AKI and CKD

8.Which statement regarding continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) would be most important when teaching a patient new to the treatment? 1. "Maintain a daily written record of blood pressure and weight." 2. "It is essential that you maintain aseptic technique to prevent peritonitis." 3. "You will be allowed a more liberal protein diet once you complete CAPD." 4. "Continue regular medical and nursing follow-up visits while performing CAPD."

"It is essential that you maintain aseptic technique to prevent peritonitis." Peritonitis is a potentially fatal complication of peritoneal dialysis, and thus it is imperative to teach the patient methods of prevention. Although the other teaching statements are accurate, they do not have the potential for morbidity and mortality that peritonitis does

5.The home care nurse visits a 34-yr-old woman receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which statement indicates a need for immediate follow-up by the nurse? 1. "Drain time is faster if I rub my abdomen." 2. "The fluid draining from the catheter is cloudy." 3. "The drainage is bloody when I have my period." 4. "I wash around the catheter with soap and water."

"The fluid draining from the catheter is cloudy." The primary clinical manifestation of peritonitis is a cloudy peritoneal effluent. Blood may be present in the effluent of women who are menstruating, and no intervention is indicated. Daily catheter care may include washing around the catheter with soap and water. Drain time may be facilitated by gently massaging the abdomen

12. The enterostomal therapist is consulting with the surgeon regarding placement of a urinary stoma. Which of the following locations should be suggested? a. Lower abdominal quadrants b. Pubic area c. Rib margins d. Umbilical area

A

24. The nurse is providing instructions to a client about continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which of the following information would be included in discussions with this client? a. There are four daily cycles with an 8 hour dwell for one cycle during the night. b. A small, lightweight pump must be carried in a pocket or on a belt. c. This eliminates the need for strict aseptic technique when handling the catheter. d. The procedure involves instilling 250-500 ml of fluid into the abdomen at a time.

A

27. The nurse would monitor which of the following laboratory values to monitor the effect of epoetin alpha being given to a client with chronic renal failure? a. Hematocrit b. BUN c. Leukocyte count d. Serum Creatinine

A

30. Clients are monitored consistently throughout the peritoneal dialysis procedure for all the following except: a. Increased appetite b. Color of dialysate c. Chvostek's sign d. Low potassium

A

15.Which patient has the most significant risk factors for CKD? 1. A 50-yr-old white woman with hypertension 2. A 61-yr-old Native American man with diabetes 3. A 40-yr-old Hispanic woman with cardiovascular disease 4. A 28-yr-old African American woman with a urinary tract infection

A 61-yr-old Native American man with diabetes The nurse identifies the 61-yr-old Native American with diabetes as the most at risk. Diabetes causes about 50% of CKD. This patient is the oldest, and Native Americans with diabetes develop CKD six times more frequently than other ethnic groups. Hypertension causes about 25% of CKD. Hispanics have CKD about 1.5 times more than non-Hispanics. African Americans have the highest rate of CKD because hypertension is significantly increased in African Americans. A UTI will not cause CKD unless it is not treated or UTIs occur recurrently

Which statement regarding continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) is of highest priority when teaching a patient new to this procedure? A. "It is essential that you maintain aseptic technique to prevent peritonitis." B. "You will be allowed a more liberal protein diet after you complete CAPD." C. "It is important for you to maintain a daily written record of blood pressure and weight." D. "You must continue regular medical and nursing follow-up visits while performing CAPD."

A. "It is essential that you maintain aseptic technique to prevent peritonitis." Peritonitis is a potentially fatal complication of peritoneal dialysis, and it is imperative to teach the patient methods to prevent it from occurring. Although the other teaching statements are accurate, they do not address the potential for mortality by peritonitis, making that nursing action the highest priority.

A kidney transplant recipient complains of fever, chills, and dysuria over the past 2 days. What is the first action that you should take? A. Assess temperature and initiate a workup to rule out infection. B. Provide warm covers for the patient and give 1 gram of acetaminophen orally. C. Reassure the patient and let him know this is common after transplantation. D. Notify the nephrologist that the patient has developed symptoms of acute rejection.

A. Assess temperature and initiate a workup to rule out infection. You must be astute in the observation and assessment of kidney transplant recipients, because prompt diagnosis and treatment of infections can improve patient outcomes. Fever, chills, and dysuria indicate a possible infection. The temperature should be assessed, and the patient should have diagnostic tests to identify or rule out an infection.

Nurses need to educate patients at risk for CKD. Which individuals are considered to be at increased risk (select all that apply)? A. Older African Americans B. Individuals older than 60 years C. Those with a history of pancreatitis D. Those with a history of hypertension E. Those with a history of type 2 diabetes

A. Older African Americans B. Individuals older than 60 years D. Those with a history of hypertension E. Those with a history of type 2 diabetes Risk factors for CKD include diabetes mellitus, hypertension, age older than 60 years, cardiovascular disease, family history of CKD, exposure to nephrotoxic drugs, and ethnic minorities (e.g., African American, Native American).

For the patient with AKI, which laboratory result would cause you the greatest concern? A. Potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L B. BUN level of 25 mg/dL C. Sodium level of 144 mEq/L D. pH of 7.5

A. Potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L Hyperkalemia is one of the most serious complications in AKI because it can cause life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias.

What characterizes AKI (select all that apply)? A. Primary cause of death is infection. B. It usually affects older people. C. The disease course is potentially reversible. D. The most common cause is diabetic nephropathy. E. Cardiovascular disease is the most common cause of death.

A. Primary cause of death is infection. C. The disease course is potentially reversible. AKI is potentially reversible. It has a high mortality rate, and the primary cause of death is infection; the primary cause of death for chronic kidney failure is cardiovascular disease. AKI commonly follows severe, prolonged hypotension or hypovolemia or exposure to a nephrotoxic agent. Although it can occur at any age, the older adult is more susceptible to AKI because the number of functioning nephrons decreases with age.

A patient is admitted to the hospital with CKD. You understand that this condition is characterized by A. Progressive irreversible destruction of the kidneys B. A rapid decrease in urinary output with an elevated BUN level C. Increasing creatinine clearance with a decrease in urinary output D. Prostration, somnolence, and confusion with coma and imminent death

A. Progressive irreversible destruction of the kidneys CKD involves progressive, irreversible loss of kidney function.

Your plan for care of a patient with AKI includes which goal of dietary management? A. Provide sufficient calories while preventing nitrogen excess. B. Deliver adequate calories while restricting fat and protein intake. C. Replace protein intake with enough fat intake to sustain metabolism. D. Restrict fluids, increase potassium intake, and regulate sodium intake.

A. Provide sufficient calories while preventing nitrogen excess. The challenge of nutrition management in AKI is to provide adequate calories to prevent catabolism despite the restrictions required to prevent electrolyte and fluid disorders and azotemia (accumulation of nitrogen and wastes in blood).

How do you determine that a patient's oliguria is associated with acute renal failure (ARF)? A. Specific gravity of urine at 3 different times is 1.010. B. The serum creatinine level is normal. C. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is normal or below. D. Hypokalemia is identified.

A. Specific gravity of urine at 3 different times is 1.010. A urinalysis may show casts, red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), a specific gravity fixed at about 1.010, and urine osmolality at about 300 mOsm/kg.

An ESRD patient receiving hemodialysis is considering asking a relative to donate a kidney for transplantation. In assisting the patient to make a decision about treatment, what do you tell the patient? A. Successful transplantation usually provides better quality of life than that offered by dialysis. B. If rejection of the transplanted kidney occurs, no further treatment for the renal failure is available. C. The immunosuppressive therapy that is required after transplantation causes fatal malignancies in many patients. D. Hemodialysis replaces the normal functions of the kidneys, and patients do not have to live with the continual fear of rejection.

A. Successful transplantation usually provides better quality of life than that offered by dialysis. Kidney transplantation is extremely successful, with 1-year graft survival rates of about 90% for deceased donor transplants and 95% for live donor transplants. An advantage of kidney transplantation compared with dialysis is that it reverses many of the pathophysiologic changes associated with renal failure when normal kidney function is restored. It also eliminates the dependence on dialysis and the accompanying dietary and lifestyle restrictions. Transplantation is also less expensive than dialysis after the first year.

Which patient has the greatest risk for prerenal AKI? A. The patient is hypovolemic because of hemorrhage. B. The patient relates a history of chronic urinary tract obstruction. C. The patient has vascular changes related to coagulopathies. D. The patient is receiving antibiotics such as gentamicin.

A. The patient is hypovolemic because of hemorrhage. Prerenal causes of AKI are factors external to the kidneys. These factors reduce systemic circulation, causing a reduction in renal blood flow, and they lead to decreased glomerular perfusion and filtration of the kidneys.

Important nursing interventions for the patient with AKI are (select all that apply) A. careful monitoring of intake and output. B. daily patient weights. C. meticulous aseptic technique. D. increase intake of vitamin A and D. E. frequent mouth care.

A. careful monitoring of intake and output. B. daily patient weights. C. meticulous aseptic technique. E. frequent mouth care. You have an important role in managing fluid and electrolyte balance during the oliguric and diuretic phases of AKI. Observing and recording accurate intake and output are essential. Measure daily weights with the same scale at the same time each day to assess excessive gains or losses of body fluids. Mouth care is important to prevent stomatitis, which develops when ammonia (produced by bacterial breakdown of urea) in saliva irritates the mucous membrane.

During the oliguric phase of AKI, you monitor the patient for (select all that apply) A. hypertension. B. electrocardiographic (ECG) changes. C. hypernatremia. D. pulmonary edema. E. urine with high specific gravity.

