ALL GENERAL
COMM1/COMM2 vs C1/C2
""COMM 1"" references the aircraft's physical number 1 radio. "COMM 2"" references the aircraft's physical number 2 radio. Charlie 1: radio designated for communications external to the flight Charlie 2: radio designated for intraflight communications"
RECOMMENDED OBJ AREA COMMS
"(CALL SIGN), (CHECKPOINT NAME)" AFL TO EFL / AMC
Which Battlefield Illumination ordnance burns the longest?
"- LUU-2: overt parachute flare; burn time 240 (F-18/AV-8/C-130) - LUU-19: covert parachute flare (IR); 420-540 second burn time (F-18/AV-8/C-130) Not V-22 - M-257: overt rocket; burn time 100 seconds (AH-1/UH-1/F-18/AV-8) - M-278: covert rocket (IR); burn time 180 seconds (AH-1/UH-1/F-18/AV-8)"
List the 5 types of lasers for the M-240D
"-AIM-1/MLR -GCP-2A -AN/PEQ-3 -IZLID 200P -IZLID 1000P"
What are the four mandatory calls made in the objective area?
"1. "LZ WINTER OR DEVIL" / From EFL, To AMC/AFL 2. "(CALLSIGN) IP INBOUND" / From AFL, To EFL 3. "(CALLSIGN) CONTINUE / HOLD; ESTABLISHED BP ____" (plus amplifying remarks by exception) / From EFL, To AFL 4. "(CALLSIGN) LIFTING / WAVEOFF" / From AFL, To EFL
4 Formation principles
"1. Mutually supportive lookout doctrine 2. Ease of control coordination 3. Maneuverability and flexibility 4. Unity of effort for mission accomplishment"
List the pubs in the ANTTP Series and what does ANTTP stand for?
"Aviation Series Naval Tactics Techniques and Procedures -ANTTP 3-22.1 RW Tactical Employment (S) -NTRP 3-22.2 NATIP (S) -ANTTP 3-22.3 MV-22 Combat Aircraft Fundamentals -NTRP 3-22.4 NATIP -ANTTP 3-22.5 MV-22 TPG and USMC ASTAC SOP"
V-22 METL
"CORE 1. conduct aviation operations from expeditionary sea based sites 2. conduct aviation operations from expeditionary shore based sites 3. conduct combat assault transport 4. conduct air delivery 5. conduct aviation support of TRAP 6. conduct air evacuation CORE PLUS 7. conduct airborne rapid insertion/extraction 8. provide aviation-delivered ground refueling 9. provide aviation-delivered battlefield illumination 10. provide an airborne command and control platform for command elements"
Currency
"Currency is a control measure used to provide an additional margin of safety based on exposure frequency to a particular skill. It is a measure of time since the last event demanding that specific skill. Loss of currency does not affect a loss of proficiency. For example, currency determines minimum altitudes in rules of conduct based upon the most recent low altitude fly date. Specific currency requirements for individual type mission profiles can be found in Chapter 3."
MANDATORY OBJECTIVE AREA COMMS
"LZ WINTER OR DEVIL" EFL TO AMC / AFL "(CALLSIGN) IP INBOUND" AFL TO EFL "(CALLSIGN) CONTINUE / HOLD; ESTABLISHED BP ____" (plus amplifying remarks by exception) EFL TO AFL "(CALLSIGN) LIFTING / WAVEOFF" AFL TO EFL
Give weapons brief (in country based on ROE) to new crew chiefs as the TAC; what are weapons commands?
"Lock and Load" "Open Fire" "Cease Fire" "Clear you weapon" - The right to self-defense is never denied. The enemy is wearing this. In the zone, all males with a weapon are declared hostile. We will be weapons hold/tight/free. With a hostile act, hostile intent, PID, POO and know what's behind your target you have pre-briefed clearance to fire. Try and get the break call out before you fire.
Define Core Skill Plus:
"Training events that can be theater specific or that have a low likelihood of occurrence. They may be Fundamental, environmental, or conditional capabilities required to perform basic functions. 4000 Phase events. AD/AC2/DWS/CBRN/RVL/CQ/DCM/HTT"
Mandatory Calls in OBJ AREA
"Winter/Devil" "IP Inbound" "Continue/Hold" "Lifting/Waveoff"
With a dual FADEC failure the engine will operate in a ______ mode and _______ will default ON.
"failed fixed" engine anti-ice
A ______ is a zone that has any threat that poses a risk to the assaults and / or embarked troops
"hot LZ"
What are the Dive Recovery Rules?
"• APLN mode. • Airspeed 200 to 275 KCAS. • DA at or below 3,000 feet. • Gross weights at or below 48,000 pounds. • CG range 395 to 403 inches. •5° / 300' AGL •10° / 450' AGL •15° / 600' AGL •20° / 800' AGL"
What are the non-verbal fire control signals?
"• OPEN FIRE—Thumb extended upward with only the index finger extended, followed by repetitive upward motions of the hand signal. • CEASE FIRE—Inverted gesture with thumb pointed downward, followed by repetitive downward motions of the hand signal."
The ORM process is guided by the four principles:
(1) Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs. (2) Accept no unnecessary risk. (3) Anticipate and manage risk by planning. (4) Make risk decisions at the right level.
The aircraft shall be equipped with the following instruments in proper operating condition:
(1) Airspeed indicator. (2) Altimeter. (3) Turn-and-slip indicator. (4) A clock displaying hours, minutes, and seconds with a sweepsecond pointer or digital readout. (5) Attitude indicator. (6) Magnetic compass with current calibration card. (7) Heading indicator or gyrostabilized magnetic compass. (8) Vertical speed indicator. c. Aircraft shall be equipped with deicing or icing control equipment for sustained or continuous flight in known or forecast icing conditions. d. Navigation lights must operate satisfactorily
ORM employs a five-step process
(1) Identify hazards. (2) Assess hazards. (3) Make risk decisions. (4) Implement controls. (5) Supervise.
Mud
(1) RWR ground threat displayed with no launch indication. 2) RWR indication of surface threat in track mode. See DIRT and SINGER.
Nails
(1) RWR indication of AI radar in search. (2) RWR indication of surface threat in track mode. See DIRT and SINGER
Tiltrotor overwater flights at night are authorized. The following restrictions apply when carrying passengers:
(1) Ship launches and recoveries shall be made during daylight hours. (2) Ship launches shall be conducted not less than 60 minutes prior to sunset. This time constraint may be waived to 30 minutes by the Battle Group Commander/Amphibious Squadron commander/Marine Air Ground Task Force (MAGTF) Commander. (3) Night overwater tilt-rotor passenger flights ship to ship or ship to shore are prohibited except in cases of operational necessity and in accordance with paragraphs 1 and 2 above. This does not preclude troop movement in support of amphibious exercises (operations) or special operations missions.
Within the 6 months preceding the date of the instrument evaluation flight obtain:
(1) Six hours as pilot under actual or simulated instrument conditions. (2) Twelve final approaches under actual or simulated instrument conditions, six of which shall be precision approaches and six of which shall be nonprecision.
The ORM process is utilized on three levels based upon time and assets available.
(1) Time-critical: A quick mental review of the five-step process when time does not allow for any more (i.e., in-flight mission/situation changes). (2) Deliberate: Experience and brain storming are used to identify hazards and is best done in groups (i.e., aircraft moves, fly on/off). (3) In-depth: More substantial tools are used to thoroughly study the hazards and their associated risk in complex operations (i.e., weapons detachment).
Within the 12 months preceding the date of the instrument evaluation flight obtain:
(1) Twelve hours as pilot under actual or simulated instrument conditions. (2) A total of 18 final approaches under actual or simulated instrument conditions, 12 of which shall be precision and six of which shall be nonprecision.
The general categories of assault support are... (ANTTP)
(1) combat assault transport, (2) air delivery, (3) air-to-air refueling, (4) air evacuation, (5) tactical recovery of aircraft and personnel (TRAP), (6) air logistical support, and (7) battlefield illumination.
Unacceptable descent rates will quickly develop if autorotation is entered at slow speeds ______KTS
(30-40 kts).
PIGEONS
(LOCATION) Magnetic bearing and range to homeplate (or specified destination).
LAT required equipment (NTTP) and required per 365
(NTTP) 1. RADALT 2. DIGMAP with 10 NM and 20 NM map coverage and DTED for the route or area 3. GPS 4. Flight Path Vector 5. JMPS data 6. Route (when conducting LAT on MTR or other approved route) 7. Corridors 8. MCHUM and VVOD 9. FLIR 10. Day or night HUD 11. NVG for night operations (365) 1. FLIR 2. FPV
SMASH
(ON / OFF) Turn on / off anticollision lights.
SOUR
(Opposite of SWEET.) 1. (mode/type) [A/A][S/A] Invalid/no response to an administrative IFF/ SIF check. 2. (link name) (e.g., "TIMBER SOUR") Potential problems with net entry; initiates premission link troubleshooting. 3. Equipment indicated is not operating efficiently
COMMIT 1.
* [A/A][S/A] Intercept the GROUP(s) of interest. 2. * [A/A] Set briefed intercept geometry.
Elevator Failure
*1. Roll 60° AOB *2. VTOL—Convert 3. PFCS—Reset 4. Land—As soon as Practical
DECLARE
*[A/A] [S/A] Inquiry as to the identification of a specified track(s), target(s), or correlated GROUP. Responses include FRIENDLY, BOGEY, BANDIT, HOSTILE, NEUTRAL, UNABLE, or CLEAN. Full positional data must accompany declaration responses.
Eyepiece Diopter Adjustment Rings
+2 to -6 Diopters -Adjusts the intensified image from the I2 tube back to the retina -Movement of the fore-and aft adjustment requires readjustment of the eyepiece lens focus ring
DASC
-
For flares know: Nomenclature: 1. Pyro type 2. Overt or covert 3. Burn Time: 4. Rise Time: 5. Micron Range: 6. Temperature:
-
What is NATOPS max altitude and configuration to conduct tactical maneuvering (LAT)? (RuF M MPL - RSM) and T/R DJs Tissss
- Auto flaps only - Max wt: 48,000 lbs - Lateral CG: ±3 in - STA CG: 395-403in - Pedals centered, max ¼ ball out - APLN • Min Airspeed: 160 kts • Max alt: 10,000 PA - CONV - Balanced flight turning away and continuous transition to apln. Sustained CONV flt not authorized. - VTOL - Hover pedal to change heading only, sustained VTOL flt not authorized.
Alignment Procedures
- Ideally the ANV-20/20 or NVG eye lane should used for these procedures 1. Vertical Adjustment 2. Tilt Adjustment 3. Fore and Aft or Eye Relief Adjustment 4. IPD Adjustment 5. Evaluate NVG image (No shading of any part of the image)
• What is the requirement for transportation of pax over water at night? (2 x Proficiency, 3 x Currency)
- Pilot and copilot shall be designated NSQ (HLL and LLL), - Pilots shall be night carrier qualified - Pilots shall have conducted a min of two night aided shipboard landings each, flown 1 hr of NVD time, within the previous 30 days. - And TAC must have flown in past 15 days
Define a flight
- Two or more maneuver elements consisting of 5 or more aircraft but normally no more than 12. - Unified by a common mission - Generally formed to direct assault support assets in mass to an objective area
The moon is about ____ percent brighter during the first quarter, waxing, than it is during the third quarter, waning, due to differences in the lunar surface.
20%.
Checkpoints should be no further than ____ nautical miles apart in terrain of varying elevation, ____ over flat terrain and in no case should the last 100 miles have less than ___ checkpoints.
20, 40, 5.
The M50 series fuze has a delayed arming distance of ___ to ____ feet after it leaves the muzzle of the gun.
20-35'.
What is the maximum airspeed and angle of bank for dual point externals?
200 KCAS and 30 deg AOB
Absolute minimums for single piloted helicopter aircraft executing an approach are _____.
200 and 1/4.
Coupled deceleration profile
200 fpm rate of descent and decelerate at 1 KGS per second
absolute minimum safe vertical separation between separate elements
200 ft AGL
Min speed for LAT
200 kts
Gun manual range entry has a range of ____ to ____ meters.
200 to 2,000.
DUAL ENG FAILURE Expect ____ TO ____ fpm increase in rate of descent with landing gear extended.
200 to 600
When should you turn off your smacks/position lights when approaching the ship at night
200' AGL
Cloud ceiling rule of thumb: ____ feet and above is no limit. Ceilings from ____ feet to ____ feet allow LOAL direct and Low. for ceilings below ____ feet use LOAL direct only. using direct allows ____ kilometer of standoff per ____ feet of ceiling.
2000'. 800' to 2000'. 800'. 1 kilometer of standoff per 100'
Profile when passing through the 90 degree position
200ft AGL, 50-60 KCAS (NATOPS (8.3.2.2)
Sectors A1, B1, C1 and D1
20NM radius, Surface to 10,000ft
LAT
20° / 800' APLN 15° / 600' A/S = 200-275 10° / 450' DA below 3000' 5° / 300' GW below 48,000 lb CG = 395-403
Max pitch in CONV mode?
20° nose up
Scan Plan
22-25 = BTN 31 26-29 = BTN 32
The WDU-4A/A contains ____ of ____ grain flechettes. Optimum employment range is between _____ and ____.
2205, 20. Range: 1200 to 1500 meters.
