Air Carrier Ops Ch 7-11
14. What adjustment must be made for a high minimums captain's takeoff minimums? a. None; the FAA allows a high minimums captain to use the normal published takeoff minimums for the airport. b. The takeoff minimums must be increased by adding ½ SM to the lowest allowable published takeoff visibility minimums. c. None. The FAA allows the high minimums captain to use the normal published takeoff minimums for the airport; however, a takeoff alternate must be filed for every high minimums departure. d. None of the above.
A
12. The inflight use of cigarettes or cigars is allowed only on flights with a scheduled time en route of greater than six hours. a. True b. False
B
2. Refer to 14 CFR §117.21(c)(1): The reserve availability period (RAP) for a short-call reserve may not exceed how many hours? a. 12 hours b. 14 hours c. 16 hours d. 18 hours if the number of flight attendants exceeds the minimum required by at least two
B
10. The maximum flight duty period hours for augmented operations with 4 pilots utilizing a Class 1 rest facility is: a. 17 hours b. 18 hours c. 19 hours d. It depends on the number of flight segments.
C
14. In a situation in which the gross takeoff weight is limited by climb limit weight, in the event of an engine failure, the Go/No Go decision must be made a. after reaching V1 speed. b. before reaching VR speed. c. before reaching V1 speed. d. before reaching VEF speed.
C
2. Proving tests are required of new type designs. If the design has never been proved under Part 121, it must be operated for a. 25 hours including 10 at night. b. 50 hours including 10 at night. c. 100 hours including 10 at night. d. 200 hours including 10 at night.
C
9. A blue cockpit annunciator light would indicate a. warning. b. caution. c. status. d. exit.
C
CH 10 1. The rule requiring all required, installed equipment to be operative is violated when a. the aircraft is started. b. the aircraft is taxied. c. the aircraft takes off. d. the aircraft lands.
C
1. In the case of domestic flights, each flight must be dispatched, unless the flight was originally included in the dispatch of a multi-leg flight and the aircraft doesn't spend more than how many hours on the ground? a. 4 hours b. 3 hours c. 2 hours d. 1 hour
D
8. An aircraft with 254 passenger seats would require a. 1 fire extinguisher. b. 2 fire extinguishers. c. 3 fire extinguishers. d. 4 fire extinguishers.
D
To be considered acclimated, a flight crewmember must be in a theater for —— hours or must be given at least —— consecutive hours free from duty. a. 72 hours in theater and 36 consecutive hours free from duty. b. 72 hours in theater or 36 consecutive hours free from duty. c. 30 hours in theater and 24 consecutive hours free from duty. d. 12 hours in theater and 10 consecutive hours free from duty.
1. Answer (b): 72 hours in theater or 36 consecutive hours free from duty. Acclimated means a condition in which a flight crewmember has been in a theater for 72 hours or has been given at least 36 hours free from duty. (14 CFR §117.3)
11. Traffic alert and collision avoidance system II (TCAS II) equipment is required for a. all turbine-powered aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more than 33,000 pounds. b. all large Part 121 aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of 12,500 pounds. c. Part 121 aircraft with more than 10 seats. d. Part 121 aircraft with more than 30 seats.
A
13. An air carrier may not dispatch an airplane under IFR or night VFR conditions when current weather reports indicate that thunderstorms or other potentially hazardous weather conditions that can be detected with airborne weather radar may reasonably be expected along the route to be flown, unless the airborne weather radar is working. a. True b. False
A
14. If the aircraft is certificated with cargo or baggage compartment smoke or fire detection equipment, the following must be met for each cargo or baggage compartment: a. The detection system must provide a visual warning indication to the flight crew within one minute after the start of a fire. b. The detection system must be powered by an isolated independent lithium battery pack. c. The detection system must provide a visual warning indication to the flight crew within thirty seconds after the start of a fire. d. The detection system must be powered by an isolated independent NiCad battery pack.
A
2. In passenger-carrying airplanes, at least two of the fire extinguishers must a. be of the Halon 1211 (or equivalent) type. b. be of the CO2 type. c. be of the water/pressure type. d. be of the dry chemical type.