A. hypertension. B. electrocardiographic (ECG) changes. D. pulmonary edema. You monitor the patient in the oliguric phase of AKI for hypertension and pulmonary edema. When urinary output decreases, fluid retention occurs. The severity of the symptoms depends on the extent of the fluid overload. In the case of reduced urine output (anuria and oliguria), the neck veins may become distended and have a bounding pulse. Edema and hypertension may develop. Fluid overload can eventually lead to heart failure, pulmonary edema, and pericardial and pleural effusions. The patient is monitored for hyponatremia. Damaged tubules cannot conserve sodium, and the urinary excretion of sodium may increase, resulting in normal or below-normal levels of serum sodium. Monitoring may reveal ECG changes and hyperkalemia. Initially, clinical signs of hyperkalemia are apparent on electrocardiogram, which demonstrate peaked T waves, widening of the QRS complex, and ST-segment depression. Urinary specific gravity is fixed at about 1.010.

Patients with CKD have an increased incidence of cardiovascular disease related to (select all that apply) A. hypertension. B. vascular calcifications. C. a genetic predisposition. D. hyperinsulinemia causing dyslipidemia. E. increased high-density lipoproteins levels.

A. hypertension. B. vascular calcifications. D. hyperinsulinemia causing dyslipidemia. Traditional cardiovascular risk factors, such as hypertension and elevated lipid levels, are common in CKD patients. Hyperinsulinemia stimulates hepatic production of triglycerides. Most patients with uremia develop dyslipidemia. Much of the cardiovascular disease may be related to nontraditional risk factors such as vascular calcification and arterial stiffness. Vascular calcification and arterial stiffness are major contributors to cardiovascular disease in CKD. Calcium deposits in the vascular medial layer are associated with stiffening of the blood vessels. The mechanisms involved are multifactorial and incompletely understood, but they include (1) vascular smooth muscle cells that change into a chondrocyte or osteoblast-like cell, (2) high total body calcium and phosphate levels due to abnormal bone metabolism, (3) impaired renal excretion, and (4) drug therapies to treat the bone disease (e.g., calcium phosphate binders).

The advantage of continuous replacement therapy over hemodialysis is its ability to A. remove fluid without the use of a dialysate. B. remove fluid in less than 24 hours. C. allow the patient to receive the therapy at the work site. D. be administered through a peripheral line.

A. remove fluid without the use of a dialysate. Several features of continuous replacement therapy are different from those of hemodialysis. Solute removal can occur by convection (no dialysate required) in addition to osmosis and diffusion. The process can take days or weeks. The patient cannot receive the therapy at work and a vascular access device is required.

12. A patient needing vascular access for hemodialysis asks the nurse what the differences are between an arteriovenous (AV) fistula and a graft. The nurse explains that one advantage of the fistula is that it a. is much less likely to clot. b. increases patient mobility. c. can accommodate larger needles. d. can be used sooner after surgery.

ANS: A AV fistulas are much less likely to clot than grafts, although it takes longer for them to mature to the point where they can be used for dialysis. The choice of an AV fistula or a graft does not have an impact on needle size or patient mobility.

17. The nurse is caring for a patient who had kidney transplantation several years ago. Which assessment finding may indicate that the patient is experiencing adverse effects to the prescribed corticosteroid? a. Joint pain b. Tachycardia c. Postural hypotension d. Increase in creatinine level

ANS: A Aseptic necrosis of the weight-bearing joints can occur when patients take corticosteroids over a prolonged period. Increased creatinine level, orthostatic dizziness, and tachycardia are not caused by corticosteroid use.

16. When the nurse is taking a history for a patient who is a possible candidate for a kidney transplant, which information about the patient indicates that the patient is not an appropriate candidate for transplantation? a. The patient has metastatic lung cancer. b. The patient has poorly controlled type 1 diabetes. c. The patient has a history of chronic hepatitis C infection. d. The patient is infected with the human immunodeficiency virus.

ANS: A Disseminated malignancies are a contraindication to transplantation. The conditions of the other patients are not contraindications for kidney transplant.

9. The nurse has instructed a patient who is receiving hemodialysis about appropriate dietary choices. Which menu choice by the patient indicates that the teaching has been successful? a. Scrambled eggs, English muffin, and apple juice b. Oatmeal with cream, half a banana, and herbal tea c. Split-pea soup, whole-wheat toast, and nonfat milk d. Cheese sandwich, tomato soup, and cranberry juice

ANS: A Scrambled eggs would provide high-quality protein, and apple juice is low in potassium. Cheese is high in salt and phosphate, and tomato soup would be high in potassium. Split-pea soup is high in potassium, and dairy products are high in phosphate. Bananas are high in potassium, and the cream would be high in phosphate.

23. In a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) who requires hemodialysis, a temporary vascular access is obtained by placing a catheter in the left femoral vein. Which intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Place the patient on bed rest. b. Start continuous pulse oximetry. c. Discontinue the retention catheter. d. Restrict the patients oral protein intake.

ANS: A The patient with a femoral vein catheter must be on bed rest to prevent trauma to the vein. Protein intake is likely to be increased when the patient is receiving dialysis. The retention catheter is likely to remain in place because accurate measurement of output will be needed. There is no indication that the patient needs continuous pulse oximetry.

13. When caring for a patient with a left arm arteriovenous fistula, which action will the nurse include in the plan of care to maintain the patency of the fistula? a. Check the fistula site for a bruit and thrill. b. Assess the rate and quality of the left radial pulse. c. Compare blood pressures in the left and right arms. d. Irrigate the fistula site with saline every 8 to 12 hours.

ANS: A The presence of a thrill and bruit indicates adequate blood flow through the fistula. Pulse rate and quality are not good indicators of fistula patency. Blood pressures should never be obtained on the arm with a fistula. Irrigation of the fistula might damage the fistula, and typically only dialysis staff would access the fistula.

20. A patient with hypertension and stage 2 chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving captopril (Capoten). Before administration of the medication, the nurse will check the patients a. glucose. b. potassium. c. creatinine. d. phosphate.

ANS: B Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are frequently used in patients with CKD because they delay the progression of the CKD, but they cause potassium retention. Therefore, careful monitoring of potassium levels is needed in patients who are at risk for hyperkalemia. The other laboratory values also would be monitored in patients with CKD but would not affect whether the captopril was given or not.

7. Which patient information will the nurse plan to obtain in order to determine the effectiveness of the prescribed calcium carbonate (Caltrate) for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)? a. Blood pressure b. Phosphate level c. Neurologic status d. Creatinine clearance

ANS: B Calcium carbonate is prescribed to bind phosphorus and prevent mineral and bone disease in patients with CKD. The other data will not be helpful in evaluating the effectiveness of calcium carbonate.

31. The nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving peritoneal dialysis with 2 L inflows. Which information should be reported immediately to the health care provider? a. The patient has an outflow volume of 1800 mL. b. The patients peritoneal effluent appears cloudy. c. The patient has abdominal pain during the inflow phase. d. The patient complains of feeling bloated after the inflow.

ANS: B Cloudy appearing peritoneal effluent is a sign of peritonitis and should be reported immediately so that treatment with antibiotics can be started. The other problems can be addressed through nursing interventions such as slowing the inflow and repositioning the patient.

29. Which nursing action for a patient who has arrived for a scheduled hemodialysis session is most appropriate for the RN to delegate to a dialysis technician? a. Educate patient about fluid restrictions. b. Check blood pressure before starting dialysis. c. Assess for reasons for increase in predialysis weight. d. Determine the ultrafiltration rate for the hemodialysis.

ANS: B Dialysis technicians are educated in monitoring for blood pressure. Assessment, adjustment of the appropriate ultrafiltration rate, and patient teaching require the education and scope of practice of an RN.

19. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) brings all home medications to the clinic to be reviewed by the nurse. Which medication being used by the patient indicates that patient teaching is required? a. Multivitamin with iron b. Milk of magnesia 30 mL c. Calcium phosphate (PhosLo) d. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg

ANS: B Magnesium is excreted by the kidneys, and patients with CKD should not use over-the-counter products containing magnesium. The other medications are appropriate for a patient with CKD.

28. When caring for a dehydrated patient with acute kidney injury who is oliguric, anemic, and hyperkalemic, which of the following prescribed actions should the nurse take first? a. Insert a urinary retention catheter. b. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor. c. Administer epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit). d. Give sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).

ANS: B Since hyperkalemia can cause fatal cardiac dysrhythmias, the initial action should be to monitor the cardiac rhythm. Kayexalate and Epogen will take time to correct the hyperkalemia and anemia. The catheter allows monitoring of the urine output, but does not correct the cause of the renal failure.

24. When the nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted with a severe crushing injury after an industrial accident, which laboratory result will be most important to report to the health care provider? a. Serum creatinine level 2.1 mg/dL b. Serum potassium level 6.5 mEq/L c. White blood cell count 11,500/L d. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 56 mg/dL

ANS: B The hyperkalemia associated with crushing injuries may cause cardiac arrest and should be treated immediately. The nurse also will report the other laboratory values, but abnormalities in these are not immediately life threatening.

After the insertion of an arteriovenous graft (AVG) in the right forearm, a patient complains of pain and coldness of the right fingers. Which action should the nurse take? a. Elevate the patients arm above the level of the heart. b. Report the patients symptoms to the health care provider. c. Remind the patient about the need to take a daily low-dose aspirin tablet. d. Educate the patient about the normal vascular response after AVG insertion.