Terrain shading
24 bands of gray that are centered around the middle height of the displayed terrain. Darkest gray = highest terrain
Max range for single aircraft executing shipboard operations
250 NM
one Time of flight fo 20mm is ____. Half time of flight is ____.
2500'. 1500'.
Recommended Eye Relief
25mm
Fore and Aft adjustment knob (EYE RELIEF)
25mm -Optimum field of view -"Look under capability"
Sector D
270 to 360 degrees
M-240 Muzzle Velocity
2750 fps
How many seats are there?
28 2 - pilot 2 - crew 24 - troops (23 stroking)
Objective Focus Rings
28cm to Optical infinity -Focuses objective lenses -Adjust sharpest view of scene -⅓ turn travel
Lunar month is approx?
29.5 days
Lunar month is:
29.5 days.
Regarding an elevated target and LOBL employment, seeker target acquisition should not be expected if the target is more than ____ feet above the launch aircraft for each kilometer of ground range.
290' above the launch aircraft for each kilometer of ground range.
NAC BLOWER FAIL CONV/VTOL operations not to exceed ___ minutes starting from the time that the nacelles first come off the down stop.
3
Mid IR range of EM Spectrum
3 - 5 Microns
CLASS E LESS THAN 10,000 FEET MSL
3 STATUTE MILES 500 FEET BELOW 1,000 FEET ABOVE 2,000 FEET HORIZONTAL
CLASS G 1,200 FEET OR LESS ABOVE THE SURFACE (REGARDLESS OF MSL ALTITUDE) NIGHT, EXCEPT AS PROVIDED IN .91.155(b)
3 STATUTE MILES 500 FEET BELOW 1,000 FEET ABOVE 2,000 FEET HORIZONTAL
CLASS G MORE THAN 1,200 FEET ABOVE THE SURFACE BUT LESS THAN 10,000 FEET MSL NIGHT
3 STATUTE MILES 500 FEET BELOW 1,000 FEET ABOVE 2,000 FEET HORIZONTAL
CLASS C
3 STATUTE MILES 500 FEET BELOW 1,000 FEET ABOVE 2,000 FEET HORIZONTAL
CLASS D
3 STATUTE MILES 500 FEET BELOW 1,000 FEET ABOVE 2,000 FEET HORIZONTAL
CLASS B
3 STATUTE MILES CLEAR OF CLOUDS
A DD-175-1 weather brief is valid for ____ hours past delivery time or ETD plus ____ hours.
3 hours and .5 hours.
Advancing ECL to FLY at 84% Nr with TCL above ______ may cause proprotor overtorque.
3 inches
Conversion point selection
3 miles. adjust the CvP ±0.1 NM for every 10 KGS from 240 KGS
IPs should be established ______ nm from the intended LZ and nm from the last checkpoint on ingress
3 to 5 5 to 10
Which types of HFI does the ASE detect, and give example of each:
3 types of HFI: 1 - Tracers, 2 - Ball (No tracers), 3 - Rockets. V-22 ASE detects types 1 (ex. ADA) and 3 (ex. RPG).
Hellfire time of flight:
3, 7, 10, 14, 19, 24, 29, 36.
During weapons checks expend a continuous ____ second burst of 20mm to assess boresight.
3-5 seconds.
DD-175-1 briefs are only valid for ____ hours past briefing/FWB delivery time or ETD plus ________
3.0 one-half hour.
Tactical landing environment
3.0 NM radius from the landing zone that encompasses altitudes from the surface up to 300 feet AGL
A dry mid-latitude winter day with an absolute humidity of ____ grams per meter cubed is almost completely transparent to far IR energy, where a wet tropical atmosphere of ____ becomes an effective wall that severely hinders the operational capability of the FLIR.
3.5 and 20.
Ditching survivability is reduced at touchdown speeds greater than ___ KCAS.
30
During SOP scan pattern, lead will designate a base heading and adjacent aircraft will scan a ____ degree FOB with ____ degree overlap.
30 degree. 10 degree.
Hellfire detector has a plus or minus ____ degree gimbal limit from missile centerline. the constraints circle depicted on the MFD represents a plus or minus ____ degree constraint in relation to missile centerline.
30 degree. 20 degree.
Standard position lights shall be displayed during the period ___ min before sunset until ____ min after sunrise or anytime prevailing visibility is less than ____.
30 min before or after, 3 statute miles.
Standard position lights shall be displayed during the period
30 minutes before official sunset until 30 minutes after official sunrise or at any time when the prevailing visibility as seen from the cockpit is less than 3 statute miles. During these conditions, they shall be displayed: a. Immediately before engine start and anytime the engine(s) is running. b. When the aircraft is being towed unless the aircraft is otherwise illuminated. c. When an aircraft is parked and likely to cause a hazard unless the aircraft is otherwise illuminated or marked with obstruction lights.
If extended flight is required, the MWGB is designed to run without oil, at minimum loads, for up to ________
30 minutes.
Individual missiles may take up to ____ seconds to spin up and code.
30 seconds.
Aircraft commanders shall ensure a minimum distance of ____ feet is maintained from fueling and ordnance equipment / personnel prior to start-up / shutdown.
300
Takeoff minimums: Published mins for NPA but not less than______. For PA with mins less than 300 and 1, takeoff is good for mins for runway but not less than ____.
300 feet and 1 mile NPA. 200 feet and 1/2 mile PA.
____ is default minimum laser range and one touch process for TSS may take up to ____ to complete.
300 meters. 1 minute.
Rocket manual range entry has a range of ___ to ____ meters.
300 to 7,000.
Rounds from the M197 are roughly ____ feet apart.
300'
MV-22 Conversion Egress
300' AGL
max effective range of rpg-7
300-500m
When designating for PGMs inside ____ meters, it is unlikely the operator will have sufficient time to manually reacquire a target that has broken its active track.
3000 meters
At night, radio frequency and heading changes are prohibited below what altitude
300ft (NATOPS 8.3.1.3)
If the reliability of the remaining engine is in doubt, conversion above ____ nacelles (_______KCAS) is not advisable until the field is made. If done without delay, transition to APLN from ____ nacelle or lower following a second engine failure is possible without significant Nr decay.
30° ~140 KCAS 30°
The muzzle velocity of the M50 and PGU series is ____ plus or minus 50 feet per second, at 78 feet.
3380 feet per second. 3410 feet per second.
Flapping is the highest during operations between ____ and ____ nacelle. Nacelle less than ____ will clear this advisory. Flapping is most critical during operations at approximately ____ nacelle, high GW, forward CG, and high DA.
35° and 75° 35° 60°
Expect proprotors to strike the ground on touchdowns at nacelle angles less than ____
35°.
Sector A
360 to 090 degrees
The ____ Hellfire launcher can carry up to four Hellfire missiles. The Holdback latch retains the missile in place and requires ____ to ____ pounds of force to release the missile.
360 to 700 pounds.
240 max, max eff, tracer burnout ranges
3725m max 1200m max effective 900m tracer burnout
Warning: Engaging any outer loop hold function with the torque greater than _____ percent may result in overtorque, attitude oscillations, and aircraft unusual attitudes.
38 percent.
Descibe TSS cuing for 3D, 2D, ADL.
3D: cues on all axis. 2D: cues two dimensionally. ADL: where ADL is pointed.
Range of a SA -7 in NM
3nm/4200m per TPG
The TSS is a ____ generation _____ wave FLIR, consisting of Focal plane array of _____ horizontal and _____ vertical ______ detectors.
3rd generation. MID wave. 640 by 480 indium antimonide.
A transfer alignment field of merit value of _____ and below are optimal for TSS coordinated Accuracy generation.
4
• What is the max number of aircraft in a standard formation flight outside special use airspace? • What is the max distance between lead and dash last at night before anti collision lights were required by both aircraft? • How much vertical Separation (NATOPS)
4 <1.0 DME <500 Feet Non-standard form would be outside the 1.0DME & 500Feet parameter
It is recommended that if there is difficulty getting a boresight to pass that a minimum of ____ be attempted.
4 boresights.
LOBL shots the missile leaves the rail at what degree and skids must be a minimum of ____ feet above the highest terrain within ____ meters of the aircraft.
4 degrees 10 feet above highest terrain 200 meters in front of aircraft.
When the gun disagrees in elevation or azimuth by more than ___ degrees from the mission computer position command signal, the gun reticle flashes and the Mission computer terminates the trigger command.
4 degrees.
The LUU-2B/B provides ____ minutes of illumination at _____ candlepower. The time, when set for helicopter use, will allow the flare to fall ____ feet before activation.
4 minutes at 1,900,000 candlepower. 250 feet of fall.
After half time of flight the round will have dropped ____ feet. at once rime of flight the round will have dropped ____ feet.
4, 16'.
APKWS times of flight.
4,5,8,12,18.
Fram saving may take up to ____ minutes.
4.
Luminous Gain typically ranges from ___ to ____?
45000 - 65000
Max velocity of the missile is ____ meters per second, Mach ____, with an average velocity of ____ meters per second.
475 meters per second. Mach 1.4. 375 meters per second.
Rapid PFCS resets may disrupt FCS fault annunciations. Maintain at least ____ seconds between successive PFCS resets.
5
CLASS E AT OR ABOVE 10,000 MSL
5 STATUTE MILES 1,000 FEET BELOW 1,000 FEET ABOVE 1 STATUTE MILE HORIZONTAL
CLASS G MORE THAN 1,200 FEET ABOVE THE SURFACE AND AT OR ABOVE 10,000 FEET MSL
5 STATUTE MILES 1,000 FEET BELOW 1,000 FEET ABOVE 1 STATUTE MILE HORIZONTAL
At a maximum range of ____, APKWS requires ____ feet of cloud clearance above the launching platform.
5 kilometers 1000'
Recommended holding prior to IP for tiltrotor.
5 nautical miles for tiltrotor.
Magellan standards
5 nm off course 15° off heading 2 minutes off timing Overflight of checkpoint without appropriate turn or maneuver
The last checkpoint on ingress should be _______ nm from the IP, or as needed to support rotary-wing and tilt-rotor integration.
5 to 10
How much time is remaining when your NVD battery low light comes on?
5-10 hours
Rule for weapon jams
5-10-5 -Wait min 5 sec to clear weapon -You have max of 10 sec to clear weapon -If you have not cleared weapon you must wait min 5 minutes to clear
Which CSC panel knob controls the volume for threat audio and EW annunciations?
5.
How many clutter levels are available for the HMSD? What boresight error is acceptable?
5. 0,1,2,3,4. .3 degree and below.
For all LOAL modes, the min effective engagement ranges apple to launch altitudes less than ____ feet above the target. increase min range by _____ meters for altitudes ___ feet to ___ feet above the target and ____ meters for altitudes ____ feet to ____ feet above the target.
50 feet above target. increase 500 meters for 50 feet to 400 feet and 1000 meters for 400 feet to 800 feet.
GAU-16 Chamber Pressure
50,000 psi
When operating in class B, C, or D airspace; and when no other guidance is provided, pilots of helicopters shall not exceed ____ AGL unless specifically cleared by the tower or other control agency.
500 feel AGL.
To conduct special VFR within controlled airspace, the pilot must obtain authorization for ATC and weather must be a min of ____ feet with ____ statute mile visibility.
500 feet. 1 statute mile.
If APKWS is employed ballistically, no laser energy, outside of ____ meters it will fly long due to the flaperons deploying.
500 meters.
Minimum and Maximum numbers for: LOBL
500 minimum at 500 feet AGL 7000 Meters max.
Medium Altitude
500' - 13,000' MSL.
MV-22 Conversion Ingress
500' AGL
Low altitude refueling altitudes day and night:
500' AGL day, 1500' AGL night
Max recommended range for TSS CTVC hellfire employment
5000 meters
Sectors A2, B2, C2, and D2
50NM radius, surface to unlimited altitude.
Max gross weight for LHA
52,000 lbs
The 77 gallon AUX tank can provide an extra ____ pound of fuel.
523 pounds.
Phosphor screen uses ____ phosphor that exhibits a primary peak our of ____ which closely matches the peak sensitivity of the eye.
545 nanometers.
Spectral Output Peak
545nm
Ng should be monitored during engine start to ensure automatic disengagement occurs at Ng speeds of _____.
55 +- 3 percent.
Max gross weight for LHD
55,000 lbs
FEED TANK LOW is set by the Low Level Optical Sensor at _____ (± 20 lbs) or when the gauged quantity reads ______lbs.
550 lbs 520
• What are the airspeeds and altitude associated when expendables would come off?
57 - >150kts/>60 AGL, 32 - <150kts/ >60 AGL, 49 - no fwd only aft buckets <150/<60 AGL
Max gross weight for CVN
57,000 lbs
For VOR or TACAN, one dot on the scale represents ____.
5° of deviation.
MCP tiny glass tubes are tilted at an approx angle of?
5º bias angle -to ensure a first electron impact near the channel entrance
Delay in anti ice and idle stop solonnoid.
6 and 5 seconds.
How many Fuel pumps on aircraft?
6 total, 2 suction, 2 boost in wing, 2 boost in sponsons.
Whenever practicable, fuel shall not be jettisoned (dumped) below an altitude of _____ above the terrain.
6,000 feet
The LUU-19B is designed for ignition at ____ feet AGL and provides____ minutes of NIR illuminate.
6,000 feet AGL. 9 minutes of NIR illumination.