A
2. Landing gear aural warning devices must sound a warning if a. a landing is attempted with the gear not locked down. b. throttles are reduced for landing with the gear not locked down (only). c. flaps are set for landing with the gear not locked down (only). d. None of the above.
A
3. If a flight crew needs to make a flight duty period (FDP) extension due to an unforeseen circumstance discovered after takeoff (e.g., a recent destination runway closure), are they allowed to exceed the cumulative FDP limits specified in Section 117.23? a. Yes b. No
A
10. A turbine aircraft is scheduled into a runway that is 8,600 feet in length. May this aircraft (which will require 5,100 feet to land) land there on a wet day? a. Yes b. No c. Insufficient information to determine
B
10. Cockpit voice recorders are required to continuously record the a. last 15 minutes of each flight. b. last 30 minutes of each flight. c. last 45 minutes of each flight. d. last 1 hour of each flight.
B
10. Repair "B" on a minimum equipment list requires inoperative items to be repaired within what time interval? a. Repair category "B" shall be repaired within the time interval specified in the remarks column of the certificate holder's approved MEL. b. Repair category "B" inoperative items shall be repaired within 3 consecutive calendar days (72 hours) excluding the calendar day the malfunction was recorded in the aircraft maintenance log and/or record. c. Repair category "B" inoperative items shall be repaired before midnight on the third consecutive calendar day (72 hours) including the calendar day the malfunction was recorded in the aircraft maintenance log and/or record. d. Repair category "B" inoperative items shall be repaired within 10 consecutive calendar days (240 hours) excluding the calendar day the malfunction was recorded in the aircraft maintenance log and/or record.
B
11. A JetBlue flight crew flying a CAT I ILS approach, on glidepath, and just inside the final approach fix (FAF), is told by the tower that the weather for the intended runway has just dropped below minimums. What must this flight crew do? a. Immediately execute the published missed approach procedure and report to tower they are flying the missed approach procedure. b. This flight crew may continue the approach to DA/DH or MDA. In order to land the aircraft, the flight visibility must not be less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach procedure being used. c. Because this flight is Part 121, they are allowed to fly a "look-see" approach to the DA/DH or MDA, however they must execute a missed approach at the missed approach point. d. None of the above.
B
15. A dispatch release document is used by supplemental operators while a flight release document is used by domestic and flag operators. a. True b. False
B
17. During a normal takeoff, an aircraft may not be banked prior to reaching a height of——— feet as shown by the flight path or net flight path data. After attaining——— feet in height, the aircraft may not be banked more than——— degrees in any additional maneuvering. a. 100, 200 and 20 b. 50, 50 and 15 c. 200, 400 and 50, or double the autopilot altitude loss (as specified in the AFM) above the terrain, whichever is higher. d. 100, 100, 10
B
3. To be used in Part 121 operations, aircraft with more than 44 seats must be shown to be able to conduct an evacuation in a. 60 seconds or less. b. 90 seconds or less. c. 120 seconds or less. d. No time is specified for conducting evacuations.
B
5. Net takeoff flight path is used in computing takeoff/ climb performance capability of the aircraft. What is net takeoff flight path for a twin-engine aircraft? a. The climb performance of the aircraft as determined in certification testing b. The climb performance of the aircraft as determined in certification testing reduced by 8 feet per 1,000 feet traveled c. The climb performance of the aircraft as determined in certification testing reduced by the loss of performance in the event of an engine failure d. All of the above
B
8. An augmented flight crew assigned a flight duty period with a split duty period built in to the flight segments that allows for just over a 3-hour rest opportunity in a suitable accommodation during the window of circadian low is allowed a flight duty period of up to 14 hours. a. True b. False
B
8. If one pilot leaves his station at the controls, it is necessary for the other pilot to don his or her oxygen mask if the aircraft is above a. 12,500 feet. b. flight level 250. c. flight level 350. d. flight level 410.
B
12. The cockpit voice recorder (CVR) is required to operate starting a. at engine start. b. at application of ground or aircraft power to the aircraft. c. at first use of a checklist (before starting engines for the purpose of flight). d. from the time the crew is seated in the cockpit.
