AED. B. immediately apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm. C. begin CPR at a compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2. D. apply the AED if there is no response after 10 cycles of CPR.

A. perform CPR for about 2 minutes and then apply the AED.

Determining the mechanism of injury will contribute to your decision of whether you should: A. perform a rapid assessment or focused exam. B. take body substance isolation precautions. C. perform an initial assessment of the patient. D. summon additional ambulances to the scene.

A. perform a rapid assessment or focused exam

You are NOT covered under the Good Samaritan law if you: A. perform an act beyond your scope of care. B. do not accept payment for providing care. C. avoid acts of willful and gross negligence. D. provide good faith care without causing harm

A. perform an act beyond your scope of care

When using the bag-mask device to ventilate an apneic patient who has dentures, you should: A. periodically reassess the airway to ensure the dentures are not loose. B. leave the dentures in place in order to maintain a better mask seal. C. avoid the use of an oropharyngeal airway as this may dislodge the dentures.

A. periodically reassess the airway to ensure the dentures are not loose

Shortly after administering a second nitroglycerin dose to a 44-year-old male with chest pain, he becomes lightheaded. You take his blood pressure and is reads 80/50 mm Hg. You have already established IV access and are administering oxygen. You should: A. place him supine and elevate his legs. B. give him a 500 mL normal saline bolus. C. cover him with a blanket to keep him warm. D. contact medical control for further guidance.

A. place him supine and elevate his legs

When assessing a patient with acute atraumatic abdominal pain, you should: A. place the patient supine with his or her knees flexed. B. vigorously palpate the abdomen to assess for rigidity. C. encourage the patient to keep his or her legs straight. D. auscultate bowel sounds for at least 2 to 3 minutes.

A. place the patient supine with his or her knees flexed

A 32-year-old female complains of acute lower abdominal pain that began approximately 1 week after her menstrual period ended. Her blood pressure is 116/66 mm Hg, heart rate is 96 beats/min, and respirations are 14 breaths/min with adequate depth. Further assessment reveals that she is running a fever of 101.6°F. Treatment for this patient should include: A. placing her in a position of comfort, starting an IV line at a KVO rate, and transporting to an appropriate hospital. B. placing her supine and elevating her legs, administering a 20 mL/kg normal saline bolus, and prompt transport. C. placing her on her side with her knees drawn into her abdomen, a 250 mL normal saline bolus, and transport. D. placing her in a semisitting position, starting an IV at a KVO rate, and transporting her to an appropriate hospital.

A. placing her in a position of comfort, starting an IV line at a KVO rate, and transporting to an appropriate hospital

All of the following are formed components of the blood, EXCEPT: A. plasma. B. platelets. C. red blood cells. D. white blood cells.

A. plasma

When collecting potential evidence at the scene of a sexual assault, you should place any items in paper bags, because: A. plastic bags may develop condensation and could destroy the evidence. B. plastic bags would reveal the potential evidence to curious onlookers. C. the condensation developed in the paper bag will preserve the evidence. D. paper bags are easier to seal and mark for later evaluation by the police.

A. plastic bags may develop condensation and could destroy the evidence

A young male with sickle cell disease presents with chest pain, fever, and a cough. His vital signs are stable, although he is experiencing mild respiratory distress. You should suspect: A. pneumonia. B. a pneumothorax. C. an aplastic crisis. D. acute aspiration.

A. pneumonia

Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called: A. polyphagia. B. polydipsia. C. dysphasia. D. dyspepsia.

A. polyphagia

A teratogenic drug is one that: A. poses a risk to a developing fetus. B. should not be given to the elderly. C. has no therapeutic effects in humans.

A. poses a risk to a developing fetus

The enhancement or action of one drug by another drug is called: A. potentiation. B. serum sickness. C. synergism.

A. potentiation

A middle-aged male presents with classic signs and symptoms of a dissecting aortic aneurysm. The MOST important intervention that you can perform for this patient is: A. prompt transport. B. an IV fluid bolus. C. high-flow oxygen. D. thermal management.

A. prompt transport

You are ventilating a trauma patient with a bag-mask device, but are having difficulty maintaining an effective mask seal. Prior to inserting the King LT airway, you should: A. protect the patient's spine as you position his head. B. measure the device from the corner of the mouth to the ear. C. flex the patient's head to facilitate insertion of the device. D. logroll the patient and suction his airway for 15 seconds.

A. protect the patient's spine as you position his head

Freshly oxygenated blood is returned to the left atrium via the: A. pulmonary veins. B. pulmonary arteries. C. superior vena cava. D. inferior vena cava.

A. pulmonary veins

Pain to palpation of the costovertebral angle is MOST suggestive of: A. pyelonephritis. B. diverticulitis. C. pancreatitis. D. cholecystitis.

A. pyelonephritis

Bioavailability is defined as the: A. rate and extent to which an active drug enters the general circulation. B. movement of a solvent from an area of lower to higher solute concentration. C. movement of a solute from an area of higher to lower solvent concentration. D. speed with which the drug is excreted from the body by the renal system.

A. rate and extent to which an active drug enters the general circulation

You are en route to a trauma center with a victim of a gunshot wound. You reassess his blood pressure and note that it has decreased by 10 mm Hg. After ensuring continued airway patency and adequate ventilation, you should: A. reassess for any occult bleeding. B. assess his blood pressure again. C. give additional IV fluid boluses. D. contact medical control for advice.

A. reassess for any occult bleeding

Erythropoiesis is the ongoing process by which: A. red blood cells are made. B. red blood cells and hemoglobin unite. C. old red blood cells are sent to the spleen. D. red blood cells are destroyed by macrophages.

A. red blood cells are made

A 60-year-old male complains of right upper quadrant abdominal pain and pain to his right shoulder. He denies pain in between his abdomen and shoulder. The patient's description of his pain describes: A. referred pain. B. radiating pain. C. focal pain.

A. referred pain

Asystole has an exceedingly high mortality rate because it: A. reflects a prolonged period of myocardial ischemia. B. does not respond favorably to cardiac defibrillation. C. is usually the result of a massive myocardial infarction. D. most often occurs in patients with significant heart disease.

A. reflects a prolonged period of myocardial ischemia

When caring for a patient who was exposed to a dry chemical, it is important to: A. remove all contaminated clothing and brush away the chemical prior to irrigating. B. flush the skin with running water and then wash the skin with soap and sterile water. C. attempt to neutralize the chemical with baking soda if the chemical was a strong acid. D. remove all contaminated clothing and then irrigate the affected area with sterile water.

A. remove all contaminated clothing and brush away the chemical prior to irrigating

You are attempting to start an IV in a vein on the back of your patient's hand. As you insert the catheter, the patient complains of sudden, severe shooting pain followed by numbness in the extremity. You should: A. remove the catheter and choose another site. B. carefully continue with the venipuncture. C. assure the patient the symptoms are normal. D. lift the IV catheter to a 45° angle.

A. remove the catheter and choose another site

After medical control has ordered you to start an IV and administer normal saline at 125 mL/hr, you should: A. repeat the order, word for word. B. administer the medication as ordered. C. document the physician's name. D. question the order if it seems inappropriate.

A. repeat the order, word for word

You are the first unit to arrive at the scene of a crash involving a minivan and a small passenger car. You see two patients in the minivan, one who appears to be unconscious and the other with severe bleeding from the face. A third patient is sitting on a curb holding his arm. Your initial action should be to: A. request at least one additional ambulance and law enforcement. B. begin immediate treatment of the most critically injured patients. C. triage the patients to assess the extent and severity of their injuries. D. notify the dispatcher and have a helicopter respond to the scene.

A. request at least one additional ambulance and law enforcement

When communicating with medical control via radio, you should: A. request confirmation for any orders given. B. carry out all verbal orders without question. C. use codes or signals to ensure patient privacy. D. avoid the use of complicated medical terminology.

A. request confirmation for any orders given

A 50-year-old female is in cardiac arrest. You attach the AED and receive a "no shock advised" message. You should: A. resume CPR and reanalyze her cardiac rhythm after 2 minutes. B. assess for a carotid pulse and resume CPR if a pulse is not palpable. C. ensure the pads are placed correctly and reanalyze her cardiac rhythm. D. perform 10 cycles of CPR and then reanalyze her cardiac rhythm.

A. resume CPR and reanalyze her cardiac rhythm after 2 minutes

When arriving at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash, you should park your ambulance in an area that is: A. safe but allows rapid access to the patient. B. as far away from the crash scene as possible. C. at least 500 feet from the crashed vehicle. D. immediately in front of the crashed vehicle.

A. safe but allows rapid access to the patient

If the body is sliced so that you have a left and right portion, a __________ plane is formed. A. sagittal B. medial C. coronal D. transverse

A. sagittal

Common side effects of inhaled medications used for acute shortness of breath include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. sedation. B. tachycardia. C. nervousness. D. muscle tremors.

A. sedation

You respond to the residence of a 39-year-old male who, according to his wife, is not acting right. Law enforcement has secured the scene prior to your arrival. As you assess the patient, you find that he is confused, has a fever, and is agitated. The patient's wife states that he is an alcoholic and stopped drinking 2 days ago. In addition to assessing and managing his airway, you should be MOST concerned with the potential for: A. seizures. B. vomiting. C. hypovolemia. D. hyperglycemia.

A. seizures

The ability of the body to recognize a foreign substance the next time it is encountered is called: A. sensitivity. B. immunity. C. phagocytosis. D. anaphylaxis.

A. sensitivity

A 50-year-old male with a blood sugar level of 38 mg/dL would be expected to present with all of the following, EXCEPT: A. severe dehydration. B. pale and moist skin. C. an altered mental status.

A. severe dehydration

In contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child: A. shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection. B. reaches out and explores because he or she knows that the parents are there as a safety net. C. becomes acutely anxious at the presence of strangers or in unfamiliar surroundings.

A. shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection

When discontinuing an IV line, you should FIRST: A. shut off the flow from the IV with the roller clamp. B. disconnect the administration set from the IV bag. C. remove the securing tape from the site. D. remove the IV tubing from the catheter hub.

A. shut off the flow from the IV with the roller clamp

Your 23-year-old female patient complains of pain to the superior portion of her face. She tells you that the pain has persisted for the past few days and gets worse when she bends down to pick something up. This is MOST consistent with a: A. sinus headache. B. cluster headache. C. tension headache. D. migraine headache.

A. sinus headache

Because the ____________ is the body's first line of defense, signs of anaphylaxis typically manifest there first. A. skin B. airway C. respiratory system D. cardiovascular system

A. skin

The corpus luteum is a/an: A. small endocrine structure that develops within a ruptured ovarian follicle. B. small almond-shaped structure that produces an ova every 28 to 30 days. C. fold of mucous membrane that partially covers the entrance to the vagina. D. exocrine gland that secretes human chorionic gonadotropin throughout pregnancy.

A. small endocrine structure that develops within a ruptured ovarian follicle

You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to care for this child, you must remember that: A. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times. B. the infant's proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction. C. assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs. D. an infant's head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction.

A. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times

A middle-aged male is found unconscious at the base of the steps to his house. There is no evidence of trauma and there were no witnesses to the event. You should: A. stabilize his head and open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver. B. apply a cervical collar and open his airway with the tongue-jaw lift. C. apply manual stabilization of his C-spine and gently tilt his head back. D. assess his airway after performing a head-tilt chin-lift maneuver.

A. stabilize his head and open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver

In addition to providing 100% oxygen and controlling external bleeding, the MOST appropriate management for a patient with a knife impaled in the abdomen includes: A. stabilizing the knife in place and infusing crystalloids to maintain adequate perfusion. B. covering the knife with a protective barrier and administering 2 liters of normal saline. C. carefully removing the knife and administering 20 mL/kg boluses of normal saline. D. stabilizing the knife and increasing the blood pressure with 20 mL/kg saline boluses.

A. stabilizing the knife in place and infusing crystalloids to maintain adequate perfusion

Release of the adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is triggered by: A. stress. B. sleep. C. hypothermia.

A. stress

When administering a medication via the intramuscular route, you should: A. stretch the skin over the area and insert the needle at a 90° angle. B. stretch the skin over the area and insert the needle at a 45° angle. C. pinch the skin over the area and insert the needle at a 45° angle. D. pinch the skin over the area and insert the needle at a 90° angle.

A. stretch the skin over the area and insert the needle at a 90° angle

Frequent reassessments of the patient with face or neck injuries are MOST important because: A. such injuries can affect the respiratory system. B. hospital staff require frequent patient updates. C. rapid facial swelling may mask hidden injuries. D. they lend credibility to your documentation.

A. such injuries can affect the respiratory system

Following severe maxillofacial trauma, a 16-year-old male presents with oropharyngeal bleeding and poor respiratory effort. You should: A. suction the oropharynx. B. pack the mouth with sterile gauze. C. assist his ventilations at once. D. insert a nasopharyngeal airway.

A. suction the oropharynx

You are dispatched to the scene of a shooting. Upon arrival, you are directed by law enforcement to the patient, a 44-year-old male, who is unconscious. He is lying in an impressive pool of blood and you can hear gurgling from his mouth when he breathes. After your partner assumes C-spine control and opens the patient's airway, you should: A. suction the patient's oropharynx. B. perform a secondary assessment. C. assess respiratory rate and quality. D. locate the source of the bleeding.

A. suction the patient's oropharynx

A 72-year-old male with a tracheal stoma requires ventilatory assistance. However, when you attempt to ventilate, you meet resistance. You should: A. suction the stoma and mouth. B. ventilate with higher tidal volume. C. ventilate through the patient's mouth. D. immediately insert a multilumen airway.

A. suction the stoma and mouth

Following a motor-vehicle crash in which his truck struck a utility pole, a 56-year-old male complains of pain to the mid-chest and difficulty breathing. Your assessment reveals an ecchymotic area over the mid-sternum. His blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 120 and irregular, and respirations are 24 breaths/min with adequate depth. In addition to spinal immobilization, appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. supplemental oxygen and a large-bore IV set to keep the vein open. B. assisted ventilation, two large-bore IVs, and a 20 mL/kg fluid bolus. C. supplemental oxygen and stabilization of the sternum with a sandbag. D. supplemental oxygen and application of an AED in case of cardiac arrest.

A. supplemental oxygen and a large-bore IV set to keep the vein open

Emphysema, a degenerative disease, is caused by: A. surfactant destruction and increased alveolar surface tension. B. excessive mucous production by beta2 cells in the bronchi. C. widespread constriction of the bronchioles and air trapping. D. decreased alveolar surface tension caused by excess surfactant.

A. surfactant destruction and increased alveolar surface tension

You will MOST likely be able to determine whether the cause of your patient's problem is medical or trauma in origin after you have: A. surveyed the scene and assessed the patient. B. formed a general impression of the patient. C. asked the dispatcher why EMS was notified. D. questioned bystanders regarding the incident.

A. surveyed the scene and assessed the patient

The MOST immediate threat to life that is associated with angioedema is: A. swelling of the upper airway. B. decreased circulatory volume. C. spasm of the lower airways. D. reduced right atrial preload.

A. swelling of the upper airway.

The term that refers to the contraction of the ventricular mass and the pumping of blood into the systemic circulation is called: A. systole. B. preload. C. diastole. D. afterload.

A. systole

Ventricular muscle contraction and the pumping of blood throughout the body occur during: A. systole. B. diastole. C. asystole. D. the cardiac cycle.

A. systole

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when: A. the body's normal processes destroy a cerebral thrombus. B. neurological abnormalities resolve within 36 to 48 hours. C. hemostasis causes activation of blood-clotting mechanisms. D. a cerebral artery becomes partially occluded by a blood clot.

A. the body's normal processes destroy a cerebral thrombus

Before you can calculate an IV drip rate, you must know all of the following information, EXCEPT: A. the gauge of the IV catheter you will use. B. amount of fluid to deliver. C. length of time of the infusion. D. the drop factor of the administration set.

A. the gauge of the IV catheter you will use

The nature of a patient's illness is MOST often determined by: A. the patient's chief complaint. B. asking a family member. C. your general impression of the patient. D. repeated calls to the patient's home.

A. the patient's chief complaint

The focused assessment of a responsive medical patient is guided by: A. the patient's reason for calling EMS. B. information obtained from the dispatcher. C. your general impression of the patient. D. your perception of the patient's problem.

A. the patient's reason for calling EMS.

The AEMT should transport any patient with an allergic reaction, even if he or she is able to stop the reaction with epinephrine, because: A. the patient's symptoms could recur up to 8 hours later. B. any patient who is given a drug must be transported by law. C. most patients require a continuous infusion of epinephrine. D. the effects of epinephrine only last about 10 or 15 minutes.

A. the patient's symptoms could recur up to 8 hours later

During a seizure, neurons are in a hypermetabolic state. This means that: A. they are using large amounts of glucose and producing lactic acid. B. electrical impulses travel from one neuron to another very slowly. C. the cells have converted to aerobic metabolism and are producing CO2. D. brain cell death occurs in as little as 60 seconds after a seizure begins.

A. they are using large amounts of glucose and producing lactic acid

Patients with COPD are highly susceptible to pneumonia because: A. they cannot effectively expel infected pulmonary secretions. C. their age predisposes them to COPD-related lung infections B. their immune system is inherently weakened by the disease. . D. their hyperactive cough reflex leads to alveolar destruction.

A. they cannot effectively expel infected pulmonary secretions

Intraosseous lines require full and careful immobilization because: A. they rest at a 90° angle to the bone and are easily dislodged. B. even when properly placed, the catheter easily moves back and forth. C. the needle is only ¼" long and is not firmly in the bone. D. insertion of the intraosseous catheter causes fracture of the bone.

A. they rest at a 90° angle to the bone and are easily dislodged

Passengers who are seated in the rear of a vehicle and are wearing only lap belts have a higher incidence of injuries to the: A. thoracic and lumbar spine. B. lumbar and coccygeal spine. C. thoracic and sacral spine. D. lumbar and sacral spine.

A. thoracic and lumbar spine

If you use a waterless handwashing substitute in the field, it is important to: A. thoroughly wash your hands with water as soon as possible. B. allow the solution to evaporate without rubbing your hands together. C. immediately dry the waterless substitute from your hands with a paper towel. D. avoid washing your hands with water as it will deactivate the waterless substitute

A. thoroughly wash your hands with water as soon as possible

The amount of air that is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath is called: A. tidal volume. B. residual volume. C. minute volume. D. inspiratory reserve.

A. tidal volume

While transporting a pregnant trauma patient who is immobilized on a backboard, you note a sudden decrease in her blood pressure and a decrease in her mental status. You should: A. tilt the backboard to the left. B. infuse 20 mL/kg of normal saline. C. elevate the foot of the backboard. D. apply and fully inflate the PASG.

A. tilt the backboard to the left

When assessing an unresponsive 20-year-old male with a traumatic brain injury, you note that his left pupil is fully dilated and non-reactive. This indicates injury: A. to the left cerebral hemisphere. B. to the right oculomotor nerve. C. in the region of the cerebellum. D. to the inferior part of the brainstem.

A. to the left cerebral hemisphere

The small, rounded, fleshy bulge immediately anterior to the ear canal is called the: A. tragus. B. stapes. C. pinna. D. incus.

A. tragus

Your rapid assessment (rapid body scan) of an injured patient reveals pelvic deformity and a rigid, distended abdomen. After applying high-flow oxygen and immobilizing the patient's spine, you should: A. transport promptly and initiate IV therapy en route to the hospital. B. obtain vital signs, initiate an IV line, and transport promptly. C. perform a secondary assessment and transport immediately. D. establish an IV line, obtain a SAMPLE history, and transport.

A. transport promptly and initiate IV therapy en route to the hospital

You arrive at the scene of an overturned semi-trailer truck. There is an odd odor in the air and you can see material leaking from the truck. After ensuring that fire department and law enforcement personnel are notified, you should: A. use binoculars to try to read the placard. B. carefully assess the driver of the truck. C. rapidly extricate the driver from the truck.

A. use binoculars to try to read the placard

A linear skull fracture: A. usually does not present with deformity of the skull. B. results from extension of a basilar skull fracture. C. typically occurs following diffuse impact to the head. D. causes severe displacement of the cranial bones.

A. usually does not present with deformity of the skull

In the pregnant patient, the secretion of oxytocin causes: A. uterine smooth muscle contraction. B. uterine smooth muscle relaxation. C. decreased milk production in the breasts. D. thickening of the uterine wall for implantation.

A. uterine smooth muscle contraction

Cardiac asthma is a condition in which a patient: A. with congestive heart failure experiences wheezing due to constricted bronchi. B. develops acute respiratory distress when fluid suddenly accumulates in the lungs. C. inadvertently takes too much of his or her beta-blocker, resulting in bronchospasm.

A. with congestive heart failure experiences wheezing due to constricted bronchi

Once the protective wrap is removed from a bag of IV fluid, the fluid must be used: A. within 48 hours. B. within 24 hours. C. within 36 hours. D. immediately.

B. within 24 hours

If you have an epinephrine concentration of 0.1 mg/mL, how many milligrams would be present in 5 mL? A. 0.005 mg B. 0.5 mg C. 5 mg D. 0.05 mg

B. 0.5 mg

The concentration of sodium in the cells of the body is approximately: A. 0.225%. B. 0.9%. C. 0.45%. D. 9.0%.

B. 0.9%

When administering IV crystalloid boluses to a patient with an electrical injury, you should give enough fluid to maintain a urine output of: A. 4 mL/kg per hour. B. 1 mL/kg per hour. C. 2 mL/kg per hour. D. 3 mL/kg per hour.

B. 1 mL/kg per hour.

How much IV fluid (per bolus) should you administer to a 65-kg patient with extensive burns and severe shock? A. 1,435 mL B. 1,300 mL C. 1,410 mL D. 1,350 mL

B. 1,300 mL

Which of the following statements regarding EMS research is correct? A. Research in EMS is usually only performed by the medical director B. AEMTs will be involved in research typically through gathering data C. Evidence-based decision making is an ineffective way of improving care D. The goal of EMS research is to identify interventions that are ineffective

B. AEMTs will be involved in research typically through gathering data

Which of the following represents the official name for aspirin? A. Acetylsalicylic acid B. Acetylsalicylic acid, USP C. Bayer aspirin D. Aspirin, USP

B. Acetylsalicylic acid, USP

Which of the following scenarios involves an ALS skill? A. Applying an AED and performing CPR. B. Administering oxygen and infusing IV fluids. C. Inserting an oral airway and suctioning the mouth. D. Administering aspirin to a patient with chest pain.

B. Administering oxygen and infusing IV fluids.

What happens when systemic vasoconstriction occurs? A. Preload decreases. B. Afterload increases. C. Afterload and preload increase. D. Afterload and preload decrease.

B. Afterload increases

Which of the following statements regarding rescue breathing and disease transmission is correct? A. The pocket face mask with one-way valve provides better rescuer protection than the bag-mask device B. Although disease transmission is unlikely, mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing is rarely necessary in the field C. The risk of disease transmission to the rescuer is higher when performing rescue breathing on older patients D. There are numerous documented cases of disease transmission following mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing

B. Although disease transmission is unlikely, mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing is rarely necessary in the field

Which of the following medications would the AEMT typically NOT be allowed to administer to a patient? A. Naloxone B. Amiodarone C. Glucagon D. Aspirin

B. Amiodarone

Which of the following situations requires reporting to the authorities? A. Inadvertent overdose by an elderly patient B. An adult who was bitten by a stray dog C. Any EMS call involving more than two patients D. A minor who was injured during a school event

B. An adult who was bitten by a stray dog

You are dispatched to mile marker 539 for a vehicle that slid off the road and into the median. When you arrive at the scene, you note minimal damage to the vehicle. The patient, who is still inside his vehicle, appears to be unconscious. Which of the following statements regarding this situation is correct? A. The patient is probably unconscious due to blunt head trauma. B. An underlying medical condition may have resulted in this incident. C. The patient is most likely unconscious because he had a massive stroke. D. C-spine control is not needed because of the minimal vehicle damage.

B. An underlying medical condition may have resulted in this incident

If you administered naloxone (Narcan) to a patient who overdosed on morphine, what effect would occur? A. Potentiation B. Antagonism C. Cross-tolerance D. Hypersensitivity

B. Antagonism

Which of the following valves of the heart are semilunar valves? A. Mitral and aortic B. Aortic and pulmonic C. Mitral and pulmonic D. Pulmonic and tricuspid

B. Aortic and pulmonic

What part of the cardiac electrical conduction system initiates electrical impulses at the slowest rate? A. The sinoatrial node B. Areas below the AV node C. Any part of the AV node D. The atrioventricular node

B. Areas below the AV node

You are dispatched to a residence for a 59-year-old male with an unknown emergency. When you arrive, you find the patient sitting on the couch. He is conscious, noticeably diaphoretic, and complains of dizziness and weakness. During your assessment, you note a large, well-healed vertical scar in the center of his chest and a small bulge just under the skin in the upper left part of his chest. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, pulse is 44 beats/min and weak, and respirations are 24 breaths/min and unlabored. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition? A. Atypical angina pectoris B. Artificial pacemaker failure C. Damaged coronary artery graft D. Decreased parasympathetic tone

B. Artificial pacemaker failure

You are caring for a 32-year-old female who does not speak English. The patient is clinically stable and there are no family members present at the scene. What is the most effective way to communicate with her? A. Request the police to act as an interpreter. B. Ask short questions and use simple words. C. Use hand gestures when asking questions. D. Remain silent and simply transport her.

B. Ask short questions and use simple words

You respond to a residence where a 5-year-old male has ingested an unknown substance. Upon arrival at the scene, the child's mother tells you that her son swallowed approximately 20 Tylenol capsules. What is the MOST logical way of determining how much this child weighs? A. Estimate the child's weight based on his age. B. Ask the mother if she knows the weight of her son. C. Determine the child's weight based on his height. D. Use a length-based resuscitation tape.

B. Ask the mother if she knows the weight of her son

Which of the following will MOST reliably allow you to determine the nature of a patient's illness? A. Trending of the patient's vital signs over time B. Asking questions related to the chief complaint C. Refraining from asking open-ended questions D. Focusing solely on how the call is dispatched

B. Asking questions related to the chief complaint

As you are treating a patient, he tells you that he has a bleeding ulcer and took Cialis 12 hours ago. Which of the following medications are contraindicated for this patient? A. Albuterol and dextrose B. Aspirin and nitroglycerin C. Glucagon and naloxone D. Narcan and ventolin

B. Aspirin and nitroglycerin

You are dispatched to a residence for a 69-year-old female with "breathing problems." When you arrive, the patient's husband directs you to his wife, who is sitting on the couch in obvious respiratory distress. She is semiconscious and has labored, shallow respirations. You auscultate her lungs and hear diffuse rhonchi in all lung fields. Which of the following interventions would be of LEAST benefit to her? A. Assisted ventilations with a bag-mask device B. IV therapy with up to a 500 mL normal saline bolus C. Suction of her airway for up to 15 seconds if needed D. Prompt transport and consideration of a paramedic intercept

B. IV therapy with up to a 500 mL normal saline bolus

You are caring for a 27-year-old male with suspected ketoacidosis. He is unresponsive and his blood glucose level, as measured by glucometer, reads "high." His blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, pulse is 130 beats/min and weak, and respirations are 40 breaths/min and shallow. Which of the following represents the MOST appropriate treatment approach? A. Oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, 10 mL/kg crystalloid boluses to maintain perfusion, and prompt transport B. Assisted ventilation, 20 mL/kg crystalloid boluses to maintain perfusion, transport, and consider an advanced airway C. Oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, an IV of normal saline set to keep the vein open, 50 mL of D50, and rapid transport. D. Assisted ventilation, 0.5 to 1 mg of glucagon IM, 20 mL/kg crystalloid boluses to maintain perfusion, and transport.

B. Assisted ventilation, 20 mL/kg crystalloid boluses to maintain perfusion, transport, and consider an advanced airway

Which of the following sets of vital signs is MOST indicative of Cushing's triad? A. BP, 170/94 mm Hg; pulse, 120 beats/min; respirations, 24 breaths/min and shallow B. BP, 190/100 mm Hg; pulse, 68 beats/min; respirations, 30 breaths/min and irregular C. BP 90/60 mm Hg; pulse, 110 beats/min; respirations, 28 breaths/min and regular D. BP 100/50 mm Hg; pulse 50 beats/min; respirations, 34 breaths/min and irregular

B. BP, 190/100 mm Hg; pulse, 68 beats/min; respirations, 30 breaths/min and irregular

During the IV procedure, when is it MOST appropriate to apply the constricting band? A. After you cleanse the venipuncture site. B. Before you cleanse the venipuncture site. C. When you assemble the IV equipment. D. After you insert the catheter into the vein.

B. Before you cleanse the venipuncture site

A 17-year-old female is experiencing a mild asthma attack. You auscultate her lungs and hear expiratory wheezing. In addition to oxygen, which of the following classifications of medication would be indicated for this patient? A. Beta blocker B. Beta-2 agonist C. Sympatholytic D. Alpha-1 antagonist

B. Beta-2 agonist

A 67-year-old male complains of burning sensation in his abdomen and hematemesis. During your assessment, you note pain to palpation of his left upper quadrant; his vital signs are suggestive of shock. Which of the following conditions should you suspect? A. Chronic hepatitis B. Bleeding peptic ulcer C. Viral gastroenteritis D. Acute cholecystitis

B. Bleeding peptic ulcer

Which of the following would be the MOST important parameter(s) to assess in a patient with a behavioral emergency? A. Pupillary response B. Blood glucose level C. Baseline vital signs D. Glasgow Coma Score

B. Blood glucose level

Which of the following physiologic responses occurs during irreversible shock? Select one: A. The sympathetic nervous system vigorously compensates. B. Blood is shunted from the liver and kidneys to the brain and heart. C. Arterial blood pressure is maintained by constriction of the vasculature. D. Respiratory rate and depth markedly increase to maintain oxygenation.

B. Blood is shunted from the liver and kidneys to the brain and heart.

What three major arteries arise from the aortic arch? A. Innominate, posterior vertebral, and right subclavian B. Brachiocephalic, left common carotid, and left subclavian C. Coronary, internal common carotid, and brachiocephalic D. Brachiocephalic, common iliac, and right common carotid

B. Brachiocephalic, left common carotid, and left subclavian

Which of the following organs does NOT utilize insulin for the cellular uptake of glucose? A. Liver B. Brain C. Heart

B. Brain

Which portion of the central nervous system is afforded the BEST protection by the cranium? A. Meninges B. Brainstem C. Cerebrum D. Cerebellum

B. Brainstem

Which of the following methods of assessing circulation is LEAST reliable in adult patients? A. Condition of the skin B. Capillary refill time C. Temperature of the extremities

B. Capillary refill time

Which of the following is NOT a form of liquid drug? A. Solution B. Capsule C. Suspension D. Emulsion

B. Capsule

Which of the following signs or symptoms would you be LEAST likely to encounter during your assessment of a patient who has overdosed on a benzodiazepine? A. Drowsiness B. Combativeness C. Slurred speech D. Confusion

B. Combativeness

How do the blood vessels of the skin respond to cold temperatures? A. Dilation, which diverts blood away from the skin. B. Constriction, which diverts blood away from the skin. C. Dilation, which pulls blood to the skin's surface. D. Constriction, which pulls blood to the skin's surface.

B. Constriction, which diverts blood away from the skin

Which of the following factors has the MOST significant impact on determining the severity of a burn? A. The age of the patient B. Depth and extent of the burn C. Preexisting medical conditions D. Location of the burned areas

B. Depth and extent of the burn

Which of the following vessels or structures is NOT part of the pulmonary circulation? A. Pulmonary artery B. Descending aorta C. Alveolar capillary D. Pulmonic valve

B. Descending aorta

When assessing a 70-year-old male with suspected internal bleeding, which of the following findings would be MOST pertinent? A. A history of controlled hypertension B. Dizziness or syncope upon standing C. A history of trauma six months ago D. The patient regularly takes Tylenol.

B. Dizziness or syncope upon standing

Authorization to use an automatic transport ventilator when transporting a patient requires which minimum level of EMS provider? A. EMR B. EMT C. AEMT D. Paramedic

B. EMT

What body system is comprised of various glands located throughout the body? A. Urinary system B. Endocrine system C. Respiratory system D. Nervous system

B. Endocrine system

Which of the following is the MOST significant acute complication associated with a laceration to the forearm? A. Severe pain B. External bleeding C. Severe infection D. Internal bleeding

B. External bleeding

When you arrive at an accident scene where a child has been seriously injured, you are unable to locate the child's parents. What type of consent is involved in treating and transporting this child? A. Actual B. Implied C. Expressed D. Informed

B. Implied

Which of the following statements regarding hearing-impaired patients is correct? A. Hearing-impaired patients are commonly unaware of their surroundings. B. Family members of hearing-impaired patients often have difficulty coping. C. Patients who are hearing-impaired are usually ashamed of their handicap.

B. Family members of hearing-impaired patients often have difficulty coping

What is the function of the lymphatic system? A. Prevention of viruses from entering the body. B. Filtration of debris and bacteria from the blood. C. Production of antibodies that destroy bacteria. D. Secretion of hormones to regulate other body functions.

B. Filtration of debris and bacteria from the blood

Which of the following pain patterns is MOST consistent with kidney stones? A. Retropubic pain without radiation B. Flank pain that radiates to the groin C. Flank pain with referred pain to the shoulders D. Localized costovertebral angle tenderness

B. Flank pain that radiates to the groin

What is the rationale for restricting IV fluid boluses in patients with a pulmonary contusion? A. Pulmonary contusions rarely cause severe hypovolemia. B. Fluids may cause pulmonary edema or increased bleeding. C. Rapidly increasing the blood pressure may inhibit hemostasis. D. Excessive fluid boluses may result in a tension pneumothorax.

B. Fluids may cause pulmonary edema or increased bleeding

Increased myocardial contractility secondary to stretching of the myocardial walls is called the: A. Ernest-Henry effect. B. Frank-Starling effect. C. Beck-Cushing's reflex. D. Frank-Beck mechanism.

B. Frank-Starling effect

During your assessment of a 30-year-old pregnant patient, you determine that she has given birth to two children and has had one miscarriage. You should document her obstetric history as: A. G2, P2, A1. B. G3, P2, A1. C. G3, P1, A0. D. G2, P2, A0.

B. G3, P2, A1

Upon entering the residence of a young female with a possible toxic exposure, you begin surveying the scene. Which of the following findings would provide you with the LEAST amount of information regarding the type of exposure? A. An unpleasant odor in the residence B. General condition of the living area C. Presence of empty medication bottles D. Needles or syringes in the residence

B. General condition of the living area

An AEMT administers 1,000 mL of IV fluid to a patient with severe pulmonary edema and a stable blood pressure. The patient then develops profound respiratory distress and becomes apneic. What is this situation an example of? A. Abandonment B. Gross negligence C. Exceeding the scope of practice D. Following the current standard of care

B. Gross negligence

While treating a patient with severe hypoxia and inadequate breathing, an AEMT applies low-flow oxygen with a nasal cannula. Upon arrival at the hospital, the patient develops respiratory arrest. What is this situation an example of? A. Abandonment B. Gross negligence C. Exceeding the scope of practice D. Following the current standard of care

B. Gross negligence

Which of the following statements regarding hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma (HHNC) is correct? A. HHNC most often occurs in patients with type 1 diabetes. B. HHNC is not associated with a fruity odor on the patient's breath. C. Most cases of HHNC are caused by severe overhydration. D. Pneumonia and urinary tract infections are often caused by HHNC.

B. HHNC is not associated with a fruity odor on the patient's breath

Which of the following would provide you with the LEAST amount of information about the emotional state of a 20-year-old male who will not respond to any of your questions? A. Respirations B. Hair length C. Facial expression D. Pulse rate

B. Hair length

Which of the following questions would allow you to assess the "P" in the SAMPLE history? A. Do you take any prescription medications? B. Has this ever happened to you before? C. What were you doing when this episode began? D. Are there any medications you cannot take?