The micro channel plate is comprised of ____ tiny tubes tilted to ____ bias angle.
6,000,000 tube. 5 degree tilt.
EMER will display in the gun status box of the MFD weapons page indicating the gun is stowed in the emergency stow position of ____ to ___ degrees elevation.
6.5 to 7 degrees.
PWR STEER is NOT available below ___ nacelle
60
Avoid route segment changes in excess of
60 degrees, especially with a wingman
What are VFG's rated
60 lb 50-80 KVA, self-cooled
Height of LHD
60-70 ft
Danger close distance: 20mm and 2.75 inch rocket for 300 meters, 800 meters, and 1500 meters.
60. 80. 115 meteres for 20mm. 140. 210. 305 meters for 2.75 inch rockets.
Goodrich hoist system limit
600 lbs
Danger close distance: All mortar/arti and naval 5 inch.
600 meters. 750 meters for naval 5 inch.
If aircraft or EGI has been moved by more than ____ nm, acquisition of satellites and determination of a fix may take as long as ____ minutes.
600 nm. 45 minutes.
The Gallium Arsenide photocathode in the third Gen tube has a peak sensitivity of?
600-900nm (0.6-0.9 micron range) *Night Sky Spectral irradiance is 5 to 7 times greater in the 800-900nm than in the visible 500nm -RESULT- Third Gen tube is far more sensitive in the region where near infrared light from the night sky is plentiful
System gain range
6000-8000fff
Worst case, Nr droop occurs at ____ nacelle.
60°
What is the MAX AOB in conversion mode <60° NAC? and >60° NAC?
60° AOB for less than 60°NAC and 30° AOB for greater than 60° NAC
What range do our NVGs operate in?
625 (Minus blue)-950 nm
Minus Blue rejects energy with a wavelength less than?
625 nm
TACAN air to air requires channels be ____ apart.
63.
GAU-16 max, max eff, tracer burnout ranges
6500m max 1850m max effective 1100m tracer burnout
The linkless feed system holds up to ____ rounds of 20mm and weighs ____ rounds empty and ____ pounds full.
652. 236 pounds. 520 pounds.
List nomenclature, Reds and MSDs for the following AGMs: 65, 84, 88, 114, 154, 176.
65: Maverick 84: Harpoon. 88: Harm. 114: Hellfire. 154: Joint standoff weapon. 176: Griffin.
The moon reflects ____ percent of the sunlight that strikes it.
7%.
The LUU-19A/B and LUU-19B/B are designed for ignition at ____ feet AGL and provide ____ minutes of illumination.
7,500 feet AGL. 7 minutes of illumination.
Nautical Twilight
7-12 degrees below the horizon
The mil dispersion of the M197 is ____ mils.
7.5
M-240 Caliber
7.62mm
In an autorotation, maximum rotor rpm is achieved at a steady state of ____ to _____ KIAS.
70-90 Knots Indicated Airspeed.
Spent illum rocket motors will impact the ground how far beyond illum point?
700-1000 meters.
Recommended configuration for shipboard STO
71 degrees nacelle, interim power on, nosewheel centered, and unlocked, and brakes held until just prior to smooth application of full TCL in 2-3 seconds (NATOPS 8.3.1.2)
The M197 20mm automatic gun fires at a rate of ____ rpm and is restricted to a firing schedule not to exceed a ____ round burst, with a minimum of ____ minutes cooling time prior to firing the remaining rounds.
750 RPM, 450 round burst. 6 minutes cooling.
Aux fuel: Although the fuel transfer may have been selected ON, actual transfer does not begin until approximately ____ pound of fuel have been used from the internal fuel tanks.
750 pounds.
Far IR range of EM Spectrum
8 - 14 Microns
LOAL-HI max range is ____ kilometers. Min range is ____ meters. To clear a ____ foot mask, min standoff is ____ meters.
8 kilometers, 3500 meters. 1000' mask, 1500 meters.
Assuming you are firing in RAPID, missiles may be launched with a ____ second delay if each adjacent target is no further than ____ meters apart.
8 second. 100 meters.
When tracking a moving target using the centroid tracker, tracks that break lock and coast will automatically delete after ____ seconds if automatic re-acquisition does not occur.
8 seconds.
LOAL-LO max range is ____ kilometers. Min range is ____ meters. To clear a ____ foot mask, min standoff is ____ meters.
8, 2000 meteres. 260', 600 meters
Tilt Lever
8-10º total -Line of Sight -Should be parallel to the PAS if possible
The LUU-2 flare falls at a rate of ____ feet per second.
8.3 feet per second.
Nacelle setting while taxiing on the ship
80 degrees using brakes to slow down to minimize changes in nacelle setting
The recommended flight profile to conduct in flight boresight of the TSS is straight and level at ____ to ___ knots. Heading should maintain within ____ of heading at initiation.
80 to 100 knots. plus or minus 2 degrees.
RPM LOW The FCCs detect that Nr has dropped below ____ in APLN or less than ____ in VTOL/ CONV. Large rapid TCL inputs may momentarily post RPM Low. Initiating conversion from airplane before Nr is ____, may momentarily post RPM LOW.
80.9% 94.2% 94.2%
What is the configuration and limits to fuel dump?
800ppm, Configuration prior to fuel dump cargo ramp and door closed, landing gear up, main cabin door closed. Parameters: >80kts, >6k AGL, ≤1000fpm ROD, NAC 0-75° (Fume and spray avoidance from exhaust to mitigate fire)
What are CFG's rated
80lb 3 phase / 200VAC, 400hz/40KVA
MV-22: Width Length Height
84 feet 7inches 57 feet 4inches 27 feet 7 inches
How many electrical busses are there, what are they?
9 total: 2 AC, 2 Env, 3 DC, 2 Batt
Authorized fastrope length used by V-22?
90 and 120
All hellfire min/max and offset numbers are based on a probability of hit (Ph) above:
90%
M-240 Tracer Burnout
900m
The DECU controls a temperature limiting circuit that operates when MGT reaches _____ degrees C for the 401 engines and _____ for the 401-C engines, AEO and OEI.
910. 891.
Pressing the ENG OVSP TEST A and B switches simultaneously with Np above 96% resets the overspeed reference point to _____ percent.
93.6 percent.
The engine RPM wheel selects the governor setting for both engines simultaneously in the range of ____ to ____.
95.5 percent to 101.5 percent.
Define VTOL configuration?
96-85° NAC
Due to the possibility of non-extinguished flares igniting a ground fire, the min recommended altitude for dispensing flares in a training environment is ____ feet AGL.
960.
Ship Roll limit for taxiing
< 5 degrees (NATOPS 8.2.4.1)
Damage to starter, starter shaft, and/or engine accessory drive gearbox may occur if a start attempt is made with Ng _____.
> 29%.
Offset Insert/extract
>1000m outside of audible range lowest risk of exposure.
• Scenario: VMC short final NKX, LAND GEAR ABORT posts with nose gear not show down and locked. 1) Talk through steps. Include crew, instructions to fly, where you are going for trouble shooting and altitude. Fuel concerns? 2) What options to verify gear do you have? 3) How would you land? What control laws dictate the landing profile?
?
SENIOR MEMBER • On pre-flight, what TFOA watchlist item is located on the rudder?
??? asking Q/A for TFOA watchlist
IFR trail contracts
A 60 STO is the standard Trail formation departure from a runway, with 6 to 10 seconds of separation between aircraft. • All turns are standard rate if hand flown, or per the flight director when coupled. • All climbs are 180KCAS and 1,000 fpm. • All descents are at the en route airspeed and 1,000 fpm. • Initiation of all en route climbs and descents will be made simultaneously by both aircraft with positive acknowledgment from the wing aircraft as the command of execution. • During climbs and descents, 1,000 fpm should be initiated first, then power set to establish the climb/descent airspeed. If the FDP is used, set the new altitude then the airspeed. • After climbs, the climb airspeed is maintained until all aircraft are level. Lead then directs increase in airspeed. • For standard FAA Trail formation, lead aircraft will be at the ATC assigned altitude, with wing maintaining 100 feet of vertical separation above lead and 0.5- to 1.0-NM in Trail.
What are the 9 things NAC IPS does?
1) Prop Rotors 2) Spinners 3) Dampers 4) Inlets 5) Pitot Heat 6) AOA sensor 7) FLIR 8) Windshield 9) Detect sensor
• Scenario: Mid Jan LAT VR1266 T/O@1400 BKN 020 OVC 060 280/10 TEMP/DEW 13/12 on file M11A/B. EL Centro F020 280/10 1) Can you depart out of airspace and cross the mountains? 2) The freezing layer is now at 6-14k, tops are at 14k What options to fly do you have when you have weather? 3) What configuration do you fly for icing environment apln/conv?
1) Request a Dash 1 wx brief when flying into IMC regardless of wx at departure location or destination to get more information on what options you have. 2) Fly below, above, around or through. V-22 can go high. 3) APLN: flaps auto, 200 kts, 60% stall, 10% Qm margin. CONV: flaps auto, 60° NAC, 110kts. Avoid extended conv/vtol
RIDER
A bogey that is conforming with safe passage routing / airspeed / altitude procedures.
AUTHENTICATE
A coded challenge or a response to a coded challenge.
HOSTILE
A contact identified as enemy upon which clearance to fire is authorized IAW theater rules of engagement.
Designation
A designation is a status assigned to an individual based on leadership ability. Designations are command specific and remain in effect until removed for cause or the individual is transferred to another command.
• Scenario - There is a WX Watch that was issued earlier on. 1) The forecast shows it is not progressing as originally forecasted. Can you still fly your route if it was posted along your route of flight? 2) Where does ice formation occur first on the fuselage (not where you'd see it)?
1) Yes. Storm development has not progressed as forecast. IFR is permitted if aircraft have wx radar installed and operative; OR if in controlled airspace and VMC can be maintained to allow aircraft to detect and avoid storms. 2) The empennage, Vertical stabs (no reference for this, just "common knowledge)
Planning the OA
1) routes shall be deconflicted 2) fires shall be integrated.
Naval aircraft are permitted to operate at civilian airfields listed in the DoD Enroute Supplement when:
1) such operations contribute to mission accomplishment 2) add value to training, 3) are otherwise in the interests of the government and taxpayer.
Several methods of detached escort patterns can be used; each allows a __-minute or less response time and no more than __ miles from the assault flight.
1, 8
Default range for rockets with flechette warheads is ____ meters and can be edited for ranges of ____ to ____ meters.
1,000. 500 to 1,500.
GAU-16 Tracer Burnout
1,100m
MTRs with no segment above _____feet AGL are identified by _____digits.
1,500 four
MTRs that include one or more segments above _____feet above ground level (AGL) are identified by a _____-digit identifier;
1,500 three
Default range is ____ meters for rockets and _____ meters for gun.
1,500. 1,000.
Which level of EMCON is the most restrictive?
1.
Name the 2 things required for Enhanced Interupted Alignement (EIA):
1. "Align INS's. When 8 min align complete advisory posts, taxi aircraft to new heading - offset from first heading by at least 90 deg and less than 180 degrees. Verify align timers begin to increment again from 0. Wait for PRECISION NAV READY after 8 minutes elapsed. 2. Enhanced Interrupted Alignment. A GC alignment method which provides a 0.5 nm/hr drift rate by executing a GC alignment for 8 minutes at an initial HDG, followed by an additional 8 minutes of alignment at a HDG offset by 90 to 180 DEG from the initial HDG."
Threat reactions: RWR Track.
1. "Chaff, Chaff, Chaff" while dispensing. 2. Make evasive maneuver. 3. IFREP DASC.
Threat reactions: IR SAM or Air to Air missile.
1. "flares, flares, flares" and dispense. 2. make evasive maneuver. 3. suppress the threat. 4. Maneuver to terrain mask. 5. Continue based on go/no go criteria. 6. IFREP to DASC.
What are the 3 Different MATS Configurations and number of seats available with each
1. (3) Tanks: 2350/2200/1750 (0 seats) 2. (2) Tanks 2350/1900 (6 seats) 3. (1) Tank 1900 (14 seats)
SPLASH
1. (A/A) target destroyed. 2. (A/G) weapons impact.
WEAPONS (status)*
1. (FREE): at targets not identified as FRIENDLY IAW current ROE. 2. (TIGHT): at targets positively identified as HOSTILE IAW current ROE. 3. (HOLD): in self-defense only.
What are the 3 types of FARPS?
1. Cold 2. Static 3. Assault
MEU(SOC) Special Operations
1. Conduct direct action operations (DA) 2. Conduct special reconnaissance (SR) 3. Conduct foreign internal defense (FID)
Expeditionary Support to Other Operations/Crisis Response and Limited Contingency Operations
1. Conduct noncombatant evacuation operations (NEO) 2. Conduct humanitarian assistance (HA) 3. Conduct stability operations 4. Conduct tactical recovery of aircraft and personnel 5. Conduct joint and combined operations 6. Conduct aviation operations from expeditionary shore-based sites 7. Conduct/support theater security cooperation (TSC) 8. Conduct airfield/port seizure
Threat reactions: Non-effective small arms.