ANS: B The patients complaints suggest the development of distal ischemia (steal syndrome) and may require revision of the AVG. Elevation of the arm above the heart will decrease perfusion. Pain and coolness are not normal after AVG insertion. Aspirin therapy is not used to maintain grafts.

25. A patient with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is admitted with acute urinary retention and an elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. Which of these prescribed therapies should the nurse implement first? a. Obtain renal ultrasound. b. Insert retention catheter. c. Infuse normal saline at 50 mL/hour. d. Draw blood for complete blood count.

ANS: B The patients elevation in BUN is most likely associated with hydronephrosis caused by the acute urinary retention, so the insertion of a retention catheter is the first action to prevent ongoing postrenal failure for this patient. The other actions also are appropriate, but should be implemented after the retention catheter.

18. Which data obtained when assessing a patient who had a kidney transplant 8 years ago and who is receiving the immunosuppressants tacrolimus (Prograf), cyclosporine (Sandimmune), and prednisone (Deltasone) will be of most concern to the nurse? a. The blood glucose is 144 mg/dL. b. The patients blood pressure is 150/92. c. There is a nontender lump in the axilla. d. The patient has a round, moonlike face.

ANS: C A nontender lump suggests a malignancy such as a lymphoma, which could occur as a result of chronic immunosuppressive therapy. The elevated glucose, moon face, and hypertension are possible side effects of the prednisone and should be addressed, but they are not as great a concern as the possibility of a malignancy.

35. Which parameter will be most important for the nurse to consider when titrating the IV fluid infusion rate immediately after a patient has had kidney transplantation? a. Heart rate b. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level c. Urine output d. Creatinine clearance

ANS: C Fluid volume is replaced based on urine output after transplant because the urine output can be as high as a liter an hour. The other data will be monitored but are not the most important determinants of fluid infusion rate.

22. Which of the following information obtained by the nurse who is caring for a patient with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) indicates the nurse should consult with the health care provider before giving the prescribed epoetin alfa (Procrit)? a. Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL b. Oxygen saturation 89% c. Hemoglobin level 13 g/dL d. Blood pressure 98/56 mm Hg

ANS: C High hemoglobin levels are associated with a higher rate of thromboembolic events and increased risk of death from serious cardiovascular events (heart attack, heart failure, stroke) when EPO is administered to a target hemoglobin of >12 g/dL. Hemoglobin levels higher than 12 g/dL indicate a need for a decrease in epoetin alfa dose. The other information also will be reported to the health care provider, but will not affect whether the medication is administered.

14. When a patient who has had progressive chronic kidney disease (CKD) for several years is started on hemodialysis, which information about diet will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Increased calories are needed because glucose is lost during hemodialysis. b. Unlimited fluids are allowed since retained fluid is removed during dialysis. c. More protein will be allowed because of the removal of urea and creatinine by dialysis. d. Dietary sodium and potassium are unrestricted because these levels are normalized by dialysis.

ANS: C Once the patient is started on dialysis and nitrogenous wastes are removed, more protein in the diet is encouraged. Fluids are still restricted to avoid excessive weight gain and complications such as shortness of breath. Glucose is not lost during hemodialysis. Sodium and potassium intake continues to be restricted to avoid the complications associated with high levels of these electrolytes.

30. The RN observes an LPN/LVN carrying out all of the following actions while caring for a patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease. Which action requires the RN to intervene? a. The LPN/LVN administers erythropoietin subcutaneously. b. The LPN/LVN assists the patient to ambulate in the hallway. c. The LPN/LVN gives the iron supplement and phosphate binder with lunch. d. The LPN/LVN carries a tray containing low-protein foods into the patients room.

ANS: C Oral phosphate binders should not be given at the same time as iron because they prevent the iron from being absorbed. The phosphate binder should be given with a meal and the iron given at a different time. The other actions by the LPN/LVN are appropriate for a patient with renal insufficiency.

8. Before administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) to a patient with hyperkalemia, the nurse should assess the a. blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. b. blood glucose level. c. patients bowel sounds. d. level of consciousness (LOC).

ANS: C Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) should not be given to a patient with a paralytic ileus (as indicated by absent bowel sounds) because bowel necrosis can occur. The BUN and creatinine, blood glucose, and LOC would not affect the nurses decision to give the medication.

4. A patient who has acute glomerulonephritis is hospitalized with acute kidney injury (AKI) and hyperkalemia. Which information will the nurse obtain to evaluate the effectiveness of the prescribed calcium gluconate IV? a. Urine output b. Calcium level c. Cardiac rhythm d. Neurologic status

ANS: C The calcium gluconate helps prevent dysrhythmias that might be caused by the hyperkalemia. The nurse will monitor the other data as well, but these will not be helpful in determining the effectiveness of the calcium gluconate.

5. A patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which of these orders for the patient will the nurse question? a. NPO for 6 hours before IVP procedure b. Normal saline 500 mL IV before procedure c. Ibuprofen (Advil) 400 mg PO PRN for pain d. Dulcolax suppository 4 hours before IVP procedure

ANS: C The contrast dye used in IVPs is potentially nephrotoxic, and concurrent use of other nephrotoxic medications such as the NSAIDs should be avoided. The suppository and NPO status are necessary to ensure adequate visualization during the IVP. IV fluids are used to ensure adequate hydration, which helps reduce the risk for contrast-induced renal failure.

32. Two hours after a kidney transplant, the nurse obtains all of the following data when assessing the patient. Which information is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The urine output is 900 to 1100 mL/hr. b. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels are elevated. c. The patients central venous pressure (CVP) is decreased. d. The patient has level 8 (on a 10-point scale) incisional pain.

ANS: C The decrease in CVP suggests hypovolemia, which must be rapidly corrected to prevent renal hypoperfusion and acute tubular necrosis. The other information is not unusual in a patient after a transplant.

26. Which information about a patient who was admitted 10 days previously with acute kidney injury (AKI) caused by dehydration will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is 67 mg/dL. b. The creatinine level is 3.0 mg/dL. c. Urine output over an 8-hour period is 2500 mL. d. The glomerular filtration rate is <30 mL/min/1.73m2.

ANS: C The high urine output indicates a need to increase fluid intake to prevent hypovolemia. The other information is typical of AKI and will not require a change in therapy.

6. Which statement by a patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD) indicates that the nurses teaching about management of CKD has been effective? a. I need to try to get more protein from dairy products. b. I will try to increase my intake of fruits and vegetables. c. I will measure my urinary output each day to help calculate the amount I can drink. d. I need to take the erythropoietin to boost my immune system and help prevent infection.

ANS: C The patient with end-stage renal disease is taught to measure urine output as a means of determining an appropriate oral fluid intake. Erythropoietin is given to increase the red blood cell count and will not offer any benefit for immune function. Dairy products are restricted because of the high phosphate level. Many fruits and vegetables are high in potassium and should be restricted in the patient with CKD.

34. During hemodialysis, a patient complains of nausea and dizziness. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Slow down the rate of dialysis. b. Obtain blood to check the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level. c. Check the patients blood pressure. d. Give prescribed PRN antiemetic drugs.

ANS: C The patients complaints of nausea and dizziness suggest hypotension, so the initial action should be to check the BP. The other actions also may be appropriate, based on the blood pressure obtained.

3. A patient with severe heart failure develops elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. The nurse will plan care to meet the goal of a. replacing fluid volume. b. preventing hypertension. c. maintaining cardiac output. d. diluting nephrotoxic substances.

ANS: C The primary goal of treatment for acute kidney injury (AKI) is to eliminate the cause and provide supportive care while the kidneys recover. Because this patients heart failure is causing AKI, the care will be directed toward treatment of the heart failure. For renal failure caused by hypertension, hypovolemia, or nephrotoxins, the other responses would be correct.

33. A patient in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure has a 24-hour fluid output of 150 mL emesis and 250 mL urine. The nurse plans a fluid replacement for the following day of ___ mL. a. 400 b. 800 c. 1000 d. 1400

ANS: C Usually fluid replacement should be based on the patients measured output plus 600 mL/day for insensible losses.

11. Which information will be most useful to the nurse in evaluating improvement in kidney function for a patient who is hospitalized with acute kidney injury (AKI)? a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level b. Urine output c. Creatinine level d. Calculated glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

ANS: D GFR is the preferred method for evaluating kidney function. BUN levels can fluctuate based on factors such as fluid volume status. Urine output can be normal or high in patients with AKI and does not accurately reflect kidney function. Creatinine alone is not an accurate reflection of renal function.

10. Before administration of calcium carbonate (Caltrate) to a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse should check the laboratory value for a. creatinine. b. potassium. c. total cholesterol. d. serum phosphate.

ANS: D If serum phosphate is elevated, the calcium and phosphate can cause soft tissue calcification. The calcium carbonate should not be given until the phosphate level is lowered. Total cholesterol, creatinine, and potassium values do not affect whether calcium carbonate should be administered.

36. A patient complains of leg cramps during hemodialysis. The nurse should first a. reposition the patient. b. massage the patients legs. c. give acetaminophen (Tylenol). d. infuse a bolus of normal saline.

ANS: D Muscle cramps during dialysis are caused by rapid removal of sodium and water. Treatment includes infusion of normal saline. The other actions do not address the reason for the cramps.

15. Which action by a patient who is using peritoneal dialysis (PD) indicates that the nurse should provide more teaching about PD? a. The patient slows the inflow rate when experiencing pain. b. The patient leaves the catheter exit site without a dressing. c. The patient plans 30 to 60 minutes for a dialysate exchange. d. The patient cleans the catheter while taking a bath every day.