B. Has this ever happened to you before?

In which of the following situations would a diabetic patient MOST likely develop hypoglycemic crisis (insulin shock)? A. An inadvertent underdose of insulin B. Heavy exertion following a small meal C. Nausea after taking a regular insulin dose D. A large meal following a normal insulin dose

B. Heavy exertion following a small meal

The chemical mediators that cause an allergic reaction are released by: A. basophils and mast cells. B. histamines and leukotrienes. C. lymphocytes and neutrophils.

B. Histamines and Leukotrienes

A 70-year-old female presents with generalized muscle weakness; lethargy; and hot, flushed skin. Which of the following electrolyte disturbances should you suspect? A. Hypocalcemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypernatremia D. Hyperkalemia

B. Hypercalcemia

Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an alteration in behavior? A. Brain injury B. Hypertension C. Hypoxemia D. Hypoglycemia

B. Hypertension

A 25-year-old male experienced blunt abdominal trauma and is developing shock. Which of the following signs would you expect to manifest late? A. Tachycardia B. Hypotension C. Restlessness D. Pale, cool skin

B. Hypotension

An intraosseous line should be inserted in a critical patient if: A. the patient will require a whole blood transfusion. B. IV access is unsuccessful after three attempts. C. you cannot readily see a visible peripheral vein. D. you cannot establish IV access within three minutes.

B. IV access is unsuccessful after three attempts

Which of the following injuries or conditions would have the LOWEST treatment priority during the primary assessment? A. Secretions in the upper airway and an irregular pattern of breathing B. Impressive amount of dried blood in the hair but no active bleeding C. Open deformity to the left lower leg with moderate venous bleeding D. Respirations of 26 breaths/min with markedly reduced tidal volume

B. Impressive amount of dried blood in the hair but no active bleeding

Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct? A. Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder that causes the blood to clot too quickly. B. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen. C. The red blood cells of patients with sickle cell disease are round and contain hemoglobin A. D. Because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodge in a blood vessel.

B. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen

During an allergic reaction, basophils release histamines and heparin. What respective roles do these chemicals play? A. Reduce inflammation and facilitate blood clotting. B. Increase tissue inflammation and inhibit blood clotting. C. Reduce inflammation and inhibit blood clotting. D. Reduce tissue inflammation and inhibit blood clotting.

B. Increase tissue inflammation and inhibit blood clotting

Which of the following is NOT a typical warning sign of stress? A. Isolation B. Increased appetite C. Inability to concentrate D. Irritability toward coworkers

B. Increased appetite

Which of the following would likely exacerbate pulmonary edema? A. Nitroglycerin B. Increased cardiac preload C. A positive inotropic drug D. Decreased cardiac afterload

B. Increased cardiac preload

All of the following are commonly prescribed medications for patients with a respiratory disease, EXCEPT: A. Intal. B. Inderal. C. Singulair. D. Beclovent.

B. Inderal

Which of the following steps for drawing medication from a vial is NOT necessary when drawing medication from an ampule? A. Checking the expiration date and clarity of the drug. B. Injecting air into the container before withdrawing the drug. C. Expelling air bubbles from the syringe prior to giving the drug. D. Looking at the container to ensure the appropriate concentration.

B. Injecting air into the container before withdrawing the drug

Which of the following medications are typically administered via the subcutaneous route? A. Glucose and insulin B. Insulin and epinephrine C. Epinephrine and glucose D. Nitroglycerin and insulin

B. Insulin and epinephrine

__________ solutions provide a stable medium for the administration of medications and provide effective fluid and electrolyte replacement. A. Colloid B. Isotonic C. Hypotonic D. Hypertonic

B. Isotonic

What is the mechanism of action of activated charcoal when administered to a patient who has ingested a poisonous substance? A. It directly counteracts the effects of the ingested substance. B. It adsorbs the toxic substance and delays the digestive process. C. It induces vomiting through the emetic effects that it possesses.

B. It adsorbs the toxic substance and delays the digestive process

What is the MOST significant drawback to cannulating a scalp vein in a child with a butterfly catheter? A. It is aesthetically unpleasant. B. It does not allow for rapid fluid administration. C. It causes apprehension for the family. D. Scalp veins are often difficult to cannulate.

B. It does not allow for rapid fluid administration

Which of the following statements regarding the nonrebreathing mask is incorrect? A. It can deliver an FiO2 of up to 90%. B. It increases a patient's tidal volume. C. It is of no benefit to an apneic patient. D. It delivers passive oxygen to the patient.

B. It increases a patient's tidal volume

What role does phosphorus play in the body? A. It is the primary buffer in the body. B. It is an important component in the formation of adenosine triphosphate. C. It is responsible for the distribution of water throughout the body. D. It is the principle cation needed for bone development.

B. It is an important component in the formation of adenosine triphosphate

What protective function does the Hering-Breuer reflex serve? A. It prevents collapse of the alveoli. B. It prevents overexpansion of the lungs. C. It prevents atrophy of the respiratory muscles. D. It protects the abdominal organs when the diaphragm descends.

B. It prevents overexpansion of the lungs

Which of the following assessment findings is MOST indicative of a cardiovascular problem? A. Unequal breath sounds B. Jugular venous distention C. Use of the accessory muscles D. Palpable pain to the epigastrium

B. Jugular venous distention

Which of the following statements regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct? A. Most cases of MRSA transmission occur following an accidental needlestick. B. MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics. C. The communicable period for MRSA is 10 days to 2 weeks after being infected. D. Studies have shown that less than 1% of health care providers are MRSA carriers.

B. MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics

Which of the following is generally NOT indicated when treating a patient with a tension pneumothorax? A. Paramedic support B. Medication therapy C. Intravenous therapy D. Ventilatory assistance

B. Medication therapy

Which of the following medications could cause a potentially fatal interaction if given within 24 to 36 hours of Viagra, Cialis, or Levitra? A. Epinephrine B. Nitroglycerin C. Any form of glucose D. Any form of aspirin

B. Nitroglycerin

What is the pathophysiology of bacterial vaginosis? A. A painless chancre that is caused by the Treponema pallidum bacterium B. Normal vaginal bacteria are replaced by an overgrowth of other bacterial forms. C. Caused by the bacterium Haemophilus ducreyi and causes ulcers on the genitalia D. Caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which grows in warm, moist areas

B. Normal vaginal bacteria are replaced by an overgrowth of other bacterial forms

Which of the following ly describes insertion of a Combitube? A. Place the patient's neck in a flexed position and insert the Combitube through the left side of the patient's mouth. B. Open the mouth with the tongue-jaw lift maneuver and insert the Combitube in the midline of the patient's mouth. C. Hyperextend the patient's neck and insert the Combitube in the midline of the patient's mouth. D. Open the patient's airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver and insert the Combitube through the right side of the patient's mouth.

B. Open the mouth with the tongue-jaw lift maneuver and insert the Combitube in the midline of the patient's mouth

Which two pairs of cranial nerves do NOT exit from the brainstem? A. Vagus and trigeminal B. Optic and olfactory C. Abducens and trochlear D. Vestibulocochlear and glossopharyngeal

B. Optic and olfactory

Which of the following types of burns is characterized by intense pain and destruction of a portion of the dermis? A. First-degree B. Partial-thickness C. Third-degree D. Full-thickness

B. Partial-thickness

Which of the following foods provides the safest, most reliable source for long-term energy production? A. Fish B. Pasta C. Cheese D. Chicken

B. Pasta

Which of the following conditions may slow a person's capillary refill time? A. Increased peripheral perfusion B. Peripheral vasoconstriction C. Stress or severe anxiety D. Exposure to a hot environment

B. Peripheral vasoconstriction

Which of the following physiologic responses would you expect to occur following administration of a drug that possesses alpha-1 (α1) properties? A. Systemic vasodilation B. Peripheral vasoconstriction C. Increased cardiac contractility D. Dilation of the bronchioles

B. Peripheral vasoconstriction

Which of the following is the MOST reliable sign of a potentially violent patient? A. History of violence B. Physical activity C. The patient's posture D. Vocal activity

B. Physical activity

A 78-year-old female takes several medications every day, each one for a different condition. What is this an example of? A. Summation B. Polypharmacy C. Potentiation D. Drug dependence

B. Polypharmacy

Which of the following is a function of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V)? A. Supplies motor activity to all muscles of facial expression B. Provides motor innervation to the muscles of chewing C. Innervates muscles of the eyeball that allows a downward gaze. D. Carries sympathetic nerve fibers that cause dilation of the pupils.

B. Provides motor innervation to the muscles of chewing

A 70-year-old male presents with an acute onset of difficulty breathing that woke him from his sleep. He has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and several heart attacks. During your assessment, you note dried blood around his mouth. The patient tells you that he cannot lie down because he will "smother." What additional assessment findings will you MOST likely discover? A. Diffuse wheezing B. Pulmonary rales C. Fever and chills D. Slow respiratory rate

B. Pulmonary rales

During transport of a patient with a possible fractured arm, you come upon a major car accident involving multiple patients. Your patient is responsive, alert, and has stable vital signs. What should you do? A. Quickly triage the patients and wait for other ambulances to arrive at the scene. B. Radio the dispatcher to send ambulances to the scene and continue transport. C. Ask a bystander to stay with your patient as you and your partner begin triage. D. Notify the dispatcher of the major accident once you have arrived at the hospital.

B. Radio the dispatcher to send ambulances to the scene and continue transport

Which of the following muscles allows for flexion and rotation of the spine? A. Gastrocnemius B. Rectus abdominis C. Latissimus dorsi D. Pectoralis major

B. Rectus abdominis

Which of the following clinical findings is MOST consistent with inadequate breathing? A. Symmetrical chest movement and warm, dry skin B. Respirations of 16 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume C. Increased amount of expired air at the nose and mouth D. Regular breathing pattern and respirations of 24 breaths/min

B. Respirations of 16 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume

Which of the following signs is MOST indicative of adequate breathing? A. An altered mental status B. Respirations of 20 breaths/min C. Shallow depth of breathing D. Avoidance of a supine position

B. Respirations of 20 breaths/min

Which of the following statements MOST accurately describes asthma? A. Irreversible airway disease that presents with inspiratory wheezing B. Reversible airway disease caused by an exaggerated immune response C. Irreversible airway disease that results in increased alveolar surface tension D. Chronic respiratory disease caused by long-term exposure to toxic substances

B. Reversible airway disease caused by an exaggerated immune response

Which of the following injuries or conditions would MOST likely overwhelm the body's hemostatic response and result in death? A. Bleeding within the brain B. Ruptured aortic aneurysm C. Laceration to the liver D. Laceration to the spleen

B. Ruptured aortic aneurysm

The heart's primary pacemaker, which is located in the right atrium, is the: A. AV node. B. SA node. C. AV junction. D. bundle of His.

B. SA node

Which portion of the spinal column articulates with the pelvis? A. Thoracic B. Sacral C. Lumbar D. Coccyx

B. Sacral

Which of the following is an example of acquired immunity? A. Desensitized with a vaccination B. Sensitized to a specific antigen C. Desensitized following a bite or sting

B. Sensitized to specific antigen

You are performing a rapid assessment on a 30-year-old male who was involved in a motor-vehicle crash. The patient is conscious, but restless. He complains of difficulty breathing and chest pain. Your assessment reveals diminished breath sounds in the left hemithorax, normal jugular veins, and a midline trachea. His blood pressure is 124/64 mm Hg, heart rate is 120 and regular, and respirations are 26 breaths/min and shallow. Which of the following injuries should you suspect? A. Moderate hemothorax B. Simple pneumothorax C. Myocardial contusion D. Tension pneumothorax

B. Simple pneumothorax

Which of the following MOST accurately describes an acute abdomen? A. Acute abdominal pain that is usually the result of blunt trauma. B. Sudden onset of abdominal pain that indicates peritoneal irritation. C. Sudden onset of abdominal pain that indicates blood in the peritoneum. D. Progressive abdominal pain as a result of peritoneal inflammation

B. Sudden onset of abdominal pain that indicates peritoneal irritation

You arrive at the scene of a shooting. The patient, a young man, was shot in the head and has exposed brain matter. He is pulseless and apneic. What should you do? A. Provide immediate treatment and transport. B. Take necessary precautions not to disturb the scene. C. Perform a thorough hands-on assessment of the patient. D. Look for the weapon and turn it over to law enforcement

B. Take necessary precautions not to disturb the scene

Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts assault? A. Starting an IV without the patient's consent. B. Telling a patient to calm down or you will start an IV. C. Taking a patient's blood pressure when they are refusing care. D. Telling a violent patient that you may have to restrain him if necessary.

B. Telling a patient to calm down or you will start an IV

Who regulates the standards under which the AEMT provides emergency care? A. U.S. Department of Transportation B. The State EMS office or agency C. National Registry of EMTs D. National Association of EMTs

B. The State EMS office or agency

How does lactated ringers solution help combat intracellular acidosis associated with severe blood loss? A. It has the same chemical components that are contained in bicarbonate. B. The lactate is metabolized by the liver to form bicarbonate. C. It draws hydrogen ions into the intravascular space and sends them to the kidneys. D. It overhydrates the patient and forces hydrogen ions from the body.

B. The lactate is metabolized by the liver to form bicarbonate

When assessing a patient with difficulty breathing, which of the following findings would lead you to suspect congestive heart failure as the underlying cause? A. The patient is a long-term smoker and takes corticosteroid medications on a daily basis. B. The onset of the difficulty breathing was acute and the patient takes prescribed diuretics. C. The patient is coughing up thick green sputum and has prescriptions for Atrovent and Advair. D. The patient is receiving home oxygen therapy, has pink skin, and is breathing through pursed lips.

B. The onset of the difficulty breathing was acute and the patient takes prescribed diuretics

Which of the following information is generally NOT reported to the dispatcher during a call? A. Your arrival at the hospital B. The patient's clinical condition C. Your departure for the hospital D. Acknowledgement of the situation

B. The patient's clinical condition

Which of the following information are you LEAST likely to obtain from the dispatcher while responding to an EMS call? A. The number of patients involved B. The patient's past medical history C. Responses by other emergency personnel

B. The patient's past medical history

You are giving your oral report to the attending physician in the emergency department. Which of the following information about the patient is usually NOT given at this point? A. The patient's name and age B. The patient's physical address C. Any important medical history D. Initial vital sign values

B. The patient's physical address

Which of the following statements regarding medication administration in pediatric patients is correct? A. Infants and children have an inherently slower metabolic rate than adults, so they require larger doses of most medications. B. The products of metabolism in children can vary from those seen in adults, which may sometimes result in unexpected responses. C. Most pediatric patients take several medications, which may interact with each other and produce negative physiologic effects. D. It is important to remember that the doses of all medications are based on a child's age rather than his or her weight and body mass.

B. The products of metabolism in children can vary from those seen in adults, which may sometimes result in unexpected responses

Why does the clinical presentation of neurogenic shock differ from that of hypovolemic shock? Select one: A. Profound stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system occurs. B. The sympathetic nervous system does not release catecholamines. C. Spinal cord injury stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system. D. The vascular space is relatively smaller compared to the blood volume.

B. The sympathetic nervous system does not release catecholamines.

Which of the following statements regarding the twelve cranial nerves is correct? A. They branch out from between each of the spinal vertebrae. B. They arise from the brain and innervate the head and face. C. All twelve nerves exit the brain through the foramen magnum. D. Their primary function is to send messages to and from the brain.

B. They arise from the brain and innervate the head and face

Which of the following statements regarding anterior nosebleeds is correct? A. They are usually caused by a fracture of the basilar skull. B. They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly. C. They are usually severe and require aggressive treatment to control. D. They cause blood to drain into the posterior pharynx.

B. They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly

Which of the following statements regarding toddlers and preschoolers is correct? A. The normal respiratory rate in toddlers and preschoolers is between 12 and 20 breaths/min. B. Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of a loss of passive immunity. C. Toddlers and preschoolers have well-developed lung musculature, even though they have less lung tissue. D. Muscle mass and bone density decrease in toddlers and preschoolers because of increased physical activity.

B. Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of a loss of passive immunity

Which layer of the blood vessel wall is composed of elastic tissue and smooth muscle cells? A. The lumen B. Tunica media C. Tunica intima D. Tunica adventitia

B. Tunica media

After starting an IV on a patient in shock, the AEMT accidentally gets stuck with the IV needle. This is referred to as a/an: A. disease contraction. B. contaminated stick. C. infectious exposure. D. communicable stick.

B. contaminated stick

Which of the following head-injured patients should be hyperventilated at a rate of 20 breaths/min with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen? A. Semiconscious 34-year-old female with deep, regular breathing, bilaterally dilated and reactive pupils, and bradycardia. B. Unresponsive 21-year-old male with slow, irregular breathing, fixed and dilated pupils, and extensor posturing. C. Semiconscious 25-year-old female with rapid, shallow breathing, dilated and sluggish pupils, and hypertension. D. Unresponsive 30-year-old male with slow, shallow breathing, equal and reactive pupils, and hypotension.

B. Unresponsive 21-year-old male with slow, irregular breathing, fixed and dilated pupils, and extensor posturing

Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve an ALS skill? A. Administering oxygen and starting an IV B. Using an AED and performing rescue breathing C. Applying oxygen and injecting a medication D. Performing CPR and using a manual defibrillator

B. Using an AED and performing rescue breathing

What are the physiologic effects of nitroglycerin when given to a patient with suspected cardiac-related chest pain? A. Vascular smooth muscle contraction and increased venous return B. Vascular smooth muscle relaxation and coronary artery dilation C. Coronary artery dilation and increased systemic vascular resistance D. Decreased venous pooling of blood and coronary vasoconstriction

B. Vascular smooth muscle relaxation and coronary artery dilation

What physiologic response may occur when a head-injured patient is hyperventilated with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen? A. Vasoconstriction and increased cerebral perfusion B. Vasoconstriction and decreased cerebral perfusion

B. Vasoconstriction and decreased cerebral perfusion

What physiologic response causes a vasovagal reaction? A. Vasodilation and an increase in blood pressure B. Vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure C. Vasoconstriction and a decrease in blood pressure D. Vasoconstriction and an increase in heart rate

B. Vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure

What physiologic response would be expected to occur if a patient's systolic blood pressure dropped below 80 mm Hg? Select one: A. Increased baroreceptor stimulation and subsequent vasodilation B. Vasomotor stimulation with resultant arterial vasoconstriction C. An inhibitory response from the sympathetic nervous system D. Inhibition of the vasomotor center and subsequent vasodilation

B. Vasomotor stimulation with resultant arterial vasoconstriction

Which of the following signs or symptoms would you MOST likely encounter in a patient who was struck in the back of the head? A. Loss of sensory perception B. Visual disturbances C. Abnormal behavior D. Loss of motor control

B. Visual disturbances

Following a minor head injury, which of the following occurs more commonly in children than adults? A. Convulsions B. Vomiting C. Aspiration

B. Vomiting

A fracture involving the nasal bone and inferior maxilla, which separates the nasal bone and lower maxilla from the facial skull and remainder of the cranial bones describes: A. a Le Fort III fracture. B. a Le Fort II fracture. C. a Le Fort I fracture. D. craniofacial disjunction.

B. a Le Fort II fracture

Age-related changes in the renal system result in: A. a significant increase in filtration, which causes the excretion of large amounts of water from the body. B. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed. C. the formation of large amounts of urine secondary to an increase in kidney mass of up to 20%.

B. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed

You are assessing a middle-aged man who complains of nausea and a headache. Before you physically move closer to him, it is important to remember that: A. most people's intimate space is between 18" and 4'. B. a greater sense of trust must be established first. C. he will take this as a sign of your compassion. D. eye contact will likely make him uncomfortable

B. a greater sense of trust must be established first

Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) exists when: A. a patient's heart rate is so weak that it is barely palpable. B. a patient is in cardiac arrest despite an organized cardiac rhythm C. the heart is quivering and is not ejecting any blood from the ventricles. D. a pulse is clearly present, but the cardiac monitor shows a flat line.

B. a patient is in cardiac arrest despite an organized cardiac rhythm

A 35-year-old female complains of an acute onset of pain to her left lower abdominal quadrant. During your assessment, she tells you that the pain moves around to her back and that she is experiencing a small amount of vaginal bleeding. This patient is MOST likely experiencing: A. intrauterine cancer. B. a ruptured ovarian cyst. C. an ectopic pregnancy. D. gonorrhea or syphilis.

B. a ruptured ovarian cyst

A 20-year-old female with a history of chronic epilepsy, who is compliant with her anticonvulsant medication, experiences a "breakthrough" seizure. This usually happens when: A. the patient misses several doses of his or her anticonvulsant. B. a seizure occurs despite a therapeutic medication blood level. C. the patient experiences a sudden increase in body temperature. D. a seizure occurs as the result of another underlying cause.

B. a seizure occurs despite a therapeutic medication blood level

One of the MOST common signs of an acute hypertensive emergency is: A. a posterior nosebleed. B. a sudden, severe headache. C. pale, cool, clammy skin. D. acute pulmonary edema.

B. a sudden, severe headache

CPR should be initiated when: Select one: A. rigor mortis is obvious. B. a valid living will is unavailable. C. the carotid pulse is very weak. D. signs of putrefaction are present.

B. a valid living will is unavailable.

When assessing a patient using a pulse oximeter, it is important to remember that: A. an oxygen saturation of greater than 90% rules out hypoxemia. B. abnormally bound hemoglobin may produce inaccurate readings. C. pulse oximetry will determine whether or not to administer oxygen. D. the pulse oximeter provides an accurate reading of the patient's PaO2.

B. abnormally bound hemoglobin may produce inaccurate readings

Pregnancy hormones cause the _____________ of the uterus to thicken in preparation for implantation of a fertilized egg. A. myometrium B. endometrium C. perimetrium D. cervical os

B. endometrium

A 25-year-old female, who is in the third trimester of pregnancy, was involved in a motor-vehicle crash and was not wearing a seatbelt. She complains of severe, tearing abdominal pain. She is experiencing dark red vaginal bleeding, and is exhibiting signs of shock. On the basis of the mechanism of injury and her clinical presentation, you should be MOST suspicious for: A. placenta previa. B. abruptio placenta. C. uterine inversion. D. traumatic abortion.

B. abruptio placenta

The passage of a substance through some surface of the body into body fluids and tissues is known as: A. filtration. B. absorption. C. bioavailability. D. biotransformation.

B. absorption

A 22-year-old female with type 1 diabetes is unresponsive and has a blood glucose level of 29 mg/dL. She is receiving high-flow oxygen and several attempts to establish IV access have failed. You should: A. begin transport and continue to attempt IV access en route. B. administer 0.5 to 1 mg of glucagon via the intramuscular route. C. call for a paramedic unit so they can establish intraosseous access. D. place small amounts of oral glucose between her cheek and gum.

B. administer 0.5 to 1 mg of glucagon via the intramuscular route

A 22-year-old male has sustained full-thickness burns to approximately 55% of his BSA. You are appropriately managing his airway and are administering 100% oxygen. You note that the patient's heart rate is 140 beats/min and thready and his blood pressure is 78/58 mm Hg. You should: A. deliver several 500 mL boluses of normal saline solution. B. administer 20 mL/kg crystalloid boluses to maintain perfusion. C. administer IV fluids based on the Parkland formula. D. withhold IV fluid therapy until you have contacted medical control.

B. administer 20 mL/kg crystalloid boluses to maintain perfusion

A 30-year-old man presents with widespread urticaria after being bitten numerous times by fire ants. He is conscious and alert and denies respiratory distress. Further assessment reveals that his breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. He tells you that his wife has a prescribed epinephrine auto-injector because she is allergic to hornets. However, he does not have a prescribed auto-injector of his own. You should: A. request a paramedic unit to administer epinephrine. B. administer oxygen as needed and transport promptly. C. assist him in self-administering his wife's epinephrine. D. refer him to his primary care physician for epinephrine.

B. administer oxygen as needed and transport promptly

The sympathetic nervous system is also known as the: A. cholinergic nervous system. B. adrenergic nervous system. C. sympatholytic nervous system. D. parasympatholytic nervous system.

B. adrenergic nervous system

While en route to the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest, you encounter a flooded road that is impassible. You should: A. contact the caller and provide instructions. B. advise the dispatcher to send another ambulance. C. contact medical control and report your status. D. make one attempt to cross the flooded road.

B. advise the dispatcher to send another ambulance

The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made: A. once the patient's baseline vital signs are known. B. after the primary assessment has been completed. C. upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment. D. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint.

B. after the primary assessment has been completed

When assessing an 80-year-old patient in shock, it is important to remember that: A. in older adults, it is especially common to observe a significant decrease in heart rate in response to shock. B. age-related changes in the cardiovascular system may make the patient less able to compensate for decreased perfusion. C. it is common to see a more significant increase in heart rate than what would be expected in younger adults.

B. age-related changes in the cardiovascular system may make the patient less able to compensate for decreased perfusion

Molecules that bind to a cell's receptor and trigger a response by that cell are called: A. steroids. B. agonists. C. hormones. D. antagonists.

B. agonists

The function of the 12 pairs of cranial nerves is to: A. conduct sensory impulses from the skin to the spinal cord. B. allow transmission of sensations directly to and from the brain. C. perform specialized functions in the neck and thoracic cavity.

B. allow transmission of sensations directly to and from the brain

Third spacing is defined as: A. cellular destruction secondary to a massive influx of water. B. an abnormal fluid shift into the serous linings of the body. C. a collection of blood within the liver, spleen, or pancreas. D. a loss of body water caused by severe vomiting or diarrhea.

B. an abnormal fluid shift into the serous linings of the body

A biphasic response to an antigen occurs when: A. the acute response is sustained despite appropriate care. B. an acute response is followed later by a delayed response. C. there is no acute response but a delayed response hours later. D. the acute response is rapidly corrected by the immune system.

B. an acute response is followed later by a delayed response

All of the following would result in metabolic acidosis, EXCEPT: A. anaerobic metabolism. B. an overdose of antacids.

B. an overdose of antacids

When oxygen levels are low or absent, the cells revert to a process of: A. aerobic metabolism. B. anaerobic metabolism. C. anaerobic anabolism. D. aerobic catabolism.

B. anaerobic metabolism

An over-the-needle catheter is commonly referred to as a/an: A. intracath. B. angiocath. C. butterfly catheter. D. arteriocath.

B. angiocath

When assessing a patient with von Willebrand disease, you should be especially alert for: A. peripheral edema. B. any evidence of bleeding. C. signs of splenic enlargement. D. evidence of a pulmonary embolism.

B. any evidence of bleeding

The most inferior portion of the heart is called the: A. base. B. apex. C. volar. D. dorsum.

B. apex

After applying the AED to your cardiac-arrest patient, you receive a "shock advised" message. You should: A. quickly check to ensure the pads are correctly placed. B. ensure that all contact with the patient has ceased. C. deliver one shock and immediately resume CPR. D. perform CPR for 2 minutes and then deliver a shock.

B. ensure that all contact with the patient has ceased

You are dispatched to a local nightclub for a patient who has been stabbed. After arriving at the scene and ensuring you and your partner's safety, you find the patient sitting on the ground. He is conscious, screaming in pain, and attempting to control bright red blood that is spurting from his groin area. After taking standard precautions, you should: A. ensure that the patient's airway is patent. B. apply direct pressure to control the bleeding. C. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. obtain baseline vital signs and treat for shock.

B. apply direct pressure to control the bleeding

A 55-year-old male with poorly controlled hypertension presents with respiratory distress and difficulty speaking in complete sentences. He is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 28 breaths/min and labored. Auscultation of his lungs reveals diffuse coarse crackles. After placing the position in a comfortable position, you should: A. give oxygen via nasal cannula. B. apply the CPAP device. C. administer nitroglycerin. D. give an IV fluid bolus.

B. apply the CPAP device

When applying the AED pads to a patient with a surgically-implanted pacemaker, you should: A. apply the pads no differently than in anyone else. B. apply the pads at least 1" away from the pacemaker. C. apply both pads on the posterior aspect of the chest. D. apply the pad directly over the implanted pacemaker.

B. apply the pads at least 1" away from the pacemaker

You respond to a movie theater for a 70-year-old male who is confused. His wife tells you he has type 2 diabetes but refuses to take his pills. Your assessment reveals that he is diaphoretic, tachycardic, and tachypneic. Initial treatment for this patient should include: A. administering one to two tubes of oral glucose. B. applying a nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min. C. assisting the patient with his diabetic medication. D. performing a rapid exam and obtaining vital signs.

B. applying a nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min

A 57-year-old female with a history of peripheral vascular disease presents with an acute onset of confusion, aphasia, left-sided hemiparesis, and loss of muscle control to the right side of her face. You should suspect an: A. arterial hemorrhage in the left cerebral hemisphere. B. arterial blockage in the right cerebral hemisphere. C. arterial blockage in the left cerebral hemisphere. D. arterial hemorrhage in the right cerebral hemisphere.

B. arterial blockage in the right cerebral hemisphere

The hypoxic drive stimulates breathing when the: A. pH of the CSF increases. B. arterial oxygen level falls. C. arterial carbon dioxide levels increase. D. venous levels of carbon dioxide decrease.

B. arterial oxygen level falls

A 31-year-old man has signs and symptoms of excited delirium. When assessing his orientation, memory, and ability to concentrate, you should: A. ask him if he knows the date and time and when he last visited his physician. B. ask him simple questions, such as "When did you first notice these feelings?" C. allow him up to 30 seconds to answer a question before asking another one. D. inquire about his medical history, including any medications that he is taking.

B. ask him simple questions, such as "When did you first notice these feelings?"

When responding to the scene of a mass-casualty incident, you should: A. avoid communication with the dispatcher to free up air time. B. ask the dispatcher to notify all of the hospitals in the area. C. notify medical control and request orders prior to arrival. D. contact the hospital after you know the extent of the incident.

B. ask the dispatcher to notify all of the hospitals in the area

During your primary assessment of an unresponsive 47-year-old male, you find that he has occasional gasping breaths. You should: A. insert a multilumen airway device and assess for a carotid pulse. B. assess for a carotid pulse and begin chest compressions if needed. C. deliver 2 slow breaths with a bag-mask device and assess for a pulse. D. perform 30 chest compressions, open the airway, and deliver 2 breaths.

B. assess for a carotid pulse and begin chest compressions if needed

En route to the hospital, a diabetic patient regains partial consciousness. He tells you that he feels fine and that he does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should: A. cease further treatment and have the patient sign a release. B. assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired. C. tell that patient that once care is started it cannot be stopped. D. request that the police place the patient under protective custody.

B. assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired

A semiconscious 40-year-old female is found to have regular respirations at a rate of 24 breaths/min with reduced tidal volume. You should: A. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. B. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. C. immediately insert a multilumen airway device. D. place her in the recovery position and administer oxygen.

B. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device

A young male tripped on a garden hose, fell, and struck his head on a concrete sidewalk. He is unresponsive and has a large hematoma to his forehead. His respirations are slow and shallow. You should: A. apply ice to the injury to reduce bleeding. B. assist his ventilations with 100% oxygen. C. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. D. start an IV and administer a 20 mL/kg bolus.

B. assist his ventilations with 100% oxygen

A 37-year-old male sustained blunt trauma to the left anterolateral chest. He is conscious, but confused, and complains of pain during inspiration; his respirations are shallow. Your assessment reveals crepitus to the area of impact. Breath sounds, although weakly audible, are bilaterally equal. The pulse oximeter reads 89% on room air. You should: A. circumferentially wrap his chest for support. B. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device. C. apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. encourage him to breathe shallowly to reduce his pain.

B. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device

A 63-year-old male is being transported to the hospital for an acute exacerbation of his emphysema. He is on oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 L/min. During your reassessment, you note that his mental status has deteriorated and his respirations have become markedly slow and shallow. You should: A. immediately reassess his vital signs. B. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device. C. assess his blood glucose level. D. insert an advanced airway device at once.

B. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device

You are transporting a 40-year-old male who experienced blunt trauma to the side of his head. At the scene, he was conscious and alert and refused oxygen; however, you note that his mental status has deteriorated and his respirations have become irregular and shallow. You should: A. start a large-bore IV and deliver a 20 mL/kg fluid bolus. B. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device. C. insert an advanced airway device immediately. D. apply a nonrebreathing mask set at 15 L/min.

B. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device

An elderly male was removed from his burning house by firefighters. He has extensive full-thickness burns; is semiconscious; and has shallow, stridorous respirations. The firefighters have already stopped the burning process. After ensuring an open airway, you should: A. insert a multilumen airway device to protect the patient's airway. B. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen. C. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and keep him warm. D. estimate the severity of his burns and begin IV fluid replacement.

B. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen

A 46-year-old female presents with respiratory difficulty, facial swelling, and widespread hives after she was stung by an unknown type of insect. Her blood pressure is 88/58 mm Hg; auscultation of her lungs reveals diffuse expiratory wheezing. The patient has a prescribed EpiPen, but has not used it. After administering 100% oxygen, you should: A. start an IV and administer a 20 mL/kg saline bolus to raise her BP. B. assist the patient with her EpiPen in accordance with your protocols. C. administer 0.3 to 0.5 mL of epinephrine 1:1,000 subcutaneously. D. administer a nebulized beta2 agonist to relieve the bronchospasm.

B. assist the patient with her EpiPen in accordance with your protocols

A 69-year-old female is found to be semiconscious, hypertensive, and bradypneic. You should: A. apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and start an IV line. B. assist ventilations and start an IV set to keep the vein open. C. insert a multilumen airway device and rapidly transport her. D. assist ventilations and give a 20 mL/kg bolus of normal saline.

B. assist ventilations and start an IV set to keep the vein open

A 52-year-old female was brutally assaulted by several perpetrators. Your assessment reveals that she is semiconscious, is breathing shallowly, and has a rapid heart rate. You note that there is blood in the region of her vagina. Appropriate management for this patient includes: A. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, placing gauze pads in the vagina, and IV therapy. B. assisted ventilations, an absorbent pad over her vagina, and a head-to-toe assessment. C. assisted ventilations, avoiding examination of the vagina, and placing a blanket on her. D. insertion of a Combitube, an absorbent pad over the vagina, and 2 liters of crystalloid.

B. assisted ventilations, an absorbent pad over her vagina, and a head-to-toe assessment

The first two cervical vertebrae, in order, are called: A. axis and dens. B. atlas and axis. C. dens and odontoid. D. odontoid and atlas.

B. atlas and axis

When ventilating a patient with a stoma and a tracheostomy tube, you should: A. open the airway with the head-tilt chin-lift maneuver. B. attach the bag-mask device to the 15-mm adaptor on the tube. C. use an infant or child mask to make a tight seal over the stoma. D. leave the nose and mouth open so that exhalation can occur.

B. attach the bag-mask device to the 15-mm adaptor on the tube

Tachycardia in a patient experiencing a sickle cell crisis represents a compensatory response that: A. is caused by an acute increase in the red blood cell count. B. attempts to force sickled cells through smaller vasculature. C. is in response to an accelerated increase in hemoglobin levels. D. maintains perfusion because the patient is spontaneously bleeding.

B. attempts to force sickled cells through smaller vasculature

The sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves arise from the: A. somatic nervous system. B. autonomic nervous system. C. voluntary nervous system. D. adrenal nervous system

B. autonomic nervous system

General guidelines for effectively communicating information over the radio include: A. holding the microphone no more than 1" away from your mouth. B. avoiding providing a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's condition. C. using words such as "yes" or "no," instead of "affirmative" or "negative." D. ensuring that other radios on the same frequency are turned up

B. avoiding providing a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's condition

While treating a responsive and alert patient with a serious illness, your partner starts an IV, but does not explain the procedure to the patient. Your partner's inaction MOST accurately constitutes: A. assault. B. battery. C. an unethical act. D. gross negligence.

B. battery

When caring for a patient with multiple abrasions, you should: A. clean the wounds with sterile water. B. be alert for underlying injuries. C. give a 500 mL crystalloid bolus. D. transport to a local trauma center.

B. be alert for underlying injuries

When treating a patient who complains of dyspnea, it is important for the AEMT to: A. closely monitor the patient's cardiac rhythm. B. be prepared to treat the patient's anxiety as well. C. give oxygen via nasal cannula to minimize anxiety. D. routinely request that a paramedic unit respond to the scene.