1. Continue mission. 2. Notify the flight. 3. IFREP to DASC.
Name the 5 AAR rendezvous procedures
1. Delta - Head on offset 2. Echo - Tanker orbit 3. Foxtrot - Sequenced (Accompanied departure/Buddy climb, Tailchase) 4. Golf - Enroute overtaking 5. Hotel - Random rendezvous"
ID
1. Directive to identify the target. 2. ID accomplished, followed by type.
Break Procedure
1. Enter at 800ft, 220-240kts, within 4nm of the ship 2. Downwind - descend to 600ft and decelerate to 170 KCAS prior to abeam 3. Abeam - begin converting turn to final 4. 90 - 200ft , 50-60kts
SWEET
1. Equipment indicated is operating efficiently. 2. Valid response to an administrative IFF check; opposite of SOUR.
SOUR
1. Equipment indicated is operating inefficiently. 2. Invalid response to an administrative IFF check; opposite of SWEET.
CAP / CAPPING
1. Establish a combat air patrol at a specified location. 2. Aircraft estasblished in a CAP.
Utilize reflected energy like the human eye with two exceptions?
1. Exponentially more sensitive to illumination than the human eye 2. Sensitive to a different portion of the electromagnetic spectrum
Mandatory requirements for engine start
1. Four point tiedowns attached (with sufficient slack) and chocks in place 2. Flight deck clear of unnecessary personnel and loose gear. 3. Nosewheel locked and parking brakes on 4. Relative wind velocity not to exceed the limits in Ch. 4 (NATOPS 8.2.3.2)
SCRAM (DIRECTION)
1. Friendly asset is in immediate danger. Withdraw clear in the direction indicated for survival. No further mission support from the friendly asset is expected. 2. [A/A][EW][S/A] Cease the intercept and take immediate evasive action. Implies that the target aircraft is being engaged by SAMs or other air defense fighters. 3. [A/A] Directive term to instruct ATC to clear all civilian/ nonengagement aircraft outside of a specific area. TERMINATE SCRAM will resume normal operations.
Wave-off criteria
1. Loss of sight of LSE or deck lights on final 2. Any aircrew call for wave-off 3. Tower or LSE signal wave-off 4. On short final the proceeding aircraft has not landed
The amount of light provided by the moon is highly variable and is influenced by these four factors listed in order of factors:
1. Lunar cycle. 2. Moon angle. 3. Lunar albedo. 4. Earth moon distance variation.
Threat reactions: Effective small arms.
1. Make evasive maneuver. 2. Suppress the threat. 3. Notify the flight. 4. Maneuver to terrain mask. 5. IFREP to DASC.
Flapping Critical
1. Maneuver severity—Reduce 2. Land—As Soon as Possible (ROL) If landing must be delayed: 3. APLN—Transition 4. VTOL/CONV--Minimize
Threat reactions: RWR Search/Acquisition.
1. Maneuver to terrain mask. 2. Notify flight with "Dirt X oclock". 3. Continue mission. 4. IFREP DASC.
Missions of V-22 (NATOPS)
1. Medium lift assault support 2. Tactical Recovery of Aircraft and Personnel (TRAP) 3. Emergency evacuation. 4. Fleet logistics support. 5. Logistics support ashore. 6. Long range logistics support. 7. Medical Evacuation.
2 ways EOTDA can be used during mission planning
1. Mission execution tactics 2. Planning and weapons upload decisions
Hot start preventer: when the following conditions are present simultaneously, the DECU trips the ODB and prevents fuel from flowing to the engine.
1. Ng less than 60%. 2. Np less than 50%. 3. MGT greater than 900.
CLEAN
1. No radar contacts on aircraft of interest. 2. No visible battle damage. 3. Aircraft not carrying external stores.
Essential Information to consider when planning an AD mission
1. Number/type/location of load 2. Aircraft load position 3. Number/type of parachute 4. DZ location/markings 5. Drop altitude 6. Threat 7. Wx/SLAP 8. Route 9. SEAD/Escort
Focus Procedures
1. Objective focus (one eye at a time to obtain an image that is adequate to facilitate diopter adjustment) 2. Eyepiece or Diopter Lens (Inner ring counterclockwise until image is blurred, pause for one to two seconds to allow the eye muscles to relax, then turn the diopter adjustment clockwise until the image just comes into sharp focus- STOP) 3. Once diopter has been adjusted, fine tune objective adjustment
SHACKLE
1. One weave, a single crossing of flight paths; maneuver to adjust / regain formation parameters. 2. Maneuver to clear the flight's 6 o'clock postion.
ANCHOR (ED)
1. Orbit about a specific point. 2. Refueling track flown by tanker. 3. [A/A] Turning engagement about a specific location.
ANCHOR (ED)
1. Orbit about a specific point. 2. Refueling track flown by tanker. 3. Turning engagement about a specific location.
Types of Formation
1. Parade 2. Cruise 3. Trail -Standard: 1nm & 100' alt separation -Non-standard: Not defined; must be approved by ATC 4. Combat -Cruise: 0.3nm - 1.5nm -Spread: 0.5mn - 2.0nm
High threat environment
- enemy has an air defense structure that includes integrated fire control systems and electronic warfare capabilities that would seriously diminish the ability of friendly forces to provide necessary air support. - includes low and medium threats plus a threat dispersion pattern that denies avoidance and requires penetration through an area with a high probability of detection and subsequent attrition if suitable defensive countermeasures and/or tactics are not immediately available. A high threat environment may include, but is not limited to: • Effective C2 network. • Mobile and/or tactical and strategic surface-to-air missiles (SAM). • Early warning (EW) radars. • Electronic warfare (EW). • Integrated ADA fire control systems. • Intercept aircraft.
Noncombatant evacuation conditions
1. Permissive 2. Uncertain 3. Hostile
Image Intensifier Tube Components
1. Photocathode 2. Microchannel Plate (MCP) 3. Phosphor Screen
2 modes of EOTDAs produced by
1. Planning 2. Execution
What are the 6 missions of assault support escort operations?
1. Protection from Fixed Wing threat. 2. Protection from Rotary wing threat. 3. Protection from Ground fire. 4. Route reconnaissance. 5. Clearing the landing zone by fire. 6. Support of a downed aircraft.
Types of radar detected by the APR-39
1. Pulsed 2. Pulsed Doppler 3. Continuous Wave 4. Low Probability Intercept
MUD (TYPE/DIRECTION)
1. RWR ground threat displayed with no launch indication. 2. RWR indication of surface threat in track mode. See DIRT and SINGER.
NAILS
1. RWR indication of AI radar in search. 2. Flechette rockets.
Two prerequisites for launching TRAP
1. Reasonable certainty IP is alive 2. Knowledge of location of IP
4 Stages of Flow around tanker:
1. Rendezvous, 2. Join-up, 3. Contact/Fuel transfer, 4. Post Air Refueling.
List all HF backscatter avoidance techniques
1. Rotate 2-3º into aircraft 2. Use LOAL Dir w/ min delay 3. Change Designator 4. Change Target 5. Change Position (Relocate)
5 Levels of Mission Precedence
1. Routine 2. Priority 3. Urgent 4. Emergency 5. Mandatory
What are the four categories of mission precedence?
1. Routine: Admin or tactical, time not critical 2. Priority: Delay will jeopardize mission success and loss of material. 3. Emergency: Safety of US or friendly personnel, immediate transport of vital supplies. 4. Mandatory: Possible loss of life
List elements of the execution template.
1. Routing and safety of flight. 2. CAS check in. 3. Situation update. 4. Gameplan. 5. Attack brief 6. Remarks and restrictions. 7. Readbacks. 8. Correlation. 9. Attack. 10. Assess. 11. BDA or Reattack. 12. Routing safety of flight.
CONTACT
1. Sensor SA at the stated position. 2. [A/S] Acknowledges sighting of a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor). 3. [A/A] Individual radar return within a GROUP or ARM.
CONTACT
1. Sensor contact at the stated position. 2. Acknowledges sighting of a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor). 3. Individual radar return within a GROUP or ARM.
TRACKING
1. Stabilized gun solution. 2. Continuous illumination of a target. 3. Contact heading.
POP
1. Starting climb for air-to-surface attack. 2. Max performance climb out of low altitude structure.
TERMINATE
1. Stop laser illumination of a target. 2. Cease local engagement without affecting the overall exercise.
NVG Terrain Considerations
1. Terrain Albedo (reflectivity) 2. Terrain Contrast 3. Terrain Shadows
CLEARED HOT
1. Type 1 and 2 close air support terminal control clearance to release ordnance on this pass. 2. Training range operations: RCO / RSO authorizes ordnance release.
CLEARED TO ENGAGE**
1. Type 3 CAS terminal control clearance. Attack aircraft flight leaders may initiate attacks within the parameters imposed by the JTAC. 2. Clearance to fire on designated group / target.
Levels of priority for CASEVAC
1. Urgent (1 hour) 2. Priority (4 to 6 hours) 3. Routine
List elements of 5 line.
1. Warning order. 2. Friendly location and mark. 3. Enemy location. 4. Enemy description and mark. 5. Remarks.
What are the three weapons control conditions
1. Weapons hold 2. Weapons Tight 3. Weapons Free
Information required to produce an EOTDA
1. Weather properties 2. Sortie Properties (Operational Data) 3. Target and Location Properties (Intelligence Data)
What are the required coms for escort?
1. Winter/Devel from EFL to AFL/AMC. 2. IP inbound from AFL to EFL. 3. Continue, established BP from AFL to EFL. 4. Lifting or Waveoff, from AFL to EFL.
CLEARED TO ENGAGE**
1. [A/S][UAS] Type 3 CAS terminal attack control clearance. Attack aircraft flight leaders may initiate attacks within the parameters imposed by the JTAC. 2. [A/A][A/S][UAS] Clearance to fire on designated GROUP/target.
Briefly describe 5 levels of Care available.
1. basic, think first aid kit. 2. Surgical caps 3. Specialty care. 4 and 5. outside theatre of operations, includes rehabilitation capabilities.
Advantages of Medium Altitude
1. carry passengers up to 13,000' MSL for 3 hours, 2. reduced task loading on aircrew for obstacles detection and avoidance, 3. ASE has a longer time to react to threats than in the low altitude environment.
What are the 2 types of combat formations?
1. combat cruise 2. combat spread"
Disadvantages of Medium Altitude
1. flight profies may place an aircraft in the heart of most threat systems engagement envelope other than small arms, 2. susceptibility to a wide array of threat systems, 3. increased susceptibility to FW air-to-air attack, 4. earlier RF/IR/EO and visual detection, 5. increased potential for adverse weather conditions.
Disadvantages of High Altitude
1. increased vulnerability to FW air-to-air attack, 2. flight controls tend to be less responsive and power available is decreased, 3. increased susceptibility towards RF acquisition up to system limits, 4. may require IMC penetration through weather, and oxygen restrictions for passengers.
List the 5 axioms of survival
1. lookout doctrine and threat detection 2. threat identification 3. give the attack warning 4. avoid detection 5. air combat maneuvering"
What are the four positions for AAR?
1. observation position 2. astern 3. contact 4. reform area"
4 Positions of Flow around tanker:
1. observation, 2. astern, 3. contact, 4. reform.
Disadvantages of Low Altitude
1. operations are conducted within the kinematic envelope of all threat systems, 2. reduced time for threat reaction, 3. TCT may significantly increase aircrew workload reducing look out doctrine, 4. increased fuel consumption and shorter ranges, 5. difficulty maintaining visual in combat spread operations, 6. reduced LOS.
4 Types of Formations
1. parade, 2. cruise, 3. combat, 4. trail
BEADWINDOW categories: 1 to 7.
1. position. 2. capabilities. 3. operations. 4. EW. 5. Personnel. 6. Comsec. 7. Wrong circuit.
Mission Categories:
1. pre-planned (scheduled and on-call) 2. immediate.
Advantages of Low Altitude
1. reduction in RF and IR threat visual acquisition time, 2. ability to operate visually below weather, 3. earth surface IR signature can mask low flying aircraft signature, 4. terrain masking denies visual and RF/EO/IR acquisition.
5 levels of mission precedence
1. routine 2. priority 3. urgent 4. emergency 5. mandatory
Advantages of High Altitude
1. safe passage against limited range threat systems, 2. other threat systems ability to engage degraded, 3. increased maneuver options, 4. increased fuel efficiency and range, 5. enhanced internal visual and electronic detection coverage, 5. enhanced LOS communications, 6. ability to fly above weather which can mask IR/EO acquisition and adversely affect acquisition sensors such as NVDs and FLIRs.
Name 13 LZ considerations
1. soil composition 2. hazards 3. ingress 4. egress 5. itg (near/far) 6. locations of zone 7. size of zone 8. winds 9. slap 10. waveoff 11. freq 12. friendly pos 13. enemy pos"
what are the three types of deconfliction in the objective area?
1. time 2. altitude 3. space (lateral distance)"
For ILS, ILS Localizer, or LOC Back Course, one dot on the scale represents ____.
1.25° of deviation.
In LOAL seeker lock on is inhibited until approximately___ seconds after launch.
1.5 seconds.
A.P.K.W.S. has a release envelope of ____ to ____ kilometers with an optimum employment range of ____ to ____ kilometers.
1.5 to 5 kilometers. 3 to 4 kilometers.
Primary Scan
1.Forward through windscreen 2. Laterally (Critical for closure rates when taxiing or on final a. 45 degree position b. Abeam the helicopter
What is the capacity of the life raft?