C
12. Under what conditions must a second alternate be filed prior to a flight departing for its destination? a. A second alternate is required when the first alternate weather is forecast to be, from one hour before to one hour after ETA, a ceiling of less than 2,000 feet and visibility of less than 3 SM (1-2-3 rule). b. A second alternate is needed if using Exemption 5549. c. A second alternate is needed if using Exemption 3585. d. A second alternate is needed if the first alternate is farther than one hour flying time, in still air from the departure airport, with one engine inoperative.
C
13. In a situation in which the gross takeoff weight is limited by runway limit weight, in the event of an engine failure, the Go/No Go decision must be made a. after reaching V1 speed. b. before reaching VR speed. c. before reaching V1 speed. d. before reaching VEF speed.
C
14. Airplanes with———————— must be equipped with a public address system that is capable of operation independent of the required crewmember interphone system. a. a seating capacity of 9 passengers b. a seating capacity of more than 9 but less than 19 passengers c. a seating capacity of more than 19 passengers d. All of the above.
C
6. The crew uses checklist procedures that are provided by the a. FAA. b. manufacturer of the aircraft. c. operator of the aircraft. d. pilots union.
C
8. In Part 121 domestic operations, when is a destination alternate airport required? a. When the destination weather is not forecast to be, from 1 hour before until 1 hour after scheduled arrival time, at least ½ statute mile visibility or 2,400 feet RVR (runway visual range) for three or more engine airplanes and 1 statute mile visibility or 5,000 feet RVR for twin-engine aircraft. b. When the weather is not forecast to be better than 1,500 feet higher than the lowest published instrument minimums or 2,000 feet above airport elevations, whichever is greater. The visibility must be at least 3 miles or at least 2 miles added to the lowest published minimum visibility, whichever is greater. c. When the destination weather is not forecast to be, from 1 hour before scheduled arrival until 1 hour after, a ceiling of 2,000 feet and 3 statute miles visibility. d. When the destination weather is not forecast to be, from 1 hour before scheduled arrival until 1 hour after, a ceiling of 3,000 feet and 2 statute miles visibility.
C
10. The flight data recorder must continuously record a. 30 minutes of continuous data. b. 1 hour of continuous data. c. 24 hours of continuous data. d. 25 hours of continuous data.
D
6. Takeoff run must be accomplished a. within the length of the runway. b. within the length of the runway plus stopway. c. within the length of the runway plus stopway plus clearway. d. within the length of the runway plus clearway (except clearway may only be counted up to one-half the length of the runway).
D
7. Takeoff distance must be accomplished a. within the length of the runway. b. within the length of the runway plus stopway. c. within the length of the runway plus stopway plus clearway. d. within the length of the runway plus clearway (except clearway may only be counted up to one-half the length of the runway).
D
9. The maximum weight at which an air carrier aircraft may depart is limited to a. the maximum weight that will assure compliance with engine out climb limits. b. the maximum weight that will guarantee enroute OEI terrain clearance. c. the maximum weight that will ensure landing below maximum landing weight. d. All of the above.
D
4. A long-call reserve may be converted to a short call as long as they have how many hours of rest? a. 8 hours reduced rest b. 9 hours compensatory rest c. 10 hours rest d. 12 hours rest
3
11. A turbine aircraft is scheduled into a runway that is 11,000 feet in length. May this aircraft (which will, due to an anti-skid inoperative MEL, require 6,500 feet to land) land there on a dry runway? How about on a wet runway? a. Yes on a dry runway; no on a wet runway. b. Yes; at this weight the aircraft is legal to depart for both the dry or wet runway conditions. c. Insufficient information to determine.
A
6. Under normal operating conditions, the pressurized cabin of a Part 121 aircraft must maintain a maximum cabin pressure altitude of a. 8,000 feet. b. 10,000 feet. c. 12,500 feet. d. 15,000 feet.