B. be prepared to treat the patient's anxiety as well

A licensed AEMT is a prehospital care provider who has: A. successfully completed a state-approved EMS training program. B. been granted permission to engage in emergency medical care. C. met certain predetermined standards to ensure safe and ethical practice. D. the authority to practice emergency medicine without physician oversight.

B. been granted permission to engage in emergency medical care

You are dispatched to a residence for a 4-year-old male who is not breathing. When you and your partner arrive at the scene, you find the child's father is performing mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing on him. The father tells you that his son stuck a pin in an electrical socket. After assessing the child and determining that he is pulseless and apneic, you should: A. perform CPR, immobilize his spine, and transport. B. begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. C. request a paramedic unit to perform defibrillation. D. perform CPR and insert a pediatric-sized Combitube.

B. begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible

The majority of the body's total body water is contained within the: A. extracellular space. B. intracellular space. C. intravascular fluid. D. interstitial fluid.

B. intracellular space

You are dispatched to an assisted-living center for a 67-year-old male with "mental status changes." You arrive at the scene and begin to assess the patient. He is responsive to painful stimuli only, has rapid and shallow breathing, and a slow radial pulse. You should: A. start an IV and administer a fluid bolus. B. begin assisting the patient's ventilations. C. apply a nonrebreathing mask set at 15 L/min. D. assess his blood glucose level and start an IV.

B. begin assisting the patient's ventilations

You arrive at the scene where an older man inadvertently overdosed on his blood pressure medication. He is unresponsive with shallow respirations. The patient's wife is unavailable. You should: A. attempt to contact the wife prior to initiating care. B. begin treatment and transport the patient to the hospital. C. treat the patient under the law of expressed consent. D. contact medical control and obtain permission to treat

B. begin treatment and transport the patient to the hospital

An oxygen humidifier is MOST beneficial when a patient is: A. receiving ventilations through a multilumen airway device. B. being given oxygen during a lengthy transport to the hospital. C. not breathing and is being ventilated with a bag-mask device. D. receiving oxygen via nonrebreathing mask during a short transport.

B. being given oxygen during a lengthy transport to the hospital

A parasympatholytic drug blocks the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system by: A. increasing the effects of the sympathetic nervous system. B. binding to receptors and blocking the release of acetylcholine. C. agonizing parasympathetic receptors so they may exert their effect. D. antagonizing sympathetic receptors and blocking the release of epinephrine.

B. binding to receptors and blocking the release of acetylcholine

An ischemic stroke is MOST often the result of a(n): A. cerebral embolism. B. blocked cerebral artery. C. intracerebral hemorrhage. D. sudden cerebral vasospasm.

B. blocked cerebral artery

Syphilis is a: A. high-risk disease to the AEMT, especially through a needlestick. B. bloodborne disease that can successfully be treated with penicillin. C. sexually transmitted disease that is only found in vaginal secretions. D. bacterial infection that is typically resistant to antibiotic medications.

B. bloodborne disease that can successfully be treated with penicillin

The ilium is defined as the: A. lower part of the small intestine. B. bony prominence of the pelvis. C. structure that overlies the bladder. D. ligament that overlies the femoral vessels.

B. bony prominence of the pelvis

During your assessment of a trauma patient, you note the presence of bilateral femur fractures. This means that: A. one femur is broken. B. both femurs are broken. C. one femur is broken in two places.

B. both femurs are broken

Adverse reactions associated with epinephrine include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. headache. B. bradycardia. C. anginal pain. D. arrhythmias.

B. bradycardia

Excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system will result in: A. hypertension. B. bradycardia. C. hyperactivity. D. diaphoresis.

B. bradycardia

The presence of posturing following severe head trauma is a sign of: A. mastoid injury. B. brainstem injury. C. spinal injury. D. cerebellar injury.

B. brainstem injury

While assessing a young male who was struck in the chest with a steel pipe, you note that his pulse is irregular. You should be MOST suspicious for: A. underlying cardiac disease. B. bruising of the heart muscle. C. a lacerated coronary artery. D. traumatic rupture of the aorta.

B. bruising of the heart muscle

You are dispatched to an industrial plant for a worker who was exposed to an unknown chemical. Upon arrival, you find the patient sitting outside of the plant. He has a white, dry powder covering his right arm. Care for this patient's exposure includes: A. immediately flushing the area with sterile saline to stop the burning process. B. brushing the chemical from the patient's arm and then irrigating with water. C. removing the patient's clothing and immersing his arm in a container of water. D. removing the patient's clothing and flushing with copious amounts of water.

B. brushing the chemical from the patient's arm and then irrigating with water

The primary waste product(s) of cellular respiration is/are: A. oxygen. B. carbon dioxide and water. C. lactic and pyruvic acid. D. nitrogen.

B. carbon dioxide and water

A patient who presents with hypotension, jugular venous distention, and a rapid irregular pulse, should be suspected of experiencing: Select one: A. neurogenic shock. B. cardiogenic shock. C. distributive shock. D. hypovolemic shock.

B. cardiogenic shock.

A 56-year-old male caught the foreskin of his penis in a long segment of the zipper of his pants. He is in extreme pain, his blood pressure is 150/88 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 120 beats/min and strong, and his respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. The closest hospital is 40 miles away. You should: A. attempt to unzip the pants and request a paramedic unit to give morphine. B. carefully cut the zipper out of the pants, control any bleeding, and transport. C. provide prompt transport to the hospital while providing emotional support. D. allow the patient's wife to transport him to the hospital since he is not unstable.

B. carefully cut the zipper out of the pants, control any bleeding, and transport

Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should: Select one: A. try opening the airway by lifting up on the chin. B. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver. C. tilt the head back while lifting up on the patient's neck. D. suction the airway and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver.

B. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.

A 50-year-old male was splashed in the eyes with radiator fluid when he was working on his car. During your assessment, he tells you that he wears soft contact lenses. You should: A. leave the contact lenses in place and cover both eyes with a dry dressing. B. carefully remove the contact lenses and then irrigate his eyes with saline. C. leave the contact lenses in place and flush his eyes with sterile water. D. remove the contact lenses and cover his eyes with a dry, sterile dressing.

B. carefully remove the contact lenses and then irrigate his eyes with saline

You respond to a domestic dispute, where a middle-aged male was stabbed in the chest by his wife. Your assessment reveals that the patient is pulseless and apneic. The knife is impaled in the center of his chest. You should: A. turn the patient onto his side, stabilize the knife, and begin CPR. B. carefully remove the knife, control the bleeding, and perform CPR. C. stabilize the knife with bulky dressing, initiate CPR, and transport. D. leave the knife in place, control the bleeding, and initiate CPR.

B. carefully remove the knife, control the bleeding, and perform CPR

Located just behind the brainstem, the ___________ controls muscle and body coordination. A. cerebrum B. cerebellum C. diencephalon D. cerebral cortex

B. cerebellum

Slow, shallow, irregular respirations or occasional gasps are MOST indicative of: A. brainstem injury. B. cerebral anoxia. C. intracranial pressure. D. narcotic drug overdose.

B. cerebral anoxia

A 19-year-old male was struck by a baseball in the occipital region of the skull. Witnesses report that the patient was briefly unconscious following the incident. He is now conscious and alert, but cannot remember the events immediately following the injury. He is breathing without difficulty and his vital signs are stable. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with a/an: A. intracerebral hematoma. B. cerebral concussion. C. epidural hematoma. D. cerebral contusion.

B. cerebral concussion

The two MOST common causes of secondary brain injury are: A. blunt trauma and cerebral edema. B. cerebral hypoxia and hypotension. C. infection and intracranial bleeding. D. increased ICP and cerebral edema.

B. cerebral hypoxia and hypotension

The largest part of the brain is the: A. occiput. B. cerebrum. C. brain stem. D. cerebellum.

B. cerebrum

The largest portion of the brain, which controls a wide variety of functions, is the: A. cerebellum. B. cerebrum. C. brain stem.

B. cerebrum

Unstable angina pectoris is characterized by: A. a fixed frequency of chest pain or pressure that is often relieved by rest and several doses of nitroglycerin. B. chest pain or discomfort that may not be relieved by rest or nitroglycerin, and that occurs without a fixed frequency. C. chest pain or pressure that lasts longer than 15 minutes and is associated with myocardial necrosis. D. chest pain or pressure that occurs during periods of strenuous activity and promptly subsides with rest.

B. chest pain or discomfort that may not be relieved by rest or nitroglycerin, and that occurs without a fixed frequency

When the papillary muscles contract, the ______________ tighten, preventing blood from regurgitating from the ventricles to the atria. A. semilunar valves B. chordae tendineae C. coronary sinuses D. tricuspid valves

B. chordae tendineae

Perfusion is defined as: Select one: A. removal of carbon dioxide from the body. B. circulation of blood within an organ or tissue. C. adequate supplies of glucose within the brain. D. oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange in the lungs.

B. circulation of blood within an organ or tissue.

You arrive at the residence of a young female who is experiencing an apparent psychotic episode. Law enforcement is on scene and has ensured that it is safe. You find the patient sitting in a chair, rocking back and forth. You should: A. remain calm as you gently place your hand on her shoulder. B. clearly identify yourself and your partner and tell her you are there to help. C. reassure her that everything will be okay and ask her if she can walk. D. kneel down in front of the patient and ask her what is troubling her.

B. clearly identify yourself and your partner and tell her you are there to help

You are assessing a young male with an acute onset of tachypnea. He is conscious and alert with shallow respirations of 40 breaths/min, and complains of numbness and tingling to his face and hands. The patient's girlfriend tells you that he has been very worried about his mother, who was recently diagnosed with cancer. Appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. a nonrebreathing mask without oxygen. B. coached breathing and oxygen as needed. C. carbon dioxide rebreathing with a paper bag. D. a beta2 agonist if authorized by medical control.

B. coached breathing and oxygen as needed

Heat that is generated by an electrical injury can cause coagulation and vascular occlusion, resulting in: A. massive infection. B. compartment syndrome. C. spinal cord inflammation. D. spontaneous hemorrhage.

B. compartment syndrome

You are dispatched to an apartment complex for a young male experiencing an "emotional problem." Law enforcement is at the scene when you arrive. You should: A. request a paramedic unit to chemically sedate the patient. B. confer with a police officer before making patient contact. C. have the police restrain the patient before you assess him. D. enter the scene and ask a police officer about the nature of the problem.

B. confer with a police officer before making patient contact

Critical incident stress management is a program designed to: A. evaluate personnel performance during a critical incident. B. confront the responses to critical incidents and defuse them. C. debrief press and media on details of a critical incident. D. investigate civilian complaints during a critical incident.

B. confront the responses to critical incidents and defuse them

The presence of distended jugular veins that do not collapse, even when the patient is sitting, is consistent with: A. cardiogenic shock. B. congestive heart failure. C. a thoracic aortic aneurysm. D. an acute hypertensive crisis.

B. congestive heart failure

Ethnocentrism is defined as: A. intentionally providing substandard medical care to a person whose cultural values are different from yours. B. considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture. C. embracing the cultural values and beliefs of another person, even if they go against what you were taught. D. consciously forcing your cultural values onto another person because you believe your values are better.

B. considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture

When a person is exposed to cold temperatures, blood vessels in the skin: A. dilate and draw blood to the surface of the skin. B. constrict and divert blood away from the skin. C. dilate and divert blood to the core of the body. D. constrict and draw blood to the skin's surface.

B. constrict and divert blood away from the skin

You are transporting a 66-year-old male to the hospital following a seizure. As you reassess him, you note that his mental status is improving and he is now talking to you. You should: A. administer an IV fluid bolus to maintain perfusion. B. continue oxygenation and further monitoring. C. request a paramedic intercept in case he seizes again. D. reassess his vital signs every 3 minutes during transport.

B. continue oxygenation and further monitoring

An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: A. ignore the patient' s feelings and focus on his/her medical complaint. B. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful. C. reassure your patient everything will be all right, even if it will not be. D. demand that the patient be quiet and cooperative during transport

B. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful

Priority treatment for a patient with an open soft-tissue injury includes: A. wound decontamination. B. control of active bleeding. C. prevention of hypothermia. D. IV crystalloid fluid boluses.

B. control of active bleeding

A 31-year-old man was stabbed in the chest during an altercation at a bar. He is semiconscious and has shallow breathing. As your partner assists the patient's ventilations, you perform a rapid assessment and find a single stab wound to the left anterior chest with minimal bleeding. Breath sounds on the side of the injury are markedly diminished. You should: A. request a paramedic unit to perform a needle chest decompression. B. cover the wound with an occlusive dressing and continue your assessment. C. advise your partner to ventilate the patient with a manually-triggered device. D. reassess the status of the patient's airway and the adequacy of his breathing.

B. cover the wound with an occlusive dressing and continue your assessment

The only upper airway structure that forms a complete ring is the: A. glottis. B. cricoid cartilage. C. thyroid cartilage. D. inferior trachea.

B. cricoid cartilage

A 62-year-old female with a history of type 2 diabetes has sustained partial-thickness burns to 27% of her body surface area (BSA). This burn should be classified as a: A. first-degree burn. B. critical burn. C. minor burn. D. moderate burn.

B. critical burn

When replacing lost volume with crystalloids, it is important to remember that: A. one mL should be given for every 3 mL of estimated blood loss. B. crystalloids do not have the capacity of carrying oxygen. C. one-third of the fluid will leave the vascular spaces within an hour. D. giving too little fluid may interfere with the process of hemostasis.

B. crystalloids do not have the capacity of carrying oxygen

Following blunt head trauma, a 44-year-old male presents with clear, watery fluid draining from his nose. You should suspect: A. early herniation of the brainstem. B. damage to all of the meningeal layers. C. rapidly increasing intracranial pressure. D. fracture of the basilar region of the skull.

B. damage to all of the meningeal layers

After inserting an IV catheter into a vein, you should: A. keep the angle of the catheter at 45° and slide the catheter off the needle. B. decrease the angle of the catheter to 15° and insert the catheter a few mm farther. C. decrease the angle of the catheter to 45° and insert the catheter 1" farther. D. increase the angle of the catheter to 90° and insert the catheter a few mm farther.

B. decrease the angle of the catheter to 15° and insert the catheter a few mm farther

Patients with hypothyroidism often gain weight because of: A. chronic water retention. B. decreased metabolism. C. excessive adipose tissue. D. an overactive appetite.

B. decreased metabolism

Upon arriving at the scene of a motorcycle crash, you find the patient, a young male, lying supine approximately 10 feet from his bike. An emergency medical responder is manually stabilizing the patient's head. You note an obvious open injury to the patient's left lower leg with severe bleeding. Your MOST appropriate initial action should be to: A. open the patient's airway and assess respiratory rate, regularity, and depth. B. direct your partner to control the bleeding as you assess the patient's airway. C. locate and control all obvious bleeding and then perform a primary assessment. D. have your partner assume control of the patient's head as you open the airway.

B. direct your partner to control the bleeding as you assess the patient's airway

A self-motivated AEMT should be able to: A. perform or delegate multiple tasks ensuring efficiency and safety. B. discover problems and solve them without someone else's direction. C. use his or her persona to project a sense of trust and professionalism. D. perform consistently and firmly adhere to a code of honest behavior.

B. discover problems and solve them without someone else's direction

After removing the stylet from the IV catheter, you should next: A. occlude the proximal end of the catheter to prevent blood leaking. B. dispose of the needle in the appropriate container. C. remove the constricting band from the patient's arm. D. attach the prepared IV line to the catheter.

B. dispose of the needle in the appropriate container

Patients receive the MOST benefit from continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP): A. during the inhalation phase. B. during the exhalation phase. C. if their respiratory rate is greater than 30 breaths/min. D. when the PEEP setting is at least 10 cm/H2O.

B. during the exhalation phase

During your assessment of a patient who experienced a blast injury, you note that he has a depressed area to the front of his skull. This injury MOST likely occurred: A. as a direct result of the pressure wave. B. during the tertiary phase.

B. during the tertiary phase

A 22-year-old female complains of pain during sexual intercourse. This is referred to as: A. menarche. B. dyspareunia. C. dysmenorrhea. D. amenorrhea.

B. dyspareunia

A mixture of two liquids that are not mutually soluble is called a/an: A. elixir. B. emulsion. C. solution. D. suspension.

B. emulsion

You are dispatched to a residence for a 5-year-old child with fever. During your assessment, the child becomes irritable and starts crying. You should: A. carefully restrain the child and continue your assessment. B. encourage a parent or caregiver to hold the child. C. ask the parent or caregiver to leave the room. D. limit your assessment to a visual inspection of the child

B. encourage a parent or caregiver to hold the child.

You have inserted an IV catheter into a vein in a patient's hand and have secured the IV line appropriately. You assess the flow of the IV and note that it is not flowing. You should FIRST: A. gently manipulate the catheter until the IV starts flowing. B. ensure that the constricting band has been released. C. immediately stop the infusion and apply pressure. D. lower the IV bag to see if blood flows up the IV tubing.

B. ensure that the constricting band has been released

When restraining a violent patient, it is important to: A. utilize at least 3 people to effectively restrain the patient. B. ensure that you have taken standard precautions first. C. use significant force to effectively subdue the patient. D. avoid talking to the patient during the restraining process.

B. ensure that you have taken standard precautions first

A patient with closed head trauma would MOST likely deteriorate rapidly following a/an: A. cerebral concussion. B. epidural hematoma. C. cerebral contusion. D. subdural hemorrhage.

B. epidural hematoma

The opening to the trachea is guarded by a cartilaginous flap called the: A. vallecula. B. epiglottis. C. cricoid cartilage. D. thyroid cartilage.

B. epiglottis

Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that results in: A. spontaneous collapsing of one or both lungs. B. excess sodium loss and thick pulmonary secretions. C. acute pulmonary edema and diffuse bronchospasm. D. profound dehydration and a fever greater than 102°F.

B. excess sodium loss and thick pulmonary secretions

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) increases when: A. a person's respiratory rate is significantly increased. B. excessive carbon dioxide is dissolved in the plasma. C. carbon dioxide moves across the pulmonary capillaries. D. a patient is hyperventilated with a bag-mask device.

B. excessive carbon dioxide is dissolved in the plasma

Kussmaul respirations indicate that the respiratory system is: A. trying to lower the blood's pH. B. excreting ketones from the blood. C. compensating for severe hypoxia. D. removing lactic acid from the body.

B. excreting ketones from the blood

When documenting your assessment of a patient with a headache, you should include pertinent negatives, which are: A. findings associated with other disease processes. B. expected signs or symptoms that are not present. C. signs that are not consistent with the condition. D. symptoms the patient had with previous episodes.

B. expected signs or symptoms that are not present

For consent to be informed, the AEMT must: A. tell the patient where they are being transported. B. explain the risks and benefits of treatment. C. ensure the patient understands the potential costs. D. explain local EMS protocols to the patient.

B. explain the risks and benefits of treatment

Insulin maintains homeostasis by: A. converting glycogen to glucose. B. facilitating cellular glucose uptake. C. causing the cells to produce glucose. D. increasing blood glucose circulation.

B. facilitating cellular glucose uptake

Two of the MOST common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are: A. low-caliber gunshot wounds and falls. B. falls and motor vehicle collisions. C. gunshot wounds and vehicle ejections. D. motor vehicle collisions and stabbings.

B. falls and motor vehicle collisions

The aorta divides into the two common iliac arteries at the level of the: A. third lumbar vertebra. B. fifth lumbar vertebra. C. eighth thoracic vertebra. D. twelfth thoracic vertebra

B. fifth lumbar vertebra

Following blunt head trauma, a patient becomes combative and verbally abusive. This suggests injury to the: A. brainstem. B. frontal lobe. C. thalamus.

B. frontal lobe

The original chemical name of a drug, which is not capitalized, and is suggested by the drug's first manufacturer is called the: A. trade name. B. generic name. C. official name. D. off-brand name.

B. generic name

When treating a patient with a blood pressure of 80/40 mm Hg due to "pump failure," you should: A. assist the patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin. B. give a 20 mL/kg crystalloid fluid bolus to improve perfusion. C. apply a nonrebreathing mask if the patient is breathing shallowly. D. place the patient in a supine position with his or her legs elevated.

B. give a 20 mL/kg crystalloid fluid bolus to improve perfusion

The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint where the humeral head articulates with the: A. acromion process. B. glenoid fossa. C. acetabulum. D. popliteal fossa.

B. glenoid fossa

When assisting with the delivery of a baby, the minimum standard precautions you should take include: A. gloves, mask, and gown. B. gloves, mask, gown, and eye protection. C. mask, gown, and thorough handwashing. D. eye protection, gloves, and a HEPA respirator.

B. gloves, mask, gown, and eye protection

Excess glucose is stored in the liver and skeletal muscles in the form of: A. glucagon. B. glycogen. C. lactose. D. fructose.

B. glycogen

When assisting a patient with his or her prescribed inhaler, it is important to: A. ensure that the medication is slightly below room temperature. B. have the patient exhale deeply prior to inhaling the medication. C. instruct the patient to hold his or her breath for 20 to 30 seconds. D. avoid a spacer device, as this decreases the medication's efficacy.

B. have the patient exhale deeply prior to inhaling the medication

You are caring for an 11-month-old male who fell from a second-story window and landed on his head. While assessing him, it is important to remember that: A. the size of his head will not allow you to perform a jaw-thrust. B. he could develop hypovolemic shock from intracranial bleeding. C. children with head injuries rarely develop hypovolemic shock. D. the fontanelles are still open and should be assessed for bulging.

B. he could develop hypovolemic shock from intracranial bleeding

A 30-year-old male presents with respiratory distress that began within minutes of being exposed to an unknown chemical at an industrial site. When caring for this patient, it is MOST important to remember that: A. he will likely require frequent suctioning. B. he must be properly decontaminated first. C. aggressive airway management may be needed. D. inhalation injuries can cause aspiration pneumonia.

B. he must be properly decontaminated first

Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the AEMT to: A. determine the vehicle's speed at the time of impact. B. identify contact points and predict potential injuries. C. assess the severity of the third collision of the crash. D. recognize if the driver hit the brakes before impact.

B. identify contact points and predict potential injuries

Roles and responsibilities of the AEMT include: A. performing rapid assessments on all patients. B. identifying patients who are critically ill or injured. C. diagnosing a patient's condition based on assessment. D. providing definitive care for the patient's condition.

B. identifying patients who are critically ill or injured

Trending a critically-injured patient's vital signs will allow you to determine: A. whether or not transport to a trauma center is necessary. B. if the patient's condition is stabilizing or deteriorating. C. the underlying injuries that are making the patient unstable. D. whether or not a rapid head-to-toe assessment is indicated.

B. if the patient's condition is stabilizing or deteriorating

During a motor-vehicle crash, a 3-year-old female, who was properly restrained in her car seat, is crying and asking for her mommy. There is no obvious injury to the child and she is breathing without difficulty. You should: A. remove her from the car seat and immobilize her on a long backboard. B. immobilize her in the car seat and apply padding as needed. C. leave her in the car seat but avoid immobilization to decrease anxiety.

B. immobilize her in the car seat and apply padding as needed

You are extricating a conscious and alert 22-year-old female from her car after she struck the rear end of another car while traveling at 40 mph. She complains only of neck pain and has no visible trauma. Her airbag deployed, but she was not wearing a seatbelt. You should: A. assume that her head struck the windshield upon impact. B. immobilize her spine and perform a focused exam. C. perform a secondary assessment and then transport. D. lift the airbag and assess for steering wheel deformity.

B. immobilize her spine and perform a focused exam

The turbinates, which extend into the nasal passageway, function by: A. decreasing the surface area of the anterior nasopharynx. B. improving filtration, warming, and humidification of inhaled air. C. protecting the nasal septum from injury and preventing it from deviating. D. facilitating drying of the nasal mucosa and maintaining vascular dilation.

B. improving filtration, warming, and humidification of inhaled air

A patient is placed in a Fowler's position. In this position, the body is: A. positioned face-up. B. in a semireclining position. C. supine with the legs elevated.

B. in a semireclining position

The purpose of a constricting band when starting an IV is to: A. reduce lymphatic return to the puncture site. B. increase venous pressure at the puncture site. C. impede arterial flow to the puncture site. D. decrease the flow of venous blood at the puncture site.

B. increase venous pressure at the puncture site

The primary respiratory stimulus in a healthy adult is a/an: A. decreased arterial oxygen level. B. increased arterial carbon dioxide level. C. increased pH level of the venous blood. D. decreased venous level of carbon dioxide.

B. increased arterial carbon dioxide level

Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system results in: A. decreased blood pressure and heart rate. B. increased blood pressure and heart rate. C. vasoconstriction and decreased heart rate. D. vasodilation and a mild heart-rate decrease.

B. increased blood pressure and heart rate

Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. decreased residual volume. B. increased surface area available for air exchange. C. a loss of respiratory muscle mass. D. increased stiffness of the thoracic cage.

B. increased surface area available for air exchange

In late adults, the amount of air left in the lungs after expiration of the maximum amount of air: A. remains unchanged because the lungs have become accustomed to years of breathing pollution. B. increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of stagnant air that remains in the alveoli. C. decreases, which increases diffusion in the lungs and causes an accumulation of carbon dioxide. D. decreases, resulting in widespread collapsing of the alveoli and impaired diffusion of gases.

B. increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of stagnant air that remains in the alveoli

The primary physiologic abnormality that causes diabetes is: A. depletion of blood glucose. B. ineffective action of insulin. C. excessive glycogen production. D. cellular production of ketones.

B. ineffective action of insulin

You are transporting a semiconscious 30-year-old female with an isolated head injury to a local trauma center. When you reassess her, you note that her BP is 78/56 mm Hg and her radial pulses are no longer palpable. You should: A. allow her to remain hypotensive as this will decrease intracranial pressure. B. infuse 20 mL/kg of normal saline as needed to maintain her BP at 90 mm Hg. C. rapidly increase her systolic blood pressure with 1 to 2 liters of normal saline.

B. infuse 20 mL/kg of normal saline as needed to maintain her BP at 90 mm Hg

When treating a patient with CPAP, it is often beneficial to: A. secure the mask with straps to free up the patient's hands. B. initially allow the patient to hold the mask to his or her face. C. set the PEEP to 10 cm/H2O and reassess after 3 to 5 minutes. D. position the patient supine to decrease their work of breathing.

B. initially allow the patient to hold the mask to his or her face

A 16-year-old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should: A. recall that patients in this age group prefer not to be treated as adults. B. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible. C. obtain the majority of your information from one of her parents. D. avoid asking questions that she will feel uncomfortable answering.

B. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible

When administering nitroglycerin via the sublingual route, you should: A. place the medication between the cheek and gum. B. instruct the patient not to chew or swallow the medication. C. slowly inject the medication into the tongue. D. avoid allowing the medication to dissolve too slowly.

B. instruct the patient not to chew or swallow the medication

The laryngeal mask airway (LMA) is indicated when: A. an unconscious patient is apneic and has an intact gag reflex. B. intubation is not possible and mask ventilation is the only option. C. superior protection from aspiration of gastric contents is needed. D. patients require positive-pressure ventilation with high pressures.

B. intubation is not possible and mask ventilation is the only option

An industrial-plant worker was splashed in the left eye with a strong acid chemical. The MOST appropriate initial care for this patient's injury is to: A. neutralize the substance with a strong alkaline solution. B. irrigate the eye laterally, away from the unaffected eye. C. cover the affected eye with a sterile dressing or eye patch. D. limit irrigation of the affected eye to a maximum of 5 minutes.

B. irrigate the eye laterally, away from the unaffected eye

A 22-year-old male was walking on the beach and had sand blown into his eyes. He complains of pain and decreased vision to his right eye. Treatment should include: A. covering both eyes and transporting. B. irrigating his right eye laterally. C. irrigating both eyes simultaneously. D. flushing his eye starting laterally.

B. irrigating his right eye laterally

In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient, assessment of a medical patient: A. almost exclusively focuses on physical signs that indicate the patient is experiencing a problem. B. is focused on the nature of illness, the patient's chief complaint, and the patient's symptoms. C. requires a thorough head-to-toe exam that involves a detailed assessment of all body systems. D. is not as complex for the AEMT, because most patients typically present with classic symptoms.

B. is focused on the nature of illness, the patient's chief complaint, and the patient's symptoms

In contrast to visceral pain, somatic pain: A. is difficult to localize. B. is generally well localized. C. occurs when an organ is stretched. D. is described as burning or gnawing.

B. is generally well localized

Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) is a major female hormone that: A. thickens the endometrium in preparation for implantation of an egg. B. is manufactured by the developing embryo to sustain the pregnancy. C. is produced by the corpus luteum in preparation for pregnancy. D. regulates the release of estrogen and progesterone from the ovaries.

B. is manufactured by the developing embryo to sustain the pregnancy

Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air that: A. remains in the lungs following expiration. B. is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath. C. is moved in out of the lungs following maximal expiration. D. is exhaled from the lungs following a forceful exhalation.

B. is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath

Insulin and glucagon are produced in specialized groups of cells in the pancreas known as the: A. adrenal islets. B. islets of Langerhans. C. medullary cortex. D. adrenal medulla.

B. islets of Langerhans

You should attempt to remove an imbedded stinger from a patient who was stung by a bee because: A. it is likely to cause severe local swelling and intense pain. B. it can inject venom for up to 20 minutes after the initial sting. C. the toxicity of the venom increases when it enters the bloodstream. D. desensitization to the venom will occur following prolonged exposure.

B. it can inject venom for up to 20 minutes after the initial sting

The two major veins that drain the head and neck of blood are the: A. vertebral veins. B. jugular veins. C. cerebral veins. D. cephalic veins.

B. jugular veins

During a football game, a 16-year-old male was "speared" in the right flank by another player. This mechanism of injury is MOST suggestive of injury to the: A. liver. B. kidney. C. gallbladder. D. urinary bladder.

B. kidney

Physical signs that indicate an emotionally disturbed patient may become violent include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. inability to sit still. B. large physical stature. C. bizarre speech patterns. D. tense or rigid posture

B. large physical stature

Following direct trauma to the upper part of the anterior neck, a young male presents with labored breathing, loss of voice, and subcutaneous emphysema in the soft tissues around his neck. You should suspect a/an: A. esophageal tear. B. laryngeal fracture. C. crushed cricoid. D. collapsed trachea.

B. laryngeal fracture

The left main coronary artery rapidly divides into the: A. posterior descending and left ventricular arteries. B. left anterior descending and circumflex arteries. C. left posterior descending and acute marginal arteries. D. circumflex and right anterior descending arteries.

B. left anterior descending and circumflex arteries

An AEMT witnessed a call in which his partner gave adequate physical care; however, he was deliberately rude because the patient was thought to be infected with HIV. The AEMT ignored his partner's treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the AEMT is considered: A. legal and ethical. B. legal but unethical. C. illegal but ethical. D. illegal and unethical.

B. legal but unethical

When caring for a patient with a behavioral emergency, it is important for you to: A. spend minimal time at the scene and transport the patient quickly. B. let the patient tell you what happened in his or her own words. C. clearly identify yourself as being in charge and set ground rules. D. qualify the patient's hallucinations in order to gain his or her trust.

B. let the patient tell you what happened in his or her own words

During your rapid assessment of an unconscious 67-year-old female, you note signs of shock and the presence of hematochezia. You should be MOST suspicious for: A. bleeding within the retroperitoneum. B. lower gastrointestinal bleeding. C. a leaking abdominal aortic aneurysm. D. upper gastrointestinal bleeding.

B. lower gastrointestinal bleeding

A 59-year-old female with a history of poorly controlled hypertension becomes acutely dyspneic, develops profound cyanosis to the upper chest, and becomes unresponsive. She is pulseless and apneic upon your arrival. As you and your partner are performing the appropriate treatment interventions, you discuss the possible cause of her condition, which is MOST likely a(n): A. acute myocardial infarction. B. massive pulmonary embolism. C. large tension pneumothorax. D. massive atraumatic hemothorax.

B. massive pulmonary embolism

According to the terminal drop hypothesis: A. a person's physical health begins to decline after the age of 75 years. B. mental function is presumed to decline in the 5 years preceding death. C. most late-stage adults retain high brain function until 1 month before death. D. most elderly patients experience depression after the death of a loved one.

B. mental function is presumed to decline in the 5 years preceding death

You are dispatched for an elderly male with dyspnea. When you arrive, you find the patient sitting in a chair. He is semiconscious and unable to effectively communicate with you. As you perform a primary assessment, your partner applies 100% oxygen and a pulse oximeter, which reads 85%. The MOST reliable indicator of cerebral hypoxia in this patient is his: A. complaint of dyspnea. B. mental status alteration. C. inability to communicate. D. decreased oxygen saturation.

B. mental status alteration

A certified AEMT is a prehospital care provider who has: A. been granted permission to engage in emergency medical care. B. met certain predetermined standards to ensure safe and ethical practice. C. successfully completed a state-approved AEMT training program. D. the authority to practice emergency medicine without physician oversight.

B. met certain predetermined standards to ensure safe and ethical practice

Unresponsive patients MOST often experience airway obstructions from: A. coagulated blood or thick mucus in the mouth. B. occlusion of the posterior pharynx by the tongue. C. loose dentures that fall back into the posterior pharynx. D. foreign bodies, such as food, that block the glottic opening.

B. occlusion of the posterior pharynx by the tongue

When documenting medical terminology on a patient care form, you should: A. use abbreviations unique to your protocols. B. only use standard medical abbreviations. C. spell the word to the best of your ability. D. avoid the use of medical abbreviations

B. only use standard medical abbreviations

You are dispatched to a football game, where a spectator fell approximately 20 from the stands. As you approach the patient, you can see that he has obvious bilateral femur fractures and is not moving. Your initial action should be to: Select one: A. begin assisting his ventilations. B. open his airway and assess his breathing. C. stabilize his legs to prevent further injury. D. apply 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.

B. open his airway and assess his breathing.

You are dispatched to the residence of a 30-year-old female who complains of severe weakness and vomiting. During your assessment, you note that she is incontinent of urine, has copious oral secretions, and is tearing. Her BP is 88/58 mm Hg, pulse is 40 beats/min and weak, and respirations are 24 breaths/min with adequate depth. You should suspect: A. severe food poisoning. B. organophosphate poisoning. C. methamphetamine overdose. D. that she has abused cocaine.

B. organophosphate poisoning

As an AEMT, the MOST commonly inhaled medication you will administer is: A. Ventolin. B. oxygen. C. Alupent. D. Albuterol.

B. oxygen

During your assessment of a patient, you note that he is bradycardic, hypotensive, and salivating. These clinical findings suggest: A. sympathetic nervous system stimulation. B. parasympathetic nervous system stimulation. C. sympathetic nervous system depression.

B. parasympathetic nervous system stimulation

All of the following are facial bones, EXCEPT the: A. maxilla. B. parietal. C. palatine.

B. parietal

A trauma patient who presents with shock, jugular venous distention, and bilaterally equal breath sounds has MOST likely experienced a: A. simple pneumothorax. B. pericardial tamponade. C. pulmonary contusion. D. massive hemothorax.

B. pericardial tamponade

The presence of gastric juices and bacteria in the abdominal cavity causes an intense inflammatory reaction called: A. gastritis. B. peritonitis. C. diverticulitis. D. appendicitis.

B. peritonitis

During an infection, white blood cells consume bacteria and foreign particles. This process is called: A. pinocytosis. B. phagocytosis. C. endocytosis. D. exocytosis.

B. phagocytosis

The study of the properties and effects of medications on the body is called: A. pharmacodynamics. B. pharmacology. C. pharmacokinetics. D. toxicology.

B. pharmacology

With regard to substance abuse, tolerance is defined as a: A. chronic disorder characterized by the compulsive use of a substance that results in physical or psychological harm. B. physiologic adaptation to the effects of a drug such that increasingly larger doses are required to achieve the same effect. C. physiologic state of adaptation to a drug, which is characterized by withdrawal symptoms if the drug is stopped. D. predictable set of signs and symptoms that occurs after the abrupt cessation of a drug or after rapidly decreasing the dosage.