ANS: D Patients are encouraged to take showers rather than baths to avoid infections at the catheter insertion side. The other patient actions indicate good understanding of peritoneal dialysis.

2. A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has an arterial blood pH of 7.30. The nurse will assess the patient for a. vasodilation. b. poor skin turgor. c. bounding pulses. d. rapid respirations.

ANS: D Patients with metabolic acidosis caused by AKI may have Kussmaul respirations as the lungs try to regulate carbon dioxide. Bounding pulses and vasodilation are not associated with metabolic acidosis. Because the patient is likely to have fluid retention, poor skin turgor would not be a finding in AKI.

27. After noting lengthening QRS intervals in a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI), which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the QRS interval. b. Notify the patients health care provider. c. Look at the patients current blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. d. Check the chart for the most recent blood potassium level.

ANS: D The increasing QRS interval is suggestive of hyperkalemia, so the nurse should check the most recent potassium and then notify the patients health care provider. The BUN and creatinine will be elevated in a patient with AKI, but they would not directly affect the electrocardiogram (ECG). Documentation of the QRS interval also is appropriate, but interventions to decrease the potassium level are needed to prevent life-threatening bradycardia.

21. A new order for IV gentamicin (Garamycin) 60 mg BID is received for a patient with diabetes who has pneumonia. When evaluating for adverse effects of the medication, the nurse will plan to monitor the patients a. urine osmolality. b. serum potassium. c. blood glucose level. d. blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

ANS: D When a patient at risk for chronic kidney disease (CKD) receives a nephrotoxic medication, it is important to monitor renal function with BUN and creatinine levels. The other laboratory values would not be useful in determining the effect of the gentamicin.

4.A frail 72-yr-old woman with stage 3 chronic kidney disease is cared for at home by her family. The patient has a history of taking many over-the-counter medications. Which over-the-counter medications should the nurse teach the patient to avoid? 1. Aspirin 2. Acetaminophen 3. Diphenhydramine 4. Aluminum hydroxide

Aluminum hydroxide Antacids (that contain magnesium and aluminum) should be avoided because patients with kidney disease are unable to excrete these substances. Also, some antacids contain high levels of sodium that further increase blood pressure. Acetaminophen and aspirin (if taken for a short period of time) are usually safe for patients with kidney disease. Antihistamines may be used, but combination drugs that contain pseudoephedrine may increase blood pressure and should be avoided.

20.Which findings will the nurse expect when caring for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) (select all that apply.)? 1. Anemia 2. Dehydration 3. Hypertension 4. Hypercalcemia 5. Increased risk for fractures 6. Elevated white blood cells

Anemia Hypertension Increased risk for fractures When the kidney fails, erythropoietin in not excreted, so anemia is expected. Hypocalcemia from chronic renal disease stimulates the parathyroid to release parathyroid hormone, causing calcium liberation from bones increasing the risk of pathological fracture. Dehydration and hypercalcemia are not expected in chronic renal disease. Fluid volume overload and hypocalcemia are expected. Although impaired immune function should be expected, elevated white blood cells would indicate inflammation or infection not associated with chronic renal failure itself but a complication

14.A 78-yr-old patient has stage 3 CKD and is being taught about a low-potassium diet. The nurse knows the patient understands the diet when the patient selects which foods to eat? 1. Apple, green beans, and a roast beef sandwich 2. Granola made with dried fruits, nuts, and seeds 3. Watermelon and ice cream with chocolate sauce 4. Bran cereal with ½ banana and milk and orange juice

Apple, green beans, and a roast beef sandwich When the patient selects an apple, green beans, and a roast beef sandwich, the patient demonstrates understanding of the low-potassium diet. Granola, dried fruits, nuts and seeds, milk products, chocolate sauce, bran cereal, banana, and orange juice all have elevated levels of potassium, at or above 200 mg per 1/2 cup

2.A 52-yr-old man with stage 2 chronic kidney disease is scheduled for an outpatient diagnostic procedure using contrast media. Which priority action should the nurse perform? Assess skin turgor to determine hydration status. Insert a urinary catheter for the expected diuresis. Evaluate the patient's lower extremities for edema. Check the patient's urine for the presence of ketones.

Assess skin turgor to determine hydration status. Preexisting kidney disease is the most important risk factor for the development of contrast-associated nephropathy and nephrotoxic injury. If contrast media must be administered to a high-risk patient, the patient needs to have optimal hydration. The nurse should assess the hydration status of the patient before the procedure is performed. Indwelling catheter use should be avoided whenever possible to decrease the risk of infection.

10. What is the most common complication of peritoneal dialysis? a. Urinary retension b. Peritonitis c. Abdominal pain d. Infiltration

B

11. What dietary regime would the nurse encourage clients who are receiving peritoneal dialysis to engage in? a. High carbohydrate diet b. High protein intake c. Low fat, low sodium diet d. High fat, high carbohydrate diet.

B

16. Mrs. V is a client with oliguric acute renal failure. Which of the following clinical manifestations would be consistent with that diagnosis? a. Urine specific gravity of 1.001 b. BUN :Creatinine ratio of 30:1. c. Proteinuria d. Hematuria

B

17. Which of the following is the most common overall sign of acute renal failure? a. Urine develops a fruity odor b. Expected urine output increases or decreases significantly c. Urine specific gravity is greater than 1.040 d. Urine develops a root beer color and consistency

B

2. A nurse is evaluating a client's demonstration of peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following actions by the client demonstrates a need for further teaching? a. Primes the tubing with solution and connects it to the peritoneal catheter, taping connections. b. Instills the dialysate into the abdominal cavity quickly and clamps the tubing. c. Checks the tubing and catheter for kinks. d. Opens clams and allows the dialysate to drain by gravity after the prescribed dwell time.

B

28. The nurse is conducting peritoneal dialysis for a client with renal failure. The drainage tubing had no outflow. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? a. Notify the physician b. Check the tubing for kinks or obstruction c. Try a more concentrated dialysate solution d. Apply a 5 pound sandbag to the abdomen

B

5. What is the filter called that functions as an artificial kidney in hemodialysis? a. Hemolyzer b. Dialyzer c. Nephrolyzer d. Kidneyzer

B

A client, newly diagnosed with chronic renal failure, has recently begun hemodialysis. The nurse, establishing the client's plan of care, includes monitoring the client for disequilibrium syndrome. Which of the following symptoms will the nurse assess the client for? a. Headache, nausea, vomiting, altered level of consciousness, and hypotension. b. Headache, nausea, vomiting, altered level of consciousness and hypertension. c. Muscle cramps, seizure activity d. Chills, fever, shortness of breath and discolored urine

B

A patient with a history of end-stage renal disease (ESRD) resulting from diabetes mellitus has presented to the outpatient dialysis unit for his scheduled hemodialysis. Which assessment should you prioritize before, during, and after his treatment? A. Level of consciousness B. Blood pressure and fluid balance C. Temperature, heart rate, and blood pressure D. Assessment for signs and symptoms of infection

B. Blood pressure and fluid balance Although all of the assessments are relevant to the care of a patient receiving hemodialysis, the nature of the procedure indicates a particular need to monitor blood pressure and fluid balance.

Which assessment finding is commonly found in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI)? A. Hypovolemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypernatremia D. Thrombocytopenia

B. Hyperkalemia In AKI, the serum potassium levels increase because the normal ability of the kidneys to excrete potassium is impaired. Sodium levels are typically normal or diminished, whereas fluid volume is normally increased due to decreased urine output. Thrombocytopenia is not a consequence of AKI, although altered platelet function may occur in AKI.

What are the main advantages of peritoneal dialysis compared to hemodialysis? A. No medications are required because of the enhanced efficiency of the peritoneal membrane in removing toxins. B. The diet is less restricted and dialysis can be performed at home. C. The dialysate is biocompatible and causes no long-term consequences. D. High glucose concentrations of the dialysate cause a reduction in appetite, promoting weight loss.

B. The diet is less restricted and dialysis can be performed at home. Advantages of peritoneal dialysis include fewer dietary restrictions and home dialysis is possible.

9.A patient with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) secondary to diabetes mellitus has arrived at the outpatient dialysis unit for hemodialysis. Which assessments should the nurse perform as a priority before, during, and after the treatment? 1. Level of consciousness 2. Blood pressure and fluid balance 3. Temperature, heart rate, and blood pressure 4. Assessment for signs and symptoms of infection

Blood pressure and fluid balance Although all of the assessments are relevant to the care of a patient receiving hemodialysis, fluid removal during the procedure will require monitoring blood pressure and fluid balance prior, during, and afte

14. The nurse determines that which of the following types of antibiotics being prescribed for one or more of a group of clients is least likely to cause nephrotoxicity? a. A cephalosporin b. An aminoglycoside c. A penicillin d. A sulfonamide

C

18. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances tends to occur in the earlier stages of chronic renal failure? a. Hypokalemia b. Hypercalcemia c. Hyponatremia d. Hypocalcemia

C

19. Which of the following clients with chronic renal failure would not be a candidate for peritoneal dialysis? a. A 50 year old man with cardiovascular disease b. A 45 year old woman with diabetes mellitus c. A 10 year old child with congenital urethral strictures d. A 70 year old woman with tuberculosis.

C

21. The nurse notes in the first few exchanges during peritoneal dialysis of Mrs H that the effluent is pink-tinged. Which of the following is the most appropriate action? a. Stop the dialysis immediately b. Notify the physician c. Continue the dialysis and observe d. Send a specimen of the effluent for culture.