-30
Can view ____ to _____
-50ºC (arctic) to 50ºC (desert)
Diopter Assembly
-Allows wearers to move the focus point to the appropriate location at the BACK OF THE RETINA -Allows for mild vision corrections, but not for prescription wearers
Moon Angle
-Angle, elevation, or altitude above the horizon is the second most significant factor -Provides highest ileum over head and decreases as it rises and sets -Plays into terrain shadowing
NS Failure
-Communicate to crew -If PAC, transfer controls and announce "You have the controls, goggle failure" -If battery failure, switch to alternate batteries, if not, don backup goggles.
Phosphor screen
-Comprised of thin layer of phosphor deposited on the inside of the rear window (fiber optic) -CONVERT ELECTRON BEAM ENERGY TO LIGHT -Screen is charged with a positive potential of several thousand volts to accelerate and attract the negatively charged electrons exiting the MCP
Photocathode
-Converts incoming visible and near IR energy into ELECTRICAL ENERGY (ELECTRONS) -Able to detect energy that is invisible to the human eye
Artificial Illumination
-Cultural lighting, vehicles, weapons, flares -Can be helpful or hazardous depending on the relative placement in or out of the field of view (FOV) -BSP
What are the checks and balances that go into making a legal flight schedule?
-Currency to sign -Proficiency in T&R event -OPNAV crew rest/Day -OPNAV Daily/Weekly/Monthly flight hours -OPNAV consecutive fly days—6 -ORM -All Department Signatures
Solar influence
-Depending on the azimuth and relationship to the flight path -SKY GLOW until after nautical twilight -Civil twilight is TOO BRIGHT -Astronomical twilight is too DARK -Flying away from the sun may provide helpful ileum -Flying towards it may provide a nuisance due to the NVG's automatic gain circuitry (Bright source protection) -Plan for EENT or when sun has set more than 12 degrees below the horizon (45-60 minutes after sunset)
Roads
-Depends on the albedo difference between the road and surrounding terrain -A concrete road in farming country should be easily seen because it is more reflective -Easily seen on the FLIR
Terrain Contrast
-Difference between the albedos of two or more surfaces -greater difference the easier to see
Depth Perception and distance estimation
-Distance estimation becomes difficult .objects will appear farther away than they actually are -Depth perception is easily acquired
Complacency/Overconfidence
-Do not be overly comfortable when flying in high illumination conditions -Do not be lulled into a false sense of security that the NVGs will allow you to fly day VFR profiles -Always crosscheck with other instruments to enhance SA through validation of the true attitude, altitude, and airspeed
Image Intensifier Tube Automatic Gain Control System
-Gain will govern the NVG image brightness for low light level inputs -Constant exposure of the image intensifier tube to bright light sources may result in damage to the photocathode or the MCP
Fiber Optic Inverter
-Image inversion -Inverter is a bundle of millions of microscopic light-transmitting fibers that are heated and given a 180º twist providing the needed inversion to produce upright image without requiring a second lens assembly -Collimates the image, making the image at the eyepiece lens appear to be at the appropriate distance from the viewer
Inadvertent IMC
-Increased "halo effect" around light sources -Degraded NVG image -Reduction in light levels, acuity, depth perception and terrain contrast -Obscuration of the moon and stars -Increased graininess or noise -Loss of ground lights
Aircraft NVG Compatibility
-Interior lighting must be compatible with most current NVGs, does not fall within the spectral sensitivity range of the NVGs -NVG's do not see the light, however you can see it underneath the goggles
Taxi
-It is recommended that if airfield lighting is sufficient that aircraft taxi unaided, thus allowing maximum peripheral vision -This is determined by flight leader/HAC
Shadows
-Know the moon angles for that night to anticipate shadows along your route of flight -Utilize your FLIR -Can help or hinder, but must be considered
Earth-Moon distance
-Least significant -Elliptical nature of the lunar orbit -The changes in ileum resulting from this 26% change in distance are deemed INSIGNIFICANT for NVG purposes
Cumulative
-Less intense than acute and i characterized as an accumulation of fatigue over time, usually days or even weeks -Extended work weeks with little time off or failing to obtain adequate sleep -Burned out -Takes more than one night's rest to recover
Bright Source Protection (BSP)
-Limits the number of electrons leaving the photocathode by reducing the voltage between the photocathode and the input side of the MCP -Starts at fairly low light levels and has an increasing effect until voltage drops to the point needed to ensure that electrons can penetrate the MCP ion barrier film -DEGAIN - reduced image contrast and detail More light=more ions=shorter photocathode life=shorter NVG life. BSP degains to prevent this
NVG Power Source
-Low Profile Battery Pack (Primary and redundant source, and three position switch. Takes AA alkaline batteries) -Clip on Power Supply (For hand held use)
Coping with Fatigue
-Maintain Circadian adaptaion on days off -Get quality sleep no matter time of day -Stay in shape, and hydrate -Limit Caffeine intake to reduce its effects on the nervous system in flight and help improve the quality of sleep at home -Cancellation if it is really that bad
Forrests
-May not reflect light efficiently and solid canopied forest can appear extremely dark unless the trees have leaves -Excellent contrast and texture differences do exist between deciduous (leafy) and coniferous (pines, firs)
MIJI
-Meaconing: A system of receiving radio beacon signals and rebroadcasting them on the same frequency to confuse navigation -Interference: Any electromagnetic disturbance that interrupts, obstructs, or otherwise degrades or limits the effective performance of electronics or electrical equipment. Jamming: he deliberate radiation, re-radiation, or reflection of electromagnetic energy with the objective of impairing the use of electronic devices, equipment, or systems being used by an enemy. Intrusion: he intentional insertion of electromagnetic energy into transmission paths in any manner with the objective of deceiving operators or causing confusion.
Lunar Illumination
-Moon is primary source of natural illumination -Moon reflects about 7% of sunlight that strikes it
Night Sky Illumination
-Moonless nights have usable light -Large near-IR composition -This night sky near-IR energy matches the peak sensitivity of the AN/AVS-9 NVG -40% of the light is provided by emissions from atoms and molecules in the upper atmosphere (AIR GLOW)
LLL Considerations
-Most demanding -Detailed breifing, excellent crew coordination, and a vigilant scan -Decreased resolution, visual acuity, contrast, and hazard detection range -Creates an increase in blooming effect from artificial lighting sources -Scintillation tends to occur because of photocathode receiving much less light -NVG image brightness will decrease until the ABC is at maximum gain -When bright light enters the FOV, BSP will activate to reduce gain, therefore making it difficult to see anything but the light source
Atmospheric Water Vapor (HUMIDITY)
-Most influential absorbing gas, and most variable -Water vapor content can double in a matter of hours -near IR we can "see through" light fog and thin clouds where unaided vision cannot -Increase humidity, decrease in performance
Field of View
-NVG's FOV is 40º -Necessitates an active and aggressive scan -Also if the adjustment of the NVG is incorrect that will also limit the FOV
Hazy and LLL nights
-Need a more vigilant instrument backup -Look under the goggles
NVG "minus blue"
-Objective lens filtering facilitates aircraft cockpit and display compatibility by restricting wavelengths of energy entering the intensification process -Allows for use of cockpit lighting that will not adversely affect NVG gain and quality
Night Currency With troops
-One hour of HLL or LLL in the last 30 days
Aircraft Emergencies
-PAC remain goggled and initiate required immediate action procedures -Terrain permitting, primary consideration should be given to landing the aircraft followed by execution of remaining steps on deck -"Climb to Cope" when it makes sense to gain reaction time, improve landing site selection and increase overall SA -PNAC should remain goggled to retain outside visual cues while simultaneously assisting the PAC
Night Vision Googles
-Passive sensors that utilize image intensifier tube technology -Rely upon the illumination reflected off the terrain or a target to form an image presented as a green monochromatic representation of the world
Scattering
-Phenomenon that occurs when light strikes a particle and changes path -Cause attenuation of the signal -Can be significant in dust or smoke causing appreciable loss in NVG performance
MAWTS 1 Scan Techniques
-Pilot must keep his head moving between several reference points to notice drift -Reference points should be stationary -WARNING - Hovering/landing in open areas of grass, sand, or snow may be disorienting due to blowing grass, sand or snow and the lack of a stationary reference point
Unacquired Vertical Obstructions
-Preflight planning
Moon Phase (lunar Cycle)
-Primary lunar illumination factor -Influenced by time of year and global position
Goggle
-Prior to takeoff, all aircrew will have their NVGs donned and activated for use
Lunar Albedo
-REFLECTANCE -Third factor -20% brighter during first quarter (waxing) than third quarter (warning)
Terrain Albedo
-REFLECTIVITY -Surfaces such as snow will reflect more light than surfaces life asphalt or dark rock and therefore will appear lighter in the NVG
what are the 5 Mission Precedence
-Routine -Priority -Urgent -Emergency -Mandatory
Carbon Dioxide
-Second most influential in terms of absorption -Urban areas tend to heave higher concentration of carbon dioxide
1.5 Volt AA Alkaline Batteries
-Service life affected by temperature -Battery performance demonstrated no drop off in image brightness and quality for several hours (5-10) following activation of the low battery indicator.
K-Coded MAF
-This code is used when an item must be adjusted to meet calibration standards. If the item needs repair in addition to calibration and adjustment, use another code indicating the proper maintenance action.
Open Fields
-Usually will be difficult to see and utilize as guiding features
Water
-Very little contrast between land and water during low light -With moon angles the contrast and color will change and reflected moonlight is easily detected
Microchannel Plate (MCP)
-Very thin (1mm) wafer comprised of millions of tiny glass tubes or channels -Between Photocathode and phosphor screen -Inside passages of the MCP tubes are coated with material that causes secondary electron emissions when electrons strike them -As each electron strikes a wall, more electrons are emitted from the wall -Creates a cascading electron multiplier effect
NVG Spatial Orientation
-Visual sensory cues provide the strongest input to overall spatial orientation and SA -By virtue of NVG design limitations, operationally significant misperceptions and visual illusions can occur during NVG aided operations -Most common contributing factors in spatial D are degraded visual environment, high task loading, fatigue, and breakdown in scan
M278: Candle power, and time. Amount of time for flare to deploy and rate it falls at. Downrange and height at what degree
.7 - 1.1 micron range with a .8 peak. Burns for 3 minutes. 22 degree launch angle, 3000 Meters downrange and 2500 feet high.
Near IR range of EM Spectrum
.7 - 3 Microns
When in INS only mode the INS may drift up to ____ nautical miles per hour.
.8.
-Poor Density
.Open areas, snow covered terrain, most deserts, and calm water -Increases chance for spatial D
Stow position for the 20mm is ____ degrees azimuth, and ____ degreed elevation.
0 degrees, 8.93 degrees.
The RADALT indicator indicates AGL altitudes from ___ to ____ feet and _____ in pitch and roll.
0 to 5,000 feet. plus or minus 45 degrees.
Required alternate airfield weather chart: Destination and alternate weather columns.
0-0 up to but not including published mins. Alternate weather must be 3,000 and 3 or better. Destination weather is published mins up to but not including 3000 and 3. Alternate: NP: published mins plus 300 and 1. precision plus 200 and 1/2. Destination 3000 and 3 or better, no alternate.
Civil Twilight
0-6 degrees below the horizon
Cruise
0.0 and 0.2 DME with 25 feet of either step-up or step-down based upon the mode of flight
LLL is defined as?
0.0022 Lux
Glideslope Deviation Indicator In APPR mode with distance greater than 0.2 NM from waypoint, one dot on the scale represents _____. With distance less than or equal to 0.2 NM from waypoint, one dot on the scale represents ____.
0.25° of deviation 50 feet of deviation.
Glideslope Deviation Indicator In ILS mode one dot on the scale represents ____.
0.25° of deviation.
Combat cruise
0.3- to 1.0-NM in both CONV and APLN modes free to maneuver aft between the 100-degree bearing on either side of the flight leader
For waypoints, one dot on the scale represents ____.
0.5 NM of deviation.
Combat spread
0.5 NM to 2.0 NM ±10 degrees of the lead aircraft's abeam
Minimum launch delay for RIPL is ____ seconds.
0.5 seconds.
APKWS passively searches for laser energy ____ to ____ seconds after launch.
0.7 to 0.8 seconds after launch.
In a typical situation, the errors of an aligned INS grow at a rate that provides the net effect of a _____.
0.8 nm/hr positional drift rate
BEADWINDOW codes
01- position 02- capabilities 03- operations 04- electronic warfare 05- personnel 06- consecutive 07- wrong circuit
Sector B
090 to 180 degrees
• What are the 6 lighting conditions?
1 (Day) - pos brt, ac on top/bottom 2 (Night Unaided)- form 10, pos brt, proprtr norm 10, ac norm 3 (NVD outside restriced area) - form 10, pos dim, tail off, proprtr NVG 10, ac off, ldg gear auto-off. Last a/c tail on, ac norm (top only) 4 (NVD inside restriced area)- form 10, pos off, proprtr NVG 10, ac off, ldg gear aut-off. Last a/c pos on, ac norm (top only) 5 (NVD all covert)- form 10, pos off, proprtr NVG 10, ac off, ldg gear auto-off. Last a/c ac NVG 6 - All Lights off
AN-ALE 47 training mode: To answer YES, on the CDU move the PRGM Switch from Position ___ to Position ___ and then back to Position ___ or on the DCDU rotate the MANUAL switch from ___ to ___ then back to ___.