B. physiologic adaptation to the effects of a drug such that increasingly larger doses are required to achieve the same effect

Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant? A. walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions B. places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up C. responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently D. knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance

B. places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up

You are dispatched to an office complex for a middle-aged male with acute abdominal pain. Your assessment reveals that he is conscious, restless, and in severe pain. His airway is patent, his breathing is adequate, and his vital signs are stable. Treatment for this patient should include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. avoiding giving him anything to drink. B. placing him supine and elevating his legs. C. 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. D. A large-bore IV set to keep the vein open.

B. placing him supine and elevating his legs

An example of intravascular fluid is: A. cerebrospinal fluid. B. plasma. C. intraocular fluid. D. amniotic fluid.

B. plasma

The pneumotaxic center is located in the __________, and functions by: A. medulla oblongata; causing inspiration when stimulated. B. pons; inhibiting the dorsal respiratory group and increases the speed and depth of breathing. C. medulla oblongata; causing forced inspiration or expiration.

B. pons; inhibiting the dorsal respiratory group and increases the speed and depth of breathing

You and your team attempted to resuscitate a young male who hung himself in his garage. Despite your best efforts, the patient did not survive. When the medical examiner arrives at the scene, you should: A. advise the medical examiner that he or she cannot examine the body without your medical director's permission. B. provide information to the medical examiner, such as the position in which the patient was found upon your arrival. C. allow the patient's family to spend some time with the body before the medical examiner begins his or her duties. D. remove any airway adjuncts from the patient before the medical examiner begins his or her examination of the patient.

B. provide information to the medical examiner, such as the position in which the patient was found upon your arrival

As blood enters the lungs, it enters the alveoli by passing across the: A. pulmonary arteriole. B. pulmonary capillary. C. pulmonary venule. D. pulmonary artery.

B. pulmonary capillary

Systemic vascular resistance is the resistance to blood flow within all the blood vessels, EXCEPT the: A. cerebral vessels. B. pulmonary vessels. C. coronary vessels. D. mesenteric vessels.

B. pulmonary vessels

The opening in the center of the iris, which allows light to move to the back of the eye, is called the: A. sclera. B. pupil. C. cornea. D. conjunctiva.

B. pupil

When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy: A. doubles. B. quadruples.

B. quadruples

Common signs and symptoms associated with an acute abdomen include: A. coughing up of blood. B. rapid and shallow breathing. C. pain radiating from the abdomen. D. chronic constipation and diarrhea.

B. rapid and shallow breathing

When performing the rapid body scan on an unresponsive patient, you should follow the same approach as the: A. secondary assessment. B. rapid trauma assessment. C. general impression. D. primary assessment.

B. rapid trauma assessment

A 6-year-old female was riding her bicycle and struck a clothesline with her throat. She is breathing, but with obvious difficulty. Your assessment reveals a crackling sensation in the soft tissues of her neck and facial cyanosis. In addition to the appropriate airway management, the intervention that will MOST likely improve her chance of survival is: A. requesting a paramedic ambulance. B. rapidly transporting her to the hospital. C. quickly immobilizing her spinal column. D. careful monitoring of her vital signs.

B. rapidly transporting her to the hospital

You note little movement of an apneic patient's chest when you and your partner are ventilating with the two-person bag-mask device technique. You should: A. use a flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device. B. reassess the position of the patient's airway and readjust if needed. C. insert a multilumen airway device and continue bag-mask ventilations. D. continue ventilating the patient and reassess him or her in two minutes.

B. reassess the position of the patient's airway and readjust if needed

A burn occurs when the soft tissue of the skin: A. is severely damaged by thermal or friction heat. B. receives more energy than it can absorb without injury. C. degrades due to exposure to radioactive substances. D. is exposed to caustic or corrosive chemicals.

B. receives more energy than it can absorb without injury

An apneic 2-year-old child with a heart rate of 110 beats/min is being ventilated with a bag-mask device at a rate of 20 breaths/min. After 2 minutes of ventilations, you note that the child's heart rate is 80 beats/min. You should: A. increase the rate and depth of your ventilations. B. recognize that your ventilations are not adequate. C. switch to a manually-triggered ventilation device.

B. recognize that your ventilations are not adequate

During times of decreased perfusion, the autonomic nervous system: A. causes vasodilation to increase venous capacitance. B. redirects blood to the most vital organs of the body. C. decreases the heart rate so as to decrease oxygen demand. D. diverts all available blood flow to the kidneys.

B. redirects blood to the most vital organs of the body

A 56-year-old male complains of pain to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen and pain to his right shoulder; however, he denies pain in between his abdomen and shoulder. This is characteristic of: A. colic pain. B. referred pain. C. radiating pain. D. splenic irritation.

B. referred pain

Kehr sign is defined as: A. the presence of flank bruising secondary to intraabdominal bleeding. B. referred pain to the shoulder following injury to the liver or spleen. C. bruising around the umbilicus secondary to intraabdominal bleeding.

B. referred pain to the shoulder following injury to the liver or spleen

When a motor vehicle strikes a tree while traveling at 40 mph, the unrestrained occupant: A. is thrust under the steering column onto the floorboard. B. remains in motion until acted upon by an external force. C. will decelerate at the same rate as the motor vehicle. D. will most likely be thrown over the steering column.

B. remains in motion until acted upon by an external force

A patient in cardiac arrest requires defibrillation with an AED. You remove his shirt and see a nitroglycerin patch applied to his right upper chest. You should: A. place the defibrillator pad at least 1" from the patch. B. remove the patch and wipe off the excess medication. C. defibrillate the patient without regard for the patch. D. delay defibrillation until a paramedic removes the patch.

B. remove the patch and wipe off the excess medication

Chest trauma is a common cause of respiratory acidosis, and rapidly leads to death because the: A. pH level of the blood increases precipitously. B. renal system cannot compensate quickly enough. C. body eliminates CO2 more rapidly than it is produced. D. kidneys fail and are unable to normalize the blood's pH

B. renal system cannot compensate quickly enough

You have just established an IV on a critically injured patient. As you prepare to dispose of the needle in the appropriate container, you get stuck with the needle. You should: A. immerse your wound in water or a sterile saline solution. B. report the incident to your supervisor as soon as possible. C. ignore the wound, since this was not a significant exposure. D. cease patient care and immediately seek medical attention

B. report the incident to your supervisor as soon as possible

Shortly after arriving home from the airport, a 19-year-old male experienced an acute onset of sharp chest pain and difficulty breathing. He denies a history of trauma. Your assessment reveals that he is in moderate distress and is tachycardic. Breath sounds are diminished over the apex of the right lung. You should suspect a/an: A. localized hemothorax. B. spontaneous pneumothorax. C. acute onset of pneumonia. D. developing tension pneumothorax.

B. spontaneous pneumothorax

During your rapid assessment of a semiconscious 44-year-old female with blunt thoracic trauma, you detect an area on the left anterior chest that bulges during exhalation. Your partner is assisting her ventilations with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen. You should: A. advise your partner to increase the rate and depth of ventilations. B. stabilize the chest wall deformity and continue your assessment. C. call for a paramedic crew to perform a needle chest decompression. D. place a sandbag over the deformed area and auscultate breath sounds.

B. stabilize the chest wall deformity and continue your assessment

The manner in which you are required to act or behave while providing emergency care is called: A. duty to act. B. standard of care. C. scope of practice. D. local protocol adherence.

B. standard of care

You are dispatched to a residence for a 60-year-old diabetic male who is unresponsive. As you are assessing the patient, your partner attempts to obtain a blood glucose reading; however, the glucometer reads "error" after two attempts. You should manage this patient's airway appropriately and then: A. transport rapidly to the closest appropriate facility. B. start an IV and administer 50 mL of 50% dextrose. C. treat him for hyperglycemia with severe ketoacidosis. D. administer oral glucose in between his cheek and gum.

B. start an IV and administer 50 mL of 50% dextrose

The self-administration of licit or illicit substances in a manner that is not consistent with approved medical or social practice is called: A. drug addiction. B. substance abuse. C. unintentional poisoning. D. psychological dependence.

B. substance abuse

To become a licensed AEMT, a candidate must: A. be capable of lifting and carrying at least 150 pounds. B. successfully complete a healthcare provider CPR course. C. have been a licensed EMT for a period of at least 3 years. D. obtain permission from the state in which he or she will function.

B. successfully complete a healthcare provider CPR course

When suctioning the airway of a child, you should: A. provide continuous suctioning until the airway is clear. B. suction for 10 seconds and reassess the child's airway. C. insert the catheter well beyond the base of the tongue. D. suction in a circular motion while inserting the catheter.

B. suction for 10 seconds and reassess the child's airway

A 19-year-old male has sustained severe facial trauma after being assaulted. He is responsive to pain only, has rapid and shallow respirations, and oropharyngeal bleeding. After opening the airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver, you should A. insert a multilumen airway device and assist ventilations. B. suction his airway and assist ventilations with a bag-mask device. C. place 4x4 gauze pads in his mouth to control the bleeding.

B. suction his airway and assist ventilations with a bag-mask device

Patients with internal bleeding are in MOST need of: A. IV fluid boluses. B. surgical intervention. C. high-flow oxygen. D. thermal management.

B. surgical intervention

After several years in EMS, you begin to experience chronic stress. An effective way to deal with this is to: A. leave EMS and pursue another profession. B. sustain friends or activities outside of EMS C. maintain "zero tolerance" for problematic patients. D. manage the stress in seclusion so you can concentrate.

B. sustain friends or activities outside of EMS

Medications that fight or antagonize the effects of the sympathetic nervous system are referred to as being: A. anticholinergic. B. sympathomimetic. C. sympatholytic. D. parasympatholytic.

B. sympathomimetic

Amphetamines and methamphetamines are examples of: A. sympatholytics. B. sympathomimetics. C. anticholinergics. D. parasympatholytics.

B. sympathomimetics

The __________, which is present wherever a nerve cell terminates, connects to the next cell via__________. A. axon, catecholamines B. synapse, neurotransmitters C. dendrite, nerve fibers D. neuron, catecholamines

B. synapse, neurotransmitters

Potential side effects of epinephrine include: A. hypotension and lethargy. B. tachycardia and hypertension. C. facial flushing and weakness. D. bronchospasm and hypoxemia.

B. tachycardia and hypertension

When caring for a patient who takes numerous medications, it is best to: A. document the medications on your patient care report, but leave them at home so they do not get misplaced. B. take all of the patient's medications with you to the hospital and document them on your patient care report. C. send the patient's medications to the hospital with a family member or other person who will safeguard them. D. let the hospital staff retrieve the patient's medical records, which should show a list of his or her current medications.

B. take all of the patient's medications with you to the hospital and document them on your patient care report

A 48-year-old male fell approximately 20' from his roof. As you approach him, you note that his eyes are closed and that he is not moving. His respirations are gurgling and you see blood draining from his mouth. You should A. immediately suction his airway. B. take proper standard precautions.

B. take proper standard precautions

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to: A. contact medical control. B. take standard precautions. C. quickly access the patient. D. notify law enforcement.

B. take standard precautions

Prior to administering an oral medication to a patient, you must: A. carefully assess the patient. B. take standard precautions. C. contact medical control to obtain authorization. D. determine the need for the medication.

B. take standard precautions

You are dispatched for a young male who, according to witnesses, is "not acting right." The patient is found sitting on the ground outside of a grocery store, rocking back and forth. He has blood on his arm from an apparent wound to his wrist. You should: A. quickly make contact with him and control the bleeding from his wrist. B. talk to him as you approach him, but be prepared for him to turn violent. C. ask the patient to stand up so you can assess his balance and coordination. D. recognize that his movements are purposeful and do not suggest violence.

B. talk to him as you approach him, but be prepared for him to turn violent

The fifth link in the cardiac chain of survival includes: A. recognition of early warning signs and activation of EMS. B. temperature regulation and maintenance of glucose levels. C. early, high-quality CPR with emphasis on chest compressions. D. defibrillation within the first 2 to 3 minutes of the cardiac arrest.

B. temperature regulation and maintenance of glucose levels

A 68-year-old male presents with confusion, left-sided hemiparesis, and decreased muscle tone to the right side of his face. You administer oxygen, start an IV, and begin transport to the hospital. En route, the patient becomes more coherent and slowly regains use of his left arm. These findings are MOST suggestive of: A. permanent injury to the left side of the brain. B. temporary ischemia to the right side of the brain. C. an impending massive stroke within 24 hours. D. a transient infarct to the right side of the brain.

B. temporary ischemia to the right side of the brain

Common prehospital treatment for patients with severe burns includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. advanced airway care. B. tetanus prophylaxis. C. crystalloid fluid boluses. D. contamination prevention.

B. tetanus prophylaxis

Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is: Select one: A. between 30 and 40 mm Hg in the average person. B. the blood pressure required to sustain organ perfusion. C. calculated by multiplying heart rate and stroke volume. D. solely dependent on systemic vascular resistance.

B. the blood pressure required to sustain organ perfusion.

With increasing age, the heart must work harder to move the blood effectively because: A. diastolic blood pressure decreases. B. the blood vessels become stiff. C. the arteries dilate significantly.

B. the blood vessels become stiff

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) occurs when: A. the kidneys excrete large amounts of glucose from the body. B. the body's cells metabolize fat as an immediate energy source. C. excessive amounts of cellular glucose cause ketone production. D. lactic acid is produced within the cell in the absence of glucose.

B. the body's cells metabolize fat as an immediate energy source

Any injury at the nipple line should be considered a thoracic and abdominal injury because: A. the liver, spleen, and stomach are completely protected by the ribs. B. the diaphragm may elevate as high as the nipple line upon exhalation. C. penetrating injuries to the upper chest often result in liver lacerations. D. the diaphragm ascends into the chest cavity during the inspiration phase.

B. the diaphragm may elevate as high as the nipple line upon exhalation

When the King LT airway is properly inserted: A. the AEMT must maintain the patient's head in a slightly flexed position. B. the distal cuff seals the esophagus and the proximal cuff seals the oropharynx. C. air directly enters the trachea through the opening at the distal end of the device. D. the patient's airway is completely protected from aspiration if regurgitation occurs.

B. the distal cuff seals the esophagus and the proximal cuff seals the oropharynx

The main benefit of using a mechanical piston or load-distributing band device for chest compressions is: Select one: A. the minimal training required to correctly operate the devices. B. the elimination of rescuer fatigue that results from manual compressions. C. the elimination of the need to place a firm, flat device under the patient. D. its ability to be used with any patient, regardless of age, weight, or body size.

B. the elimination of rescuer fatigue that results from manual compressions.

A male patient with a history of congestive heart failure presents with orthopnea. This means that: A. he cannot breathe effectively unless he is sitting upright. B. the severity of his respiratory difficulty varies with position. C. he must lie in a supine position in order to breathe effectively. D. his respiratory difficulty is severe regardless of his position.

B. the severity of his respiratory difficulty varies with position

Your assessment of a 40-year-old male with an altered mental status (AMS) reveals the obvious odor of alcohol on his breath. When documenting the events of the call, you should state that: A. the patient's blood alcohol concentration is high. B. the smell of alcohol was noted on the patient's breath. C. the patient appeared to be acutely intoxicated. D. alcohol cannot be ruled out as the cause of his AMS.

B. the smell of alcohol was noted on the patient's breath

An EMS system's primary service area (PSA) is the area where: A. all initial and continuing EMS education must be offered. B. the system is responsible for the provision of emergency care. C. the medical director allows personnel to exceed their scope of practice. D. communication via two-way radios or cellular phones operate optimally

B. the system is responsible for the provision of emergency care

Hypoxia is a condition in which: A. there is a deficiency of oxygen in the arterial blood. B. there is a lack of oxygen to the body's cells and tissues. C. lactic acid is produced secondary to anaerobic metabolism. D. carbon dioxide accumulates in the blood to dangerous levels.

B. there is a lack of oxygen to the body's cells and tissues

Unlike IM or SC injections, intravenously administered drugs rapidly affect the body because: A. they are excreted from the body more slowly. B. they bypass most barriers to drug absorption. C. they do not have to pass through the liver. D. their strength doubles as they enter the bloodstream.

B. they bypass most barriers to drug absorption

Hypoglycemic crisis tends to develop more often and more severely in children because: A. they have larger glucose stores than adults do. B. they do not always eat correctly and on schedule. C. their cells do not uptake glucose as fast as adults' do. D. their low activity levels cause rapid glucose depletion.

B. they do not always eat correctly and on schedule

Calcitonin is secreted by the: A. adrenal glands. B. thyroid gland. C. parathyroid glands. D. pituitary gland.

B. thyroid gland

A potential complication associated with the administration of D50 is: A. respiratory depression and significant bradycardia. B. tissue necrosis if it extravasates into the soft tissues. C. exacerbated hyperkalemia in a patient taking diuretics. D. increased blood glucose levels and acute water retention.

B. tissue necrosis if it extravasates into the soft tissues

A 40-year-old female with chronic anxiety finds that she requires more of her anti-anxiety medication in order to achieve the same effect. This is an example of: A. addiction. B. tolerance. C. dependence. D. potentiation.

B. tolerance

A 54-year-old male convenience store clerk was shot in the left anterior chest during an attempted robbery. After ensuring that the scene is safe, you enter the store and perform a primary assessment. The patient is semiconscious, is in severe respiratory distress, and is pale. Further assessment reveals absent breath sounds on the left side of his chest, collapsed jugular veins, and a blood pressure of 70/44 mm Hg. In addition to managing his airway, you should: A. ventilate the patient at a rate of 20-24 breaths per minute. B. transport immediately and perform invasive procedures en route. C. start two large-bore IVs and give a 20 mL/kg bolus of normal saline. D. perform a detailed secondary assessment and then transport rapidly.

B. transport immediately and perform invasive procedures en route

When caring for a patient with significant thoracic trauma and signs of shock, it is MOST important to: A. establish two large-bore IV lines. B. transport promptly to a trauma center. C. perform a detailed secondary assessment. D. administer high-flow oxygen at all times.

B. transport promptly to a trauma center

A 66-year-old female is found unresponsive in her front yard by a neighbor. You perform a primary assessment and begin the appropriate treatment. There are no bystanders or witnesses to the patient's event. You should: A. attempt to notify the patient's family members. B. transport the patient without delay. C. inspect the patient's home for medications. D. question other neighbors about the patient.

B. transport the patient without delay

In the absence of obvious external trauma, an abdominal injury would be MOST difficult to assess for in a/an: A. intoxicated patient. B. unresponsive patient. C. hypovolemic patient. D. patient in severe pain .

B. unresponsive patient

Radiation is released into the atmosphere when: A. atoms lose their charge and increase their production of energy. B. unstable atoms emit excess energy in an attempt to stabilize. C. stable atoms become unstable and produce excess energy. D. it becomes ionized and its atoms become stable in their charge.

B. unstable atoms emit excess energy in an attempt to stabilize

An anaphylactic reaction impairs effective breathing secondary to: A. catecholamine release. B. upper-airway swelling. C. diffuse alveolar collapse. D. excess fluid in the alveoli.

B. upper-airway swelling

Compared to monophasic defibrillation, biphasic defibrillation is advantageous because it: A. sends the shock in one direction within the heart. B. utilizes less energy to achieve effective defibrillation. C. works more effectively when 360 joules are delivered. D. automatically defibrillates without AEMT intervention.

B. utilizes less energy to achieve effective defibrillation

The _____________ is the outermost cavity of a woman's reproductive system and forms the lower portion of the birth canal. A. cervix B. vagina C. uterus D. fundus

B. vagina

A stable patient requires an IV line in the event that medication therapy is needed. When selecting the appropriate vein, you should first attempt to cannulate the: A. medial forearm vein. B. vein on the hand. C. antecubital vein. D. lateral forearm vein.

B. vein on the hand

If used in pediatric patients, butterfly catheters are commonly placed in the: A. antecubital vein. B. veins of the scalp. C. anterior forearm. D. back of the hand.

B. veins of the scalp

Blood enters the right atrium through the: A. left and right coronary arteries. B. vena cavae and coronary sinus. C. foramen ovalis and vena cavae. D. coronary artery and foramen ovale.

B. vena cavae and coronary sinus

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is manufactured in the: A. subarachnoid space. B. ventricles of the brain. C. posterior pituitary gland. D. anterior pituitary gland.

B. ventricles of the brain

Closure of the tricuspid and mitral valves occur during: A. ventricular relaxation. B. ventricular contraction. C. the diastolic phase. D. atrial contraction.

B. ventricular contraction

The MOST common cardiac dysrhythmia associated with sudden cardiac death following an acute myocardial infarction is: A. ventricular tachycardia. B. ventricular fibrillation. C. pulseless electrical activity. D. tachycardia without a pulse.

B. ventricular fibrillation

The lungs are covered with a thin, slippery outer membrane called the: A. parietal pleura. B. visceral pleura. C. peritoneal pleura. D. parenchymal pleura.

B. visceral pleura

Following exposure to an allergen, an individual will MOST likely experience a severe allergic reaction if he or she: A. has not been exposed to the same allergen in the past. B. was previously exposed and sensitized to the allergen. C. is taking medications that weaken the immune system. D. develops symptoms within 24 hours following exposure.

B. was previously exposed and sensitized to the allergen

The most common solvent in the body, in which solutes or other substances will dissolve, is: A. blood. B. water. C. plasma. D. bile.

B. water

Compared to the patient's chief complaint, the primary problem is: A. what is most significant to the patient. B. what is actually wrong with the patient. C. the reason why the patient called EMS. D. directly related to the patient's medical history.

B. what is actually wrong with the patient

When ventilating an apneic adult with a simple barrier device, you should deliver each breath: Select one: A. over a period of about 1 to 2 seconds. B. while watching for adequate chest rise. C. with a tidal volume of about 500 mL. D. quickly to ensure adequate ventilation.

B. while watching for adequate chest rise.

When using CPAP on a patient with respiratory distress, it is important to remember that: A. it often takes at least 10 to 15 minutes before clinical improvement is noted. B. you are not treating the underlying cause of the patient's respiratory distress. C. the patient's condition is such that he or she will likely need to be intubated. D. most patient's being treated with CPAP experience hypotension at some point.

B. you are not treating the underlying cause of the patient's respiratory distress

When administering a medication via the intranasal route with a mucosal atomizer device, it is important to remember that: A. the patient must be conscious for this route to be effective. B. you must spray half of the medication dose into each nostril. C. at least half of the drug must be diluted in normal saline. D. it will absorb slower than if given via intramuscular injection.

B. you must spray half of the medication dose into each nostril

Index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: A. your prediction of the type of illness a patient has based on how the call is dispatched. B. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness. C. ruling out specific medical conditions based on the absence of certain signs and symptoms. D. determining the underlying cause of a patient's medical condition based on signs and symptoms.

B. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness

The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: A. a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries. B. your concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.

B. your concern for potentially serious underlying injuries

A 39-year-old male with a history of type 1 diabetes is found unresponsive by his wife. When obtaining initial information from the wife, which of the following questions would be LEAST pertinent? A. "Has your husband been ill or unusually stressed recently?" B. "Did your husband take his prescribed insulin and eat today?" C. "Was your husband hospitalized for this problem in the past?" D. "Has your husband's medication regimen been changed recently?"

C. "Was your husband hospitalized for this problem in the past?"

There is 0.5 mg/10 mL of epinephrine in an auto-injector. How many milligrams (mg) would you deliver if you administered 5 milliliters (mL)? A. 0.5 B. 5.0 C. 0.25 D. 2.5

C. 0.25

The dose of epinephrine for patients who weigh more than 66 pounds is: A. 0.15 mg. B. 1.5 mg. C. 0.3 mg. D. 3 mg.

C. 0.3 mg

Which of the following represents a "standard" drug dose? A. 0.5 g/kg B. 1 mg/kg C. 1 mg D. 0.25 mg/kg

C. 1 mg

The mastoid process is located approximately: A. ½" anterior to the external opening of the ear. B. 1" inferior to the external opening of the ear. C. 1" posterior to the external opening of the ear. D. 1" posterior to the angle of the mandible.

C. 1" posterior to the external opening of the ear

How many pairs of ribs are attached anteriorly to the sternum? A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12

C. 10

The MOST appropriate administration set to use for a patient who requires rapid fluid replacement is one that delivers 1 mL of IV fluid per: A. 15 drops. B. 60 drops. C. 10 drops. D. 20 drops.

C. 10 drops

At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children? A. 18 to 24 months B. 6 to 8 months C. 10 to 18 months

C. 10 to 18 months

How many grams are present in 25 mL of 50% dextrose (D50)? A. 50 g B. 25 g C. 12.5 g D. 6.25 g

C. 12.5 g

The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of: A. 21 and 30 years. B. 25 and 35 years. C. 19 and 25 years. D. 18 and 22 years.

C. 19 and 25 years

You are transporting a patient with an IV of D5W. Which of the following signs would be atypical of infiltration? A. Edema at the catheter site B. Tightness and pain around the IV site C. Redness around the IV site

C. Redness around the IV site

Which of the following patients should be assigned a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 8? A. 22-year-old female who opens her eyes in response to pain, is unable to recall the year, and pushes your hand away when you palpate her abdomen B. 16-year-old female who opens her eyes when you talk to her, answers your questions inappropriately, and tells you her leg hurts C. 19-year-old male who does not open his eyes, is making mumbling sounds, and pulls his arm away when you are palpating it

C. 19-year-old male who does not open his eyes, is making mumbling sounds, and pulls his arm away when you are palpating it

A 42-year-old man was splashed in the eye by a corrosive substance. Medical control orders you to irrigate the patient's eye with 2 liters of sterile saline. How many milliliters is this? A. 200,000 B. 200 C. 2,000 D. 20,000

C. 2,000

Extracellular fluid accounts for what percentage of all body fluid? A. 15 % B. 20 % C. 25% D. 30%

C. 25%

To minimize the amount of brain-cell damage that occurs following an ischemic stroke, fibrinolytic therapy must be administered within: A. 3 hours after the call is received. B. 2 hours after assessing the patient. C. 3 hours after the onset of symptoms. D. 2 hours after arriving at the hospital.

C. 3 hours after the onset of symptoms

A 4-year-old boy pulled a pot of boiling water from the stovetop. He has superficial and partial-thickness burns to his head, left anterior trunk, and entire left arm. On the basis of the "rule of nines," what percentage of this child's body surface area (BSA) has been burned? A. 36% B. 27% C. 30% D. 45%

C. 30%

You receive an order from medical control to start an IV of lactated ringers and administer 150 mL/hr. Using macrodrip (15 gtts/mL) tubing, how many drops per minute will you set the flow rate at? A. 40 B. 42 C. 38 D. 44

C. 38

A minimum of _____ personnel should be used to restrain a 17-year-old, 120-pound, violent patient. A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 3

C. 4

A 40-year-old female requires a medication to decrease her heart rate. The medication to be administered is supplied in a prefilled syringe in a concentration of 6 mg/2 mL. How many milliliters are required to achieve a dose of 12 mg? A. 8 mL B. 2 mL C. 4 mL

C. 4 mL

Based solely on the mechanism of injury, which of the following adult patients is at greatest risk for serious injuries? A. 6' 1" patient who fell 14' B. 5' 2" patient who fell 12' C. 4' 5" patient who fell 14' D. 6' 8" patient who fell 13'

C. 4' 5" patient who fell 14'

Which of the following situations would MOST likely require additional personnel or resources at the scene? A. 27-year-old male with a large knife impaled in his leg and minor bleeding B. 52-year-old female with chest pressure and a history of cardiovascular disease C. 40-year-old male with an apparent self-inflicted gunshot wound to the head D. 38-year-old female who fell from a ladder and cannot move below the waist

C. 40-year-old male with an apparent self-inflicted gunshot wound to the head

When high-flow oxygen is attached to the inlet valve of a pocket face mask, oxygen concentrations of up to ____ percent can be delivered to the patient. A. 21 B. 45 C. 55 D. 70

C. 55

The average pulse rate of individuals between 19 and 60 years of age is typically: A. 60 beats/min. B. 80 beats/min. C. 70 beats/min. D. 90 beats/min.

C. 70 beats/min

A 57-year-old male was struck in the head by a falling object. He opens his eyes when you pinch his trapezius muscle, is using inappropriate words, and withdraws from painful stimuli. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is: A. 12. B. 10. C. 9. D. 11.

C. 9

You are transporting a critically-injured patient to a trauma center located 45 minutes away from the scene. At a minimum, how many times should you reassess the patient's vital signs during transport? A. 2 B. 4 C. 9 D. 8

C. 9

Which of the following scenarios is MOST descriptive of an absence seizure? A. A 2-year-old male with high fever and a sudden onset of generalized muscle twitching; symptoms subside after 2 minutes. B. A 4-year-old female with tonic-clonic muscle movement to her entire body; the child remains unresponsive after the event. C. A 6-year-old male who is conscious, but will not respond to his mother; symptoms subside spontaneously within a few minutes. D. An 8-year-old female with a brief period of unresponsiveness and unilateral muscle twitching; becomes agitated after the event.

C. A 6-year-old male who is conscious, but will not respond to his mother; symptoms subside spontaneously within a few minutes

Which of the following patients would you describe as being disoriented? A. A 52-year-old female who responds verbally when you talk to her. B. A 49-year-old male who is unresponsive to all forms of stimuli. C. A 60-year-old female who cannot recall events preceding her illness. D. A 55-year-old male who moans in pain when you pinch his earlobe.

C. A 60-year-old female who cannot recall events preceding her illness

Which of the following patients has experienced a critical burn? A. A 50-year-old with 9% full-thickness burns involving an upper extremity B. A 10-year-old with 45% superficial burns involving the chest and back C. A 65-year-old with 18% partial-thickness burns to both upper extremities D. A 31-year-old with 27% partial-thickness burns who takes antidepressants

C. A 65-year-old with 18% partial-thickness burns to both upper extremities

Of the following, which is the LEAST common sign or symptom of a head injury? A. An irregular respiratory pattern B. Combative or abnormal behavior C. A cardiac rhythm disturbance D. CSF drainage from a scalp wound

C. A cardiac rhythm disturbance

Which of the following general statements about blood pressure measurement is correct? A. A blood pressure cuff that is too large will likely produce a reading that is falsely high B. A blood pressure cuff that is too small will likely produce a reading that is falsely low C. A normal size cuff should take up two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow D. The appearance of Korotkoff sounds when taking a manual blood pressure indicates the diastolic blood pressure

C. A normal size cuff should take up two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow

Which of the following statements regarding the use of the AED in children is correct? Select one: A. AEDs should never be used on children younger than 8 years or less than 55 pounds. B. AEDs are only effective in pediatric patients if severe trauma is the cause of their cardiac arrest. C. AED use in children up to 12 to 14 years of age involves pediatric pads and an energy reducer. D. AEDs are not used in pediatric patients because they do not experience ventricular fibrillation.

C. AED use in children up to 12 to 14 years of age involves pediatric pads and an energy reducer.

You are assessing a 45-year-old male who experienced a syncopal episode. He is conscious and alert, and complains only of slight weakness. He denies any medical problems or drug allergies. His blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, pulse is 40 beats/min, and respirations are 22 breaths/min. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's syncopal episode? A. Severe dehydration B. Hypertensive crisis C. Acute bradycardia D. An acute infection

C. Acute bradycardia

Which of the following conditions would result in the MOST rapid loss of consciousness? A. Ketoacidosis B. Diabetic coma C. Acute hypoglycemia D. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL

C. Acute hypoglycemia

Which of the following processes occurs during normal inspiration? A. An increase in intrathoracic pressure forces air into the lungs B. The phrenic nerves stimulate the intercostal muscles to contract C. Air is pulled into the lungs when intrathoracic pressure decreases D. The diaphragm contract and ascends, increasing the chest diameter

C. Air is pulled into the lungs when intrathoracic pressure decreases

Which of the following is the MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries? A. Cervical spine injury B. External hemorrhage C. Airway compromise D. Damage to the eyes

C. Airway compromise

Which of the following medications would the AEMT help a patient self-administer? A. Glucagon B. Naloxone C. Albuterol D. 50% dextrose

C. Albuterol

Which of the following scenarios is an example of exposure via indirect contact? A. HIV is transmitted to from one person to another through sexual contact. B. A patient coughs up droplets of blood into the AEMT's eyes and mouth. C. An AEMT is stuck with a needle that she used to start an IV on a patient. D. An injured patient bleeds into an uncovered cut on the AEMT's forearm.

C. An AEMT is stuck with a needle that she used to start an IV on a patient

Which of the following statements regarding an infant's vital signs is correct? A. An infant's normal heart rate increases by 10 beats/min each month. B. By 6 months of age, an infant's normal tidal volume is 2 to 4 mL/kg. C. An infant's normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler's. D. An infant's heart rate generally ranges between 70 and 110 beats/min.

C. An infant's normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler's

Which of the following types of shock are caused by "relative hypovolemia?" Select one: A. Obstructive and septic B. Septic and cardiogenic C. Anaphylactic and neurogenic D. Cardiogenic and hemorrhagic

C. Anaphylactic and neurogenic

Which of the following medications or solutions can be administered through an intraosseous line? A. Hypertonic drugs and fluids only B. Whole blood and cardiac medications only C. Anything that you can administer via an IV D. Normal saline and hypotonic drugs only

C. Anything that you can administer via an IV

In addition to oxygen, which of the following medications would the AEMT be the MOST likely to administer to a patient who is experiencing acute chest pain, pressure, or discomfort? A. Aspirin only B. Morphine and aspirin C. Aspirin and nitroglycerin D. Nitroglycerin and morphine

C. Aspirin and nitroglycerin

When treating an anxious and uncooperative patient with chest pain, you state, "If you don't settle down, I am going to put a large IV in your arm." What is this an example of? A. Libel B. Slander C. Assault D. Battery

C. Assault

Mastoid bruising is also referred to as: A. Cullen's sign. B. Gray-Turner's sign. C. Battle's sign. D. raccoon eyes.

C. Battle's sign

Which of the following medications or medical devices may inhibit the body's tachycardic response during shock? A. Aspirin B. Anticoagulant C. Beta-blocker D. Implanted defibrillator

C. Beta-blocker

Which of the following electrolytes determines whether or not the body is acidotic or alkalotic? A. Phosphorus B. Calcium C. Bicarbonate D. Sodium

C. Bicarbonate

Which of the following findings is LEAST suggestive of a head injury? A. One pupil larger in size than the other pupil B. Failure of the eyes to move in the same direction C. Briskly constricting pupils when exposed to light D. Failure of the eyes to follow movement of an object

C. Briskly constricting pupils when exposed to light

Which of the following statements regarding cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is correct? A. The minimum CPP that is needed to adequately perfuse the brain is 40 mm Hg. B. The body responds to a decrease in CPP by decreasing mean arterial pressure. C. CPP is the difference between mean arterial pressure and intracranial pressure.

C. CPP is the difference between mean arterial pressure and intracranial pressure

Which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct? A. Significant impairments in hearing and vision begin to occur in persons between the ages of 41 and 44 years. B. Women in the middle adult age group typically experience menopause in their late 50s or early 60s. C. Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer. D. Increased cholesterol levels in the middle adult age group often do not respond to exercise and diet.

C. Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer

Which of the following injuries would the front seat passenger LEAST likely sustain when the front end of a car strikes a bridge pillar? A. Head B. Extremity C. Chest D. Pelvis

C. Chest

Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely cause of mental incapacitation? A. Hypoxia and hypercarbia B. CNS depressant drugs C. Chronic hyperthyroidism D. Acute hypoglycemia

C. Chronic hyperthyroidism

You are dispatched to the home of a 64-year-old male patient with lung cancer. The patient complains of acute dyspnea; however, as long as he is sitting upright, his breathing is easier. He denies fever and his breath sounds are decreased over the base of the left lung. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's symptoms? A. Localized bronchospasm in the lungs B. Consolidation of fluid within the lung C. Collection of fluid outside of the lung D. Air in the pleural space with lung collapse

C. Collection of fluid outside of the lung

A small compact car was involved in a rollover crash. As you are approaching the vehicle, you note that the roof is significantly collapsed. The patient, a 29-year-old male, is complaining of severe pain in his neck and to the top of his head as well as numbness and tingling in his extremities. Witnesses who removed the patient from the vehicle state that he was wearing his seatbelt. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for this patient's condition? A. Lateral bending of the neck during the crash B. Impact of the head against the steering wheel C. Compression of the head against the roof D. Whiplash injury to the neck during the rollover

C. Compression of the head against the roof

What is the difference between cover and concealment? A. Cover provides protection by hiding behind bushes. B. Cover will not adequately protect you from hostile fire. C. Cover involves the use of an impenetrable barrier. D. Cover is the least preferred method of personal protection.

C. Cover involves the use of an impenetrable barrier

Which of the following is a sign that CPAP is improving your patient's clinical status? A. Increase in heart rate B. Increase in respiratory rate C. Decrease in respiratory rate D. The patient becomes combative

C. Decrease in respiratory rate

Which of the following physiologic responses would you expect to see in a patient with a pH of 7.50? A. Bicarbonate retention B. Increased respirations C. Decreased respirations D. Hydrogen ion excretion

C. Decreased respirations

A patient is found to have a high blood sugar level (hyperglycemia). What is a cause of this? A. Excessive insulin levels in the blood B. Decreased production of glucagon C. Deficient insulin levels in the blood

C. Deficient insulin levels in the blood

Which of the following would MOST likely occur as the direct result of the second collision in a motor vehicle crash? A. Collapsed dashboard B. Intrathoracic hemorrhage C. Deformed steering wheel D. Caved-in passenger door

C. Deformed steering wheel

A middle-aged woman presents with crushing chest pain, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and nausea. Which of these findings is/are signs? A. Chest pain and nausea B. Nausea and tachycardia C. Diaphoresis and tachycardia D. Chest pain and diaphoresis

C. Diaphoresis and tachycardia

A 62-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with a sudden tearing sensation in her abdomen. She tells you that the pain has been of maximum intensity since its onset. Based on her chief complaint, what additional assessment findings would you expect to encounter? A. A rapid, irregular heart rate B. Jugular venous distention while sitting up C. Diminished pulses in her lower extremities D. Radiation of the pain to her arms or jaw

C. Diminished pulses in her lower extremities

Who regulates the selling and prescribing of controlled substances, such as narcotics? A. Department of Justice B. Department of Transportation C. Drug Enforcement Administration D. The EMS system's medical director

C. Drug Enforcement Administration

Even with an EMS certification, your ability to function as an AEMT is governed locally by the: A. State health department. B. County health department. C. EMS system's medical director. D. EMS system's chief paramedic

C. EMS system's medical director

A 12-year-old male jumped approximately 12' from a tree and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his lower back. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for his back pain? A. Lateral impact to the spine B. Direct trauma to the spinal column C. Energy transmission to the spine D. Secondary fall after the initial impact

C. Energy transmission to the spine

Which of the following would be LEAST likely to result in overhydration? A. Unmonitored IV B. Prolonged hypoventilation C. Excessive GI drainage D. Kidney failure

C. Excessive GI drainage

What physiologic reaction occurs when a person's blood sugar level falls? A. The pancreas secretes more insulin. B. More glycogen is stored in the liver. C. Glucagon production is increased. D. The pancreatic beta cells become hyperactive.

C. Glucagon production is increased

Which of the following conditions or situations would result in a psychiatric emergency of an organic etiology? A. Death of a loved one B. Schizophrenia C. Hypoglycemia D. Childhood trauma

C. Hypoglycemia

In addition to supplemental oxygen, prehospital treatment for a patient with hyperglycemic ketoacidosis should focus on: A. administering sugar. B. glucagon administration. C. IV fluid rehydration. D. insulin administration.

C. IV fluid rehydration

Which of the following physiologic processes does NOT occur in patients with COPD? A. Diffuse alveolar collapse B. Intrapulmonary air trapping C. Increased surfactant production D. Mucous production from beta2 cells

C. Increased surfactant production

Which of the following functions would an emergency medical dispatcher (EMD) perform? A. Encouraging a caller to proceed to the hospital B. Providing medical direction to the EMT-I C. Instructing a caller how to perform CPR D. Translating for a non-English speaking caller

C. Instructing a caller how to perform CPR

Which of the following is NOT a component of the cardiac electrical conduction system? A. Sinoatrial node B. Atrioventricular node C. Interatrial septum D. Purkinje fibers

C. Interatrial septum

Which of the following situations dictates removal of a football or motorcycle helmet? A. The patient complains of pain to the cervical spine. B. Transport time to the hospital is greater than 30 minutes. C. Respirations of 24 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume D. The patient is conscious but has a bad headache.

C. Respirations of 24 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume

Which of the following statements regarding age-related changes in the nervous system is correct? A. Because of a decrease in the number of brain cells, a person's level of intelligence decreases with age. B. The metabolic rate in the brain increases with age, but the consumption of oxygen decreases significantly. C. Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons. D. Generally speaking, the brain increases in size by 10% to 20% by the time a person reaches 80 years of age.

C. Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons

Which of the following statements regarding electrical burns is correct? A. The size of entrance and exits wounds provides an indicator as to the degree of internal injury. B. When exposed to electricity, the human body is an excellent insulator because it is comprised primarily of water. C. Internal injury caused by an electrical burn is usually more severe than the external burns indicate. D. Ordinary household current can cause an electrical injury, but the burns are usually not severe.

C. Internal injury caused by an electrical burn is usually more severe than the external burns indicate

A 30-year-old male presents with a partial seizure to his left arm. His wife denies that he has ever had seizures in the past. Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely cause of this patient's seizure? A. Idiopathic epilepsy B. An intracerebral tumor C. Intracranial hemorrhage D. A serious cerebral infection

C. Intracranial hemorrhage

Which of the following statements regarding the thyroid cartilage is correct? A. It is the inferior portion of the larynx. B. It is inferior to the cricoid cartilage. C. It is difficult to palpate in women.

C. It is difficult to palpate in women

Which of the following statements regarding the H1N1 virus is correct? A. H1N1 has caused more deaths worldwide than all of the other strains of influenza combined. B. Unlike other strains of the influenza virus, H1N1 is primarily transmitted via the fecal-oral route. C. It is only one type of influenza among the many other strains of influenza that exist and infect humans. D. H1N1, also known as the "swine flu," is a newly discovered strain of influenza for which no vaccine exists.

C. It is only one type of influenza among the many other strains of influenza that exist and infect humans

With regard to the three collisions that occur during a motor vehicle crash, which of the following statements regarding the first collision is correct? A. It has a direct effect on patient care because of the obvious vehicular damage. B. It occurs when the unrestrained occupant collides with the interior of the vehicle. C. It is the most dramatic part of the collision and may make extrication difficult. D. It provides the least amount of information about the mechanism of injury.

C. It is the most dramatic part of the collision and may make extrication difficult

Which of the following statements regarding trauma to the kidneys is correct? A. Injuries confined to the kidneys are common following blunt force trauma. B. You should suspect a ruptured aorta when the MOI suggests kidney injury. C. Kidney injury is usually associated with injury to other abdominal organs. D. The kidneys are well protected in the abdomen and rarely sustain injury.

C. Kidney injury is usually associated with injury to other abdominal organs

Which of the following organs/structures lie in the retroperitoneal space of the abdomen? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Kidneys D. Superior vena cava

C. Kidneys

Under which of the following conditions would external bleeding be LEAST difficult to control? A. Lacerated antecubital vein and a BP of 130/70 mm Hg B. Lacerated carotid artery and a BP of 140/90 mm Hg C. Lacerated femoral vein and a BP of 88/60 mm Hg D. Lacerated brachial artery and a BP of 84/56 mm Hg

C. Lacerated femoral vein and a BP of 88/60 mm Hg

A 29-year-old female experiences shortness of breath, urticaria, and bilateral wheezing shortly after you started an IV of normal saline. How should you manage this situation? A. Place her on her left side with her head down. B. Change the IV tubing and continue the IV. C. Leave the catheter in place and remove the solution. D. Discontinue the IV and remove the catheter.

C. Leave the catheter in place and remove the solution

Which of the following is the MOST reliable means of assessing the potential for abdominal injuries following a motor-vehicle crash? A. Asking the patient if he or she was wearing a seatbelt B. Noting the position of the restraint system on the patient C. Lifting a deployed airbag and assessing the steering wheel D. Determining whether or not the airbag deployed on impact

C. Lifting a deployed airbag and assessing the steering wheel

Which of the following medications could be administered via the intranasal route with a mucosal atomizer device? A. Nitrostat B. Glucagon C. Naloxone D. Epinephrine

C. Naloxone

What structure is located in the posterior aspect of the nasal cavity? A. Larynx B. Oropharynx C. Nasopharynx D. Laryngopharynx

C. Nasopharynx

A physician authorizes you, via two-way radio, to help a patient administer prescribed nitroglycerin. What type of medical direction is this? A. Standing order B. Off-line medical control C. Online medical control D. Indirect medical control

C. Online medical control

Which of the following medications is administered in gel form? A. Fentanyl B. Nitroglycerin C. Oral glucose D. Activated charcoal

C. Oral glucose

Which of the following would be classified as a moderate burn in an infant or child? A. Superficial burns covering 30% of the BSA B. Partial-thickness burns to the hands, face, or genitalia C. Partial-thickness burns covering 15% of the BSA D. Full-thickness burns covering 1% of the BSA

C. Partial-thickness burns covering 15% of the BSA

Which layer of the heart would be penetrated during an emergent medical procedure in order to remove fluid? A. Myocardium B. Epicardium C. Pericardium D. Endocardium

C. Pericardium

What gland lies at the base of the brain and secretes hormones that regulate the function of many other glands in the body? A. Thyroid B. Adrenal C. Pituitary D. Thalamus

C. Pituitary

Genital warts are caused by infection with: A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. B. Treponema pallidum. C. Candida albicans. D. human papillomavirus.

D. human papillomavirus

Which of the following statements regarding the geriatric patient with an acute abdomen is correct? A. Geriatric patients commonly present with fever due to organ inflammation. B. Increased pain sensitivity causes severe pain from even minor conditions. C. Severe abdominal organ dysfunction may present with mild or absent pain. D. Most geriatric patients with abdominal pain seek immediate medical care.

C. Severe abdominal organ dysfunction may present with mild or absent pain

You are assisting your paramedic partner by applying the ECG electrodes on a 36-year-old woman who overdosed on a tricyclic antidepressant. Of the following cardiac arrhythmias, which one will you MOST likely encounter? A. A heart block B. Atrial fibrillation C. Sinus tachycardia D. Sinus bradycardia

C. Sinus tachycardia

Which of the following illnesses or conditions would MOST likely predispose a patient to chronic renal failure? A. Staph infection B. Kidney stones C. Strep throat D. Pericarditis

C. Strep throat

Which of the following conditions often requires transport to a hospital with specialized capabilities that may not be available at the closest hospital? A. Seizure and infection B. Cardiac arrest and shock C. Stroke and heart attack D. Diabetes and migraine

C. Stroke and heart attack

Which of the following statements regarding subcutaneous injections is correct? A. The needle is inserted at a 90° angle when giving a subcutaneous injection. B. The deltoid muscle is the most common location for a subcutaneous injection. C. Subcutaneous injections are usually given with a 24-gauge to 26-gauge needle D. Volumes of less than 10 mL are usually given by the subcutaneous route.

C. Subcutaneous injections are usually given with a 24-gauge to 26-gauge needle

Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition? A. Depression B. Schizophrenia C. Substance abuse D. Alzheimer disease

C. Substance abuse

What is the pathophysiology of psychogenic shock? Select one: A. Syncope due to a psychiatric condition B. Shifting of fluid within the vascular space C. Temporary, generalized vascular dilation D. An acute, but temporary, decrease in heart rate

C. Temporary, generalized vascular dilation

Which of the following statements regarding a patient with traumatic cardiac arrest is correct? A. You should initiate CPR, apply an AED as soon as possible, and begin rapid IV fluid replacement. B. IV fluid replacement has priority over defibrillation for patients with traumatic cardiac arrest. C. The patient's cardiac rhythm must be assessed, as soon as possible, with a manual cardiac monitor/defibrillator. D. Cardiac monitoring is not necessary since most traumatic cardiac arrest victims do not require defibrillation.

C. The patient's cardiac rhythm must be assessed, as soon as possible, with a manual cardiac monitor/defibrillator

Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct? A. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B and is easily transmitted in the health care setting. B. The risk of HIV infection is high, even if an infected person's blood comes in contact with your intact skin. C. The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream. D. Most patients who are infected with HIV experience chronic symptoms that vary in duration and severity.

C. The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream

Which of the following statements regarding age, culture, and personal experience is correct? A. Generally speaking, a person's age has little or no influence on their behavior B. An elderly person with chronic pain usually cannot cope with their condition C. The thoughts of people are greatly influenced by their personal experiences D. Regardless of culture, people are taught to openly express their emotions

C. The thoughts of people are greatly influenced by their personal experiences

Why do middle adults commonly experience financial concerns? A. The majority of middle adults still have small children that live at home with them. B. Most people in the middle adult age group have chronic illnesses and cannot work. C. They are preparing for retirement but must still manage everyday financial demands. D. They are typically receiving social security and must budget with a fixed income.

C. They are preparing for retirement but must still manage everyday financial demands

Which of the following statements would be MOST appropriate to make to the family member of a patient who has just died? A. Things will get better in time. B. You're not the only one who suffers. C. This must be hard for you to accept. D. I know exactly what you are experiencing.

C. This must be hard for you to accept

A patient with congenital anisocoria would be expected to have pupils that: A. do not respond to light. B. are constricted and nonreactive. C. are unequal in size. D. dilate when exposed to light.

C. are unequal in size

When treating a 56-year-old female with chest pain, you have placed on her oxygen, established IV access, and administered two doses of sublingual nitroglycerin. However, the patient's pain has not improved. You reassess her blood pressure and note that it is 106/66 mm Hg. You should: A. request permission to give her morphine. B. transport at once and closely monitor her. C. administer one more dose of nitroglycerin. D. give a 20 mL/kg saline bolus to raise her BP.

C. administer one more dose of nitroglycerin

The term "bolus" is defined as: A. delivering a drug via maintenance infusion. B. administering less than 10 mL of volume. C. administering a drug in one mass of volume. D. administering at least 20 mL of volume.

C. administering a drug in one mass of volume

Rales, rhonchi, and wheezing are examples of: A. upper airway sounds. B. bronchial breath sounds. C. adventitious breath sounds. D. vesicular breath sounds.

C. adventitious breath sounds

While treating a patient who is in cardiogenic shock, your paramedic partner makes the comment that the patient needs an inotropic medication. You should recall that this type of medication is intended to: A. constrict the blood vessels. B. increase the patient's heart rate. C. affect the strength of cardiac contraction. D. affect electrical conduction through the heart.

C. affect the strength of cardiac contraction

When stabilizing a patient's cervical spine, you should: A. support the lower jaw with your palms. B. position yourself beside the patient. C. align the patient's nose with the navel.

C. align the patient's nose with the navel

A 20-year-old female presents with acute respiratory distress. Auscultation of her lungs reveals diffuse expiratory wheezing. She is in moderate distress and tells you that she has a prescribed inhaler that she uses when this happens. You should suspect: A. status asthmaticus. B. bronchitis exacerbation. C. an acute asthma attack. D. bacterial pneumonia.

C. an acute asthma attack

A 72-year-old male with type 2 diabetes complains of "not feeling well." He is diaphoretic and his blood sugar reading is 110 mg/dL. You should be MOST suspicious for: A. an acute ischemic stroke. B. slowly developing insulin shock. C. an acute myocardial infarction. D. impending diabetic ketoacidosis.

C. an acute myocardial infarction

You should be MOST suspicious that a patient is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction if he or she presents with: A. acute pain to the left jaw that is made worse by movement of the head. B. an acute tearing sensation in the abdomen that radiates to the lower back. C. an acute onset of weakness, nausea, and sweating without an obvious cause. D. an acute onset of sharp chest pain that worsens when he or she takes a breath.

C. an acute onset of weakness, nausea, and sweating without an obvious cause

Fifty percent dextrose (D50) is indicated in all of the following situations, EXCEPT: A. a semiconscious patient with a blood glucose of 50 mg/dL. B. an unresponsive patient with no obtainable medical history. C. an asymptomatic patient with a blood glucose of 60 mg/dL.

C. an asymptomatic patient with a blood glucose of 60 mg/dL

If the brain is deprived of oxygen for 4 to 6 minutes: A. the patient will die. B. mild tissue hypoxia occurs. C. anoxic brain injury will occur. D. respiratory arrest is irreversible.

C. anoxic brain injury will occur

A 60-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. As emergency medical responders are performing CPR, your partner is managing the patient's airway. After preparing your IV set, you should FIRST attempt to cannulate the: A. lateral forearm vein. B. medial forearm vein. C. antecubital vein.

C. antecubital vein

A 27-year-old male complains of an acute onset of abdominal pain. He is found curled in a fetal position with his right knee drawn up into his abdomen. This position is MOST commonly seen in patients with acute: A. pancreatitis. B. cholecystitis. C. appendicitis. D. gastroenteritis.

C. appendicitis

You are dispatched to a convenience store, where the clerk sustained a laceration to the side of his neck during a robbery attempt. During your assessment, you note bright red blood spurting from the laceration. You should: A. circumferentially wrap a dressing around his neck. B. apply direct pressure below the lacerated vessel. C. apply direct pressure above and below the wound. D. apply pressure to the closest arterial pressure point.

C. apply direct pressure above and below the wound

A young female was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She complains of pain to her left eye, which appears to have a piece of glass impaled in it. Further assessment reveals a large laceration to her left forearm with heavy bleeding. As your partner manually stabilizes the patient's head, you should: A. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. B. stabilize the impaled glass in her eye. C. apply direct pressure to her arm wound. D. carefully remove the glass from her eye.

C. apply direct pressure to her arm wound

During your initial attempt to control severe external bleeding from an extremity, you should: A. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound. B. digitally compress a proximal pressure point. C. apply direct pressure with a sterile dressing. D. apply a pressure dressing to the wound.

C. apply direct pressure with a sterile dressing

A 30-year-old male was ejected from his car after hitting a tree at a high rate of speed. Your assessment reveals that he is pulseless, apneic, and has multiple systems trauma. Treatment for this patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. chest compressions and advanced airway management. B. large-bore IV lines with normal saline or lactated ringers. C. applying an AED and defibrillating if indicated.

C. applying an AED and defibrillating if indicated

A 29-year-old male experienced multiple fire-ant bites to his lower extremities. He is conscious and alert, and denies respiratory distress. His skin is warm, dry, and without urticaria and his breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. Appropriate management for this patient includes: A. assisting the patient with an epinephrine auto-injector if he has one. B. administering prophylactic epinephrine in a dose of 0.3 to 0.5 mg IM. C. applying ice to the bites and observing for signs of an allergic reaction. D. administering 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and starting an IV.

C. applying ice to the bites and observing for signs of an allergic reaction

You are transporting a 55-year-old female with chest pain, who has not responded to 3 doses of nitroglycerin. As you are talking to her, she becomes unresponsive and apneic. You should: A. assess her pulse, begin CPR, analyze her cardiac rhythm with the AED, and tell your partner to stop the vehicle. B. begin CPR, tell your partner to stop the vehicle, analyze her rhythm with an AED, and defibrillate if needed. C. assess her pulse, tell your partner to stop the vehicle, begin CPR, and analyze her cardiac rhythm with an AED. D. immediately analyze her cardiac rhythm with an AED, tell your partner to stop the vehicle, and defibrillate if needed.

C. assess her pulse, tell your partner to stop the vehicle, begin CPR, and analyze her cardiac rhythm with an AED

A 70-year-old male presents with acute aphasia, unilateral weakness, and confusion. In addition to administering 100% oxygen, it is important to: A. use the Cincinnati Stroke Scale to rule out a stroke. B. start an IV line with a hypertonic crystalloid solution. C. assess his blood glucose level to rule out hypoglycemia. D. apply an AED in case the patient develops cardiac arrest.

C. assess his blood glucose level to rule out hypoglycemia

A 49-year-old male complains of acute chest discomfort. He is conscious but restless, and he is noticeably diaphoretic. As your partner is applying 100% oxygen, the patient hands you a bottle of nitroglycerin that was prescribed to him by his family physician. Prior to assisting the patient with his medication, you should: A. ensure that the patient's heart rate is no greater than 100. B. ask the patient if he is currently experiencing a headache. C. assess his systolic BP to ensure that it is at least 100 mm Hg. D. ensure that he has taken up to 3 doses prior to your arrival.

C. assess his systolic BP to ensure that it is at least 100 mm Hg

While triaging patients at a multiple-casualty incident, you encounter a 40-year-old female with an obvious fracture of her right forearm and multiple abrasions to her face and arms. She is responsive and alert and does not appear to have any airway or breathing problems. You note that she is wearing an organ donor bracelet. You should: A. give her high-flow oxygen in order to keep her vital organs viable. B. apply a splint to her arm injury and continue triaging the other patients. C. assign her an appropriate triage category and move to the next patient. D. place her in a high-priority treatment category because of her donor status

C. assign her an appropriate triage category and move to the next patient

A 60-year-old female is in possible cardiogenic shock. She is semiconscious with shallow respirations, an irregular pulse, and hypotension. Appropriate treatment for this patient should include: A. high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, a saline lock, thermal management, and transport. B. continuous positive airway pressure, a 500 mL saline bolus, thermal management, and transport. C. assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device, thermal management, 20 mL/kg fluid bolus, and transport. D. insertion of multilumen airway device, mild hyperventilation, a saline lock, and prompt transport.

C. assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device, thermal management, 20 mL/kg fluid bolus, and transport

An 82-year-old male with a possible hip fracture becomes extremely irritable and confused during your assessment. You should: A. tell the patient that his behavior is unacceptable. B. attribute his behavior to age-related dementia. C. assume that he is experiencing cerebral hypoxia.

C. assume that he is experiencing cerebral hypoxia

When you talk with a patient, you should try to position yourself: A. at the patient's feet. B. standing above the patient. C. at a level lower than the patient's. D. at the patient's head.

C. at a level lower than the patient's

The jugular notch is located: A. immediately lateral to the trachea. B. superior to the thyroid cartilage. C. at the superior border of the sternum. D. medial to the external jugular veins.

C. at the superior border of the sternum

Upon initial contact with a patient who appears to be unresponsive, you should: A. assess breathing depth and determine the respiratory rate. B. squeeze the trapezius muscle to see if the patient responds. C. attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient. D. direct your partner to apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

C. attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient

You are assessing a 59-year-old male with an altered mental status. You should suspect an acute ischemic stroke versus hypoglycemia if the patient: A. rapidly loses consciousness. B. is incontinent of urine and feces. C. attempts to communicate with you. D. has a prescription for phenobarbital.

C. attempts to communicate with you

Prehospital documentation of a sexual assault case should: A. be turned over to law enforcement. B. remain on file for at least 6 months. C. be objective, factual, and detailed. D. include your opinion of the situation.

C. be objective, factual, and detailed

During your assessment of a 48-year-old female with localized blunt abdominal trauma, you should: A. immobilize her spinal column. B. palpate the most painful area first. C. be prepared for the patient to vomit. D. vigorously palpate the entire abdomen.

C. be prepared for the patient to vomit

A 49-year-old male collapsed and is now unresponsive. There is no evidence of trauma. Your primary assessment reveals that he is pulseless and apneic. You should: A. perform rescue breathing for 3 minutes and attach an AED. B. begin ventilations and chest compressions and transport immediately. C. begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as it is available. D. begin CPR and request a paramedic unit to defibrillate the patient.

C. begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as it is available

Your primary assessment of a 32-year-old male reveals that he is semiconscious and is breathing at a slow rate with shallow movement of the chest. You should: A. apply supplemental oxygen. B. assess his pulse rate and quality. C. begin assisting his ventilations. D. look for gross external bleeding.

C. begin assisting his ventilations

Subcutaneous injections deliver the medication: A. into the muscle. B. below the layer of muscle. C. between the skin and the muscle. D. deep within the dermis.

C. between the skin and the muscle

The MOST rapidly acting compensatory mechanism that maintains pH is the: A. renal system. B. respiratory system. C. bicarbonate buffer system. D. chemoreceptor sensory system.

C. bicarbonate buffer system

You are dispatched to a residence for an elderly female with "mental status changes." During your assessment of the patient, you should first: A. ask the husband if she has Alzheimer disease. B. perform serial Cincinnati Stroke Scale assessments. C. determine the patient's baseline mental status. D. rule out hypoglycemia by administering glucose.

C. determine the patient's baseline mental status

The primary muscle(s) of respiration is/are the: A. sternocleidomastoid muscle. B. pectoralis major and diaphragm. C. diaphragm and intercostal muscles. D. intercostal muscles and latissimus dorsi.

C. diaphragm and intercostal muscles

Compounds or charges concentrated on one side of a cell membrane will move across it to an area of lower concentration to maintain balance on both sides of the cell wall. This process is called: A. filtration. B. active transport. C. diffusion. D. osmosis.

C. diffusion

The movement of a solvent from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration is called: A. osmosis. B. crenation. C. diffusion. D. passive transport.

C. diffusion

A supraglottic airway device: A. features two separate lumens. B. eliminates the risk of aspiration. C. does not enter the trachea or esophagus.

C. does not enter the trachea or esophagus

When a driver is in a car equipped with an air bag, but is not wearing a seatbelt, he or she will MOST likely strike the __________ when the air bag deploys upon impact. A. dashboard B. steering wheel C. door D. windshield

C. door

Cellular function deteriorates and death occurs when the pH: A. drops below 7.0 or rises above 7.5. B. drops below 7.1 or rises above 7.6. C. drops below 6.9 or rises above 7.8. D. fluctuates between 7.35 and 7.45.

C. drops below 6.9 or rises above 7.8

Beginning with the outermost layer, the three meningeal layers of the central nervous system are the: A. dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid. B. arachnoid, pia mater, dura mater. C. dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater. D. pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid.

C. dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater

Acute abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding during the 23rd week of pregnancy could be caused by any of the following, EXCEPT: A. placenta previa. B. abruptio placenta. C. ectopic pregnancy. D. spontaneous abortion.

C. ectopic pregnancy

Breathing is often more labor intensive in older adults because the: A. surface area of the alveoli increases. B. diaphragm and intercostal muscles enlarge. C. elasticity of the lungs decreases. D. overall size of the airway decreases.

C. elasticity of the lungs decreases

After successfully completing a state-approved AEMT course, you are: A. certified to work for an EMS service. B. authorized to function as an AEMT in all 50 states. C. eligible to take your state's AEMT certification examination. D. deemed competent to provide advanced emergency medical care.

C. eligible to take your state's AEMT certification examination

During your rapid trauma assessment (rapid body scan) of a man who sustained a gunshot wound to the chest, you note the presence of air under the skin. This clinical finding is referred to as subcutaneous: A. infiltration. B. crepitus. C. emphysema. D. embolization.

C. emphysema

The pulmonary circulation is responsible for: A. sending deoxygenated blood to the atria. B. perfusing the vital organs of the body. C. ensuring that blood gets reoxygenated. D. filtering the blood of toxic chemicals.

C. ensuring that blood gets reoxygenated

A 50-year-old male was stung two times by a yellow jacket. He has a history of coronary artery disease and thinks that he is allergic to yellow jackets. Your assessment reveals a fine rash to his trunk and arms. His breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally, his vital signs are stable, and he denies shortness of breath. Treatment for this patient should include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. psychological support. B. oxygen therapy as needed. C. epinephrine via auto-injector. D. an IV line set to keep the vein open.

C. epinephrine via auto-injector

A 2-year-old child has experienced a proximal humeral fracture involving the growth plate. This plate is also called the: A. diaphyseal plate. B. metaphyseal plate. C. epiphyseal plate. D. endosteum plate.

C. epiphyseal plate

Small muscles within the dermis that pull the hair into an erect position when you are cold or frightened are called the: A. erector ducts. B. hair follicles. C. erector pili. D. sebum muscles.

C. erector pili

The concept of standard precautions assumes that: A. only blood, semen, and vaginal secretions can transmit communicable diseases to health care providers. B. patients with bloodborne diseases such as HIV or hepatitis B can transmit the disease by coughing. C. every patient is potentially infected or can spread an organism that could be transmitted in the health care setting. D. a patient is not capable of transmitting a communicable disease unless he or she is coughing or sneezing.

C. every patient is potentially infected or can spread an organism that could be transmitted in the health care setting

Signs and symptoms of an air embolus include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. oxygen-refractory cyanosis. B. tachycardia. C. facial flushing. D. respiratory distress.

C. facial flushing

The removal of particles from a solution by allowing the liquid portion to pass through a membrane or other partial barrier is called: A. osmosis. B. diffusion. C. filtration. D. bioavailability.

C. filtration

A 40-year-old female is unconscious following blunt trauma to the chest. During the rapid trauma assessment (rapid body scan), you auscultate the chest and hear rhonchi. This indicates: A. decreased blood flow to the lungs. B. bronchospasm and decreased air movement. C. fluid in the larger airways in the lungs. D. fluid in the smaller airways in the lungs.

C. fluid in the larger airways in the lungs

Hemoglobin is: A. the fluid portion of the blood that transports cells throughout the body. B. essential for the formation of clots, such as when vessel damage occurs. C. found within the red blood cells and is responsible for carrying oxygen. D. a key component of the blood and is produced in response to an infection.

C. found within the red blood cells and is responsible for carrying oxygen

In contrast to endocrine glands, exocrine glands: A. secrete hormones that transfer information between cells to regulate body functions. B. lack ducts, so they release hormones directly into the surrounding tissue and blood. C. have ducts that carry their secretions to the surface of the skin or inside a body cavity. D. regulate functions such as mood, growth and development, and sexual function.

C. have ducts that carry their secretions to the surface of the skin or inside a body cavity

In contrast to a Level III trauma center, a Level I trauma center must: A. be able to stabilize patients before transferring to a higher level facility. B. be involved in trauma prevention programs. C. have general surgeons that are in-house 24 hours a day. D. have access to an emergency physician within 30 minutes.

C. have general surgeons that are in-house 24 hours a day

During your assessment of a 19-year-old male, you are told that he is being treated with factor VIII. This indicates that: A. he has a thrombosis. B. he has hemophilia b. C. he has hemophilia a. D. his blood clots too quickly.

C. he has hemophilia a

According to the Association of Air Medical Services (AAMS), you should consider air medical transport of a trauma patient if: A. the patient requires advanced life support care and stabilization, and the nearest paramedic ground ambulance is more than 5 to 10 minutes away. B. ground transport will take your ambulance out of service for an extended period of time, regardless of the severity of the patient's injuries. C. he or she was involved in a motor-vehicle crash in which another occupant in the same vehicle was killed, even if your patient's injuries are minor. D. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome.

C. he or she was involved in a motor-vehicle crash in which another occupant in the same vehicle was killed, even if your patient's injuries are minor

A patient is found unconscious and trauma has been ruled out. The MOST appropriate method for opening the patient's airway is the: A. jaw-thrust maneuver. B. tongue-jaw lift maneuver. C. head-tilt chin-lift maneuver.

C. head-tilt chin-lift maneuver

Obstructive shock occurs when the: Select one: A. blood vessels are occluded and perfusion is impaired. B. airway is blocked and results in inadequate oxygenation. C. heart is physically restricted from pumping adequately. D. kidneys are obstructed and are unable to filter the blood.

C. heart is physically restricted from pumping adequately.

Perfusion depends on adequate cardiac output, which is calculated as: Select one: A. preload times heart rate. B. afterload times blood pressure. C. heart rate times stroke volume. D. blood pressure minus heart rate.

C. heart rate times stroke volume.

Prior to applying a tourniquet to a profusely bleeding injury, you should take standard precautions and then: A. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. elevate the patient's legs 6" to 12". C. hold direct pressure over the bleeding site. D. apply pressure over a proximal artery.

C. hold direct pressure over the bleeding site

Behavior is MOST accurately defined as: A. how a person reacts during a violent situation. B. the internal feelings and emotions of a person. C. how a person responds to his or her environment. D. a feeling of internal psychological stability.

C. how a person responds to his or her environment

The mandible, tongue, epiglottis, and thyroid cartilage attach to the: A. vallecula. B. cricoid ring. C. hyoid bone. D. pyriform fossae.

C. hyoid bone

The presence of _____________ often contributes to the signs and symptoms of acute alcohol intoxication. A. severe sepsis B. ketoacidosis C. hypoglycemia D. epidural bleeding

C. hypoglycemia

Once the "pigtail" that covers the access port of a bag of IV fluid has been removed, the fluid must be used: A. within 12 hours. B. within 24 hours. C. immediately. D. within 36 hours.

C. immediately

A 39-year-old female struck a tree while traveling approximately 40 mph. When you arrive at the scene, the patient is out of her vehicle and walking around. You should: A. have her walk to the ambulance and then immobilize her. B. immobilize her spine only if she complains of neck pain. C. immobilize her in a standing position to a long backboard.

C. immobilize her in a standing position to a long backboard

A young male has experienced a possible neck injury. When you attempt to place his head in a neutral in-line position, he complains of a severe spasm in his neck. You should: A. apply a chemical ice pack to his neck for pain relief. B. carefully continue to move his head into a neutral position. C. immobilize him in the position in which you found him. D. monitor neurological functions as you gently move his head.

C. immobilize him in the position in which you found him

A football player sustained a possible spinal injury when he was tackled. He is conscious and alert, complains of pain to the mid-cervical spine region, and has stable vital signs. You should: A. cut the facemask portion of the helmet off to monitor his airway. B. remove the helmet and immobilize him in the usual fashion. C. immobilize him with his helmet on unless it is not tight-fitting. D. gently move the helmet to ensure that it is tight-fitting.

C. immobilize him with his helmet on unless it is not tight-fitting

Which of the following is NOT a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient's vital signs? A. overall health B. medical conditions C. increased weight D. medications

C. increased weight

When administering IV fluids to a patient with suspected intrathoracic bleeding, it is important to remember that: A. fluids should be restricted, even in the presence of shock. B. most patients require up to 2 liters of crystalloid solution. C. increasing the BP with fluids may increase the bleeding. D. a target systolic blood pressure of 100 should be achieved.

C. increasing the BP with fluids may increase the bleeding

Benzodiazepines are a classification of medication that are used to: A. relieve pain. B. increase heart rate. C. induce sedation. D. reduce fatigue.

C. induce sedation

The vast majority of all poisonings, intentional and unintentional, occur via: A. injection. B. inhalation. C. ingestion. D. absorption.

C. ingestion

A 55-year-old male ingested a large quantity of bourbon whiskey. He is deeply unconscious and has slow, shallow breathing. His "drinking buddy" tells you that the patient frequently abuses alcohol. You should: A. insert a King airway and hyperventilate him, start an IV and give a 20 mL/kg normal saline bolus, and transport. B. insert a nasal airway, give high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, assess his blood glucose level, and transport. C. insert an oral airway, assist his ventilations, assess his blood glucose level, transport, and start an IV line en route. D. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, request a paramedic unit to intubate him, and assess his blood glucose level.

C. insert an oral airway, assist his ventilations, assess his blood glucose level, transport, and start an IV line en route

When opening the airway of a non-injured unconscious apneic patient, you should perform a head-tilt chin-lift maneuver and then: A. ventilate with a bag-mask device. B. suction the airway for 30 seconds. C. insert an oropharyngeal airway. D. insert a multilumen airway device.

C. insert an oropharyngeal airway

You are treating a 40-year-old male with a documented blood sugar reading of 300 mg/dL. The patient is semiconscious and breathing shallowly, and is receiving assisted ventilation from your partner. You should recognize that definitive treatment for this patient includes: A. oxygen. B. glucagon. C. insulin. D. dextrose.