C

22. The nurse is caring for Mr. P, a chronic dialysis patient who has an arteriovenous fistula, Nursing care of the fistula should include: a. Irrigating the fistula with heparin to prevent clotting b. Frequent dressing changes to prevent infection c. Washing the fistula site with soap and water d. Checking blood pressure in the arm with the fistula to see if circulation is adequate.

C

25. The nurse performing intermittent peritoneal dialysis notes that the client's medical record shows that the client has not had a bowel movement for 3 days. The nurse would be careful to assess the client for which of the following manifestations related to this information? a. Fluid leakage b. Cloudy dialysate output c. Reduced catheter outflow d. Increased thirst

C

3. A client is admitted for emergency dialysis for newly diagnosed chronic renal failure. The nurse recognizes that which of the following laboratory values poses the greatest risk to the client? a. BUN 40 mg/ml b. Serum Creatinine 5.8 c. Potassium 7.0 mEq/L d. pH 7.30

C

6. How often must hemodialysis be performed in order to be effective? a. Every day b. Twice a week c. Three times a week d. Four times a week and prn

C

9. In peritoneal dialysis, which anatomic area acts as the filter for this method of dialysis? a. The lining of the stomach b. The lining of the small intestine c. The lining of the peritoneum d. The lining of the abdomen

C

The patient in the oliguric phase of AKI excreted 300 mL of urine in addition to 100 mL of other losses during the past 24 hours. With appropriate calculations, you determine that for the next 24 hours the patient's fluid allocation is A. 600 mL. B. 800 mL. C. 1000 mL. D. 1200 mL.

C. 1000 mL. Fluid intake must be closely monitored during the oliguric phase. The rule for calculating the fluid restriction is to add all losses for the previous 24 hours to 600 mL for insensible losses.

If a patient is in the diuretic phase of AKI, you must monitor for which serum electrolyte imbalances? A. Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia B. Hyperkalemia and hypernatremia C. Hypokalemia and hyponatremia D. Hypokalemia and hypernatremia

C. Hypokalemia and hyponatremia In the diuretic phase of AKI, the kidneys have recovered their ability to excrete wastes but not to concentrate the urine. Hypovolemia and hypotension can result from massive fluid losses. Because of the large losses of fluid and electrolytes, the patient must be monitored for hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and dehydration.

A patient is recovering in the intensive care unit (ICU) after receiving a kidney transplant approximately 24 hours earlier. What is an expected assessment finding for this patient during the early stage of recovery? A. Hypokalemia B. Hyponatremia C. Large urine output D. Leukocytosis with cloudy urine output

C. Large urine output Patients frequently experience diuresis in the hours and days immediately after kidney transplantation. Electrolyte imbalances and signs of infection are unexpected findings that warrant prompt intervention.

How should you assess the patency of a newly placed arteriovenous graft for dialysis? A. Irrigate the graft daily with low-dose heparin. B. Monitor for any increase in blood pressure in the affected arm. C. Listen with a stethoscope over the graft for presence of a bruit. D. Frequently monitor the pulses and neurovascular status distal to the graft.

C. Listen with a stethoscope over the graft for presence of a bruit. A thrill can be felt by palpating the area of anastomosis of the arteriovenous graft, and a bruit can be heard with a stethoscope. The bruit and thrill are created by arterial blood rushing into the vein.

You are caring for a patient receiving continuous replacement therapy and notice that the filtrate is blood tinged. What is your priority action? A. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position. B. Initiate a peripheral intravenous line. C. Suspend treatment immediately. D. Administer vitamin K (Aquamephyton) per order.

C. Suspend treatment immediately. The ultrafiltrate should be clear yellow, and specimens may be obtained for evaluation of serum chemistries. If the ultrafiltrate becomes bloody or blood tinged, a possible rupture in the filter membrane should be suspected, and treatment is suspended immediately to prevent blood loss and infection.

Measures indicated in the conservative therapy of CKD include A. decreased fluid intake, carbohydrate intake, and protein intake. B. increased fluid intake; decreased carbohydrate intake and protein intake. C. decreased fluid intake and protein intake; increased carbohydrate intake. D. decreased fluid intake and carbohydrate intake; increased protein intake.

C. decreased fluid intake and protein intake; increased carbohydrate intake. Water and any other fluids are not routinely restricted in the pre-end-stage renal disease (ESRD) stages. Patients on hemodialysis have a more restricted diet than patients receiving peritoneal dialysis. For those receiving hemodialysis, as their urinary output diminishes, fluid restrictions are enhanced. Intake depends on the daily urine output. Generally, 600 mL (from insensible loss) plus an amount equal to the previous day's urine output is allowed for a patient receiving hemodialysis. Patients are advised to limit fluid intake so that weight gains are no more than 1 to 3 kg between dialyses (interdialytic weight gain). For the patient who is undergoing dialysis, protein is not routinely restricted. The beneficial role of protein restriction in CKD stages 1 through 4 as a means to reduce the decline in kidney function is being studied. Historically, dietary counseling often encouraged restriction of protein for CKD patients. Although there is some evidence that protein restriction has benefits, many patients find these diets difficult to adhere to. For CKD stages 1 through 4, many clinicians encourage a diet with normal protein intake. However, you should teach patients to avoid high-protein diets and supplements because they may overstress the diseased kidneys.

13.A patient with a 25-year history of type 1 diabetes mellitus is reporting fatigue, edema, and an irregular heartbeat. On assessment, the nurse notes newly developed hypertension and uncontrolled blood sugars. Which diagnostic study is most indicative of chronic kidney disease (CKD)? 1. Serum creatinine 2. Serum potassium 3. Microalbuminuria 4. Calculated glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

Calculated glomerular filtration rate (GFR) The best study to determine kidney function or CKD that would be expected in the patient with diabetes is the calculated GFR that is obtained from the patient's age, gender, race, and serum creatinine. It would need to be abnormal for 3 months to establish a diagnosis of CKD. A creatinine clearance test done with a blood sample and a 24-hour urine collection is also important. Serum creatinine is not the best test for CKD because the level varies with different patients. Serum potassium levels could explain why the patient has an irregular heartbeat. The finding of microalbuminuria can alert the patient with diabetes about potential renal involvement and potentially failing kidneys. However, urine albumin levels are not used for diagnosis of CKD

3.A 56-yr-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which finding will the nurse monitor for? 1. Fatigue 2. Hypoglycemia 3. Cardiac dysrhythmias 4. Elevated triglycerides

Cardiac dysrhythmias Hyperkalemia is the most serious electrolyte disorder associated with kidney disease. Fatal dysrhythmias can occur when the serum potassium level reaches 7 to 8 mEq/L. Fatigue and hypertriglyceridemia may be present but do not require urgent intervention. Hypoglycemia is a complication related to diabetes control, not hyperkalemia. However, administration of insulin and dextrose is an emergency treatment for hyperkalemia.

19.The physician has decided to use renal replacement therapy to remove large volumes of fluid from a patient who is hemodynamically unstable in the intensive care unit. The nurse should expect which treatment to be used for this patient? 1. Hemodialysis (HD) three times per week 2. Automated peritoneal dialysis (APD) 3. Continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH) 4. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)

Continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH) CVVH removes large volumes of water and solutes from the patient over a longer period of time by using ultrafiltration and convection. HD three times per week would not be used for this patient because fluid and solutes build up and then are rapidly removed. With APD (used at night instead of during the day) fluid and solutes build up during the day and would not benefit this patient as much. CAPD will not as rapidly remove large amounts of fluid as CVVH can do

13. The nurse would anticipate that a client with rhabdomyolysis would exhibit which of the following manifestations? a. Gross hematuria b. Clear yellow urine c. Dark amber urine d. Brown-tinged urine

D

15. Mrs. K is in the diuretic phase of acute renal failure. During this phase, the client is assessed for signs of: a. Hyperkalemia b. Metabolic acidosis c. Hypertension d. Hypovolemia

D

20. During peritoneal dialysis. Mrs. H's dialysate white blood cell count is 150/mm and neutrophils are 60%. This would indicate that the client has developed a. Anemia b. Pylenephritis c. Bowel perforation d. Peritonitis

D

23. Mr. U is a client recently receiving hemodialysis treatments. Following a treatment, the client complains of a severe headache and he appears somewhat confused. Which of the following initial actions by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Check the client's blood pressure b. Administer oxygen c. Encourage the client to drink fluids d. Notify the physician immediately

D

26. The nurse would encourage the client receiving peritoneal dialysis to do which of the following to manage low back pain associated with increased weight in the abdomen? a. Lying down as much as possible b. Walking on surfaces with gradual inclines c. Reducing voluntary fluid intake d. Performing specified exercises

D

29. Select the most correct statement related to peritoneal dialysis treatments. a. Procedures require a venous access site. b. Dialysate is infused slowly over 20-30 minutes c. Dialysate solution is allowed to dwell for 1 hour d. Dialysate needs to be prewarmed before infusion.

D

4. Hemodialysis rids the body of harmful waste. What else does hemodialysis remove? a. Extra protein and fat b. Extra sodium and potassium c. Extra insulin d. Extra water and sodium

D

7. What is a common side effect for hemodialysis? a. Muscle cramps b. Dizziness and weakness, hypotension c. Nausea and vomiting d. All of the above.

D

8. Which dietary mineral must be limited for a person on hemodialysis? a. Iron b. Zinc c. Sodium d. Potassium

D

You are preparing to administer a dose of PhosLo to a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD). This medication should have a beneficial effect on which laboratory value? A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Magnesium D. Phosphorus

D. Phosphorus Phosphorus and calcium have inverse or reciprocal relationships, meaning that when phosphorus levels are high, calcium levels tend to be low. Administration of calcium should help to reduce a patient's abnormally high phosphorus level, as seen in CKD.