1 / 2 / 1
MEU Mission essential tasks
1 Amphibious assault 2 Expeditionary Support to Other Operations/Crisis Response and Limited Contingency Operations 3 special ops
Amphibious assault
1 Conduct amphibious raid 2. Conduct maritime amphibious interception operations (MIO) 3. Conduct advance force operations
RVL scale
1 Light dust—Limited horizon/vertical visibility impact 2 Moderate dust—Ground reference maintained, significant horizon/vertical visibility degraded from some aircrew positions 3 Visibility degraded for all aircrew; ground reference temporarily lost by at least 1 pilot 4 Heavily degraded visibility for all aircrew; ground reference temporarily lost by at least one pilot and one CC/AGO 5 Ground reference lost by all aircrew until on deck
CLASS G MORE THAN 1,200 FEET ABOVE THE SURFACE BUT LESS THAN 10,000 FEET MSL DAY
1 STATUTE MILES 500 FEET BELOW 1,000 FEET ABOVE 2,000 FEET HORIZONTAL
CLASS G 1,200 FEET OR LESS ABOVE THE SURFACE (REGARDLESS OF MSL ALTITUDE) DAY, EXCEPT AS PROVIDED IN .91.155(b)
1 STATUTE MILES CLEAR OF CLOUDS
TOT calculation methods
1 enter the TOT time minus 1 minute to allow time for the conversion and approach into the zone 2 set the TOT to the IP flying a constant ground speed to that point, then flying a standard slowdown profile over a known distance that can be accounted for during mission planning (e.g., IP located 5 NM from LZ; planned slowdown time is 3 minutes; TOT is set at IP 3 minutes before "L-hour")
An alternate airfield is required when the weather at the destination is forecast to be less than 3000 feet ceiling and 3 statute mile vis plus or minus ____ of ETA.
1 hour.
M257: Candle power, and time. Amount of time for flare to deploy and rate it falls at. Downrange and height at what degree
1 million candle power for 2 minutes. 13.5 seconds to deploy and falls at 13-15 feet per second. 15 degree launch angle, 3500 Meters downrange and 1800 feet high.
1) How long do you conduct an engine rinse? 2) For both engines or individually? 3) What component do you activate after engine rinse has been completed? 4) What is the temperature drop for an engine rinse?
1) 1 min 2) each engine (can do individually, but we do both at same time through midwing) 3) The engine bleed valve for one minute 4) MGT decrease by 25 to 35°
• Per the T&R what are the requirements to conduct LAT with troops embarked? (T&R Program Manual)
1) All aircrew are qualified, proficient, and current per the T&R 2) Aircrew shall utilize FW LAT/Tiltrotor LAT areas or routes as specified in respective MAW and MAG operations SOPs. 3) The aircraft has the requisite power margin as specified in respective MAW, MAG and squadron operations SOPs. 4) Authorization for the specific FW LAT/Tiltrotor LAT training event has been approved by the MAGTF commander. 5) Waiver authority for any of the above restrictions is vested in the MEF CG.
Low threat environment
A low threat environment allows operations to proceed without prohibitive interference. -also referred to as permissive. -at a minimum, always assume a low threat environment, not a no threat environment. A low threat environment may include the following: -Small arms and medium antiaircraft weapons. -Limited optical acquisition air defense artillery (ADA) with no integrated fire control systems.
SKUNK
A maritime surface contact that has not yet been id'd.
Proficiency
A measure of achievement of a specific skill.
What are the 6 things ENV bus controls
1) Avi cooling 2) OBOGS 3) OBIGS 4) A/C and Heat 5) Fuel Boost (#1 suction, #2 boost) 6) Wing Anti-ice boots
SQUIRTER
A ground-borne object of interest departing the objective area.
List 21 items included on an objective area diagram.
1.Sun/moon azimuth and elevation during the TOS. 2. Forecast winds. 3. North seeking arrow. 4. Friendly positions and SoM. 5. Enemy positions. 6. Preplanned targets, TRP or GEOREFs. 7. FW final attack headings/cones. 8. Gun target line (GTL) to preplanned targets or indirect fires PDF. 9. Objective area communication nets (MC, TAD, COF, LZ control, GCE TAC) and key player call signs. 10. FSCMs. 11. BPs. 12. LZ, IP, HAs. 13. Assault sectors of fire. 14. Attack aircraft routes with heading and timing to BPs at the planned ingress ground speed. 15. Assault aircraft routes with heading and timing from IP to LZs at the planned ingress ground speed. 16. Waveoff direction. 17. Threat/sensor rings. 18. Conversion points. 19. ACA. 20. Mission coordination areas (MCA). 21. Datum/grid designator."
ABC cannot increase gain below what illum?
1/4 moon illum
The Hellfire K2A has a blast frag sleeve that is ____ inches thick and _____ inches long.
1/8 inches thick and 6.75 inches long.
If comms are not made during secure or active checks after __ seconds, switch to the plain text frequency
10
Plan approach and landing at least ___ KCAS above the airspeed where controllability issues were noted.
10
The Hellfire missile arms when acceleration exceeds ____ G's between ____ and ____ meters in front of the aircraft.
10 G's. 150 to 300 meters.
Laser maximum range, beyond which probability of hit drops below 90%.
10 kilometers.
What is the bursting radius of the M151 warhead?
10 meters
The FLIR may take up to ____ minutes to cool down, the magnification for the following Fields of view are: WFOV, MFOV, NFOV, VNFOV.
10 minutes. 1, 3, 14, 42.
When entering the fixed wing delta pattern when should you establish at assigned holding altitude
10 nm prior to entering the pattern
When conducting rocket and gun delivery using laser range, it may take up to ____ seconds to obtain an optimal solution in ESAF mode and ____ seconds in tactical.
10 seconds, 0.5 seconds.
Threats that cease to illuminate the helicopter are displayed as a ghosted image for ____ seconds then disappear.
10 seconds.
Torque splits greater than ______ may result in less than 100% Qm.
10%
What power margin is recommended for externals?
10%
The hover aid graphic presents three concentric circles representing ____, ____, and ____ knots for ground speed and ____, ____, and ___ meter radius of movement.
10, 20, 30 knots. 6, 12, 18 meters.
Mark hazards within ____ of planned route. Mark cities, beacons, and other features that emit large amounts of light within ____ of route.
10, 30 nautical miles.
When oxygen is not available to other occupants, flight between
10,000 and 13,000 feet shall not exceed 3 hours duration, and flight above 13,000 feet is prohibited.
Oxygen requirements:
10,000'-13,000': -Pilot and active crew: Oxygen required -Co-pilot: 30 min, quick don immediately available -Crew (no physical activity): 60 min, Oxygen readily available -Passengers: 3 hr limit
Binocular assembly breaks away from the helmet during crash at loads of?
10-15G's
Optimal hover height for land hoist recoveries
100 feet AGL.
Produces ____ scattering for 8-12 micron system?
100%
Minimum distance between MV-22s when establishing a FARP/RGR site
100' between fueling points (150 in NATOPS) 300' between arm/de-arm points
For each electron that enters the MCP ____ or more will exit?
1000
What is the Tanker Transfer rate?
1000lb/min
Best glide airspeed is approximately ____ KCAS and the minimum rate of descent airspeed is approximately ____ KCAS.
106 and 76 Knots Calibrated Airspeed.
The elevator can move through a range of ____ degrees at a maximum rate of one degree per second.
11.5 degrees.
Ng governor: During an overspeed condition, Ng greater than or equal to ____ percent, the Ng governor cuts fuel flow causing a flameout.
110 +- 2 percent.
Danger close distance: Hellfire, flechette and APKWS.
110 meters hellfire. 170 for flechette. 95 for APKWS.
Max effective range of GAU-17 DWS
1100m
M197 traverse range is____ degrees either side of centerline. Elevation limits are ____ at centerline, ____ degrees at 40 degree azimuth, and ____ degrees at 110º azimuth. Gun depression limit is ____º below centerline.
110º, 8.92º, 5.98º, 50º below centerline.
If Hellfire is NOT selected and the TSS operator has "A" selected at L5 on the TSS top page, what PRF is used while designating
1111
Which laser codes achieve better missile performance and how often do which codes update the missile?
1111-1488 1111 updates missile every 70 feet 1688 updates missile every 140 feet
Plan for ___ Qm on the boat
112%
OPF
1134
Np overspeed: When Np exceeds ______ percent, the DECU signals the overspeed solenoid on the ODV stopping fuel flow to the engine.
115.6 +- 1.1
M50 and PGU tracer burnouts in distance and PGU seconds of burn.
1170 and 1800-2200, 3.2 seconds.
The Mk 149 contains ____ of ____ grain flechettes. Optimum pattern occurs approximately ____ to ____ meters after flechette explosion.
1179 of 60 grain. 150 to 250 meters.
How many litters and stanchions can we carry? How many seats do you have left?
12 Litters, 5 cabin seats remain
• How many litters can a V-22 could accommodate and how many seats were still available
12 litters, 4 seats for corpsmen, 1 CC at main door.
Minimum field of regard for the TSS is plus or minus ____ degrees in azimuth, and plus _____ and minus ____ in elevation.
120. Plus 45. minus 105.
Max effective range of M-240
1200m
AIM series, 120, 9, and 7.
120: AMRAAM. 9: Sidewinder. 7: Sparrow.
Define alert conditions: 120, 60, 30, 15, and 5 minutes.
120: ordnance stage and aircraft signed for. 60: ordnance loaded and aircraft preflighted. 30: aircraft is turned up and ops checked then shut down. 15: aircrew in the aircraft. 5: spinning.
What are the restricted PRF codes for the AGM-114N?
1217-1231. 1436-1452. 1685-1721.
Tail strike will occur above ___ pitch attitude on landing. A minimum flare on landing holding a positive pitch angle less than ___ should avoid a tail strike.
13 10°
• How many chip detectors are there?
13 - (3 prgb, 2 tagb,) x 2 each side, 1 mwgb, 1 per eng only engine cannot do fuzz burn.
MATA
13,000' MSL, 240KGS, 15NM 6,000' MSL, 260-270 KGS, 9NM 300' AGL, 270KGS, 5NM
Astronomical twilight
13-18 degrees below the horizon
The AGM-114A,B,C warhead variants contain a unitary shape charge warhead with ____ pound of ____ main charge.
13.7 pounds of LX-14.
A Mk 66 rocket motor produces an average thrust of ____ pounds for a duration of ____ seconds.
1360 pounds for 1.1 seconds.
All LUU-19 flares fall at a rate of ____ feet per second and their designed ignition altitudes will accommodate the flare burning out at ____ feet AGL.
14 feet per second. 500 feet AGL.
Expended links from the 20mm may impact the airframe and tail rotor above____ knots.
140.
Low fuel pressure will cause the engine flameout due to fuel starvation within ____ seconds.
15
when landing on an LHD you should plan to be in a hover at what altitude
15 ft over the deck
With dual ENVIR BUS FAIL, and MATs empty or not installed: Available fuel in feed tanks will supply engines for no more than _________ leading to engine fuel starvation and subsequent dual engine flameout.
15 minutes
Sun shading
15 shades of gray with the light source's azimuth and elevation adjustable. This function provides a real-time view of the terrain
No pilot shall sign for an aircraft for a night flight without having flown that model aircraft within the previous ____ days.
15.
Optimal hover height for water hoist recoveries
150 AGL
APU fuel consumption:
150 pounds per hour.
Cold FARP operations The distance between re-fueling points should be ____ feet, but no less than ____ feet.
150, 100
LOAL-DIR: Min/Max, offset
1500 meters minimum 7000 meters maximum offset 7.5 degrees which increases min range to 1700 meters. If visibility is less tahn 5 kilometers max seeker offset is 5 degrees.
What is the maximum airspeed you can fly with the following stores on your aircraft? SUU-25, 77-gallon tank.
152 knots. 165 knots.
VDD
160-180; 170 kcas Max 10k PA
Vertical Adjustment Knob
16mm -Move up or down
The acceleration deceleration fuze used in flechette rockets begins arming at ____ G's and the armed fuze fires when the rocket decelerates below ____ G's. The fuze is completely armed in about ____ seconds.
17.5, 11,1.6 seconds.
The cockpit side window vents may assist in clearing smoke and fumes, but low pressure makes the vents difficult to open in APLN above ______.
170 KCAS
Most favorable condition for minimizing fuel vapor concentration in the cabin may be achieved by gradually applying full left rudder at ____ KCAS level fight while maintaining ground track with ____ Nr.
180 100%
Max airspeed for overhead delta pattern
180 KIAS
Sector C
180 to 270 degrees
HSD speeds
185-210; 200 kcas
Max effective range of GAU-16:
1850m
Levels of Care
1: Basic emergency lifesaving. No surgical capability. Corpsman, BAS. 2: First surgical care, basic lab work, x-ray, and pharmacy. Surgical companies, Shock trauma platoon. 3: Definitive/Specialty surgery. Restorative health, longer term care. Naval expeditionary med facilities, Field hospitals, USNS Comfort/Mercy. 4: Same as 3, more theraputic cre during delivery. Transition between 3 and 5. Spain and Germany Military medical centers. 5: Definitive convalescent restorative and rehab care. VA hospitals, CONUS hospitals. "
Setting for standard lighting conditions 1 through 6.
1: day. Pos bright anticollision on overt. 2: unaided. same with form on 5. 3: Outside restricted. Pos on dim. Anticollison off, form on 5, rotor on 5. 4: Inside restricted. Pos off, anticollision on IR 5, form 5 IR, Rotor off. 5: all covert. Same as 4 for both aircraft. 6: no lights.