C. insulin

Your patient is a 29-year-old male who presents with signs and symptoms of shock. However, your assessment reveals no obvious external signs of injury. You should suspect: Select one: A. an infectious condition. B. bleeding within the chest. C. intraabdominal bleeding. D. a severe closed head injury.

C. intraabdominal bleeding.

When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract: A. atmospheric pressure draws air out of the lungs. B. intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressures are equal. C. intrapulmonary pressure falls below atmospheric pressure. D. atmospheric pressure exceeds intrapulmonary pressure.

C. intrapulmonary pressure falls below atmospheric pressure

"Normal" behavior is basically classified as what: A. the patient perceives. B. is agreed upon by psychiatrists. C. is acceptable by society. D. your protocols dictate.

C. is acceptable by society

A bruit differs from a murmur in that a bruit: A. represents widespread arteriosclerosis. B. is a benign physiologic abnormality. C. is auscultated over a main blood vessel. D. indicates turbulent blood flow in the heart.

C. is auscultated over a main blood vessel

The secondary assessment of a medical patient: A. should routinely include a comprehensive examination from head to toe. B. should be performed at the scene, especially if the patient is critically ill. C. is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short. D. is typically limited to a focused exam for patients who are unconscious.

C. is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short

A patient should be placed in the recovery position when he or she: Select one: A. is semiconscious, injured, and breathing adequately. B. has experienced trauma but is breathing effectively. C. is unconscious, uninjured, and breathing adequately. D. has a pulse but is unconscious and breathing shallowly.

C. is unconscious, uninjured, and breathing adequately.

The most commonly carried IV solutions in the prehospital setting are: A. hypertonic colloids. B. hypotonic crystalloids. C. isotonic crystalloids. D. hypotonic colloids.

C. isotonic crystalloids

If a multilumen airway device is inserted into the trachea: A. it should be removed immediately. B. you should not inflate the distal cuff. C. it functions the same as an endotracheal tube. D. you should insert another tube to occlude the esophagus.

C. it functions the same as an endotracheal tube

An acute myocardial infarction is more apt to occur in the left ventricle because: A. its inherently low oxygen demand predisposes it to injury or infarct. B. its coronary arteries are more susceptible to atherosclerotic disease. C. it is large and thick and demands more oxygen than the right ventricle. D. it is a fairly small chamber that is quickly depleted of oxygenated blood.

C. it is large and thick and demands more oxygen than the right ventricle

Filtration, a type of diffusion, is commonly used to clean the blood via the: A. spleen. B. pancreas. C. kidneys. D. liver.

C. kidneys

When a patient's blood glucose level increases significantly, the: A. pancreas secretes additional insulin. B. renal system retains secreted glycogen. C. kidneys excrete excess glucose via water. D. liver releases more glycogen into the blood.

C. kidneys excrete excess glucose via water

The conjunctiva are kept moist by fluid produced by the: A. posterior orbit. B. corneal ducts. C. lacrimal glands. D. optic chiasma.

C. lacrimal glands

A 55-year-old male complains of severe pain to the right lower quadrant of his abdomen. During your assessment, you should first palpate the: A. right upper quadrant. B. left lower quadrant. C. left upper quadrant. D. right lower quadrant.

C. left upper quadrant

White blood cells are also known as: A. thrombocytes. B. erythrocytes. C. leukocytes. D. granulocytes.

C. leukocytes

A 59-year-old male presents with right upper quadrant abdominal pain. Upon assessment, you note that his abdomen has an asymmetrical appearance. As you palpate the area, his jugular veins become slightly distended. These clinical findings are MOST suggestive of: A. a bowel obstruction. B. fluid in the peritoneum. C. liver inflammation.

C. liver inflammation

The mediastinum encompasses all of the structures within the thoracic cavity, EXCEPT for the: A. aorta. B. heart. C. lungs. D. vena cavae.

C. lungs

If too much water enters a cell during osmosis, it will burst. This process is called: A. diffusion. B. crenation. C. lysis. D. viscosity.

C. lysis

Nonfunctional erythrocytes are destroyed in the spleen by cells called: A. phagocytes. B. leukophages. C. macrophages. D. monocytes.

C. macrophages

You are dispatched to a shopping mall for a female patient who is "sick." When you arrive, you find the patient, who appears confused, sitting on a bench in the middle of the mall. There is a small amount of blood in her hair. As you introduce yourself to the patient, you should direct your partner to: A. obtain vital signs and apply a bandage to her head. B. apply a cervical collar and assess for bleeding. C. manually stabilize her head in a neutral position. D. apply 100% oxygen with a nonrebreathing mask.

C. manually stabilize her head in a neutral position

At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken, and power lines are lying across the car. The driver of the car is responsive, but reporting neck pain. You should: A. don rubber gloves and rapidly extricate the driver. B. remove the wires from the car and continue the extrication. C. mark off a danger zone around the car and downed lines. D. ask the driver to carefully get out of the car and walk to the ambulance.

C. mark off a danger zone around the car and downed lines

The upper jawbones are called the: A. mastoid. B. mandible. C. maxillae. D. zygoma.

C. maxillae

An electronic blood pressure cuff that measures readings using stepped deflation: A. is less accurate in hypotensive patients than the device that uses linear deflation because linear deflation allows a uniform decline in pressure during deflation. B. provides a more accurate measurement than auscultating a patient's blood pressure using a manual blood pressure cuff. C. may be more accurate in patients who are moving because the pressure in the cuff is released in intervals at variable lengths, allowing the system to better detect oscillations. D. is ineffective in taking accurate measurements if the patient's blood pressure is greater than 200/100 mm Hg or if it detects any kind of patient movement.

C. may be more accurate in patients who are moving because the pressure in the cuff is released in intervals at variable lengths, allowing the system to better detect oscillations

Allergic reactions to oral medications: A. usually occur without prior sensitization to the medication. B. are typically mild to moderate but may last for several days. C. may cause a severe reaction within 30 to 60 minutes of ingestion.

C. may cause a severe reaction within 30 to 60 minutes of ingestion

Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) involves: A. dilating the coronary artery with drugs. B. bypassing the blocked coronary artery. C. mechanically clearing a coronary artery. D. the administration of a fibrinolytic drug.

C. mechanically clearing a coronary artery

The function of a drug or the particular action of a drug on an organism is called: A. pharmacology. B. an indication. C. mechanism of action. D. the drug classification.

C. mechanism of action

When assessing a patient with blunt abdominal trauma, the severity of internal bleeding is BEST determined by: A. noting the mechanism of injury. B. frequently taking the blood pressure. C. monitoring for signs of shock. D. ascertaining the patient's medical history.

C. monitoring for signs of shock

Phagocytosis is the process by which: A. phagocytes are produced. B. phagocytes are destroyed. C. monocytes digest microbes. D. microbes destroy monocytes.

C. monocytes digest microbes

A patient who coughs up thick yellow or green sputum: A. should be treated for congestive heart failure. B. has a closed chest injury until proven otherwise. C. most likely has an advanced respiratory infection. D. should not be given oxygen via the nasal route.

C. most likely has an advanced respiratory infection

Osmosis is defined as the: A. passive transport of molecules across the cell membrane. B. diffusion of molecules across a cell membrane. C. movement of water across a semipermeable membrane. D. movement of water to an area of lower concentration.

C. movement of water across a semipermeable membrane

The mouth, nose, and other body orifices are lined with ___________________, which secrete a watery substance and provide a protective barrier against harmful agents. A. germinal cells B. melanin granules C. mucus membranes D. sebaceous glands

C. mucus membranes

The clonic phase of a generalized motor seizure is characterized by: A. paralysis of the intercostal muscles and the diaphragm. B. continuous and unremitting total body muscular contractions. C. muscle contraction and relaxation occurring in rapid succession. D. total body muscle flaccidity immediately following the seizure.

C. muscle contraction and relaxation occurring in rapid succession

The myometrium is the: A. neck of the uterus. B. inner layer of the uterus. C. muscular wall of the uterus. D. uppermost part of the uterus.

C. muscular wall of the uterus

Signs and symptoms that are MOST commonly associated with an acute abdomen include: A. low-grade fever, back pain, and diarrhea. B. vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. C. nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. D. back pain, constipation, and high fever.

C. nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain

While en route to a major motor vehicle crash, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 6-year-old male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing a lap belt and that the air bag deployed. On the basis of this information, you should be MOST suspicious that the child has experienced: A. lower-extremity fractures. B. blunt trauma to the head. C. neck and facial injuries. D. open abdominal trauma.

C. neck and facial injuries

Normal inspiration is the result of: A. diaphragmatic relaxation. B. air passively entering the lungs. C. negative pressure in the thoracic cavity. D. positive pressure in the thoracic cavity.

C. negative pressure in the thoracic cavity

An isotonic solution is one that causes: A. water to flow into the cell. B. the cell to swell and eventually burst. C. no change in the shape of the cell. D. water to be drawn out of the cell.

C. no change in the shape of the cell

The preferred device to use when administering supplemental oxygen in the prehospital setting is the: A. nasal cannula. B. simple face mask. C. nonrebreathing mask. D. partial rebreathing mask.

C. nonrebreathing mask

A small truck slid off the road and struck a utility pole. The driver, a 40-year-old male, has only minor abrasions from the airbag. His 38-year-old wife was killed in the crash. After performing a primary assessment of the driver, you should: A. obtain baseline vital signs. B. immobilize his spine and transport. C. perform a rapid trauma assessment. D. perform a focused physical exam.

C. perform a rapid trauma assessment

The _____________ anchors the heart within the thoracic cavity and prevents cardiac overdistention. A. epicardium B. endocardium C. pericardium D. cardiac septum

C. pericardium

After inserting the needle into the injection port of an IV line, but before administering the medication, you should: A. flush the line with a 20 mL bolus of normal saline. B. withdraw on the plunger of the syringe to detect blood. C. pinch off the tubing proximal to the injection port. D. explain the procedure to the patient and obtain consent.

C. pinch off the tubing proximal to the injection port

A 66-year-old female is in cardiac arrest and requires advanced airway management. Prior to inserting a Combitube, you should take standard precautions and then: A. apply posterior pressure to the cricoid cartilage. B. place the patient's head in a slightly extended position. C. preoxygenate the patient with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen. D. advise your partner to stop CPR until the device is ly inserted.

C. preoxygenate the patient with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen

When managing an adult patient with an inhalation injury, inspiratory stridor, and an altered mental status, you should: A. apply ice packs to the neck to reduce swelling. B. give humidified oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. prepare for early definitive airway management. D. ventilate at a rate of 20 breaths per minute.

C. prepare for early definitive airway management

The primary function of the antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is: A. increased renal output of urine. B. facilitation of water excretion. C. promotion of water retention.

C. promotion of water retention

Your general impression of a 50-year-old man with acute abdominal pain reveals that he is confused and has pale, diaphoretic skin. After correcting any problems with airway, breathing, and circulation, your main focus should be on: A. assessing his vital signs. B. administering IV fluid boluses. C. prompt transport to the hospital. D. performing a secondary assessment.

C. prompt transport to the hospital

The general impression of your patient will allow you to obtain all of the following information EXCEPT for the: A. presence of cyanosis or pallor. B. patient's gross mental status. C. rate and regularity of the pulse. D. degree of breathing difficulty.

C. rate and regularity of the pulse

Proper use of personal protective equipment (PPE) will: A. prevent you from being stuck with a needle. B. negate the need for hazardous material decontamination. C. reduce your risk of an infectious exposure. D. eliminate the possibility of contracting a disease.

C. reduce your risk of an infectious exposure

Cardiomyopathy may lead to pulmonary edema due to: A. acute injury to the myocardium. B. a profound decrease in heart rate. C. reduced contractile force of the heart. D. weakening of the right side of the heart.

C. reduced contractile force of the heart

When interviewing a patient with an emotional crisis, you repeat the patient's words back to him or her, and encourage him or her to expand on these thoughts. This is an example of: A. active listening. B. definitive listening. C. reflective listening. D. appeasing the patient.

C. reflective listening

The aortic valve: A. closes during ventricular systole and facilitates adequate ventricular filling. B. contains five cusps that prevent the backflow of blood into the left ventricle. C. regulates the flow of blood from the left ventricle to the systemic circulation. D. attaches to papillary muscles that contract and tighten the chordae tendineae.

C. regulates the flow of blood from the left ventricle to the systemic circulation

A 68-year-old female with a history of Alzheimer's disease complains of acute abdominal pain. As you prepare to start an IV on her, she becomes verbally abusive. You should: A. attribute her aggression to the Alzheimer's disease. B. gently restrain her and continue with the IV. C. remain patient and explain the procedure to her. D. discontinue the IV attempt and transport her.

C. remain patient and explain the procedure to her

When caring for an occupant inside a motor vehicle equipped with an air bag that did not deploy upon impact, it is MOST important to: A. recognize that the force of impact was most likely not severe. B. realize that the air bag malfunctioned at the time of impact. C. remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you. D. suspect that the patient may have experienced serious injuries.

C. remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you

The ability to communicate from a portable radio to a base station is MOST effectively enhanced by a: A. UHF transmitter. B. dedicated line. C. repeater. D. trunking system

C. repeater

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by: A. reassessing the nature of illness. B. taking another set of vital signs. C. repeating the primary assessment. D. reviewing all treatment performed.

C. repeating the primary assessment

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash involving two cars, you see an unconscious patient still in his vehicle, but cannot see the occupant of the other car. Your MOST appropriate initial action should be to: A. notify law enforcement to search for another patient. B. gain access to the unconscious patient. C. request at least one additional ambulance. D. locate all patients before requesting assistance.

C. request at least one additional ambulance

After defibrillating a patient in cardiac arrest with the AED, you should: A. give two rescue breaths. B. insert a multilumen airway. C. resume chest compressions. D. briefly check for a carotid pulse.

C. resume chest compressions

The brachiocephalic artery is relatively short and rapidly divides into the: A. internal and external carotid arteries. B. brachial artery and the posterior vertebral arteries. C. right common carotid artery and right subclavian artery. D. internal carotid arteries and posterior vertebral arteries.

C. right common carotid artery and right subclavian artery

During your assessment of a woman with chronic shortness of breath and fatigue, you ask her how many pillows she sleeps with at night. You are asking her this question to determine if: A. the right side of her heart is functioning effectively. B. blood is backing up into her systemic circulation. C. she has left-sided heart failure and how severe it may be. D. she experiences sleep apnea, which may explain her fatigue.

C. she has left-sided heart failure and how severe it may be

The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is MOST directly related to: A. blood vessel dilation. B. meningeal deterioration. C. shrinkage of the brain. D. a decrease in neurons.

C. shrinkage of the brain

A predictable, yet adverse response to a drug, is called a/an: A. therapeutic effect. B. idiosyncrasy. C. side effect. D. teratogenic response.

C. side effect

The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is: A. marital discord. B. financial setback. C. significant depression.

C. significant depression

A hypertensive crisis is considered to be a true emergency when: A. the diastolic blood pressure exceeds 100 mm Hg. B. the patient is noncompliant with his or her medication. C. signs of central nervous system dysfunction are present. D. the patient has a concomitant history of epileptic seizures.

C. signs of central nervous system dysfunction are present

The normal site of origin of electrical impulses in the heart is the ____________, which generates ___________ impulses per minute. A. sinoatrial node, 50 to 60 B. bundle of His, 80 to 100 C. sinoatrial node, 60 to 100 D. atrioventricular node, 60 to 80

C. sinoatrial node, 60 to 100

The germinal layer contains cells that produce pigment granules, which help to produce: A. sweat. B. sebum. C. skin color. D. fatty tissue.

C. skin color

The olfactory nerve (cranial nerve I) is responsible for: A. vision. B. sight. C. smell. D. hearing.

C. smell

A 77-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain that occurred after a forceful cough. Auscultation of his lungs reveals scattered wheezing on the left side and diminished breath sounds on the right. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: A. acute pulmonary edema. B. exacerbated emphysema. C. spontaneous pneumothorax.

C. spontaneous pneumothorax

You are treating a 50-year-old female with severe abdominal pain. She is conscious but restless, and is begging you for pain medication. Her blood pressure is 136/88 mm Hg, pulse is 120 beats/min and strong, and respirations are 24 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. After administering 100% oxygen, you should: A. request a paramedic to administer analgesia to the patient. B. give her small sips of water, but only if she is not nauseated. C. start a large-bore IV and set it at a keep the vein open rate. D. administer 20 mL/kg fluid boluses through two large-bore IVs.

C. start a large-bore IV and set it at a keep the vein open rate

The term inotropy refers to the: A. rate of cardiac contraction. B. control of electrical conduction. C. strength of myocardial contraction. D. degree of ventricular irritability.

C. strength of myocardial contraction

The presence of _________ should alert you to the presence of upper airway swelling during an allergic reaction. A. rales B. dyspnea C. stridor D. wheezing

C. stridor

A thermal burn involving the epidermis that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a: A. moderate burn. B. second-degree burn. C. superficial burn. D. full-thickness burn.

C. superficial burn

If one or more occupants in the same vehicle are killed in a crash, the AEMT should: A. rapidly assess only the survivors who have experienced obvious trauma. B. allow the survivors to refuse transport if they have no obvious injuries. C. suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma. D. transport the survivors only if they have injuries or complain of pain.

C. suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma

The MOST dangerous complication associated with the use of the LMA is: A. regurgitation and aspiration. B. inadvertent tracheal placement. C. swelling of the upper airway structures. D. occlusion of the opening to the esophagus.

C. swelling of the upper airway structures

Decreases in cardiac output and blood pressure in a patient with anaphylactic shock are the result of: A. internal fluid loss. B. profound tachycardia. C. systemic vasodilation. D. increased cardiac preload.

C. systemic vasodilation

The hypertension that is commonly observed in patients with an intracerebral hemorrhage is usually the result of: A. massive vasoconstriction within the cerebrum. B. a reflex bradycardia as the body compensates. C. the body's attempt to shunt blood to the brain. D. systemic vasodilation caused by autoregulation.

C. the body's attempt to shunt blood to the brain

The need to perform a detailed physical exam on a patient is based on: A. whether or not a focused exam was performed. B. your transport distance to the closest hospital. C. the nature of illness or mechanism of injury. D. the patient's response to initial management.

C. the nature of illness or mechanism of injury

Manual C-spine stabilization should continue until: A. the patient has been loaded into the ambulance. B. motor and sensory functions have been assessed. C. the patient is fully secured to a long backboard. D. an appropriately-sized C-collar has been applied.

C. the patient is fully secured to a long backboard

You must be careful when speaking to the family members about a patient because: A. it is a violation of the patient's rights. B. the family may sue you for slander. C. the patient may misinterpret what you said. D. they are not a reliable source of information.

C. the patient may misinterpret what you said

The finer and somewhat fainter breath sounds noted in the lateral wall of the chest are known as: A. bronchovesicular sounds. B. pleural sounds. C. vesicular sounds. D. bronchial sounds.

C. vesicular sounds

If a person places his or her hand on a hot stove: A. the connecting nerves in the spinal cord will detect the painful stimulus and send a sensory message to the brain. B. the sensory nerve will form a reflex arc and send a message to the brain to elicit a motor response. C. the sensory nerve will bypass the brain and send a message directly to the motor nerve. D. the motor nerve will bypass the spinal cord and send a sensory message directly to the brain.

C. the sensory nerve will bypass the brain and send a message directly to the motor nerve

A patient is considered to have positive orthostatic vital signs if: Select one: A. syncope occurs when he or she is supine. B. he or she becomes nauseated upon standing. C. the systolic pressure drops upon standing. D. the heart rate decreases upon standing.

C. the systolic pressure drops upon standing.

An infant or small child's airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because: A. the tongue is proportionately small and can fall back into the posterior pharynx. B. the back of the head is flat, which prevents a neutral position. C. the tongue is proportionately large and the airway is shorter and narrower. D. he or she has a long neck, which makes the trachea prone to collapse.

C. the tongue is proportionately large and the airway is shorter and narrower

Vaginal yeast infections develop when: A. an intrauterine device is left in place too long. B. a woman is exposed to cytomegalovirus. C. the vaginal environment becomes less acidic. D. a woman has repeated outbreaks of genital herpes.

C. the vaginal environment becomes less acidic

Infants are often referred to as "belly breathers" because: A. their intercostal muscles are not functional at an early age. B. an infant's ribs are brittle and are less able to expand. C. their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally. D. their diaphragm does not receive impulses from the brain.

C. their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally

In order for electricity to flow through the body and cause injury: A. there must be an insulator in between the patient and the electrical source. B. the source of the electricity must be high voltage, such as a high power line. C. there must be a complete circuit between the electrical source and the ground. D. a patient must be in direct contact with the electrical source for at least 30 seconds.

C. there must be a complete circuit between the electrical source and the ground

Compartment syndrome is caused by: A. severe increased intracranial pressure following blunt head trauma. B. excessive blood or fluid collection within the abdominal musculature. C. tissue compression and damage due to fluid trapped in a confined space. D. permanent nerve and tissue damage proximal to an injury site.

C. tissue compression and damage due to fluid trapped in a confined space

Following the administration of one tube of oral glucose, your 20-year-old female diabetic patient's condition markedly improves. You should: A. avoid giving further glucose in order to avoid hyperglycemia. B. allow her to drive herself to the hospital if she remains stable. C. transport her to the hospital and reassess her blood sugar en route. D. administer 25 mL of D50 via IV push and transport promptly.

C. transport her to the hospital and reassess her blood sugar en route

A sport utility vehicle lost control and struck a utility pole head-on. The driver was killed instantly. The passenger, a young female, is conscious and alert and has several small abrasions and lacerations to her left forearm. Treatment for the passenger should include: A. a focused exam of her forearm. B. transport to a community hospital. C. transport to a trauma center. D. a secondary assessment at the scene.

C. transport to a trauma center

When caring for any patient who was sexually assaulted and experienced injury to the external genitalia, you should: A. transport only and provide support and reassurance. B. limit your examination to a secondary assessment only. C. treat any injuries and provide privacy and reassurance. D. treat any injuries and question the patient about the event.

C. treat any injuries and provide privacy and reassurance

You are transporting an immobilized patient with severe facial trauma. As you are preparing to give your radio report to the hospital, the patient begins vomiting large amounts of blood. You should: A. alert the hospital of the situation. B. reassess his breathing adequacy. C. turn the backboard onto its side. D. quickly suction his oropharynx.

C. turn the backboard onto its side

The level of force used to restrain a violent patient is dependent upon all of the following factors, EXCEPT the: A. patient's size, gender, strength, and mental status. B. type of abnormal behavior the patient is exhibiting. C. type and dosage of medications he or she is taking. D. force needed to protect the patient from self-injury.

C. type and dosage of medications he or she is taking

You are attempting to obtain medical history information from a 20-year-old female. However, she does not answer your questions, despite the fact that she is conscious and alert and speaks English. You should: A. provide any necessary treatment and defer her medical history to the hospital staff. B. decrease the amount of time in between each of the questions that you ask her. C. use close-ended questions and reassess the manner in which you are questioning her. D. advise her that if she does not answer your questions, there is no way you can help.

C. use close-ended questions and reassess the manner in which you are questioning her

All of the following elements are essential to the AEMT's critical-thinking ability, EXCEPT: A. an understanding of how injuries and illnesses affect the human body. B. comparing a patient's complaint to past experiences with similar patients. C. using extraneous data to formulate an appropriate patient care plan.

C. using extraneous data to formulate an appropriate patient care plan

The process of moving air into and out of the lungs is called: A. breathing. B. respiration. C. ventilation. D. oxygenation.

C. ventilation

A 40-year-old patient has sustained circumferential burns to the chest. The MOST serious complication associated with this type of burn injury is: A. increased chest excursion. B. cardiac dysrhythmias. C. ventilatory insufficiency. D. compartment syndrome.

C. ventilatory insufficiency

Shortly after its point of origin, the subclavian artery gives rise to the: A. popliteal arteries. B. brachial arteries. C. vertebral arteries.

C. vertebral arteries

Epinephrine is a critical treatment for patients with severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) because it: A. directly blocks the endogenous chemicals that are responsible for the negative effects of the allergic reaction. B. markedly increases the patient's heart rate and improves perfusion to the brain, kidneys, and myocardium. C. works rapidly to raise the BP by constricting the vasculature and improves ventilation by dilating the bronchioles. D. does not increase myocardial oxygen demand and consumption as if it were given to patients with other conditions.

C. works rapidly to raise the BP by constricting the vasculature and improves ventilation by dilating the bronchioles

During your secondary assessment of a 70-year-old male with congestive heart failure, you note the presence of 4+ pitting edema to his lower extremities. This means that: A. the edema is so significant that it is impairing distal circulation. B. it takes greater than 4 minutes for the skin to recoil after depressing it. C. you are able to make an indentation in the skin of greater than 1". D. the edema extends from the ankle to the area just below the knee.

C. you are able to make an indentation in the skin of greater than 1".

Which of the following equations represents metabolic acidosis? A. ↓ H2CO3 → ↓ H+ + HCO3- → ↑ pH B. ↓ H2CO3 → ↑ H+ + HCO3- → ↓ pH C. ↑ H2CO3 → ↑ H+ + HCO3- → ↓ pH D. ↑ H2CO3 → ↓ H+ + HCO3- → ↑ pH

C. ↑ H2CO3 → ↑ H+ + HCO3- → ↓ pH

When treating a patient with severe bleeding, you must: Select one: A. transport promptly. B. give high-flow oxygen. C. obtain frequent vital signs. D. take standard precautions.

D. take standard precautions.

Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question? A. "Do you have a history of heart problems, diabetes, or stroke?" B. "Have you been seen by a physician for your abdominal pain?" C. "Does your shortness of breath get worse when you lie down?" D. "Does anything make your shortness of breath better or worse?"

D. "Does anything make your shortness of breath better or worse?"

You are assessing a responsive patient who complains of abdominal pain. Which of the following questions would be MOST effective in determining the quality of the patient's pain? A. "Does the pain feel like a stabbing pain?" B. "Is the pain sharp or dull?" C. "Does the pain travel anywhere?" D. "What does the pain feel like?"

D. "What does the pain feel like?"

A 20-year-old female, who is a known IV drug abuser, has overdosed on heroin. Your assessment reveals that she is semiconscious, bradycardic, and hypotensive. Her respirations are slow and shallow. As your partner is assisting her ventilations, you should start an IV and give: A. 20 mL/kg boluses of normal saline to raise her BP. B. 50 mL of 50% dextrose to rule out hypoglycemia. C. 1 mg of glucagon to raise her blood glucose level. D. 0.4 mg of naloxone, followed by a reassessment.

D. 0.4 mg of naloxone, followed by a reassessment

500 micrograms (µg) is equal to: A. 0.05 mg. B. 0.005 mg. C. 5 mg. D. 0.5 mg.

D. 0.5 mg

By the end of the first year of life, a child's tidal volume typically ranges between: A. 6 and 8 mL/kg. B. 8 and 10 mL/kg. C. 15 and 20 mL/kg. D. 10 and 15 mL/kg.

D. 10 and 15 mL/kg

A 1-year-old female sustained blunt abdominal trauma following a motor-vehicle crash in which she was not properly restrained. Significant signs and symptoms will MOST likely occur after as little as _____ of blood loss. A. 250 mL B. 300 mL C. 50 mL D. 100 mL

D. 100 mL

You receive a call for a 40-year-old female with nausea, dizziness, and a headache. During your assessment, you note that her blood pressure is 190/104 mm Hg. The patient, who is conscious and alert, states that she has a history of hypertension, but admits to being noncompliant with her medications. In addition to IV therapy, appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. rapidly lowering her blood pressure with nitroglycerin. B. placing her in a supine position and lowering her head. C. assisting the patient with her medication and transporting her. D. 100% oxygen and transporting to the closest appropriate facility.

D. 100% oxygen and transporting to the closest appropriate facility.

After inserting the Combitube, the pharyngeal cuff is inflated with _____ mL of air and the distal cuff is inflated with _____ mL of air. A. 60, 10 B. 15, 100 C. 10, 60 D. 100, 15

D. 100, 15

A 40-year-old man was struck in the head with a steel pipe. He opens his eyes when you ask him a question, but cannot recall the date or events prior to the injury. When you ask him if he is injured anywhere else, he tells you no. You should assign him a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of: A. 13 B. 10 C. 11 D. 12

D. 12

The normal respiratory rate for an adult ranges from: A. 8 to 10 breaths/min. B. 10 to 12 breaths/min. C. 12 to 15 breaths/min. D. 12 to 20 breaths/min.

D. 12 to 20 breaths/min

A 44-year-old man is experiencing a ventricular dysrhythmia. Medical control orders your paramedic partner to administer 1.5 mg/kg of lidocaine to the patient, who weighs 185 pounds. Lidocaine is supplied in a concentration of 100 mg/10mL. How many milliliters should your partner administer to this patient? A. 11.5 mL B. 10.4 mL C. 12.2 mL D. 12.6 mL

D. 12.6 mL

What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR? Select one: A. 3:1 B. 5:1 C. 10:1 D. 15:2

D. 15:2

A severely injured patient has lost approximately 750 mL of blood. What is the appropriate volume of crystalloid solution to administer to the patient? A. 750 mL B. 1,500 mL C. 1,000 mL D. 2,250 mL

D. 2,250 mL

Appropriate management for a conscious adult patient with acute abdominal pain, a BP of 80/50 mm Hg, and a pulse rate of 120 beats/min includes: A. increasing the blood pressure to 120 mm Hg. B. elevating the lower extremities 12 to 15 inches. C. fluids by mouth if the patient is not nauseated. D. 20 mL/kg IV fluid boluses to maintain perfusion.

D. 20 mL/kg IV fluid boluses to maintain perfusion

A critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) should ideally be held within how many hours after the incident? A. 2-3 hours B. 6-12 hours C. 12-24 hours D. 24-72 hours

D. 24-72 hours

What is the approximate total blood volume of a female who weighs 60 kg? A. 3.0 L B. 3.3 L C. 3.5 L D. 3.9 L

D. 3.9 L

You are performing an interfacility transport of a patient that will take approximately 15 minutes. The patient has an IV line of normal saline set at a rate of 125 mL/hr. What is the approximate total fluid amount this patient will receive during the transport? A. 40 mL B. 35 mL C. 25 mL D. 30 mL

D. 30 mL

A 60-year-old male has sustained partial- and full-thickness burns to his anterior chest, head, and both anterior arms. On the basis of the "Rule of Nines," what percentage of his body surface area (BSA) has been burned? A. 45% B. 18% C. 27% D. 36%

D. 36%

What is the cardiac output of a person with a stroke volume of 60 mL and a heart rate of 90 beats/min? A. 2.1 L B. 4.2 L C. 5.0 L D. 5.4 L

D. 5.4 L

A 68-year-old female with unstable bradycardia requires 0.5 mg of atropine. Your paramedic partner opens a prefilled syringe of atropine containing 1 mg/10mL. How many milliliters should be administered to the patient? A. 1 mL B. 0.1 mL C. 0.5 mL D. 5 mL

D. 5mL

Common signs and symptoms associated with menstruation include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. breast tenderness. B. mood or behavioral changes. C. abdominal cramping or bloating. D. 60 mL to 100 mL of blood loss.

D. 60 mL to 100 mL of blood loss

What percentage of water accounts for the total body weight? A. 50% B. 70% C. 80% D. 60%

D. 60%

In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service? A. 29-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant, has light vaginal bleeding, and stable vital signs B. 43-year-old man experiencing a heart attack, and the closest appropriate hospital is 15 minutes away C. 50-year-old conscious woman with severe nausea and vomiting, fever, and chills of 3 days' duration D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and your ground-transport time is 50 minutes

D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and your ground-transport time is 50 minutes

At present, the average life expectancy is _____ years, while the maximum life expectancy is estimated at _____ years. A. 72, 110 B. 68, 100 C. 70, 102 D. 78, 120

D. 78, 120

After starting an IV on a patient, you set the flow at a "KVO" rate. How many drops per minute does this rate deliver? A. 3 to 8 B. 7 to 12 C. 15 to 25 D. 8 to 15

D. 8 to 15

A newborn's total body water is approximately: A. 40% of total body weight. B. 50% of total body weight. C. 60% of total body weight. D. 80% of total body weight

D. 80% of total body weight

On the basis of the Parkland formula, how much crystalloid should you administer per hour to a 70-kg patient with severe burns to 50% of his BSA? A. 900-1,000 mL B. 700-800 mL C. 1,000-1,100 mL D. 800-900 mL

D. 800-900 mL

Which of the following patients has experienced the MOST significant fall? A. A 5'-0" patient who fell 13' B. A 5'-9" patient who fell 14' C. A 4'-8" patient who fell 13' D. A 4'-6" patient who fell 13'

D. A 4'-6" patient who fell 13'

Assuming that previous exposure and sensitization has occurred, which of the following patients will likely experience the MOST severe allergic reaction? A. A 21-year-old male who applies lotion to his hands B. A 29-year-old female who ingested a penicillin tablet C. A 36-year-old male with a surface exposure to dry lime D. A 40-year-old female who was stung by a yellow jacket

D. A 40-year-old female who was stung by a yellow jacket

A man is experiencing significant anxiety and depression regarding the impending death of his wife. However, the wife is trying to comfort her husband by telling him that she loves him and is prepared to die. What stage of the grieving process is the patient experiencing? A. Denial B. Bargaining C. Depression D. Acceptance

D. Acceptance

Which of the following medications is a suspension? A. Nitroglycerin B. Oral glucose C. Epinephrine D. Activated charcoal

D. Activated charcoal

Which of the following represents the MOST appropriate order to present patient information over the radio when communicating with the hospital? A. Chief complaint, age and sex, exam findings, history of present illness, care provided, estimated time of arrival B. Age and sex, chief complaint, care provided, history of present illness, exam findings, estimated time of arrival C. Chief complaint, history of present illness, age and sex, exam findings, care provided, estimated time of arrival D. Age and sex, chief complaint, history of present illness, exam findings, care provided, estimated time of arrival

D. Age and sex, chief complaint, history of present illness, exam findings, care provided, estimated time of arrival

What three factors should be evaluated when predicting a trauma patient's potential for serious injuries? A. Age of the patient, amount of force applied to the patient, and the patient's activities at the time of the incident. B. Amount of force applied to the body, the patient's past medical history, and the length of time the force was applied. C. Area(s) of the body involved, the patient's activity at the time of the incident, and the age of the patient. D. Amount of force applied to the body, the length of time the force was applied, and the area(s) of the body involved.

D. Amount of force applied to the body, the length of time the force was applied, and the area(s) of the body involved

Which of the following is an anatomic difference between children and adults? A. The ribcage of an infant is less flexible than an adult's. B. The trachea of an infant is proportionately longer than an adult's. C. An infant's head accounts for less body weight than an adult's. D. An infant's tongue is proportionately larger than an adult's.

D. An infant's tongue is proportionately larger than an adult's

What is an enteral drug? A. A drug that is administered via the oral route only. B. A drug that is given to patients with severe diarrhea. C. Any drug that is administered via the intravenous route. D. Any drug that is administered along any portion of the GI tract.

D. Any drug that is administered along any portion of the GI tract

Which of the following techniques is appropriate when cannulating a vein? A. Avoid traction to the vein and insert the needle with the bevel side down at a 90° angle. B. Avoid traction to the vein and insert the needle with the bevel side up at a 45° angle. C. Apply traction to the vein and insert the needle with the bevel side down at a 45° angle. D. Apply traction to the vein and insert the needle with the bevel side up at a 45° angle.

D. Apply traction to the vein and insert the needle with the bevel side up at a 45° angle

Which of the following actions would you NOT perform during the scene size-up? A. Determine the number of patients. B. Evaluate exterior damage to a car. C. Request a hazardous materials team. D. Assess a patient's breathing effort.