When caring for a patient during the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury, what would be an appropriate nursing intervention? A. Weigh patient three times weekly B. Increase dietary sodium and potassium C. Provide a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet D. Restrict fluids according to the previous day's fluid loss

D. Restrict fluids according to the previous day's fluid loss Patients in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury have fluid volume excess with potassium and sodium retention. They will need to have dietary sodium, potassium, and fluids restricted. Daily fluid intake is based on the previous 24-hour fluid loss (measured output plus 600 mL for insensible loss). The diet also needs to provide adequate, not low, protein intake to prevent catabolism. The patient should also be weighed daily, not just three times per week.

The patient admitted to the intensive care unit after a motor vehicle accident has been diagnosed with AKI. Which finding indicates the onset of oliguria resulting from AKI? A. Urine output less than 1000 mL for the past 24 hours B. Urine output less than 800 mL for the past 24 hours C. Urine output less than 600 mL for the past 24 hours D. Urine output less than 400 mL for the past 24 hours

D. Urine output less than 400 mL for the past 24 hours The most common initial manifestation of AKI is oliguria, a reduction to urine output to less than 400 mL/day.

17.During hemodialysis, the patient develops light-headedness and nausea. What should the nurse do first? 1. Administer hypertonic saline. 2. Administer a blood transfusion. 3. Decrease the rate of fluid removal. 4. Administer antiemetic medications.

Decrease the rate of fluid removal The patient is experiencing hypotension from a rapid removal of vascular volume. The rate and volume of fluid removal will be decreased, and 0.9% saline solution may be infused. Hypertonic saline is not used because of the high sodium load. A blood transfusion is not indicated. Antiemetic medications may help the nausea but would not help the hypovolemia

21.Which assessment findings would alert the nurse that the patient has entered the diuretic phase of acute kidney injury (AKI) (select all that apply.)? 1. Dehydration 2. Hypokalemia 3. Hypernatremia 4. BUN increases 5. Urine output increases 6. Serum creatinine increases

Dehydration Hypokalemia Urine output increases The hallmark of entering the diuretic phase is the production of copious amounts of urine. Dehydration, hypokalemia, and hyponatremia occur in the diuretic phase of AKI because the nephrons can excrete wastes but not concentrate urine. Serum BUN and serum creatinine levels begin to decrease

11.Which patient diagnosis or treatment is most consistent with prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI)? 1. IV tobramycin 2. Incompatible blood transfusion 3. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis 4. Dissecting abdominal aortic aneurysm

Dissecting abdominal aortic aneurysm A dissecting abdominal aortic aneurysm is a prerenal cause of AKI because it can decrease renal artery perfusion and therefore the glomerular filtrate rate. Aminoglycoside antibiotic administration, a hemolytic blood transfusion reaction, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis are intrarenal causes of AKI

18.A 24-yr-old woman donated a kidney via a laparoscopic donor nephrectomy to a nonrelated recipient. The patient is experiencing significant pain and refuses to get up to walk. How should the nurse respond? 1. Have the transplant psychologist convince her to walk. 2. Encourage even a short walk to avoid complications of surgery. 3. Tell the patient that no other patients have ever refused to walk. 4. Tell the patient she is lucky she did not have an open nephrectomy.

Encourage even a short walk to avoid complications of surgery Because ambulating will improve bowel, lung, and kidney function with improved circulation, even a short walk with assistance should be encouraged after pain medication. The transplant psychologist or social worker's role is to determine if the patient is emotionally stable enough to handle donating a kidney; postoperative care is the nurse's role. Trying to shame the patient into walking by telling her that other patients have not refused and telling the patient she is lucky she did not have an open nephrectomy (implying how much more pain she would be having if it had been open) will not be beneficial to the patient or her postoperative recovery

16.Diffusion, osmosis, and ultrafiltration occur in both hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis. Which strategy is used to achieve ultrafiltration in peritoneal dialysis? 1. Increasing the pressure gradient 2. Increasing osmolality of the dialysate 3. Decreasing the glucose in the dialysate 4. Decreasing the concentration of the dialysate

Increasing osmolality of the dialysate Ultrafiltration in peritoneal dialysis is achieved by increasing the osmolality of the dialysate with additional glucose. In hemodialysis, the increased pressure gradient from increased pressure in the blood compartment or decreased pressure in the dialysate compartment causes ultrafiltration. Decreasing the concentration of the dialysate in either peritoneal or hemodialysis will decrease the amount of fluid removed from the blood stream

10.A patient is recovering in the intensive care unit (ICU) 24 hours after receiving a kidney transplant. What is an expected assessment finding during the earliest stage of recovery? 1. Hypokalemia 2. Hyponatremia 3. Large urine output 4. Leukocytosis with cloudy urine output

Large urine output Patients frequently experience diuresis in the hours and days immediately following a kidney transplant. Electrolyte imbalances and signs of infection are unexpected findings that warrant prompt intervention

12. The patient has rapidly progressing glomerular inflammation. Weight has increased and urine output is steadily declining. What is the priority nursing intervention? 1. Monitor the patient's cardiac status. 2. Teach the patient about hand washing. 3. Obtain a serum specimen for electrolytes. 4. Increase direct observation of the patient.

Monitor the patient's cardiac status The nurse's priority is to monitor the patient's cardiac status. With the rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis, renal function begins to fail and fluid, potassium, and hydrogen retention lead to hypervolemia, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis. Excess fluid increases the workload of the heart, and hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening dysrhythmias. Teaching about hand washing and observation of the patient are important nursing interventions but are not the priority. Electrolyte measurement is a collaborative intervention that will be done as ordered by the health care provider

6.The nurse preparing to administer a dose of calcium acetate to a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which laboratory result will the nurse monitor to determine if the desired effect was achieved? 1. Sodium 2. Potassium 3. Magnesium 4. Phosphorus

Phosphorus Phosphorus and calcium have inverse or reciprocal relationships, meaning that when phosphorus levels are high, calcium levels tend to be low. Therefore, administration of calcium should help to reduce a patient's abnormally high phosphorus level, as seen with CKD. Calcium acetate will not have an effect on sodium, potassium, or magnesium levels

7. When caring for a patient during the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI), which nursing action is appropriate? 1. Weigh patient three times weekly. 2. Increase dietary sodium and potassium. 3. Provide a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet. 4. Restrict fluids according to previous daily loss.

Restrict fluids according to previous daily loss. Patients in the oliguric phase of AKI will have fluid volume excess with potassium and sodium retention. Therefore, they will need to have dietary sodium, potassium, and fluids restricted. Daily fluid intake is based on the previous 24-hour fluid loss (measured output plus 600 mL for insensible loss). The diet also needs to provide adequate, not low, protein intake to prevent catabolism. The patient should also be weighed daily, not just three times each week

The nurse is caring for a 68-yr-old man who had coronary artery bypass surgery 3 weeks ago. During the oliguric phase of acute kidney disease, which action would be appropriate to include in the plan of care? Provide foods high in potassium. Restrict fluids based on urine output. Monitor output from peritoneal dialysis. Offer high-protein snacks between meals.

Restrict fluids based on urine output. Fluid intake is monitored during the oliguric phase. Fluid intake is determined by adding all losses for the previous 24 hours plus 600 mL. Potassium and protein intake may be limited in the oliguric phase to avoid hyperkalemia and elevated urea nitrogen. Hemodialysis, not peritoneal dialysis, is indicated in acute kidney injury if dialysis is needed.

9. Which patient below with acute kidney injury is in the oliguric stage of AKI: A. A 56 year old male who has metabolic acidosis, decreased GFR, increased BUN/Creatinine, hyperkalemia, edema, and urinary output 350 mL/day. B. A 45 year old female with metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia, normal GFR, increased BUN/creatinine, edema, and urinary output 600 mL/day. C. A 39 year old male with metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, improving GFR, resolving edema, and urinary output 4 L/day. D. A 78 year old female with respiratory acidosis, increased GFR, decreased BUN/creatinine, hypokalemia, and urinary output 550 mL/day.

The answer is A. During the oliguric stage of AKI the patient will have a urinary output of 400 mL/day or LESS. This is due to a decreased GRF (glomerular filtration rate), which will lead to increased amounts of waste in the blood (increased BUN/Creatinine), metabolic acidosis (decreased excretion of hydrogen ions), hyperkalemia, hypervolemia (edema/hypertension), and urinary output of <400 mL/day.

11. While educating a group of nursing students about the stages of acute kidney injury, a student asks how long the oliguric stage lasts. You explain to the student this stage can last? A. 1-2 weeks B. 1-3 days C. Few hours to 2 weeks D. 12 months

The answer is A. The oliguric stage can last 1-2 weeks. Regarding the other stages of AKI: Initiation: few hours to several days, diuresis: 1-3 weeks, and recovery: 12 months or more.

9. A patient with stage 4 chronic kidney disease asks what type of diet they should follow. You explain the patient should follow a: A. Low protein, low sodium, low potassium, low phosphate diet B. High protein, low sodium, low potassium, high phosphate diet C. Low protein, high sodium, high potassium, high phosphate diet D. Low protein, low sodium, low potassium, high phosphate diet

The answer is A. The patient should follow this type of diet because protein breaks down into urea (remember patient will have increased urea levels), low sodium to prevent fluid excess, low potassium to prevent hyperkalemia (remember glomerulus isn't filtering out potassium/phosphate as it should), and low phosphate to prevent hyperphosphatemia.