What Type of Map is used in the objective area
1:50,000 Tactical Map
Obj area map scale?
1:50,000 tactical map
Requirements to fly pax at night to the boat:
2 NS landings in the last 15 days
The RR-129 chaff has a frequency coverage between ____ and ____ GHZ.
2 and 18.
• Describe the cabin layout if 24 troops are loaded in.
2 pilots, 25 seats in the cabin with 13 on the right and 12 on the left to accommodate 1 cc main cabin door. 12 troops per side. Jumpseat is not allowed for use on takeoff and landing (per NATOPS 2-236).
Minimum steady on target time prior to impact for Hellfire.
2 through 6: 6 seconds. 7 is 7 seconds. 8 is 8 seconds.
Why can we expect a degraded image in VNOF?
2 times electronic magnification of NFOV.
The rocket motor for the Hellfire missile has a burn time of _____ to _____?
2 to 3 seconds.
• What codes could a TAC log that was not identified on the flight schedule per SOP. (9 of them)
1) FAM 2030, 2) INST 2131, 3) RVL 2133, 4) HLL CAL 2331, 5)LLL CAL 2381, 6) DAY FCLP 2931, 7) NT FCLP 2934, 8) RVL 4730, 9) EP 6033/6036
1) What is the Max flight time and crew day with an operable FDP/Coupled ability on a FERRY Flight? 2) What is the max flight time and crew day for inop FDP on a FERRY FLIGHT? (Group SOP)
1) Flight - 9 hrs / crew day - 14 hrs (W/MAG CO extension) 2) Flt - 6.5 hrs / crew day - 12 hrs
• Scenario - ECS CONTROLLER FAIL has occurred. 1) What does that mean? 2) What is the impact of securing the system?
1) Lost ability to control the fan output on the CDU resulting in the cockpit having the fan on full power. 2) The loss of ECS would impact OBOGGS and OBIGGS along with the avionics cooling by removing the SDC compressed air from entering the ECU.
In all emergencies, the overriding considerations must be to:
1) Maintain aircraft control, 2) Analyze the situation, and 3) Take proper action.
What are the different RVL approaches?
1) No hover (Hand Flown) 2) Assited no hover 3) Hover coupled 4) Assited hover coupled 5) Fully Coupled Approach to hover
• In an ADB, 1) What is the breakdown of the ADB? Which side are open MAFs, closed MAFs and NPPC displayed on? 2) What is and IP and how is it filed? 3) When a D&T is done, what order is the daily and turnaround paperwork filed? 4) How long is a daily and turnaround good for? 5) What does a Z code mean?
1) Open on the Right and Closed on Left by shop, for last 10 flights it is reversed. NPPC's on the right 2) In progress, and it's filed as non-downing. 3) Turnaround then daily. 4) Daily - 72 hrs, turnaround - 24 hrs 5) (Z) - It's a downer - not able to safely fly Day flt VMC with 2-way comm and necessary a/c and safety provisions.
Medium threat environment
A medium threat environment is one in which the specific aircraft's performance and weapon systems capability allows acceptable exposure time to enemy air defenses. -restricts the flexibility of tactics in the immediate target/objective area (OA). -enemy may have limited radar and/or electro-optical (EO) acquisition capability at medium range, but a fully integrated fire control system does not support the air defense system. -normally allow medium altitude missions/attack deliveries with low probability of engagement by enemy air defenses. A medium threat environment may include the following: • Limited radar or EO acquisition capability not supported by fully integrated fire control systems. • A fully integrated fire control system that is degraded because of terrain, weather, or other factors.
Popeye
A pilot term used to indicate that his aircraft has entered IMC.
FRIENDLY
A positively identified friendly aircraft, ship, or ground position.
FRIENDLY
A positively identified friendly contact.
Coordinating level
A procedural method to separate fixed- and rotary-wing aircraft by determining an altitude below which fixed-wing aircraft normally will not fly.
BOGEY
A radar / visual contact whose identity is unknown.
Platform
A reporting point 5,000feet altitude in the approach pattern at which fixed wing aircraft reduce their rate of descent so as to arrive a 1,200 feet, 12 DME, and 250 kts.
High alt adv/disadvantage
Advantages of High-Altitude Operations: • Safe passage against limited range threat systems. Higher altitudes will degrade other threat systems engagement ability. • Increased maneuver options. • Enhanced fuel efficiency resulting in increased available range. • Enhanced internal visual and electronic detection coverage. • Enhanced LOS communications. • Ability to fly above weather which can mask IR/EO acquisition and adversely affect acquisition sensors such as NVDs and FLIR. Disadvantages of High-Altitude Operations: • Increased vulnerability to F/W air-to-air attack. • Flight controls will tend to be less responsive and engine power available will decrease. • Increased susceptibility towards RF acquisition up to system limits. • May require IMC penetration. • Oxygen restrictions for passengers.
Low alt adv/disadvantage A.W.T K. R. F. V.
Advantages of Low-Altitude Operations: • Reduction in IR and RF visual threat acquisition time. • The ability to operate visually below weather. • Earth surface IR signature can mask low-flying aircraft signatures (background clutter). • Terrain masking denies visual and RF/EO/IR acquisition. Disadvantages of Low-Altitude Operations: • Operations are conducted within the kinematic envelope of all threat systems. • Reduced time for threat reaction. • Terrain clearance tasks (TCT) may significantly increase aircrew workload, reducing time devoted towards look-out doctrine. • Fuel consumption is increased relative to high-altitude operations resulting in shorter available range. • Difficulty in maintaining visual contact in Combat Spread operations. Reduced LOS communications.
Medium alt adv/disadvantage
Advantages of Medium-Altitude Operations: • Ability to carry passengers without supplemental oxygen (up to 3 hours from 10,000 to 13,000 feet MSL). • Reduced task loading on the aircrew for obstacle detection and avoidance. • Aircraft's ASE has a longer time to react to threats than it does in the low-altitude environment. Disadvantages of Medium-Altitude Operations: • Flight profiles may place an aircraft in the heart of most threat systems' (other than small arms) engagement envelopes. • Susceptibility to a wide array of threat systems. • Increased susceptibility to F/W air-to-air attack. • Earlier RF/IR/EO and visual detection. • Increased potential for adverse weather conditions.
Weapons Free
Aerial gunners may engage any threat not positively identified as friendly. This is the least restrictive weapons control condition. Clearance to fire will be granted at a predetermined phase of flight based on available intelligence on the position of friendly troops."
When can radio frequency, heading, or configuration changes occur?
After reaching 200ft AGL
What are the 3 types of ADA fire that may be encountered?
Aimed, Barrage, Curtain. Memory aid "A,B, C's".
AOCC
Air Operations Control Center
ATO
Air Tasking Order
Define: CAS.
Air action by fixed wing or rotary wing aircraft against hostile targets that are in close proximity to friendly forces and requires detailed integration of each air mission with the fire and maneuver of those forces.
What does AIM stand for.
Air launched, intercept aerial, guided missile.
SLEDGEHAMMER
Air-Mar, Request from a surface vessel for immediate air support. Once sledgehammer is called by the defended surface vessel, sir assets will be re-rolled from other missions to identify threat intentions and employ if necessary in AR/AI/SCAR role
LEAKERS
Airborne threat has passed through a defensive layer. Call should include amplifying information.
SHOOTER
Aircraft / unit designated to employ ordnance.
BANDIT
Aircraft identified as enemy, IAW theater ID criteria. The term does not imply direction or authority to engage.
HOLDING HANDS
Aircraft in visual formation.
DEFENSIVE (SPIKE / MISSILE / SAM / MUD / AAA)
Aircraft is in a defensive position and maneuvering with reference to the stated condition.
NOTCH / NOTCHING (DIRECTION)
Aircraft is in a defensive postion. Maneuver(ing) with reference to a threat.
Smokelight Approach Procedures
Aircraft placed 2 miles astern of ship Aircraft descends at pilots discretion to 40 ft and 40 knots Ship personnel drop smoke/matrix lights every 15 seconds
DASH (#)
Aircraft position within a flight. Use if specific callsign is unknown.
FARME*
Aircraft status report: F: Fuel in hours and minutes remaining. A: Gun ammunition remaining. R: Rockets remaining. M: Missiles remaining. E: Expendables remaining.
FARME*
Aircraft status report: F: Fuel in hours and minutes remaining. A: Gun ammunition remaining. R: Rockets remaining. M: Missiles remaining. E: Expendables remaining.
FARME
Aircraft status report: 1) F: Fuel in hours and minute remaining. 2) A: Gun ammunition remaining. 3) R: Rockets remaining. 4) M: Missiles remaining. 5) E: Expendables remaining.
NO JOY
Aircrew does not have visual contact with the target / bandit / landmark. Opposite of TALLY.
CAPTURED
Aircrew has identified and is able to track a specified A/G target with an on-board sensor.
JUDY
Aircrew has radar / visual contact on the correct target, has taken control of the intercept and only requires situation awareness information. controller will minimize radio transmissions.
ACA
Airspace coordination area 3D Aircraft in ACA are safe from friendly surface fires Cameras
GBU 3 series types and weights.
All are GPS guided. 39: 250 pound low collateral damage. 38V4: 500 pound low collateral damage. 38: 500 pound. 32: 1000 pound. 31: 2000 pound.
GBU 1 series types and weights:
All are laser guided. 12: 500 pound. 16: 1000 pound. 10: 2000 pound.
MK 8 series bombs.
All are unguided. MK82: 500 pound. MK83: 1000 pound. MK84: 2000 pound.
_______________are inoperative with a failed DSIU.
All chip detectors (engines and gearboxes) and the ELS
NORDO*
All radios are inoperative.
Case III Procedures
All recoveries shall be from instrument approach and the Charlie Pattern is closed. If no visual contact by 3NM vectored immediately to the radar pattern
Refraction is?
Almost negligible
Cherubs
Altitude in hundreds of feet
Angels
Altitude in thousands of feet
ALTRV
Altitude reservation block of exclusive use airspace that is normally used for the mass movement of aircraft or other special requirements such as aerial refueling, which cannot otherwise be accomplished within the normal air traffic control framework. There are two types of ALTRVs: moving and static
The Metal augmented charge in the AGM-114N is a mixture of ______ at a _____ ratio.
Aluminum and Viton at a 90/10 ratio.
The amount of obscuration depends on the amount of?
Ambient illumination Relative position of the moon Height of object
Coordinating altitude
An airspace coordinating measure that uses altitude to separate users as the transition between different airspace coordinating entities.
ASC[A]
An assault support coordinator (airborne) (ASC[A]) is an aviator who coordinates, from an aircraft, the movement of aviation assault assets during assault support operations. The ASC(A) is an experienced aviator with an extensive knowledge of the MACCS who serves as an airborne extension of the DASC. The ASC(A) assists in providing situational awareness (SA) to the assault force, relays requests to the DASC, exercises launch authority for immediate and on-call missions, coordinates with the TAC(A), and provides routing recommendations to the AMC.
BULLSEYE
An established reference point from which the position of an aircraft can be determined. Made by cardinal / range or digital format.
BULLSEYE
An established reference point from which the position of an object can be referenced by bearing (magnetic) and range (nm) from this point.
DARK STAR
An illumination round that fails to properly ignite or fails to properly deploy its parachute
SNAP (DIRECTION)
An immediate vector to the group described.
SQUAWKING
An informative call denoting a bogey is responding with an IFF mode (mode #).
SPADES
An interrogated group / radar contact that lacks all of the ATO (or equivalent) IFF / SIF modes and codes required for the ID criteria.
CYCLOPS
Any UAS.
EMCON 1
Any and all emitters are authorized
Marshal
A standard holding pattern oriented in relation to the BRC
DIAMONDS (POSITION)
A surface IR event location.
DIAMONDS (with position)
A surface IR event location.
TAC[A]
A tactical air coordinator (TAC[A]) is an officer who coordinates, from an aircraft, the actions of other aircraft engaged in air support of ground or sea forces. Within the MACCS, the TAC(A) is a naval aviator or naval flight officer who is the senior air coordinator in control of all aircraft operating within the assigned area. The primary mission of the TAC(A) is to act as an airborne extension of the (DASC), tactical air command center (TACC) or fire support coordination center (FSCC), and to coordinate fire deconfliction among the tactical air control parties (TACP), forward air controllers (FAC)/forward air controllers (airborne) (FAC[A]), artillery, and naval gunfire.
___________ use pre-stage, fueling and post-stage areas regardless of the refueling asset used to support the FARP.
Assault FARPS
LAND TO THE OFFSET OR "OFFSET"
Assault aircraft land at distances of 1000 meters or greater from the target or objective or outside of audible detection.
RAMPS UP*
Assault aircraft ready to lift.
RAMPS UP*
Assault helicopters ready to lift.
LAND TO THE Y OR "Y"
Assault support aircraft land 300-1000 meters from the target or objective.
LAND TO THE X OR "X"
Assault support aircraft land within 300 meters of the target or objective.