D. Assess a patient's breathing effort

When assessing a patient's abdomen, which of the following techniques will provide you with the LEAST amount of information? A. Gentle palpation of all quadrants B. Assessing for aortic pulsations C. Visualization for ecchymosis D. Auscultation of bowel sounds

D. Auscultation of bowel sounds

What portion of the nervous system controls the functions of many of the body's vital organs, over which the brain has no voluntary control? A. Peripheral B. Somatic C. Adrenergic D. Autonomic

D. Autonomic

Which of the following statements regarding scalp lacerations is correct? A. Because the scalp is highly vascular, you should always apply a tight pressure dressing to control bleeding B. Patients who take antihypertensive medications bleed more severely from scalp lacerations C. Although deep scalp lacerations bleed profusely, they are rarely associated with skull fractures D. Blood loss from a scalp laceration may result in hypovolemic shock, especially in children

D. Blood loss from a scalp laceration may result in hypovolemic shock, especially in children

Why does the skin become flushed or red when a person is exposed to a hot environment? A. Sweat glands produce sebum, resulting in heat evaporation. B. Vasoconstriction shunts blood to the surface of the skin. C. The blood is hyperoxygenated and assumes a bright color. D. Blood vessels dilate and heat radiates to the skin surface.

D. Blood vessels dilate and heat radiates to the skin surface

Which of the following physiologic processes occurs during pulmonary respiration? A. Oxygen moves into the systemic cells. B. Oxygen is exchanged for carbon dioxide. C. Carbon dioxide moves into the capillaries. D. Carbon dioxide diffuses into the alveoli.

D. Carbon dioxide diffuses into the alveoli

Which of the following is NOT an indication to stop CPR once you have started? Select one: A. Pulse and respirations return. B. You are physically exhausted. C. A physician directs you to do so. D. Care is transferred to a bystander.

D. Care is transferred to a bystander.

_______________ is a disorder of the brain in which blood flow to a portion of the brain is suddenly disrupted, resulting in brain cell death. A. Cerebral injury B. Cerebral hypoxia C. Cerebral ischemia D. Cerebral infarction

D. Cerebral infarction

In which of the following patients would it be MOST appropriate to administer oral glucose? A. Conscious patient with a blood glucose level of 70 mg/dL B. Unresponsive patient with adequate ventilatory effort C. Stroke patient with a depressed swallowing mechanism D. Confused diabetic patient who is breathing adequately

D. Confused diabetic patient who is breathing adequately

Which of the following patients is NOT breathing adequately? A. Conscious, respirations of 10 breaths/min, good chest rise B. Confused, respirations of 16 breaths/min, adequate depth C. Conscious, respirations of 28 breaths/min, good tidal volume D. Confused, respirations of 24 breaths/min, shallow depth

D. Confused, respirations of 24 breaths/min, shallow depth

You respond to a call for an 16-year-old boy who injured his arm. As you are assessing the child, he tells you that he does not want you to touch him. His mother tells you to begin treatment and transport the child to the hospital if necessary. What should you do? A. Determine if the child is mentally competent. B. Ask the mother why she wants her son treated and transported. C. Advise the mother that you cannot legally treat her child. D. Continue your assessment and transport if necessary.

D. Continue your assessment and transport if necessary

Which of the following signs or symptoms would you be LEAST likely to find during your assessment of a patient with a pneumothorax? A. Progressive respiratory difficulty B. Tachypnea with reduced tidal volume C. Unilaterally diminished breath sounds D. Contralateral shifting of the trachea

D. Contralateral shifting of the trachea

When assessing a patient who experienced blunt abdominal trauma, you note bruising around the umbilicus. This is called ____________ sign and indicates: A. Kehr sign; ruptured hollow organs. B. Grey Turner sign; injury to the liver. C. Murphy sign; gallbladder rupture. D. Cullen sign; significant internal bleeding.

D. Cullen sign; significant internal bleeding

What size oxygen cylinder is typically carried by the AEMT to the patient's side? A. A cylinder B. E cylinder C. M cylinder D. D cylinder

D. D cylinder

Which of the following is NOT a physiologic effect of sympathetic nervous system stimulation? A. Dilated pupils B. Vasoconstriction C. Reduced digestion D. Decreased heart rate

D. Decreased heart rate

What is the mechanism of aspirin when given to a patient who is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction? A. Blocks the body's plasminogen system. B. Decreases swelling around the infarct site. C. Increases local vasoconstriction and increases BP D. Decreases platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction

D. Decreases platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction

A 70-year-old man presents with generalized weakness and dizziness. His blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg when he is sitting, 96/56 mm Hg when he is standing. His heart rate is 120 beats/min and his skin is flushed and dry. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's signs and symptoms? A. Overhydration B. Liver failure C. Kidney failure D. Dehydration

D. Dehydration

After being told of the death of her husband, a middle-aged woman asks, "Why are you lying to me?" What stage of the grieving process is this typical of? A. Anger B. Bargaining C. Depression D. Denial

D. Denial

Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high-energy trauma? A. Intrusion into the vehicle B. Dismounted seats C. Steering wheel deformity D. Deployment of the air bag

D. Deployment of the air bag

You respond to a call for an older woman who has fallen. Upon arrival at the scene, you assess the patient, who is responsive and alert to person, place, time, and event. She states that she does not want to go to the hospital; however, her son requests that you take her. What should you do? A. Honor the son's request and transport the patient to the hospital. B. Treat the patient under the law of implied consent since she is older. C. Contact law enforcement to determine if the patient is mentally competent. D. Ensure the patient is fully aware of the consequences of refusing treatment.

D. Ensure the patient is fully aware of the consequences of refusing treatment

What layer of the skin contains cells that are replaced with new cells that are formed in the germinal layer? A. Subcutaneous layer B. Melanin layer C. Dermis D. Epidermis

D. Epidermis

As an AEMT, which of the following medications would you be allowed to administer to a patient? A. Atropine B. Lidocaine C. Vasopressin D. Epinephrine

D. Epinephrine

Which of the following signs or symptoms is MOST suggestive of organophosphate poisoning? A. Urinary retention B. Dry mouth and thirst C. Excessive tachycardia D. Excessive lacrimation

D. Excessive lacrimation

You arrive at the scene of a 34-year-old woman with abdominal pain. As you begin talking to the patient, she extends her arm to allow your partner to take her blood pressure. What type of consent is this patient's action consistent with? A. Implied consent B. Informed consent C. Passive consent D. Expressed consent

D. Expressed consent

While caring for a 40-year-old male with shortness of breath and a history of tuberculosis, the AEMT should place a: A. surgical mask on himself and a nasal cannula on the patient. B. HEPA respirator on the patient and a surgical mask on himself. C. surgical mask on himself and a nonrebreathing mask on the patient. D. HEPA respirator on himself and a nonrebreathing mask on the patient.

D. HEPA respirator on himself and a nonrebreathing mask on the patient

Which of the following is NOT a type of white blood cell? A. Eosinophil B. Neutrophil C. Basophil D. Histamine

D. Histamine

What are the pyriform fossae? A. Solid structures located posterior to the vocal cords B. Anatomic spaces located at the base of the tongue C. Structures that support the vocal cords and larynx D. Hollow pockets along the lateral borders of the larynx

D. Hollow pockets along the lateral borders of the larynx

What is the cribriform plate? A. Superior surface of the cranial vault that protects the cerebrum. B. Saddle-shaped depression in the middle of the sphenoid bone. C. Opening through which the brainstem passes from the cerebrum. D. Horizontal bone through which the olfactory nerve filaments pass.

D. Horizontal bone through which the olfactory nerve filaments pass

A 50-year-old patient complains of abdominal muscle cramps and spasms of his hands. Which of the following electrolyte disturbances does this patient MOST likely have? A. Hypernatremia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypocalcemia

D. Hypocalcemia

Which of the following signs indicate narcotic-induced CNS depression and would indicate the administration of naloxone? A. Tachycardia B. Hyperventilation C. Violent behavior D. Hypoventilation

D. Hypoventilation

Patients with acute alcohol withdrawal commonly need: A. extended management in a psychiatric facility. B. to be restrained in a laterally recumbent position. C. injected insulin to treat associated hyperglycemia. D. IV crystalloid fluid boluses to treat hypovolemia.

D. IV crystalloid fluid boluses to treat hypovolemia

Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct? A. A secondary assessment exam is seldom performed in the prehospital setting. B. The purpose of the secondary assessment is to find and treat immediate life threats. C. The secondary assessment should be performed at the scene for all patients. D. If the patient is unstable, the secondary assessment should be performed en route.

D. If the patient is unstable, the secondary assessment should be performed en route

Which of the following physiologic responses is common during an acute stress reaction? A. Decreased respirations B. Pupillary constriction C. Bradycardia and hypotension D. Increased blood glucose levels

D. Increased blood glucose levels

Which of the following medication routes will provide the MOST rapid rate of absorption? A. Transdermal B. Intramuscular C. Subcutaneous D. Intraosseous

D. Intraosseous

Which of the following routes is the quickest for getting medication into the central circulation? A. Intramuscular B. Subcutaneous C. Intranasal D. Intravenous

D. Intravenous

In addition to serving as legal documentation, which of the following is the MOST critical function of the patient care report (PCR)? A. It serves as an educational tool. B. It is used for insurance purposes. C. It is used to gather statistical data. D. It ensures continuity of patient care.

D. It ensures continuity of patient care

In most instances, a valid do not resuscitate (DNR) order must meet which of the following requirements? A. It must be signed by a close relative. B. It must be signed by at least three physicians. C. It must be dated within the previous 24 months. D. It must clearly state the patient's medical condition

D. It must clearly state the patient's medical condition

Which of the following structures is NOT a part of the lower airway? A. Alveoli B. Bronchi C. Trachea D. Larynx

D. Larynx

In relation to the trachea, where is the thyroid gland located? A. Inferiorly B. Superiorly C. Posteriorly D. Laterally

D. Laterally

Which of the following is NOT a lymphatic organ? A. Tonsils B. Adenoids C. Spleen D. Liver

D. Liver

Which of the following organs lie in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen? A. Spleen and liver B. Pancreas and liver C. Gallbladder and spleen D. Liver and gallbladder

D. Liver and gallbladder

What occurs during the initial phase of hemostasis? A. Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin. B. Fibrin binds to a platelet plug and forms a clot. C. Thromboplastin activates clotting proteins. D. Local vasoconstriction and platelet activation occur.

D. Local vasoconstriction and platelet activation occur

A 29-year-old pregnant woman complains of severe vomiting, which has persisted for 2 days. During your assessment, she vomits a large amount of blood and begins to develop signs of shock. You should suspect: A. esophagitis. B. gastroenteritis. C. esophageal varices. D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome.

D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome

In which of the following circumstances should you remove an impaled object? A. Metal rod in the thigh with severe arterial hemorrhage B. Knife in the abdomen of a pulseless and apneic patient C. Ice pick in the chest of an unconscious breathing patient D. Metal shard in the cheek and inadequate respiratory effort

D. Metal shard in the cheek and inadequate respiratory effort

Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias requires immediate defibrillation? A. Sinus tachycardia with a low BP B. Sinus bradycardia without a pulse C. Perfusing ventricular tachycardia D. Nonperfusing ventricular fibrillation

D. Nonperfusing ventricular fibrillation

What do snoring respirations in an unconscious patient indicate? A. Blood or other secretions in the upper airway B. Spasm of the larynx and closure of the vocal cords C. Severe upper airway obstruction from a foreign body D. Partial occlusion of the posterior pharynx by the tongue

D. Partial occlusion of the posterior pharynx by the tongue

By what mechanism is a person injured when he or she falls from a significant height? A. As the person falls, the amount of kinetic energy is converted into work; work is then converted to kinetic energy upon impact. B. Kinetic energy is converted to potential energy; the potential energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop. C. Potential energy is created as the person is falling; the potential energy is then converted into kinetic energy upon impact. D. Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy; the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop.

D. Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy; the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin? A. Temperature regulation B. Protection from the environment C. Transmission of information to the brain D. Production of antibodies to foreign organisms

D. Production of antibodies to foreign organisms

What are the functions of the pancreas? A. Production of renin and regulation of blood pressure. B. Storage and movement of food into the small intestine. C. Concentration and storage of bile until it is needed for digestion. D. Production of insulin and certain enzymes that aid in digestion.

D. Production of insulin and certain enzymes that aid in digestion

Which of the following is the MOST accurate clinical definition of chronic bronchitis? A. Nonproductive cough for 4 months per year for 1 year B. Productive cough for 2 months per year for 2 consecutive years C. Nonproductive cough for 2 months per year for 3 consecutive years D. Productive cough for 3 months per year for 3 consecutive years

D. Productive cough for 3 months per year for 3 consecutive years

Which of the following clinical signs would suggest significant exposure to an anticholinergic substance? A. Excessive salivation B. Severe hypotension C. Pupillary constriction D. Profound tachycardia

D. Profound tachycardia

Which of the following potentially lethal chest injuries would you be the LEAST likely to detect during the primary assessment? A. Flail chest B. Cardiac tamponade C. Bronchial disruption D. Pulmonary contusion

D. Pulmonary contusion

Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma? A. Elevation of the lower extremities B. Early administration of oxygen C. Intravenous fluid administration D. Rapid transport to a trauma center

D. Rapid transport to a trauma center

A 43-year-old female is unconscious following an overdose of heroin. Her respirations are slow and shallow. Which of the following conditions will she initially develop if not treated? A. Metabolic alkalosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Respiratory acidosis

D. Respiratory acidosis

What acid-base derangement initially occurs in a tachypneic patient without a physiologic demand for increased oxygen? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

D. Respiratory alkalosis

What part of the brain regulates a person's level of consciousness? A. Pons B. Midbrain C. Medulla oblongata D. Reticular activating system

D. Reticular activating system

Which of the following MOST accurately describes the pathophysiology of angina pectoris? A. Irreversible process in which one or more coronary arteries spasm and decrease myocardial blood supply B. Reversible process in which a brittle intracoronary plaque ruptures and activates the blood-clotting system C. Irreversible process in which the lumen of the coronary artery is completely occluded with plaque D. Reversible process in which myocardial oxygen demand exceeds the supply of available oxygen

D. Reversible process in which myocardial oxygen demand exceeds the supply of available oxygen

A 66-year-old male with congestive heart failure presents with pulmonary edema and difficulty breathing. His blood pressure is 180/90 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 110 beats/min and irregular. When starting an IV, which of the following, if available, would be MOST appropriate for this patient? A. 14-gauge angiocath B. Intracath C. Butterfly catheter D. Saline lock

D. Saline lock

Because it has accepted medical uses, a low abuse potential, and a limited dependence potential, lorazepam (Ativan) is classified as a: A. Schedule I drug B. Schedule II drug C. Schedule III drug D. Schedule IV drug

D. Schedule IV drug

Which of the following organs or systems can survive the longest without oxygen? A. Gastrointestinal system B. Central nervous system C. The myocardium D. Skeletal muscles

D. Skeletal muscles

Which of the following organs occupies all four abdominal quadrants? A. Liver and spleen B. Stomach and pancreas C. Colon and pancreas D. Small intestine and colon

D. Small intestine and colon

Which of the following electrolytes is essential for the distribution of water throughout the body? A. Chloride B. Calcium C. Potassium D. Sodium

D. Sodium

A 29-year-old female had a glass bottle inserted into her vagina during a sexual assault. She is conscious and alert and has stable vital signs, but she is in severe pain. How should you manage this patient? A. Carefully remove the bottle, monitor her vital signs, provide emotional support, and promptly transport. B. Stabilize the bottle, place dressings in the vagina, provide emotional support, and promptly transport. C. Make one attempt to remove the bottle, start an IV of normal saline, provide emotional support, and transport promptly. D. Stabilize the bottle with bulky dressings, monitor her vital signs, provide emotional support, and transport promptly.

D. Stabilize the bottle with bulky dressings, monitor her vital signs, provide emotional support, and transport promptly

If a person is standing near a building that explodes, which of the following injuries would he or she MOST likely experience as a result of the pressure wave? A. Fractured bones B. Severe burns C. Impaled objects D. Stomach rupture

D. Stomach rupture

How is nitroglycerin usually given? A. Orally B. Inhaled C. Injected D. Sublingual

D. Sublingual

An anion is an: A. ion with an overall positive charge. B. electrolyte with a neutral charge. C. ion with both a negative and positive charge. D. ion with an overall negative charge.

D. ion with an overall negative charge

Which of the following statements regarding Kussmaul respirations is correct? A. Kussmaul respirations are characterized by rapid, shallow breathing. B. It is the body's compensatory mechanism for rapidly lowering the pH. C. You should assist ventilations in all patients with Kussmaul respirations. D. The SpO2 may be normal due to an increase in respiratory rate and depth.

D. The SpO2 may be normal due to an increase in respiratory rate and depth

Which of the following has the MOST impact on the severity of radiation injury or type of health effect? A. Type of radiation and the patient's age B. The distance between the patient and the source C. The presence of any underlying medical conditions. D. The amount and duration of exposure

D. The amount and duration of exposure

Which of the following statements regarding low-energy penetrating injuries is correct? A. Exit wounds are typically easy to locate with low-energy penetrating injuries. B. Internal injuries caused by low-velocity bullets are usually easy to predict. C. It is usually easy to differentiate between an entrance wound and an exit wound. D. The area of injury is usually close to the path the object took through the body.

D. The area of injury is usually close to the path the object took through the body.

A 37-year-old male with chronic anxiety finds that he has to take more of his antianxiety medication to achieve the same effect. What is this called? A. Potentiation B. Habituation C. Synergism D. Tolerance

D. Tolerance

A 40-year-old female presents with confusion, slurred speech, and tachycardia. Her blood pressure is low and her pupils are dilated. Which of the following medications has she MOST likely ingested? A. Opiate B. Barbiturate C. Benzodiazepine D. Tricyclic antidepressant

D. Tricyclic antidepressant

Following blunt trauma to the right flank area, a 20-year-old male presents with hematuria. Assessment of the area reveals pain to palpation, but no visible signs of trauma. His blood pressure is 120/76 mm Hg, pulse is 120 beats/min, and respirations are 24 breaths/min and unlabored. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate intravenous therapy for this patient? A. One large-bore IV set at a keep vein open (KVO) rate. B. Two large-bore IVs and a 500 mL normal saline bolus. C. One large-bore IV and a 20 mL/kg normal saline bolus. D. Two large-bore IVs set at a keep vein open (KVO) rate.

D. Two large-bore IVs set at a keep vein open (KVO) rate

Which of the following clinical or historical findings would be the LEAST likely to increase a woman's risk of an ectopic pregnancy? A. An intrauterine device (IUD) B. Previous ectopic pregnancy C. Pelvic inflammatory disease D. Two spontaneous abortions

D. Two spontaneous abortions

Which of the following patient conditions would contraindicate the use of a multilumen airway device? A. A deeply unconscious apneic patient who overdosed on cocaine. B. Unresponsive patient with apnea and severe maxillofacial trauma C. Cardiac arrest patient in which several attempts to intubate have failed D. Unconscious apneic patient with alcoholism and an absent gag reflex

D. Unconscious apneic patient with alcoholism and an absent gag reflex

Which of the following patients would benefit MOST from the application and inflation of the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG)? A. Unilateral femur fracture with a BP of 100/60 mm Hg B. Closed head trauma with a BP of 160/90 mm Hg C. Chest trauma with a systolic BP of 60 mm Hg D. Unstable pelvis with a BP of 80/50 mm Hg

D. Unstable pelvis with a BP of 80/50 mm Hg

The National EMS Information System (NEMSIS) has identified minimum data to be included in a patient care report. Which of the following is NOT included in the minimum data? A. Level of consciousness or mental status B. Chief complaint and vital signs C. Time and date that you were dispatched D. Weather forecast at the time of dispatch

D. Weather forecast at the time of dispatch

Abnormal variations in pupil size and reaction would MOST likely be observed in a patient with: A. conjunctivitis. B. contact lenses. C. retinitis. D. a brain injury.

D. a brain injury

The Hering-Breuer reflex is defined as: A. an increase in respiratory rate and depth secondary to decreased levels of oxygen in the blood. B. a feedback loop that sends signals to the apneustic center, resulting in increased tidal volume. C. a decrease in respiratory rate and depth secondary to decreased carbon dioxide levels in the blood. D. a feedback loop that inhibits the inspiratory center, which prevents overexpansion of the lungs.

D. a feedback loop that inhibits the inspiratory center, which prevents overexpansion of the lungs

A 40-year-old female, unrestrained, impacted the steering wheel of her vehicle with her chest when her vehicle hit a tree while traveling at 45 mph. She is conscious and alert, but is experiencing significant chest pain and shortness of breath. Given the mechanism of injury and her present condition, it is LEAST likely that she experienced: A. a cardiac contusion. B. a pulmonary contusion. C. multiple rib fractures. D. a head injury.

D. a head injury

An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as: A. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional. B. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs. C. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms. D. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body.

D. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body

Acute abdominal pain in a female of childbearing age should be assumed to be: A. an ovarian cyst. B. a sexually transmitted disease. C. pelvic inflammatory disease. D. a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.

D. a ruptured ectopic pregnancy

Peritonitis typically causes ileus, which is the result of: A. a laceration to the small intestine. B. an obstruction of the large bowel. C. a necrotic loop of the large intestine. D. absent peristalsis in the intestine.

D. absent peristalsis in the intestine

Peritonitis is almost always associated with nausea and vomiting because: A. the smooth muscles in the intestine are usually hyperactive. B. excessive bile produced by the liver is irritating to the stomach. C. the patient is typically anorexic and vomits bile from the stomach. D. absent peristalsis prevents movement of food through the GI tract.

D. absent peristalsis prevents movement of food through the GI tract

Your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to: A. perform a head-to-toe secondary assessment. B. assess her oxygen saturation and blood pressure. C. retrieve the stretcher and prepare for transport. D. administer oxygen with the appropriate device.

D. administer oxygen with the appropriate device

When communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: A. most older patients are confused due to a decrease in brain cells. B. deafness and blindness are a normal part of the aging process. C. the majority of older patients experience a loss of low-frequency hearing. D. age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears.

D. age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears

When percussing the chest of a patient who experienced blunt chest trauma, you note hyperresonance on the left side of his chest. This suggests: A. blood in the pleural space. B. alveolar hyperinflation. C. myocardial compression. D. air in the pleural space.

D. air in the pleural space

A concise and well-organized radio report to the hospital is MOST beneficial because it: A. facilitates the dispatcher's documentation of the event. B. prevents you from being accused of improper patient care. C. prevents an unnecessarily lengthy exchange of information. D. allows the hospital to allocate the appropriate resources.

D. allows the hospital to allocate the appropriate resources

Tidal volume minus dead space volume is called: A. minute volume. B. vital capacity. C. residual volume. D. alveolar ventilation.

D. alveolar ventilation

Drugs that attach to a receptor and counteract the effects of something else are called: A. agonists. B. mimetics. C. stimulants. D. antagonists.

D. antagonists

Proteins of the immune system that recognize foreign substances is/are called: A. bilirubin. B. antigens. C. pathogens. D. antibodies.

D. antibodies

You are assessing a 4-year-old male who was electrocuted when he stuck a pin into an electrical socket. He is conscious and alert and complains of pain to his left hand, where you find a small entrance wound. When treating this child, you should: A. apply an AED and monitor the child. B. fully immobilize his spinal column. C. flush the wound with sterile saline. D. anticipate extensive internal injuries.

D. anticipate extensive internal injuries

A 3-year-old, 15-kg female swallowed an unknown quantity of gasoline. Your assessment reveals that she is conscious, crying, and alert. Her airway is patent and her breathing is adequate. You should: A. administer 15 g of activated charcoal and have suction ready. B. apply 100% oxygen as tolerated and request a paramedic unit. C. induce vomiting and closely monitor the status of her airway. D. apply 100% oxygen as tolerated and promptly transport her.

D. apply 100% oxygen as tolerated and promptly transport her

A 28-year-old female was the unrestrained driver of a car that struck the rear end of another car while traveling at 35 mph. She is conscious and alert and complains of pain to the anterior chest. During your assessment, you note a large ecchymotic area over the superior aspect of the anterior chest. As your partner assumes manual stabilization of her head, you should: A. rapidly extricate her from the car and transport. B. open her airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver. C. obtain vital signs to assess for signs of shock. D. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

D. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask

You arrive at the scene of a residential fire where the occupant, a 48-year-old male, has sustained partial- and full-thickness burns to his lower extremities and lower torso. Firefighters removed the patient's smoldering clothing and stopped the burning process prior to your arrival. The patient is conscious, but restless, and complains of intense pain to the burned areas. After taking the standard precautions, you should: A. rapidly estimate the extent of the patient's burns. B. perform a secondary assessment and start an IV. C. immerse the burned areas in sterile water. D. apply supplemental oxygen and monitor his airway.

D. apply supplemental oxygen and monitor his airway

A utility worker was trimming branches away from a high power line when he accidentally cut the power line. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should begin CPR and then: A. assess for an entrance and exit wound. B. establish two large-bore IV lines. C. apply full spinal motion restriction precautions. D. apply the AED as soon as possible.

D. apply the AED as soon as possible

After the aorta arises from the left ventricle, it first: A. ascends and branches into the thoracic aorta. B. descends and branches into the abdominal aorta. C. descends and branches into the iliac arteries. D. ascends and branches into the coronary arteries.

D. ascends and branches into the coronary arteries

The function of the National Registry of EMTs is to: A. set training standards for each EMS provider level. B. provide continuing education for EMS providers. C. mandate that EMS providers recertify every year. D. assess competence through a valid testing process.

D. assess competence through a valid testing process

You are called to the county jail for a 50-year-old male who is "drunk." When you assess him, you note the smell of alcohol on his breath and a markedly decreased level of consciousness. The sheriff's deputy tells you that this patient is a "regular." On the basis of the information that you have obtained, you should: A. administer 20 mL/kg of normal saline boluses to rehydrate him. B. treat the patient for liver failure secondary to chronic alcohol abuse. C. give oxygen and draw blood to determine his blood-alcohol level. D. assess the patient's blood glucose and suspect intracranial bleeding.

D. assess the patient's blood glucose and suspect intracranial bleeding

A young female with severe lower abdominal pain presents with a decreased level of consciousness, tachypnea, and shallow breathing. Her blood pressure is 88/48 mm Hg and her pulse is 130 beats/min and weak. You should: A. cover her with a blanket to keep her warm. B. administer 20 mL/kg normal saline boluses. C. elevate her legs and reassess her blood pressure. D. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.

D. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device

A 71-year-old man presents with shortness of breath, facial cyanosis, and a cough that is producing blood. His blood pressure is 144/92 mm Hg, pulse is 130 beats/min and irregular, and respirations of 28 breaths/min and labored. He is confused and is slow follow your commands. You should: A. use CPAP to attempt to improve his breathing, insert a saline lock, transport, and be prepared to assist his ventilations. B. insert a multilumen airway device, ventilate him at a rate of 12 breaths/min, transport, and establish IV access en route to the hospital. C. administer high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, place him in a position of comfort, insert a saline lock, and transport. D. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device, begin transport, and consider establishing IV access en route to the hospital.

D. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device, begin transport, and consider establishing IV access en route to the hospital

A 40-year-old female is semiconscious following blunt head trauma. Your assessment reveals that her respirations are slow and shallow, her pulse is slow, and her blood pressure is elevated. Her pupils are bilaterally dilated and sluggishly reactive. Appropriate management for this patient includes: A. hyperventilation at a rate of 20 breaths/min. B. 20 mL/kg boluses of a crystalloid solution. C. preoxygenation and insertion of a Combitube. D. assisted ventilation at a rate of 10 breaths/min.

D. assisted ventilation at a rate of 10 breaths/min

A 56-year-old male is found unresponsive by a neighbor. Your assessment reveals that he is diaphoretic, pale, and is breathing rapidly and shallowly. His blood glucose reading is 49 mg/dL. The MOST appropriate management for this patient includes: A. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and administration of oral glucose. B. oxygen via nasal cannula, a 20 mL/kg normal saline bolus, and glucagon IM. C. assisted ventilation, a 1,000 mL fluid bolus, and insertion of a King airway. D. assisted ventilation, 50 mL of D50 IV, and oropharyngeal suctioning as needed.

D. assisted ventilation, 50 mL of D50 IV, and oropharyngeal suctioning as needed

The decline in cardiac function that commonly occurs in late adulthood is largely related to: A. medication use. B. hypotension. C. kidney failure. D. atherosclerosis.

D. atherosclerosis

The tricuspid and mitral valves of the heart are referred to as: A. semilunar valves. B. atrioseptal valves. C. ventriculoseptal valves. D. atrioventricular valves.

D. atrioventricular valves

The ability of a cardiac muscle cell to contract spontaneously without a stimulus from a nerve source is called: A. dromotropy. B. conductivity. C. excitability. D. automaticity.

D. automaticity

Any radio hardware that contains a transmitter and receiver and is located in a fixed location is called a: A. UHF receiver. B. dedicated line. C. repeater. D. base station.

D. base station

Shortly after administering epinephrine to a 49-year-old male with anaphylactic shock, he becomes unconscious. Your assessment reveals that he is pulseless and apneic. You should: A. begin CPR and start an IV line. B. insert a multilumen airway device. C. request a paramedic crew to assist. D. begin CPR and apply the AED.

D. begin CPR and apply the AED

You are assessing a 62-year-old female who has an automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator (AICD). As you are applying oxygen to her, she becomes unconscious, pulseless, and apneic. You should: A. begin CPR and insert a multilumen airway device. B. deactivate the AICD with a magnet and begin CPR. C. allow the AICD to defibrillate her and start CPR. D. begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.

D. begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible

After defibrillating an adult patient in cardiac arrest with the AED, you should: A. assess for a carotid pulse for no more than 10 seconds. B. insert a multilumen airway device and resume CPR. C. immediately reanalyze the patient's cardiac rhythm. D. begin or resume CPR starting with chest compressions.

D. begin or resume CPR starting with chest compressions

The term "hyphema" is defined as: A. an acute rupture of the globe of the eye. B. inflammation of the iris, cornea, and lens. C. compression of one or both optic nerves. D. blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.

D. blood in the anterior chamber of the eye

When ventilation is compromised but perfusion continues: A. air movement into and out of the lungs is adequate, but diffusion is impaired. B. the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen, but it cannot diffuse into the blood. C. more CO2 diffuses across the pulmonary-capillary membrane and is eliminated. D. blood passes over some alveolar membranes without gas exchange taking place.

D. blood passes over some alveolar membranes without gas exchange taking place

Following a severe closed head injury, a 23-year-old female develops cardiac dysrhythmias and an irregular pattern of breathing. The area of her brain MOST likely injured is the: A. cerebellum. B. cerebrum. C. cerebral cortex. D. brainstem.

D. brainstem

The midbrain, pons, and medulla collectively form the: A. hypothalamus. B. cerebral cortex. C. diencephalon D. brainstem.

D. brainstem

The primary waste product of metabolism is: A. glucose. B. lactic acid. C. glycogen. D. carbon dioxide.

D. carbon dioxide

When assessing a patient suspected of overdosing on cocaine, you must be especially alert for: A. respiratory depression. B. significant bradycardia. C. profound hypotension. D. cardiac dysrhythmias.

D. cardiac dysrhythmias

The vagus nerve: A. provides motor innervation to the muscles of the pharynx. B. carries parasympathetic fibers to the salivary (parotid) glands. C. provides motor innervation to the muscles of chewing (mastication). D. carries parasympathetic fibers to the thoracic and abdominal organs.

D. carries parasympathetic fibers to the thoracic and abdominal organs

The spinal nerves branch out from the spinal cord and: A. are only capable of sensory input. B. send messages exclusively to the brain. C. send motor responses to the brain. D. carry signals to and from the body.

D. carry signals to and from the body

Violent or dangerous individuals who do not require medical care should be: A. given a sedative medication. B. transported for psychiatric care. C. subdued with soft restraints. D. taken into police custody.

D. taken into police custody

Motor nerves of the peripheral nervous system are responsible for: A. carrying impulses from the body to the brain. B. sensations such as pain, temperature, and pressure. C. involuntary functions such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure. D. carrying commands from the central nervous system to the muscles.

D. carrying commands from the central nervous system to the muscles

When starting an IV on an elderly patient, you should be aware that: A. larger IV catheters minimize the risk of extravasation. B. varicose veins are often the easiest veins to cannulate. C. the patient's skin is often thick and difficult to puncture. D. certain medications can create fragile skin and veins.

D. certain medications can create fragile skin and veins

In addition to looking for severe bleeding, assessment of circulation in the responsive patient should involve: A. palpating the carotid pulse to determine the approximate rate and checking capillary refill time. B. taking a blood pressure and determining if the patient is alert and oriented or confused. C. applying a pulse oximeter probe to the finger to determine if peripheral perfusion is adequate. D. checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temperature, and condition of his or her skin.

D. checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temperature, and condition of his or her skin

A 39-year-old female experienced a severe closed head injury. She is unconscious with her eyes slightly open; her pupils are bilaterally dilated and slow to react. In addition to managing problems with airway, breathing, and circulation, you should: A. secure her eyes open so you can reassess her pupils. B. inspect her eyes and gently remove impaled objects. C. irrigate her eyes with water to prevent mucosal drying. D. close her eyes and cover them with a moist dressing.

D. close her eyes and cover them with a moist dressing

The second heart sound (S2) represents: A. closure of the pulmonic valve. B. closure of the atrioventricular valves. C. closure of the aortic valve. D. closure of the semilunar valves.

D. closure of the semilunar valves

In the pelvis, the descending aorta divides into the: A. renal arteries. B. popliteal arteries. C. femoral arteries. D. common iliac arteries.

D. common iliac arteries

When assessing a patient with bizarre behavior, it is important to ensure your own safety and then: A. talk the patient down to convince him or her to be transported. B. ensure that the patient is in between you and an escape route. C. have law enforcement place the patient in protective custody. D. consider that a medical illness may be an underlying etiology.

D. consider that a medical illness may be an underlying etiology

A circular system of ongoing internal and external reviews is known as: A. advanced life support review. B. retrospective patient care analysis. C. quarterly audits of EMS systems. D. continuous quality improvement.

D. continuous quality improvement

A 40-year-old man with diabetes has a blood glucose level of 38 mg/dL. However, because he is unconscious and unable to swallow oral glucose, the medication is: A. ineffective. B. indicated. C. idiosyncratic. D. contraindicated.

D. contraindicated

A 34-year-old male was involved in a motor-vehicle crash. During the crash, his vehicle caught fire. Bystanders removed the patient from his vehicle prior to your arrival. The patient is conscious with adequate breathing. He has partial-thickness burns to his face and neck, and an open femur fracture with severe bleeding. Immediate management for this patient should include: A. performing a secondary assessment. B. providing assisted ventilation. C. maintaining body temperature. D. controlling the bleeding from his leg.

D. controlling the bleeding from his leg

As the aorta exits the left ventricle, it immediately branches into the: A. carotid arteries. B. innominate artery. C. subclavian arteries. D. coronary arteries.

D. coronary arteries

Estrogen and progesterone are secreted by the: A. corpus callosum. B. mammary glands. C. ovarian follicle. D. corpus luteum.

D. corpus luteum

Air bags are designed to: A. be used with or without a shoulder harness. B. prevent a second collision inside the car. C. prevent the driver from sustaining head trauma. D. decrease the severity of deceleration injuries.

D. decrease the severity of deceleration injuries

A 30-year-old male presents with signs of shock. He is conscious but anxious, and is in no obvious respiratory distress. After applying oxygen, you attach a pulse oximeter, which reads 78%. This low oxygen saturation reading is MOST likely the result of: A. severe hypocarbia. B. a decreased PCO2. C. volume depletion. D. decreased perfusion.

D. decreased perfusion

Why does the incidence of diabetes mellitus increase with age? A. decreased food intake, decreased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels B. increased physical activity, increased food intake, and increased insulin production C. decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels D. decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production

D. decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production

The term anemia is defined as: A. excessive red blood cells. B. deficiency of white blood cells. C. excessive white blood cells. D. deficiency of red blood cells.

D. deficiency of red blood cells

All of the follow deformity of a short bonea closed soft tissue injury, EXCEPT: A. swelling beneath the skin. B. a history of blunt trauma. C. pain at the site of injury. D. deformity of a short bone.