3. A 65 year old male patient has a glomerular filtration rate of 55 mL/min. The patient has a history of uncontrolled hypertension and coronary artery disease. You're assessing the new medication orders received for this patient. Which medication ordered by the physician will help treat the patient's hypertension along with providing a protective mechanism to the kidneys? A. Lisinopril B. Metoprolol C. Amlodipine D. Verapamil

The answer is A. There are two types of drugs that can be used to treat hypertension and protect the kidneys in patients with CKD. These drugs include angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors) and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs). The only drug listed here that is correct is Lisinopril. This drug is known as an ACE inhibitor. Metoprolol is a BETA BLOCKER. Amlodipine and Verapamil are calcium channel blockers.

3. You're assessing morning lab values on a female patient who is recovering from a myocardial infraction. Which lab value below requires you to notify the physician? A. Potassium level 4.2 mEq/L B. Creatinine clearance 35 mL/min C. BUN 20 mg/dL D. Blood pH 7.40

The answer is B. A normal creatinine clearance level in a female should be 85-125 mL/min (95-140 mL/min males). A creatinine clearance level indicates the amount of blood the kidneys can make per minute that contain no amounts of creatinine in it. Remember creatinine is a waste product of muscle breakdown. Therefore, the kidneys should be able to remove excessive amounts of it from the bloodstream. A patient who has experienced a myocardial infraction is at risk for pre-renal acute injury due to decreased cardiac output to the kidneys from a damaged heart muscle (the heart isn't able to pump as efficiently because of ischemia). All the other labs values are normal.

8. While assessing morning labs on your patient with CKD. You note the patient's phosphate level is 6.2 mg/dL. As the nurse, you expect to find the calcium level to be? A. Elevated B. Low C. Normal D. Same as the phosphate level

The answer is B. A normal phosphate level is 2.7-4.5 mg/dL. This patient is experiencing HYPERphosphatemia. When hyperphosphatemia presents the calcium level DECREASES because phosphate and calcium bind to each. When there is too much phosphate in the blood it takes too much calcium with it and it decreases the calcium in the blood. Therefore, the nurse would expect to find the calcium level decreased.

1. ______________ is solely filtered from the bloodstream via the glomerulus and is NOT reabsorbed back into the bloodstream but is excreted through the urine. A. Urea B. Creatinine C. Potassium D. Magnesium

The answer is B. Creatinine is a waste product from muscle breakdown and is removed from the bloodstream via the glomerulus of the nephron. It is the only substance that is solely filtered out of the blood but NOT reabsorbed back into the system. It is excreted out through the urine. This is why a creatinine clearance test is used as an indicator for determining renal function and for calculating the glomerular filtration rate.

10. You're developing a nursing care plan for a patient in the diuresis stage of AKI. What nursing diagnosis would you include in the care plan? A. Excess fluid volume B. Risk for electrolyte imbalance C. Urinary retention D. Acute pain

The answer is B. During the diuresis stage of AKI, the patient will be losing an excessive amount of urine (3-6 Liters/day) and is at risk for fluid volume deficient and electrolyte imbalance. The nurse must monitor the patient's electrolyte levels, especially potassium (hypokalemia).

2. A patient with CKD has a low erythropoietin (EPO) level. The patient is at risk for? A. Hypercalcemia B. Anemia C. Blood clots D. Hyperkalemia

The answer is B. EPO (erythropoietin) helps create red blood cells in the bone marrow. The kidneys produce EPO and when the kidneys are damaged in CKD they can decrease in the production of EPO. Therefore, the patient is at risk for anemia.

5. A patient with Stage 5 CKD is experiencing extreme pruritus and has several areas of crystallized white deposits on the skin. As the nurse, you know this is due to excessive amounts of what substance found in the blood? A. Calcium B. Urea C. Phosphate D. Erythropoietin

The answer is B. This patient is experiencing uremic frost that occurs in severe chronic kidney disease. This is due to high amounts of urea in the blood being secreted via the sweat glands onto the skin, which will appear as white deposits on the skin. The patient will experience itching with this.

4. Which patient below is NOT at risk for developing chronic kidney disease? A. A 58 year old female with uncontrolled hypertension. B. A 69 year old male with diabetes mellitus. C. A 45 year old female with polycystic ovarian disease. D. A 78 year old female with an intrarenal injury.

The answer is C. Options A, B, and D are all at risk for developing CKD. However, option C is not at risk for CKD.

4. A 55 year old male patient is admitted with a massive GI bleed. The patient is at risk for what type of acute kidney injury? A. Post-renal B. Intra-renal C. Pre-renal D. Intrinsic renal

The answer is C. Pre-renal injury is due to decreased perfusion to the kidneys secondary to a cause (massive GI bleeding...patient is losing blood volume). This leads to a major decrease in kidney function because the kidneys are deprived of nutrients to function and the amount of blood it can filter. Pre-renal injury can eventually lead to intrarenal damage where the nephrons become damaged.

12. A patient with AKI has a urinary output of 350 mL/day. In addition, morning labs showed an increased BUN and creatinine level along with potassium level of 6 mEq/L. What type of diet ordered by the physician is most appropriate for this patient? A. Low-sodium, high-protein, and low-potassium B. High-protein, low-potassium, and low-sodium C. Low-protein, low-potassium, and low-sodium D. High-protein and high-potassium

The answer is C. The patient with AKI, especially in the oliguric stage of AKI, should eat a low-protein, low-potassium, and low-sodium diet. This is because the kidneys are unable to filter out waste products, excessive water, and maintain electrolyte balance. The patient will have a buildup of waste (BUN and creatinine). Remember these waste products are the byproduct of protein (urea) and muscle breakdown (creatinine). So the patient should avoid high-protein foods. In addition, the patient is at risk for hyperkalemia and fluid overload (needs low-potassium and sodium foods).

1. A 55 year old male patient is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease. The patient's recent GFR was 25 mL/min. What stage of chronic kidney disease is this known as? A. Stage 1 B. Stage 3 C. Stage 4 D. Stage 5

The answer is C. This is known as Stage 4 of CKD because the GFR (glomerular filtration rate) for this stage is 15-29 mL/min (patient's GFR is 25 mL/min). The other stage's criteria are as follows: Stage 1: Kidney damage with normal renal function GFR >90 ml/min but with proteinuria (3 months or more); Stage 2: Kidney damage with mild loss of renal function GFR 60-89 ml/min with proteinuria (3 months or more); Stage 3: Mild-to-severe loss of renal function GFR 30-59 mL/min; Stage 4: Severe loss renal function GFR 15-29 mL/min; Stage 5: End stage renal disease GRF less 15 mL/min

10. The kidneys are responsible for performing all the following functions EXCEPT? A. Activating Vitamin D B. Secreting Renin C. Secreting Erythropoietin D. Maintaining cortisol production

The answer is D. The adrenal glands are responsible for maintaining cortisol production not the kidneys.

6. Your patient with chronic kidney disease is scheduled for dialysis in the morning. While examining the patient's telemetry strip, you note tall peaked T-waves. You notify the physician who orders a STAT basic metabolic panel (BMP). What result from the BMP confirms the EKG abnormality? A. Phosphate 3.2 mg/dL B. Calcium 9.3 mg/dL C. Magnesium 2.2 mg/dL D. Potassium 7.1 mEq/L

The answer is D. The patient's potassium level is extremely elevated. A normal potassium level is 3.5-5.1 mEq/L. This patient is experiencing hyperkalemia, which can cause tall peak T-waves. Remember in CKD (especially prior to dialysis), the patient will experience electrolyte imbalances, especially hyperkalemia.

6. A patient with acute kidney injury has the following labs: GFR 92 mL/min, BUN 17 mg/dL, potassium 4.9 mEq/L, and creatinine 1 mg/dL. The patient's 24 hour urinary output is 1.75 Liters. Based on these findings, what stage of AKI is this patient in? A. Initiation B. Diuresis C. Oliguric D. Recovery

The answer is D. This patient is in the recovery stage of AKI. The patient's labs and urinary output indicate the renal function has returned to normal. Remember the recovery stages starts when the GFR (glomerular filtration rate) has returned to normal (normal GFR 90 mL/min or higher), which will allow waste levels and electrolyte levels to be maintained.

8. True or False: All patients with acute renal injury will progress through the oliguric stage of AKI but not all patients will progress through the diuresis stage.

The answer is FALSE. Some patients will skip the oliguric stage of AKI and progress to the diuresis stage.

2. A patient with acute renal injury has a GFR (glomerular filtration rate) of 40 mL/min. Which signs and symptoms below may this patient present with? Select all that apply: A. Hypervolemia B. Hypokalemia C. Increased BUN level D. Decreased Creatinine level

The answers are A and C. The glomerular filtration rate indicates how well the glomerulus is filtering the blood. A normal GFR tends to be 90 mL/min or higher. A GFR of 40 mL/min indicates that the kidney's ability to filter the blood is decreased. Therefore, the kidneys will be unable to remove waste and excessive water from the blood...hence hypervolemia and an increased BUN level will present in this patient. The patient will experience HYPERkalemia (not hypo) because the kidneys are unable to remove potassium from the blood. In addition, an INCREASED creatinine level (not decreased) will present because the kidneys cannot remove excessive waste products, such as creatinine.