A
15. ———————— must have an emergency lighting system, for interior emergency exit markings. This system must be independent of the main lighting system. a. All transport category airplanes b. All transport category passenger-carrying airplanes c. Only airplanes with a seating capacity of more than 19 passengers d. Only airplanes with a seating capacity of more than 30 passengers
B
13. After takeoff, what is the maximum that a flight duty period (FDP) may be extended? a. 2 hours, with PIC concurrence b. 30 minutes, without PIC concurrence c. 0 minutes; flight duty period limits are "hard limits" d. When unforeseen operational circumstances occur after takeoff, the maximum flight duty period may be extended to the extent necessary to safely land at the next destination or alternate
D
3. In considering the need for escape slides or similar evacuation means, the aircraft is assumed to be a. on the ground with collapsed landing gear. b. on the ground with a single collapsed landing gear. c. on the ground with the nose gear collapsed. d. on the ground with all landing gear extended.
D
11. A deadhead leg that occurs after a flight segment is NOT considered part of a flight duty period (FDP). a. True b. False
A
13. A "high minimums" captain is planning on flying a LDA/DME approach to ABC airport. If the published minimums for the LDA/DME approach are MDA(H) 650 feet and ¾ SM visibility, what would be this captain's minimums to fly this approach? a. A high minimums captain would need to increase the minimums to a MDA of 750 feet and a visibility of 1¼ SM. b. A high minimums captain may actually reduce the approach minimums by half because they've just completed a thorough instrument training course and they are really sharp when flying instruments. c. A high minimums captain would need to increase the minimums to a MDA of 1,000 feet and a visibility of 1¾ SM. d. None of the above.
A
19. For an aircraft having three or more engines on a route that does not comply with the "90-minute rule" (a route within 90 minutes flying time, all engines operating, from an approved alternate airport), what must be done for the flight to be dispatched on the planned route? a. The aircraft must be operated at a weight allowed by the AFM that allows it to fly from a point where the two engines failed simultaneously to an authorized alternate airport and clear all terrain and obstructions within 5 statute miles of the intended track by at least 2,000 feet vertically. Also, the net flight path must have a positive slope at 1,500 feet above the airport where the landing is assumed to be made after the engines fail. b. The aircraft must be operated at a weight allowed by the AFM that allows it to fly from a point where the two engines failed simultaneously to an authorized alternate airport and clear all terrain and obstructions within 50 statute miles of the intended track by at least 1,000 feet vertically. Also, the net flight path must have a positive slope at 2,000 feet above the airport where the landing is assumed to be made after the engines fail. c. The aircraft must be operated at a weight allowed by the AFM that allows it to fly from a point where the two engines failed simultaneously to an authorized alternate airport and clear all terrain and obstructions within 50 statute miles of the intended track by at least 1,500 feet vertically. Also, the net flight path must have a positive slope at 1,000 feet above the airport where the landing is assumed to be made after the engines fail. d. The flight cannot be dispatched on the planned route. It must be flight planned on a route that is within 90 minutes of a suitable alternate airport.
A
3. V1, or takeoff decision speed, is the a. maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must first take action to stop. b. maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must decide to take action to stop. c. maximum speed in the takeoff where a takeoff may still be initiated. d. minimum speed in the takeoff where it is possible to get airborne.
A
4. Transport category aircraft elevators typically a. are interconnected but may be operated separately in an emergency. b. are rigidly interconnected and operate together as a unit. c. are only connected to the control columns by electrical circuits. d. are a single unit that may be operated from either the pilot or copilot seat.
A
6. When does a flight crewmember "look back" to determine if he or she has received the proper amount of rest? a. At release time plus 30 minutes b. At block-in time after each leg c. At the start of a compensatory rest period d. At the start of a flight duty period or reserve availability period
A
7. A flight crewmember assigned to an augmented crew of 4 pilots with a Class 2 rest facility is not permitted to exceed which of the following cumulative limitations? a. 100 hours in any 672-consecutive-hour period b. 24 hours in a calendar day period c. 300 hours in any 672-consecutive-hour period d. 8 total flight hours over a split duty period
A
7. Flight crewmembers must be provided and use oxygen when a. the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 feet. b. the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 12,500 feet. c. the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 14,000 feet. d. the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15,000 feet.