D. deformity of a short bone

While eating dinner at a restaurant with his wife, a man remembers that he did not take his antianxiety medication. He immediately begins to experience anxiety and tells his wife that they must leave immediately. This response is typical of: A. synergism. B. tolerance. C. potentiation. D. dependence.

D. dependence

A young female was involved in a motor-vehicle crash and complains of neck pain. When assessing her, you should NOT: A. assess gross motor function. B. ask her to move her hands or feet. C. ask her to point to the area of pain. D. determine cervical range of motion.

D. determine cervical range of motion

When using the Cincinnati Stroke Scale to assess a 59-year-old female with a suspected stroke, you note a left-sided facial droop when you ask her to smile. You should: A. start an IV line and administer 25g of 50% dextrose (D50). B. ask the patient to keep her eyes open as you assess arm drift. C. suspect intracerebral bleeding with mild intracranial pressure. D. determine if the patient has dysarthria or is unable to speak.

D. determine if the patient has dysarthria or is unable to speak

The movement of a solute from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is called: A. osmosis. B. endocytosis. C. exocytosis. D. diffusion.

D. diffusion

Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is MOST effectively controlled with: A. digital pressure to an adjacent pulse point. B. ice packs and elevation of the patient's head. C. pressure dressings and chemical ice packs. D. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings.

D. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings

You are treating a 56-year-old man with CPAP. He has a history of congestive heart failure and is experiencing marked respiratory distress. When you reassess him, you note that he is no longer able to follow verbal commands. You should: A. recheck the mask seal and adjust the amount of PEEP accordingly. B. request a paramedic unit because the patient needs to be intubated. C. remove the CPAP device and prepare to insert a supraglottic airway. D. discontinue CPAP and assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device.

D. discontinue CPAP and assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device

A 49-year-old female was the victim of a sexual assault. Your assessment reveals that she is conscious and alert and is breathing adequately. There is no gross external bleeding and her vital signs are stable. You should: A. visually examine her genitalia for trauma. B. start an IV at a keep-vein-open (KVO) rate. C. question her as to the events of the assault. D. discourage her from showering or douching.

D. discourage her from showering or douching

Partial pressure is the term used to describe the amount of gas that is: A. in arterial blood. B. in venous blood. C. exchanged in the lungs. D. dissolved in fluid.

D. dissolved in fluid

While en route back to your station after delivering a patient to the hospital, you realize that you made an error on the front page of the patient care report. You should: A. mark through the error with a black marker to ensure it is completely covered. B. completely mark through the error and write the correct information beside it. C. place an "X" across the error and write an addendum to include the correction. D. draw a straight line through it with different colored ink and date and initial it.

D. draw a straight line through it with different colored ink and date and initial it

In an attempt to minimize the pain associated with abdominal trauma, the patient will typically: A. draw his or her knees into the abdomen and breathe deeply. B. take deep breaths to relieve pressure off of the diaphragm. C. prefer to extend his or her legs and relax the muscles of the abdomen. D. draw his or her knees into the abdomen and tense the abdominal muscles.

D. draw his or her knees into the abdomen and tense the abdominal muscles

A hypertonic solution is one that: A. causes no shift in fluid on either side of the cell. B. pulls fluid and electrolytes into the cell. C. has a minimal risk of causing overhydration. D. draws fluid and electrolytes out of the cell.

D. draws fluid and electrolytes out of the cell

Chemicals in the blood that become ionic conductors when placed in a solvent are called: A. ions. B. solutes. C. enzymes. D. electrolytes.

D. electrolytes

Chemicals that become ionic conductors when dissolved in water are called: A. ions. B. exocytes. C. endocytes. D. electrolytes.

D. electrolytes

Substances that become charged particles when they disassociate in water are called: A. permeable cells. B. organic molecules. C. inorganic molecules. D. electrolytes.

D. electrolytes

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash involving a telephone pole, you note that the driver appears unconscious and is bleeding heavily from the mouth. There is a power line across the hood and roof of the car. You should: A. carefully remove the power line with rubber gloves. B. remove the power lines with a non-conductive object. C. attempt to safely remove the patient from the car. D. ensure that the power line is not electrically active.

D. ensure that the power line is not electrically active

When responding to the scene of a patient who has possibly overdosed on a drug, your primary responsibility is to: A. notify law enforcement. B. rapidly assess the patient. C. identify the drug involved. D. ensure that you are safe.

D. ensure that you are safe

You are assessing the arm drift of an elderly male with a suspected stroke and note that both of his arms drift toward the ground. You should: A. conclude that the patient is having a left-sided ischemic stroke. B. treat the patient for a hemorrhagic stroke to the right side of the brain. C. assess the arm drift by having the patient hold up one arm at a time. D. ensure the patient understood your instructions and repeat the test.

D. ensure the patient understood your instructions and repeat the test

Treatment for a patient experiencing a cardiovascular emergency begins by: A. assessing the rate and regularity of the pulse. B. applying 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. C. administering prescribed nitroglycerin if needed. D. ensuring airway patency and adequate breathing.

D. ensuring airway patency and adequate breathing

An allergic reaction is MOST accurately defined as a(n): A. abnormal sensitivity of the body to a foreign toxin or substance. B. autoimmune response of the body to an internal or external stimulus. C. direct negative effect on the human body as the result of a foreign toxin. D. exaggerated response of the body's immune system to a foreign stimulus.

D. exaggerated response of the body's immune system to a foreign stimulus

A male patient is reporting crushing chest pain. Prior to informing an invasive procedure on him, you must: A. ensure that he is responsive and alert. B. ask him if he has ever had such a procedure. C. carefully explain the procedure to the patient's family. D. explain the risks and benefits of the procedure to the patient.

D. explain the risks and benefits of the procedure to the patient

You are dispatched to a residence for a young female who was sexually assaulted when a perpetrator broke into her home. She is conscious and alert and has multiple abrasions and bruises to her face and arms. As you begin to assess her, she tells you that she does not want to go to the hospital. You should: A. tell her that she can take a shower if she will allow you to transport her. B. advise her that since she was the victim of a crime she must be transported. C. transport her since the assault has interfered with her ability to think clearly. D. explain the seriousness of the situation but allow her to refuse if she wishes.

D. explain the seriousness of the situation but allow her to refuse if she wishes

When errors associated with the AED occur, it is usually the result of: A. failure of the AED's internal memory card. B. failure of the internal analyzing mechanism. C. inappropriate placement of the chest pads. D. failure to ensure the batteries are charged.

D. failure to ensure the batteries are charged

A person would MOST likely experience a compression injury of the lumbar spine when he or she: A. hyperextends the lower back. B. dives head first into a pool. C. laterally bends the lumbar spine. D. falls and lands on his or her feet.

D. falls and lands on his or her feet

Common findings in patients with blood disorders include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. chronic bruising. B. pallor or jaundice. C. bleeding or infected gums. D. flushed skin and bradycardia.

D. flushed skin and bradycardia

You are requesting an order to perform an invasive intervention on a critically ill patient from medical control when the radio system suddenly fails. You should: A. perform the invasive intervention. B. reattempt to contact medical control. C. continue BLS and transport. D. follow standing orders

D. follow standing orders

When documenting a mass-casualty incident (MCI), you should: A. keep a mental note of all patients you encountered. B. complete a patient care form for every patient. C. avoid the use of temporary documentation tools. D. follow your local MCI plan for documentation.

D. follow your local MCI plan for documentation

Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. acute cyanosis. B. inability to speak. C. grasping the throat. D. forceful coughing.

D. forceful coughing.

Sclerosis of a vein is caused by: A. use of elicit drugs. B. infrequent cannulation. C. atherosclerosis. D. frequent cannulation.

D. frequent cannulation

Following a head injury, a patient is verbally abusive and combative. He MOST likely has an injury to the ___________ lobe of the brain. A. parietal B. temporal C. occipital D. frontal

D. frontal

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs by a process of diffusion, in which: A. gases in the cells remain in equal concentration until arterial oxygen levels fall. B. carbon dioxide is not allowed to move across the pulmonary capillary membrane. C. gas moves from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration. D. gas moves from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.

D. gas moves from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration

Internally, the lower airway extends from the: A. carina to the pulmonary capillary membrane. B. vocal cords to the end of the mainstem bronchi. C. posterior nasopharynx to the level of the carina. D. glottis to the pulmonary capillary membrane.

D. glottis to the pulmonary capillary membrane

When you suction a patient's airway, the minimum personal protective equipment the AEMT should wear is: A. examination gloves only. B. gloves and eye protection. C. gloves a HEPA respirator, and a gown. D. gloves, eye protection, and a face shield.

D. gloves, eye protection, and a face shield

Clinical findings associated with a laryngeal injury include: A. hematemesis, bulging eyes, and jugular venous distention. B. pallor, a mediastinal shift, and tracheal deviation. C. posterior neck deformity, Battle's sign, and a dry cough. D. hemoptysis, subcutaneous emphysema, and cyanosis.

D. hemoptysis, subcutaneous emphysema, and cyanosis

A specialized part of the venous system that filters the blood and metabolizes various drugs is called the: A. duodenal portal system. B. splenic portal system. C. renal portal system. D. hepatic portal system.

D. hepatic portal system

You suspect that a 75-year-old man has internal injuries after he fell and struck his ribs and abdomen on the corner of a table. When assessing and treating him, it is important to recall that: A. functional blood volume in patients of this age steadily increases due to increased production of red blood cells. B. blood pressure is usually adequately maintained because the blood vessels of older people can constrict easily. C. it is not uncommon to observe heart rates in excess of 150 beats/min in elderly patients with internal injuries. D. his ability to physiologically compensate for his injury may be impaired by an inability to increase cardiac output.

D. his ability to physiologically compensate for his injury may be impaired by an inability to increase cardiac output

A responsive 40-year-old male complains of chest pain. He is able to speak to you in complete sentences and has no obvious respiratory difficulty. From this information, you can conclude that: A. he is in immediate need of high-flow oxygen. B. low-flow oxygen is all that is necessary for him. C. he is likely having an acute myocardial infarction. D. his airway is patent and his breathing is adequate.

D. his airway is patent and his breathing is adequate

Following the primary assessment, the MOST appropriate order to proceed when treating a responsive medical patient is: A. focused physical exam, history of present illness, baseline vital signs, SAMPLE history. B. SAMPLE history, baseline vital signs, focused physical exam, history of present illness. C. baseline vital signs, focused physical exam, SAMPLE history, history of present illness. D. history of present illness, SAMPLE history, focused physical exam, baseline vital signs.

D. history of present illness, SAMPLE history, focused physical exam, baseline vital signs

A normally balanced condition of the body that is resistant to change is called: A. glycogenolysis. B. gluconeogenesis. C. hemostasis. D. homeostasis.

D. homeostasis

You are treating a 2-year-old boy who is experiencing respiratory distress. During your assessment, you note that the child has mild inspiratory stridor, a barking cough, and a low-grade fever. The child is otherwise conscious, is acting appropriate for his age, and has strong radial pulses. Treatment should include: A. an IV fluid bolus. B. a beta antagonist. C. assisted ventilation. D. humidified oxygen.

D. humidified oxygen

Severe hyperkalemia can result in: A. gastrointestinal disturbances. B. decreased muscle function. C. severe dehydration as a result of water loss. D. hyperstimulation of neural transmission.

D. hyperstimulation of neural transmission

The lower portion of the pharynx that opens into the larynx anteriorly and the esophagus posteriorly is the: A. larynx. B. oropharynx. C. nasopharynx. D. hypopharynx.

D. hypopharynx

When performing the primary assessment of a patient, your goal is to: A. ascertain the severity of the patient's condition by visual inspection. B. open the patient's airway and assess adequacy of respirations. C. determine if the patient's problem is traumatic or medical in origin. D. identify and treat immediate life-threatening injuries or conditions.

D. identify and treat immediate life-threatening injuries or conditions

The two goals to achieve when assessing a patient with a behavioral emergency are to: A. notify law enforcement and transport the patient promptly. B. provide emotional support and diagnose the problem. C. reassure the family and contact the patient's psychiatrist. D. identify life-threats and reduce the stress of the situation.

D. identify life-threats and reduce the stress of the situation

Your patient is a 56-year-old man with chest pain. Medical control orders you to assist the patient with his prescribed nitroglycerin. The patient later tells you that the palms of his hands itch. His vital signs, however, remain stable. This peculiar effect of the drug is referred to as a/an: A. side effect. B. therapeutic effect. C. allergic reaction. D. idiosyncratic reaction.

D. idiosyncratic reaction

A 58-year-old woman fell and landed face-first on a concrete sidewalk. She is conscious, but confused. Her skin is pale, cool, and clammy; her radial pulses are weak and rapid; and her blood pressure is 72/54 mm Hg. Further assessment reveals crepitus to her left cheekbone. After administering high-flow oxygen, you should: A. perform a detailed secondary assessment, immobilize her entire spine, and establish IV access. B. place her in a sitting position on the stretcher, insert a saline lock, and reassess her blood pressure. C. apply a cervical collar only, establish two large-bore IV lines, and administer 2 liters of normal saline. D. immobilize her entire spine, establish at least one large-bore IV line, and give a 20-mL/kg crystalloid bolus.

D. immobilize her entire spine, establish at least one large-bore IV line, and give a 20-mL/kg crystalloid bolus

Medically, the term "diabetes" refers to: A. failure of the liver to produce adequate glycogen. B. increase in cell permeability and resistance to insulin. C. failure of the pancreas to produce adequate glucagon. D. impairment of the body to metabolize carbohydrates.

D. impairment of the body to metabolize carbohydrates

Physical changes that typically occur in early adults include an: A. increase in muscle strength and reflexes. B. increase in height because of spinal disc expansion. C. increase in respiratory rate due to increased metabolism. D. increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain.

D. increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain

The MOST significant complication associated with a severe closed head injury is: A. injury to the lower cervical spine. B. hypertension and bradycardia. C. decreased level of consciousness. D. increased intracranial pressure.

D. increased intracranial pressure

Stimulation of beta receptors of the sympathetic nervous system results in: A. bronchoconstriction. B. decreased heart rate. C. peripheral vasoconstriction. D. increased myocardial contractility.

D. increased myocardial contractility

Excessive exposure to a cholinergic agent would produce: A. excessive tearing, headache, and paralysis. B. tachycardia, hypertension, and constipation. C. hypotension, hyperthermia, and skin flushing. D. increased salivation, urination, and vomiting.

D. increased salivation, urination, and vomiting

Patients with a hemorrhagic stroke typically experience a rapidly declining level of consciousness because of: A. pressure on the brain stem. B. global anoxia of the cerebrum. C. blood in the subarachnoid space. D. increasing intracranial pressure.

D. increasing intracranial pressure

In addition to epinephrine, other medications that can be administered to patients with an allergic reaction include: A. glucagon. B. atropine sulfate. C. amiodarone. D. inhaled bronchodilators.

D. inhaled bronchodilators

You are assessing a 32-year-old female who was stung by a scorpion. She is unresponsive and has stridorous, severely labored respirations. Your partner, who is assisting the patient's ventilations with a bag-mask device, tells you that he is meeting significant resistance with each ventilation. You should: A. administer 3 to 5 mL of epinephrine 1:1,000 SC. B. request a paramedic crew to perform a cricothyrotomy. C. apply cricoid pressure to facilitate airflow into the lungs. D. insert an advanced airway device to protect her airway.

D. insert an advanced airway device to protect her airway

When assessing a patient with a small-caliber gunshot wound, it is important to remember that: A. small-caliber bullets frequently ricochet off hollow organs and nerves. B. a gun fired at point-blank range is considered to be a low-velocity injury. C. the bullet's path can be predicted by noting the location of the exit wound. D. internal injury severity is often unrelated to the entrance and exit wounds.

D. internal injury severity is often unrelated to the entrance and exit wounds

An AEMT is trained and generally authorized to perform all of the following interventions EXCEPT: A. intravenous therapy. B. insertion of multilumen airways. C. pediatric intraosseous insertion. D. interpretation of cardiac rhythms.

D. interpretation of cardiac rhythms

A known contraindication to the administration of 50% dextrose (D50) is: A. dehydration. B. hypertension. C. inability to follow commands. D. intracranial hemorrhage.

D. intracranial hemorrhage

You are assessing a patient who has self-injected an unknown substance. He is unconscious with rapid, shallow breathing and tachycardia. As you are assessing and treating this patient, it is important to note that: A. he has most likely injected himself with an opiate. B. injected toxins are slowly absorbed into the body. C. cocaine is the single most commonly injected drug. D. it is impossible to dilute or remove injected poisons.

D. it is impossible to dilute or remove injected poisons

Early signs and symptoms of viral hepatitis include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. loss of appetite and a cough. B. vomiting, fever, and fatigue. C. pain in the muscles and joints. D. jaundice and abdominal pain.

D. jaundice and abdominal pain

The _____________ is a retroperitoneal abdominal organ. A. liver B. spleen C. bladder D. kidney

D. kidney

The energy contained in a moving object is called: A. potential energy. B. latent energy. C. converted energy. D. kinetic energy.

D. kinetic energy

Approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during: A. rollover collisions. B. rear-end collisions. C. frontal collisions. D. lateral collisions.

D. lateral collisions

You are assisting a 25-year-old male with his epinephrine auto-injector after he was stung multiple times by fire ants. The medication should be injected in the: A. deltoid muscle of the arm, just below the shoulder. B. anterior thigh, midway between the hip and knee. C. lateral area of the gluteal muscle of the buttocks. D. lateral thigh, midway between the waist and knee.

D. lateral thigh, midway between the waist and knee

An unconscious, adequately breathing patient should be placed in the recovery position, which is: A. supine. B. prone. C. semi-sitting. D. laterally recumbent

D. laterally recumbent

A 29-year-old male has an anterior nosebleed after he was accidentally elbowed in the nose. His is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. The MOST appropriate care for this patient includes: A. applying a gauze pad in between his lower lip and gum. B. packing the nasopharynx with moist, sterile dressings. C. placing him supine and pinching his nostrils together. D. leaning him forward and pinching his nostrils together.

D. leaning him forward and pinching his nostrils together

Treatment for anaphylactic shock secondary to an insect sting may include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. rapid transport. B. assisting ventilations. C. giving IV fluid boluses. D. leaving the stinger in place.

D. leaving the stinger in place

The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during CPR by: Select one: A. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles. B. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression. C. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart. D. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.

D. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.

When auscultating the breath sounds of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear a high-pitched whistling sound during expiration. This suggests: A. mild laryngeal swelling. B. upper respiratory infection. C. fluid in the smaller airways. D. lower airway obstruction.

D. lower airway obstruction

Following administration of an amiodarone bolus, your paramedic partner begins a continuous infusion. This is necessary in order to: A. ensure clearance of the drug from the body. B. decrease the therapeutic index of the medication. C. slow excretion of the drug by the renal system. D. maintain a therapeutic blood level of the drug.

D. maintain a therapeutic blood level of the drug

Blunt abdominal trauma may result in tearing of the mesentery, which is/are: A. multiple bands of thick muscle that protect the abdominal organs. B. the main supporting structure of the descending abdominal aorta. C. a vascular network that provides exclusive blood supply to the liver. D. membranous folds that attach the intestines to the abdominal wall.

D. membranous folds that attach the intestines to the abdominal wall

During an attempted resuscitation from cardiac arrest, the patient inadvertently receives too much sodium bicarbonate. This would result in: A. respiratory alkalosis. B. metabolic acidosis. C. respiratory acidosis. D. metabolic alkalosis.

D. metabolic alkalosis

The liver performs synthetic reactions that yield inactive products called: A. ions. B. byproducts. C. hormones. D. metabolites.

D. metabolites

To calculate a drug dosage, you must know the weight of the drug present in each: A. liter. B. dekaliter. C. deciliter. D. milliliter.

D. milliliter

Continuous quality improvement (CQI) involves all of the following components, EXCEPT: A. periodic review of run reports. B. discussion of needs for improvement. C. remedial training as deemed necessary by the medical director. D. negative feedback to those who make mistakes while on a call.

D. negative feedback to those who make mistakes while on a call

It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem. A. cardiac B. endocrine C. respiratory D. neurologic

D. neurologic

The term erythropoiesis is defined as the: A. destruction of old red blood cells. B. carrying of oxygen by red blood cells. C. study of the function of red blood cells. D. ongoing production of red blood cells.

D. ongoing production of red blood cells

Postpartum eclampsia is characterized by: A. hypertension that develops immediately before delivery. B. a history of seizures before pregnancy occurred. C. a sudden drop in blood pressure following delivery. D. seizures within 24 hours following delivery of a baby.

D. seizures within 24 hours following delivery of a baby

You are approximately 10 minutes away from the hospital with a 59-year-old female with a possible myocardial infarction when she suddenly loses consciousness. You should: A. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. B. attach an AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm. C. insert a nasal airway and place her on her side. D. open her airway and assess her breathing status.

D. open her airway and assess her breathing status

Unlike the secondary assessment, the ongoing assessment (reassessment) is: A. a more in-depth and systematic assessment. B. designed to focus on a specific problem C. only performed on patients in critical condition. D. performed on all patients during transport.

D. performed on all patients during transport

A 31-year-old female complains of heavy vaginal bleeding and generalized weakness. She is conscious and alert; however, her blood pressure is 88/56 mm Hg and her pulse is 120 beats/min and weak. You should apply 100% oxygen and then: A. place her on her left side and administer up to 3 liters of normal saline or lactated ringers solution. B. elevate her legs and administer isotonic crystalloid fluids until her blood pressure exceeds 110 mm Hg. C. insert a trauma dressing inside the vagina and start two large-bore IV lines of normal saline or lactated ringers. D. place absorbent dressings over the vagina and administer 20 mL/kg boluses of an isotonic crystalloid to maintain perfusion.

D. place absorbent dressings over the vagina and administer 20 mL/kg boluses of an isotonic crystalloid to maintain perfusion

The semilunar valves of the heart function by: A. preventing backflow of blood into the atria. B. minimizing the forward flow of blood. C. attaching to the papillary muscles. D. preventing backflow of blood into the ventricles.

D. preventing backflow of blood into the ventricles

Two of the meningeal layers that protect the central nervous system are the arachnoid and pia mater which: A. are avascular and thick. B. are protected by cerebrospinal fluid. C. secrete immune system chemicals. D. produce cerebrospinal fluid.

D. produce cerebrospinal fluid

Factors that increase the risk for developing MRSA include: A. prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. B. failure to be vaccinated against any strain of hepatitis. C. a history of a respiratory illness within the past 6 to 8 weeks. D. prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit.

D. prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit

You and your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene involving a critically injured patient. The scene is safe. Your FIRST priority is to: A. preserve potential evidence. B. wait for a crime scene investigation team. C. contact medical control for guidance. D. provide emergency care to the patient.

D. provide emergency care to the patient

A 45-year-old female with type 1 diabetes presents with an altered mental status. Her skin is pale and moist, and her respirations are rapid and shallow. You should: A. obtain an immediate blood glucose reading. B. ask her husband if she took her insulin today. C. start an IV and administer 25g of 50% dextrose. D. provide ventilatory assistance with 100% oxygen.

D. provide ventilatory assistance with 100% oxygen

All of the following are roles and responsibilities of the AEMT, EXCEPT: A. performing an accurate patient assessment. B. correcting immediately life-threatening problems. C. forming a clinical impression and initiating care. D. providing definitive care for the patient's condition

D. providing definitive care for the patient's condition

Prior to administering glucagon, you must: A. establish IV access. B. attempt to give oral glucose. C. administer 50% dextrose. D. reconstitute it with diluent.

D. reconstitute it with diluent

Your assessment of a patient with an allergic reaction should focus on the: A. circulatory system, mental status, and respiratory system. B. mental status, gastrointestinal system, renal system, and skin. C. respiratory system, renal system, and integumentary system. D. respiratory system, circulatory system, mental status, and skin.

D. respiratory system, circulatory system, mental status, and skin

You respond to a residence for a patient who is "not acting right." As you approach the door, the patient, a 35-year-old male, begins shouting profanities at you and your partner while holding a baseball bat. The man is confused and diaphoretic, and is wearing a medical identification bracelet. You should: A. calm him down so you can assess him. B. be assertive and talk the patient down. C. contact medical control for instructions. D. retreat at once and call law enforcement.

D. retreat at once and call law enforcement

You arrive at the scene of a domestic violence situation. As you approach the doorway of the apartment, you hear screaming and the statement "He has a gun!" At this point, you should: A. call for law enforcement and carefully enter the apartment. B. carefully enter the apartment to assess for injured patients. C. stay where you are and ask the person to drop the weapon. D. retreat immediately and call for law enforcement assistance.

D. retreat immediately and call for law enforcement assistance

You arrive at the scene of a domestic dispute. You can hear yelling and the sound of breaking glass from inside the residence. You should: A. immediately gain access to the patient. B. carefully enter the house and call law enforcement. C. tell the patient to come outside so you can provide care. D. retreat to a safe place until the scene has been secured.

D. retreat to a safe place until the scene has been secured

While reading the package insert that accompanies a medication, you note that it has been assigned a pregnancy category D. This means that: A. studies in animals have demonstrated adverse effects; however, studies have not been conducted in humans. B. studies in animals have not demonstrated a risk to the fetus; however, adequate studies have not been performed in humans. C. risk of adverse effects has clearly been demonstrated in humans; therefore, the drug should not be administered to pregnant women. D. risk to the human fetus has been demonstrated; however, administration of the drug may outweigh the risk of potential adverse effects in certain circumstances.

D. risk to the human fetus has been demonstrated; however, administration of the drug may outweigh the risk of potential adverse effects in certain circumstances

When managing a patient with severe bleeding, it is important to: A. obtain frequent vital signs. B. administer high-flow oxygen. C. control the bleeding. D. take standard precautions.

D. take standard precautions

The shape of the Cobra perilaryngeal airway (CobraPLA) allows the device to: A. be inserted with the patient's head in a neutral or slightly flexed position. B. displace the tongue to the left, which facilitates placement in the hypopharyngeal space. C. enter the esophagus, which virtually eliminates the risks of regurgitation and aspiration. D. slide easily along the hard palate and to hold the soft tissue away from the laryngeal inlet.

D. slide easily along the hard palate and to hold the soft tissue away from the laryngeal inlet

A liquid mixture of one or more substances that cannot be separated by filtering or allowing the mixture to stand is called a/an: A. syrup. B. suspension. C. emulsion. D. solution.

D. solution

General safety guidelines to follow when caring for a patient with a behavioral emergency include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. maintaining a safe distance from the patient. B. being honest and assuring and avoid judging. C. having a predefined definitive plan of action. D. spending as little time as possible at the scene.

D. spending as little time as possible at the scene

Significant trauma to the face should increase the AEMT's index of suspicion for a/an: A. displaced mandible. B. airway obstruction. C. basilar skull fracture. D. spinal cord injury.

D. spinal cord injury

A 15-year-old female was struck by a small car while riding her bicycle. She was wearing a helmet and was thrown to the ground, striking her head. In addition to managing problems associated with airway, breathing, and circulation, it is MOST important for you to: A. obtain baseline vital signs. B. leave her bicycle helmet on. C. inspect the helmet for cracks. D. stabilize her entire spine.

D. stabilize her entire spine

You are called to a grocery store where a clerk has found an unresponsive female in one of the aisles. There were no witnesses to the event. You should immediately: A. assess the rate and regularity of the patient's respiratory effort. B. assist ventilations with a bag-mask device attached to 100% oxygen. C. open her airway with a head-tilt chin lift maneuver and apply oxygen. D. stabilize her head and open her airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver.

D. stabilize her head and open her airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver

A 38-year-old male with an inguinal hernia complains of increased pain and nausea. He tells you that he has been able to reduce the hernia himself in the past, but it will not reduce today. This patient is at GREATEST risk for: A. decreased peristalsis. B. diaphragmatic rupture. C. intra-abdominal bleeding. D. strangulation of the bowel.

D. strangulation of the bowel

Cardiac output is equal to: A. systole minus diastole. B. blood pressure multiplied by heart rate. C. heart rate minus systolic blood pressure. D. stroke volume multiplied by heart rate.

D. stroke volume multiplied by heart rate

A degenerative cerebral disease is an example of a(n) ______________ cause of a seizure. A. idiopathic B. epileptic C. metabolic D. structural

D. structural

You respond to a residence for a 27-year-old male with an altered mental status. As you are assessing him, his girlfriend tells you that he does not have any medical problems that she is aware of; however, he did fall two days ago and struck his head. These clinical and historical findings should make you MOST suspicious for: A. acute hypoglycemia. B. meningeal artery rupture. C. epidural hemorrhaging. D. subdural hemorrhaging.

D. subdural hemorrhaging

A 30-year-old female was assaulted by a gang as she was leaving a nightclub. She has massive facial trauma and slow, gurgling respirations. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you should: A. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. visualize her mouth for obvious wounds. C. begin immediate ventilatory assistance. D. suction her oropharynx for 15 seconds.

D. suction her oropharynx for 15 seconds

A 40-year-old male is unconscious, has inadequate breathing, and is producing copious, continuous secretions from his mouth. This situation is MOST effectively managed by: A. continuous ventilation until the patient can be intubated. B. continuously suctioning until the secretions are cleared. C. ventilating for 30 seconds and suctioning for 2 minutes. D. suctioning for 15 seconds and ventilating for 2 minutes.

D. suctioning for 15 seconds and ventilating for 2 minutes

A 23-year-old male was involved in a motor-vehicle crash and has an obviously depressed skull fracture. His pulse is rapid and weak, his skin is cool and clammy, and his blood pressure is low. You should: A. recognize that his clinical presentation is consistent with brain herniation. B. hyperventilate him at 20 breaths/min with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen. C. start a large-bore IV, but restrict fluids to avoid an increase in intracranial pressure. D. suspect that he has internal bleeding and administer crystalloid fluid boluses.

D. suspect that he has internal bleeding and administer crystalloid fluid boluses

A 42-year-old male is found unresponsive on his couch by a neighbor. During your assessment, you find no signs of trauma and the patient's blood glucose level is 75 mg/dL. His blood pressure is 168/98 mm Hg, his heart rate is 45 beats/min and bounding, and his respirations are 8 breaths/min and irregular. The patient is wearing a medical alert bracelet that states he has hemophilia. You should: A. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, apply oral glucose in between his cheek and gum, and transport. B. suspect that he has internal bleeding and is in shock, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport at once. C. administer high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed secondary assessment at the scene, and transport promptly. D. suspect that he has intracranial bleeding, assist his ventilations, and transport rapidly to an appropriate hospital.

D. suspect that he has intracranial bleeding, assist his ventilations, and transport rapidly to an appropriate hospital

Signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism include: A. an irregular pulse, weight gain, and flushed skin. B. tachycardia, cool skin, and sluggish reflexes. C. bradycardia, weight loss, and muscle weakness. D. tachycardia, weight loss, and hyperactive reflexes.

D. tachycardia, weight loss, and hyperactive reflexes

Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by: A. irregular tachypnea with occasional periods of apnea. B. impaired respirations with sustained inspiratory effort. C. tachypnea and hyperpnea with an acetone breath odor. D. tachypnea and bradypnea with alternating apneic periods.

D. tachypnea and bradypnea with alternating apneic periods

When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that: A. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured. B. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs. C. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms. D. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.

D. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first

A drug's therapeutic index refers to: A. the minimum dose required to achieve the desired effect. B. how quickly the drug will be excreted from the body. C. the maximum concentration that can safely be given. D. the difference between a therapeutic and lethal dose.

D. the difference between a therapeutic and lethal dose

Cardiac arrest following an electrical burn would MOST likely occur if: A. there is an entrance and an exit wound. B. the patient is exposed to direct current. C. the patient is older than 50 years of age. D. the electricity flows from arm to arm.

D. the electricity flows from arm to arm

In an enhanced 9-1-1 system: A. the dispatcher is able to provide the caller with emergency instructions. B. there is a single person whose sole responsibility is to dispatch EMS. C. a call made from a cellular phone can be tracked within a 10-mile area. D. the phone number from which the call is made is displayed on a screen.

D. the phone number from which the call is made is displayed on a screen

Minimum documentation following IV therapy includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. venipuncture site. B. type of fluid being given. C. your certification level. D. the rate the fluid is running.

D. the rate the fluid is running

Nitroglycerin relaxes vascular smooth muscle, dilates the coronary arteries, and relieves cardiac chest pain. These properties of nitroglycerin are called: A. side effects. B. idiosyncratic effects. C. contraindications. D. therapeutic effects.

D. therapeutic effects

Testicular torsion is a/an: A. life-threatening injury that requires surgery. B. spontaneous event in the majority of cases. C. irreversible injury that leads to impotence. D. time-sensitive injury and requires rapid transport.

D. time-sensitive injury and requires rapid transport

Death immediately following a burn is MOST commonly the result of: A. massive bacterial infection. B. severe hypovolemic shock. C. incineration of the patient. D. toxic chemical inhalation.

D. toxic chemical inhalation

A stoma, located superior to the suprasternal notch, is the resultant orifice following a: A. thyroidectomy. B. laryngectomy. C. cricothyrotomy. D. tracheostomy.

D. tracheostomy

A 4-year-old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should: A. thoroughly flush her ear with sterile saline. B. remove the peanut with a cotton-tipped swab. C. use tweezers to try to remove the object. D. transport her to the emergency department.

D. transport her to the emergency department

Blood enters the right atrium of the heart from the: A. vena cava and aorta. B. aorta and coronary sinus. C. pulmonary vein and aorta. D. vena cava and coronary sinus.

D. vena cava and coronary sinus

The process of moving air in and out of the lungs is called: A. respiration. B. oxygenation. C. tidal volume. D. ventilation.

D. ventilation

An older man complains of chest pain. He is conscious and alert and denies any other symptoms. Your focused assessment of this patient should include: A. evaluation of his hydration status, vital signs, determining if he is experiencing unilateral neurologic deficits, asking him to smile to determine if he has a facial droop. B. neurologic function in all extremities, vital signs, auscultation of heart sounds, inquiring about his family history, and assessing his pupils for equality and reactivity. C. palpation of the upper abdominal quadrants, vital signs, auscultation of breath and epigastric sounds, and assessment of his blood glucose level. D. vital signs, looking at the chest for obvious trauma, auscultation of breath sounds, assessing the external jugular veins, and assessing for edema to the extremities.

D. vital signs, looking at the chest for obvious trauma, auscultation of breath sounds, assessing the external jugular veins, and assessing for edema to the extremities

All of the following signs are indicative of upper airway burns due to an inhalation injury, EXCEPT: A. carbonaceous sputum. B. dyspnea and hypoxia. C. an altered mental status. D. wheezing or rhonchi.

D. wheezing or rhonchi

After inserting a King LT airway, you attach the bag-mask device and begin to ventilate the patient. However, you meet resistance with your initial ventilation attempts. You should: A. ventilate with greater force until resistance is not felt. B. remove the device and resume bag-mask ventilations. C. deflate the cuffs and advance the device 2 cm further. D. withdraw the device slightly until ventilations are easy.

D. withdraw the device slightly until ventilations are easy

Force acting over a distance defines the concept of: A. kinetic energy. B. potential energy. C. latent energy. D. work.

D. work

A violent patient should never be restrained in a prone position because: A. the patient would likely aspirate if he or she vomited. B. suctioning of the airway is not possible in this position. C. the patient will not be able to see what is happening. D. you cannot effectively monitor the patient's airway.

D. you cannot effectively monitor the patient's airway

When obtaining medical history information on a patient who has been serious injured, it is important to remember that: A. transport has a higher priority, so medical history gathering should be deferred. B. bystanders or family members are more reliable historians than the patient. C. patient care tasks will likely prevent you from gathering any medical history. D. you should gather as much information as possible without delaying transport.

D. you should gather as much information as possible without delaying transport

Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that: A. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately. B. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms. C. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions. D. you were exposed to another infected person before treating the 34-year-old patient.

D. you were exposed to another infected person before treating the 34-year-old patient