7. You are providing education to a patient with CKD about calcium acetate. Which statement by the patient demonstrates they understood your teaching about this medication? Select-all-that-apply: A. "This medication will help keep my calcium level normal." B. "I will take this medication with meals or immediately after." C. "It is important I consume high amounts of oatmeal, poultry, fish, and dairy products while taking this medication." D. "This medication will help prevent my phosphate level from increasing."

The answers are B and D. Calcium acetate (also known as PhosLo) is a phosphate binder, which will help keep the patient's phosphate level from becoming too high. It helps excrete the phosphate taken in the food by excreting it out of the stool. Therefore, it should be taken with meals or immediately after. Option C is wrong because the patient should AVOID these types of foods high in phosphate.

7. A 36 year old male patient is diagnosed with acute kidney injury. The patient is voiding 4 L/day of urine. What complication can arise based on the stage of AKI this patient is in? Select all that apply: A. Water intoxication B. Hypotension C. Low urine specific gravity D. Hypokalemia E. Normal GFR

The answers are: B, C, and D. This patient is in the DIURESIS stage of AKI. The nephrons are now starting to filter out waste but cannot concentrate the urine. There is now a high amount of urea in the filtrate (because the nephrons can filter the urea out of the blood) and this causes osmotic diuresis. Urinary output will be excessive (3 to 6 L/day). Therefore, the patient is at risk for hypotension, diluted urine (low urine specific gravity), and hypokalemia (waste potassium in the urine). The patient is not at risk for water intoxication and will not have a normal GFR until the recovery stage.

5. Select all the patients below that are at risk for acute intra-renal injury? A. A 45 year old male with a renal calculus. B. A 65 year old male with benign prostatic hyperplasia. C. A 25 year old female receiving chemotherapy. D. A 36 year old female with renal artery stenosis. E. A 6 year old male with acute glomerulonephritis. F. An 87 year old male who is taking an aminoglycoside medication for an infection.

The answers are: C, E, and F. These patients are at risk for an intra-renal injury, which is where there is damage to the nephrons of kidney. The patients in options A and B are at risk for POST-RENAL injury because there is an obstruction that can cause back flow of urine into the kidney, which can lead to decreased function of the kidney. The patient in option D is at risk for PRE-RENAL injury because there is an issue with perfusion to the kidney.

Prevention of AKI is important because of high mortality rate. Which patient patients are at increased risk for AKI (select all that apply)? a. An 86 year old woman scheduled for a cardiac catheterization b. A 48 year old man with multiple injuries from a MVA c. A 32 year old woman following a c-section delivery for abruptio placentae d. A 64 year old woman with CHF admitted with bloody stools e. A 58 year old man with prostate cancer undergoing preoperative workup for prostatectomy

a, b, c, d, e. High-risk patients include those exposed to nephrotoxic agents and advanced age, massive trauma, prolonged hypovolemia or hypotension, obstetric complications, cardiac failure, preexisting chronic kidney disease, extensive burns or sepsis. Patients with prostate cancer may have obstruction of the outflow tract, which increases risk of postrenal AKI.

A patient on a medical unit has a potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. What is the priority action that the nurse should take? a. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor. b. Check the patient's BP. c. Instruct the patient to avoid high-potassium foods. d. Call the lab and request a redraw of the lab to verify results.

a. Dysrhythmias may occur with an elevated potassium level and are potentially lethal. Monitor the rhythm while contacting physician or calling the rapid response team.

Metabolic acidosis occurs in the oliguric phase of AKI as a result of impairment of a. ammonia synthesis b. excretion of sodium c. excretion of bicarbonate d. conservation of potassium

a. metabolic acidosis occurs in AKI because the kidneys cannot synthesize ammonia or excrete acid producgts of metabolism, resulting in an increased acid load. Bicarbonate is normally generated and reabsorbed by the functioning kidney to maintain acid-base balance.

In a patient with AKI, which laboratory urinalysis result indicates tubular damage? a. hematuria b. specific gravity fixed at 1.010 c. urine sodium of 12 mEq/l (12 mmol/L) d. osmolality of 1000 mOsm/kg (1000 mmol/kg)

b. A urine specific gravity that is consistently 1.010 and a urine osmolality of about 300 mOsm/kg is the same specific gravity and osmolality as plasma. This indicates that tubules are damaged and unable to concentrate urine.

A patient with AKI has a serum potassium level of 6.7 mEq/L and the following ABG results: ph 7.28, PaCo2 30, PaO2 86, HCO3- 18. the nurse recognizes that treatment of the acid-base problem with sodium bicarobnate would cause a decrease in with value? a. pH b. potassium level c. bicarbonate level d. carbon dixoide level

b. During acidosis, potassium moves out of the cell in exchange for H+ ions, increasing the serum potassium level. Correction of the acidosis with sodium bicarbonate will help to shift the potassium back into the cells. A dcrease in pH and the bicarbonate and PaCo2 levels would indicate worsening acidosis.

A dehydrated patient is in the injury stage of RIFLE staging of AKI. What would the nurse first anticipate in the treatment of this patient? a. assess daily weight b. IV administration of fluid and furosemide (Lasix) c. IV administration of insulin and sodium bicarbonate d. reversal of oliguria occurs with fluid replacement

b. Injury is the stage of RIFLE classification when urine output is less than 0.5 ml/kg/hr for 12 hours, the serum creatinine is increased times two or the glomerular filtration rate is decreased by 50%. This stage maybe reversible by treating the cause or in, this patient, the dehydration by administering IV fluid a low dose of a loop diuretic, furosemide (Lasix).

A 68 year-old man with a history of heart failure resulting from hypertension has AKI as a result of the effects of nephrotoxic diuretics. Currently his serum potassium is 6.2mEq/l (6.2 mmol/L) with cardiac changes, his BUN is 108 mg/dL (38.6 mmol/L), his serum creatinine is 4.1 mg/dL (362 mmol/L), and his serum HCO3- is 14 mEq/L (14 mmol/L). He is somnolent and disoriented. Which treatment should the nurse expect to be used for him? a. loop diuretics b. renal replacement therapy c. insulin and sodium bicarbonate d. sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)

b. This patient has a t least three of six common indications for RRT, including high potassium level, metabolic acidosis and changed mental status. The other indications are volume overload, resulting in compromised cardiac status (this patient has a history of HTN), BUN greater than 120 mg/dL, and pericarditis, pericardial effusion, or cardiac tamponade.

An 83 year old female patient was found lying on the bathroom floor. She said she fell 2 days ago and has not been able to take her heart medicine or eat or drink anything since then. What conditions could be causing prerenal AKI in the patient(select all that apply)? a. anaphlyaxis b. renal calculi c. hypovolemia d. nephrotoxic drugs e. decreased cardiac output

c,e. Because the patient has had nothing to eat or drink for 2 days, she is probably dehydrated and hypovolemic. Decreased cardiac output is most likely because she is older and takes heart medicine, wich is probably for heart failure or HTN.

What are intrarenal causes of AKI (select all that apply)? a. anaphylaxis b. renal stones c. bladder cancer d. nephrotoxic drugs e. acute glomerulonephritis f. tubular obstruction by myoglobin

d, e, f. Intrarenal causes of AKI includes conditions that cause direct damage to the kidney tissue, including nephrotoxic drugs, acute glomerulonephritis, and tubular obstruction by myoglobin, or prolonged ischemia.

Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is the most common cause of intrarenal AKI. Which patient is most likely to develop ATN? a. patient with DM. b. a patient with HTN crisis c. patient who tried to overdose on acetaminophen d. patient with major surgery who required a blood transfusion

d. ATN is primarily the result of ischemia, nephrotoxins, or sepsis. DM, HTN, and acetaminophen overdose will not contribute to ATN.

While caring for the patient in the oliguric phase of AKI, the nurse monitors the patient for associated collaborative problems. When should the nurse notify the HCP? a. urine output is 300 ml/ b. edema occurs in the feet, legs, and sacral area c. cardiac monitor reveals a depressed T wave and elevated ST segment d. the patient experiences increasing muscle weakness and abdominal cramping

d. Hyperkalemia is potentially life-threatening complication of AKI in the oliguric phase. Hyperkalemia can cause the cardiac conduction abnormalities of peaked T wave, prolonged PR interval, prolonged QRS interval, and depressed ST segment.

In a patient with AKI, which laboratory urinalysis result indicates tubular damage? a. urine testing reveals a low specific gravity b. causative factor is malignant hyptertension c. urine testing reveals a high sodium concentration d. reversal of oliguria occurs with fluid replacement

d. In prerenal oliguria, the oliguria is caused by a decrease in circulating blood volume and there is no damage yet to the renal tissue.

In caring for the patient with AKI, what should the nurse be aware of? a. The most common cause of death in AKI is irreversible metabolic acidosis. b. During the oliguric phase of AKI, daily fluid intake is limited to 1000 ml plus the prior day's measured fluid loss c. dietary sodium and potassium during the oliguric phase of AKI are manage according to the patient's urinary output. d. One of the most important nursing measures in managing fluid balance in the patient with AKI in taking accurate daily weights

d. Measuring daily weights with the same scale at the same time each day allows for the evaluation and detection of excessive body fluid gains or losses.

What indicates to the nurse a patient with AKI is the recovery phase? a. a return to normal weight b. a urine output of 3700 ml/day c. decreasing sodium and potassium levels d. decreasing blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels

d. The BUN and creatinine levels remain high during oliguric and diuretic phrases of AKI. The recovery phase begins when the glomerular filtration returns to a rate at which BUN and creatinine stabilize and then decrease. Urinary output of 305 L/day, decreasing sodium and potassium levels, and fluid weight loss are characteristic of the diuretic phase of AKI.