A
9. What are the mandatory fuel requirements for Part 121 domestic operations? a. A flight may not depart unless it has enough fuel to fly to the airport to which it is dispatched, then fly to the most distant alternate (if required), then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption rates. b. A flight may not depart unless it has enough fuel to fly to the airport to which it is dispatched, then fly to the closest alternate (if required), then fly for 30 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption rates. c. A flight may not depart unless it has enough fuel to fly to and land at the airport to which it is dispatched plus an additional 15 percent of the required fuel load (from departure airport to destination airport). d. A flight may not depart unless it has enough fuel to fly to and land at the airport to which it is dispatched plus 90 minutes of contingency fuel, if no destination alternate is required.
A
11. To be used in Part 121 operations, aircraft must have flight crew emergency exits located in the flight area if they have a passenger seating capacity greater than a. 9 seats. b. 20 seats. c. 44 seats. d. Required for any passenger-carrying aircraft.
B
15. Class D cargo compartments are not accessible during flight and are designed with a protective liner allowing the compartment to be used to ship cargo containing lithium or NiCad batteries. a. True b. False
B
2. What information is required to appear on a Part 121 domestic or flag operator's dispatch release form? a. Company or organization name, make and model of aircraft, aircraft VIN number, flight number, name of each flight crewmember, departure airport, destination airport and alternate airports, minimum fuel supply, and weather reports and forecasts b. Identification number of the aircraft, trip number, departure airport, intermediate stops, destination airport and alternate airports, a statement about the type of operation (e.g., VFR, IFR), minimum fuel supply, and weather reports and forecasts c. Aircraft VIN number, air carrier name, make and model of aircraft, trip number, name of the pilot-in-command, departure airport, destination airport and alternate airports, minimum fuel supply, and weather reports and forecasts d. Air carrier name, trip number, departure airport, intermediate stops, destination airport and alternate airports, a statement about the type of operation (e.g., VFR, IFR), and weather reports and forecasts
B
5. When is a departure airport alternate airport required prior to the departure of a flight operating under Part 121? a. When weather conditions are greater than the standard takeoff minimums of ½ statute mile visibility or 2,400 feet RVR (runway visual range) for three or more engine aircraft. b. When weather conditions are such that an aircraft departs an airport with takeoff minimums below the departure airport's landing minimums in the certificate holder's ops specs. c. When weather conditions are forecast to be, for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport, at or above the authorized landing minimums. d. When the appropriate weather reports or forecasts indicate the ceiling will be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest published instrument approach minimum or lowest circling MDA.
B
6. How are alternate airport weather minimums derived for an airport with one operational navigational facility providing a straight-in nonprecision approach procedure, or a straightin precision approach procedure, or a circling maneuver from an instrument approach procedure? a. A ceiling is derived by adding 200 feet to the authorized Category I HAT or HAA, and a visibility is derived by adding 1 statute mile to the authorized Category I landing minimum. b. A ceiling is derived by adding 400 feet to the authorized Category I HAT or HAA, and a visibility is derived by adding 1 statute mile to the authorized Category I landing minimum. c. A ceiling is derived by adding 200 feet to the authorized Category I HAT or HAA, and a visibility is derived by adding ½ statute mile to the authorized Category I landing minimum. d. A ceiling is derived by adding 400 feet to the authorized Category I HAT or HAA, and a visibility is derived by adding ½ statute mile to the authorized Category I landing minimum.
B
9. Is it legal for a flight crewmember to be scheduled five consecutive flight duty periods that begin at 0215 local time? a. No, a flight crewmember may not be scheduled more than 3 consecutive flight duty periods that infringe on the window of circadian low. b. Yes, a flight crewmember may be scheduled five consecutive flight duty periods that infringe on the window of circadian low if the certificate holder provides the flight crewmember with an opportunity to rest, at least 2 hours, in a suitable accommodation during each of the consecutive nighttime flight duty periods. c. No, a flight crewmember may not be scheduled five consecutive flight duty periods that infringe on the window of circadian low even if the certificate holder provides the flight crewmember with an opportunity to rest, at least 2 hours, in a suitable accommodation during each of the consecutive nighttime flight duty periods. d. Yes, a flight crewmember may be scheduled more than 3 consecutive flight duty periods that infringe on the window of circadian low if provided a Class A rest facility.
B
Ch 8. All aircraft operated by Part 121 carriers must either be U.S.-registered aircraft or a. foreign aircraft operated under wet lease to the U.S. carrier. b. foreign aircraft, approved under U.S. type design and operated under dry lease to the U.S. carrier. c. foreign aircraft, approved under ICAO type design and operated under dry lease to the U.S. carrier. d. foreign aircraft may not be operated by U.S. carriers.
B
12. According to an FAA study of rejected takeoffs (RTOs), statistically, one RTO occurs every————— takeoffs. a. 500 b. 1,000 c. 3,000 d. 4,500
C
12. Prior to takeoff, what is the maximum flight time extension for an unaugmented crew who has not had a flight time extension during the previous 168 hours? a. 2 hours b. 30 minutes c. 0 minutes; flight time limits are "hard limits" d. Up to 30 minutes without PIC concurrence; up to 2 hours with PIC concurrence
C
14. A short-call reserve pilot whose reserve availability period began at 0500 local time (acclimated) is contacted by crew scheduling at 0700 local time and assigned an unaugmented one-day trip that reports at 0900 local time and has two turns (4 flight segments) from ATL to Miami (MIA). When does the flight duty period begin and when must the flight duty period be scheduled to end for this flight crewmember? a. FDP begins at 0500 local time and must be scheduled to end by 2100 local time. b. FDP begins at 0700 local time and must be scheduled to end by 2000 local time. c. FDP begins at 0900 local time and must be scheduled to end by 2100 local time. d. FDP begins at 0900 local time and must be scheduled to end by 2200 local time.
C
15. Climb limit weight is the maximum weight that guarantees that the aircraft: a. at existing conditions, can complete the first segment portion of the climb and that the aircraft meets 60 percent of the balanced field length requirements. b. will be able to accelerate to V1, lose an engine, and stop on the remaining runway plus stopway, including a 15-percent safety buffer for a wet runway. c. can proceed from a point 35 feet above the departure end of the runway to 1,500 feet above the runway surface (or specified higher altitude) while maintaining required climb gradients in order to achieve adequate obstacle clearance. d. can proceed from VLOF to a point 50 feet above the departure end of the runway, or 35 feet if the runway has a designated stopway and clearway free of obstacles at least 200 feet either side of runway centerline.
C
4. 14 CFR §121.613 states that an air carrier may not dispatch an IFR flight under Part 121 unless the weather reports and forecasts indicate that at the time of arrival at the destination airport, a. the ceiling will be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest published instrument approach minimum for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport. b. the visibility and RVR will be greater than the standard takeoff minimums of ½ statute mile visibility or 2,400 feet RVR (runway visual range) for three or more engine airplanes and 1 statute mile visibility or 5,000 feet RVR for twin-engine aircraft. c. conditions will be at or above the authorized landing minimums. d. conditions will be at or above the authorized landing minimums for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport.
C
4. Emergency lighting for interior or exterior use must be able to be controlled at a. the flight crew's station in the cockpit. b. a position in the passenger compartment. c. both (a) and (b). d. neither (a) nor (b) is correct.
C
4. In the event of an engine failure at or above V1, the pilot should achieve and maintain V2, until a. 35 feet above the runway surface. b. the landing gear is retracted. c. acceleration altitude. d. the airplane is established (configured) for enroute climb.
C
5. A flight crewmember is scheduled for a domestic flight consisting of a 2-pilot crew on a 6-hour flight time. How much rest must this flight crewmember get prior to report time? a. 10 consecutive hours rest before with a 30 hour rest period in the preceding 168 hours b. 10 consecutive hours compensatory rest after 36 hours in theater c. 10 consecutive hours rest reducible to 9 hours d. 8 consecutive hours rest if less than 2 flight segments with a scheduled start time from 0700-1100
C
5. The takeoff warning system of a transport category aircraft must operate from the initial portion of the takeoff (application of takeoff power) until a. the aircraft passes the takeoff decision speed. b. the aircraft passes through 500 feet on the takeoff. c. the aircraft is rotated for takeoff. d. the aircraft is properly configured.
C
7. Which cargo compartment on a passenger airplane has fire extinguishing equipment built into the compartment that is controllable from the cockpit? a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D
C
8. Runway limit weight guarantees that an aircraft may a. accelerate to V1, lose an engine, and stop on the remaining runway. b. accelerate to V1, lose an engine, and stop on the remaining runway plus stopway. c. accelerate to V1, lose an engine, and continue the flight. d. None of the above
C
9. In the event of cabin pressurization failure, each flight crewmember must be provided with oxygen that allows for a total of a. 10 minutes operation allowing descent to 10,000 feet altitude. b. 110 minutes total operation. c. 120 minutes total operation. d. None of the above.
C
CH 9 1. In order to carry cargo on the passenger level in a passenger aircraft, the cargo a. must be approved by the ramp services agent responsible for the flight. b. must be on pallets that are securely strapped to the flooring of the aircraft. c. must be secured in bins that can withstand 1.15 times the emergency landing g loads or, alternatively, the cargo may be properly restrained behind a bulkhead. d. must be smaller than 15 pounds
C
13. If there is a Class A, B, or E cargo compartment on the airplane, what must be installed for the use of appropriate crewmembers? a. A crash axe b. A portable crew oxygen bottle for each required crewmember c. At least one, two-phase, timed fire suppression nozzle in each cargo compartment d. Protective breathing equipment (PBE)
D
15. A long-call reserve pilot whose reserve availability period began at 0500 local time (acclimated) is contacted by crew scheduling at 0700 local time and assigned an augmented (3 pilots) 3-day trip, reporting at 0900 local time and with one flight segment from ATL to Rome (FCO) in an aircraft equipped with a Class 3 rest facility. When does the flight duty period begin and when must the flight duty period be scheduled to end for this flight crewmember? a. FDP begins at 0900 local time and must be scheduled to end by 0000 local Rome time. b. FDP begins at 0700 local time and must be scheduled to end by 0000 local Atlanta time. c. FDP begins at 0900 local time and must be scheduled to end by 2200 local Atlanta time. d. FDP begins at 0900 local time and must be scheduled to end by 0000 local Atlanta time
D
16. Driftdown altitude is a. the altitude at which, following the failure of an engine, the pilot begins the driftdown procedure. This altitude must be high enough to guarantee terrain clearance of at least 2,000 feet over a mountainous terrain area. b. the altitude that guarantees at least 1,000 feet of terrain clearance over a non-mountainous terrain area. c. the altitude that guarantees at least 2,000 feet of terrain clearance over a mountainous terrain area. d. the altitude to which, following the failure of an engine above the one-engine inoperative absolute ceiling, an airplane will descend to and maintain, while using maximum continuous power on the operating engine and maintaining the one-engine inoperative best rate of climb speed.
D
18. A two-engine, turbine-powered airplane may not be operated over a route that contains a point farther than ——— minutes of flying time (in still air at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative) from an adequate airport. a. 90 b. 180 c. 120 d. 60
D
20. Landing limitations for alternate airports are similar to the landing limitations for destination airports. An operator may not list an airport as an alternate airport if at the anticipated weight at the anticipated time of arrival the aircraft cannot be brought to a stop in ——— percent of the effective runway length for turbojet aircraft or ——— percent of the effective runway length for turboprop aircraft. a. 15, 60 b. 50, 60 c. 15, 50 d. 60, 70
D
3. What is the main difference between the load manifest used in domestic and flag operations and the load manifest used in supplemental operations? a. Domestic load manifests do not require passenger names, while flag and supplemental load manifests must contain passenger names. b. Load manifests used in supplemental international operations may use metric measurements for weight and balance calculations. c. Load manifests used in supplemental international operations may use metric measurements for the calculation of fuel load only. d. No difference. Domestic, flag, and supplemental load manifests must contain identical information.
D
5. During ground operations, it is a. suggested, but not required, that each passenger be seated with his seat belt fastened. b. required that each passenger be seated and belts fastened only when taking the runway. c. required that each passenger be seated and belts fastened only when taking off. d. required that each passenger be seated and belts fastened during all movement on the surface.
D