Assault support
Assault transport air delivery air to air refueling BI TRAP AIR EVACUATION air logistical support
NVG Scan Pattern
At altitude scan will depend on ambient conditions, similar to unaided flight -It is essential to have an active scan because of your peripheral vision is not as effective on NVGs -Avoid the tendency to fixate by scanning slowly across your full visual limits -Rapid head movements may cause disorientation
Line of sight
At bottom of the DIGMAP Tells: if the LOS is clear or obstructed, along with an elevation (MSL), bearing, and distance to that geographical point. A green line will show up from the aircraft to that geographic location
NO COMM SIGNALS A. Porpoise: B. Wing rock: C. Tail wag:
A. signals all aircraft to move to next closer formation B. signals all aircraft to move to the next formation out. C. signals all aircraft to go to trail formation.
MELD
A/A: Bias radar coverage in accordance with briefed transfer A/A: Shift radar responsibilities from sanitizing to gaining SA on the assigned GROUP.
Fill in 3 track modes for TSS. Tracker then Cue for AA, AG, UR.
AA: Centroid, body. AG: Centroid, Terrain. UR: Correlation, Terrain.
What are the two common fuel delivery methods?
AGS and ADGR. Aviation ground support and Aerial delivered ground refueling.
The Model 113A a ____ fuze. Air travel to arm is ____ to ____ feet and time to arm is ____ seconds.
Acceleration deceleration. 550 to 1400 feet. 1.6 seconds.
GO SECURE
Activate encrypted voice communications.
What type of comms should be used in a high threat environment?
Active and secure
Assuming that IR pointer and laser is armed in tactical, pressing the first detent will fire ____ and the second will fire.
Active laser. Active laser and Pointer or Diode.
Employing Hellfire in a dive the seeker references:
Actual horizon
Eye-span (IDP) adjustment Knob
Adjusts for operator eye span or inter pupillary distance (IPD) -Dual IPD PAS: Independent control of each monocular
CHICKS
Administrative term used to denote FRIENDLY aircraft
Case II
At least 500/1 for rotary wing and 1000/5 for fixed wing IMC is anticipated during the descent Positive control shall be utilized until ship leader reports ship in sight
MV-22 APLN Ingress
At or above 800' AGL
SPUR RIDE
Attempt helicopter buddy/ self-extraction by having downed crew attach themselves to the outside of the helicopter
Heavy rain
Attenuate image
BI timer settings
Available timer settings are 250, 500, 1,000, 1,500 (N/A on LUU-2 A/B), and 2,000 through 11,000 in 1,000-foot intervals. Although the LUU-2B/B and the LUU-19 have a 250 setting, 500 is the minimum timer setting for MV-22 operations.
VMM Mission essential task list
Aviation operations from expeditionary sea-based sites Aviation Ops from expeditionary shore-based sites Rapid insertion/extraction Battlefield illumination Air evacuation TRAP Combat assault transport ADGR Airborne C3 platform Air delivery
List the 11 METLs
Aviation ops from expeditionary shore/land based sites, Active air defense, AR, AI, Arial escort, CAS, SCAR, TRAP, Offensive anti-air warfare, FAC(A)
List the 5 permissive FSCMs.
BCL CFL FFA FSCL Kill box memory aid: baker can freakin fire kilos.
What do the following Hellfire missile indications mean on the weapons page? BF, MF, HF, SF, UL, BIT.
BF: missile failed BIT. MF: Missile fail. HF: Hang Fire. SF: Station Fail. UL: Missile unlatched. BIT: missile undergoing bit.
Define BOT and BOC.
BOT: Requires attacking aircraft to be correlated on intended target. BOC: Lines 4 and 6 read backs complete correlation.
BRC
Base Recovery Course - Ship's true heading
Charlie Time
Based on time required to clear the deck in the case of an emergency. Should plan to arrive at Charlie time.
AVIONIC BAY HOT
Bay temp exceeds 130 °F.
Halo around lights inside fog will?
Be larger and more diffuse
Pigeons
Bearing and distance to a known point
CHATTERMARK
Begin using briefed radio procedures to counter communications jamming.
Low Altitude
Below 500' AGL.
Distortion
Bending Shear
Hold down fuel
Bingo + 1000lbs
When verifying the laser codes on an APKWS rocket, the first laser switch assembly determines if CCM will be on or off. Which is off?
Black.
The AGM-114M is a ____ warhead that contains ____ pounds of ____ and _____ pounds of _____.
Blast frag warhead. 5.5 pounds of PBXN-109. 0.49 pounds of Zirconium.
What occurs when you try to aerial refuel without selecting boost pump off?
Boost pumps are pressurizing the fuel lines while activated. This can cause pressure spikes in the fuel lines potentially causing fuel system damage and/or leakage. (NATOPS)
In the B vs C model, what do you control on the CMDS and what does the CC control?
Bravo the CC controls the tip lights via the overhead panel, while the C model, the pilots control the tip lights on the CDU.
Edge Glow
Bright area along the edge of the image Incompatible light source or I2 tubes MCP shift induced by mishandling
What does buzzer on a music on mean?
Buzzer is for Communication. Music on is for Radar. memory aid "Mr."
• What are the commands and manuever you would give upon detection of a Tic mark on the ASI?
C/S, Lean Right/Left, Dirt (clock dir). Since this is searching radar, the Lean maneuver will suffice and maneuver the aircraft to put the threat in the radar notch area.
At a minimum, AMCs and flight leaders should consider the following contingencies for escort:
CATIE. Casevac. Asset attrition. TRAP. Immediate reembark. Emergency Extract.
ALE-47 components
CDU, programmer, sequencer, dispenser assembly, magazine assembly
• What is the nomenclature of the MJUs and RRs regarding expendables and ASE, along with differences of each?
CHAFF - RR129, RR144 training chaff, MJU-57 fwd firing overt, MJU-32 overt, MJU-49 covert flare.
CHICKS
CHICKS Friendly aircraft.
The confirmation brief is given in an area designated by the MAGTF operations officer (OPSO). At a minimum, the ___________ will attend.
CO, OPSO, AMC, EFL, AFL, SFL, UAS coordinator, and a runner
TRAP COA 2
COA 2 - Used when the survivor's location is known and the survivor is nonambulatory. Upon debarkation from the RV, the recovery force will debark in 3 teams. 1 team remains as LZ security while 2 teams move to authenticate, stabilize, and secure survivor. 1 team moves through the survivor and places themselves between the threat and the survivor while the other team will link up with survivor.
TRAP COA 3
COA 3 - Used when the survivor's location is unknown. This is the most complicated COA as the recovery force will most likely require additional time to locate, authenticate, and stabilize the survivor. 1 team will establish LZ security, 2 teams begin to search in order to locate, authenticate, secure, and extract survivor. Consideration should be given to the RV departing the LZ depending upon METT-TSL.
Feathering is the highest during _____ operations. APLN at ________________________ is recommended.
CONV low AOA or VTOL at low airspeed (<40 KCAS)
Ten V-22 METS (T&R Ch 1)
CORE 1. (ALS) Conduct Air Logistics Support 2. (EXP) Conduct Aviation Operations From Expeditionary Shore-Based Sites 3. (SEA) Conduct Aviation Operations From Expeditionary Sea-Based Sites 4. (TRAP) Conduct Aviation Support of Tactical Recovery of Aircraft and Personnel 5. (CAT) Conduct Combat Assault Transport CORE PLUS 1. (RI/E) Conduct Airborne Rapid Insertion/Extraction 2. (ADGR) Provide Aviation-Delivered Ground Refueling 3. (BI) Provide Aviation-Delivered Battlefield Illumination 4. (AD) Conduct Air Delivery 5. (AC2)Provide an Airborne Command and Control Platform for Command Elements
POPCORN
CSAR aircraft departing the LZ. Usually followed by a number of recovered personnel
List the 5 operating modes of the Hellfire seeker.
Cage, Scan, Stare, Slave and Track. Cage: Inhibited until gyro spun up. Scan: Seeker scans. Stare: in LOBL stares straight ahead. Slave: commanded to LOS. Track: following laser energy.
CHAFF*
Call for flight to expend countermeasure chaff.
FLARES
Call for flight to expend countermeasure flares.
"FIGHTS ON"
Call made when commencing a maneuvering line number
Call to center
Call sign, number of aircraft and type Position relative to the TACAN Altitude Fuel state in time Souls on board Ordnance
What frequency are mandatory calls made on
Calls made on TAD unless no terminal area controller or planned otherwise
What should be contained in the initial check in during an aircraft recovery
Callsign, position relative to the ship or TACAN fix, altitude, fuel in hours/minutes, souls on board, and ordnance remaining.
Call to PriFly
Callsign, type, and number of aircraft Position relative to the ship Altitude Fuel state in time Souls on board Ordnance remaining
What are the elements of an inflight report, IFREP.
Callsign. Mission number. Location. TOT. Results. Remarks.
Light rain or Mist
Can not be easily seen on NVGs
UNABLE
Cannot comply as requested / directed.
CCA
Carrier Controlled Approach
ABORT (ING), (ED)
Cease action/attack/event/mission.
KNOCK IT OFF
Cease the entire evolution; all players must acknowledge.
APR-39 codes: Centered F, Centered P, Quadrant F, Quadrant L, Quadrant M
Centered F: Critical AAR-47 Failure or other reportable failure of APR-39 Centered P: APR-39 Processor Failure Quadrant F: Laser and Missile warning failure on that IOSC Quadrant L: Laser warning failure Quadrant M: Missile warning failure
ALE-47 programmer function
Central processing unit, communicates with EW bus, communicates with CDU, determines CRO response, monitors safety pin and WOW status, conducts BIT, sets function mode
CONFETTI
Chaff lane or corridor.
What do winds do?
Change density of particles
KICK (appropriate frequency)
Change radio or data link to a specified net or frequency. Also see PUSH.
KICK
Chattermark frequency change.
MAGELLAN*
Check navigation.
List naming convention for the following: Checkpoints, LZ, LS, LP, BP, HA, FP, IP, MCA, ACA, FARPs, AAR.
Checkpoints: cities. Landing zones: birds. Landing Sites: Colors and cardinal directions. Landing points: Numbered. Battle Positions: Animals, starting with snakes. Holding areas: Women. Firing Points: Numbered. Initial Points: Cars. Mission coordination areas: Sodas. Airspace coordination areas: Cameras. FARPs: fastfood. Air to air refueling tracks: Gas stations.
What Goggle/Degoggle procedure do we use at 302?
Chock to Chock to the max extent practical
Shear Distortion
Choppy appearance in image
Define civil, nautical and astronomical twilight.
Civil: 0-6 degrees below horizon. Nautical: 6-12. Astronomical: 12-18.
List and describe the 3 types of FARPs.
Cold, assault, static. Cold: Shutdown and refuel at the same point. Assault: Assembly line with the aircraft running and moving to each location. Static: Aircraft remains running in the same spot.
Comfort level
Comfort Level (CL). CL is the lowest altitude where aircrew can accommodate task loading and maintain safe terrain clearance.
Dust and Sand do what to Near IR light
Completely block light from striking reflecting terrain
Luminous gain is set by the manufacturer to do what?
Compromise between gain achieved and tube life expectancy
Asphalt or Concrete
Concrete
CONTINUE
Continue present maneuver, does not imply clearance to engage or expend ordnance
CONTINUE
Continue present maneuver, does not imply clearance to engage or expend ordnance.
Timing for continuous, interrupted and non standard.
Continuous: -60, -30, TOT, +30, +60. Interrupted: -60, -30, TOT.
Terrain Gradient
Contour of the terrain FLAT, ROLLING, ROUGH
Main components of AAR-47
Control Unit (CU) Countermeasures Signal Processor (CP) Integrated Optical Sensor Converters (IOSC)
SKINNY
Current survivor coordinates.
Direct action operations
DA operations are short-duration strikes and other small-scale offensive actions to seize, destroy, capture, recover, or inflict damage on designated personnel or material
How long are daily/ turnarounds good for?
DAILY = 72 HRS FROM SIGNATURE TIME TURNAROUND = 24 HOURS
Where does the IAS automatically display EW information with auto-display enabled.
DFD.
PRESS**
DIrective to continue the attack; mutual support will be maintained. Supportive role will be assumed.
Shading
Dark area along the edge of the image
Less Illuminance will?
Darken the image
Battle damage checks flight of three
Dash 3 inspects dash 2. When complete, dash 2 inspects dash 3. Lastly dash 2 inspects lead.
LAT Currency and Min Altitudes 31+ Days CONV
Day/HLL/LLL: 200'
LAT Currency and Min Altitudes 31+ Days APLN
Day/HLL/LLL: 500'
LAT Currency and Min Altitudes 0-30 Days APLN
Day/HLL: 200' LLL: 500'
LAT Currency and Min Altitudes 0-30 Days CONV
Day/HLL: 50' LLL: 200'
The critical behavioral skills that form the basis of CRM training are:
Decision making Assertiveness Mission Analysis Communication Leadership Adaptability/Flexibility Situational Awareness
Deck heating mitigation procedure for air capable ships
Deck Landing Qualifications (DLQs) without deck heating mitigation are authorized for sets of up to 5 consecutive landings in the same orientation. A cool down interval of 5 minutes is required between each landing for each 1 minute of V-22 on deck time. On deck time greater than 5 minutes requires nacelle modulation, except ships where where heat shields are required, where on deck times exceeding 3 minutes require the insertion of heat shields. Additionally, after the completion of a set of up to 5 consecutive landings, a cool down period of 20 minutes is required prior to follow-on V-22 landings at the same spot and orientation (NATOPS 8.2.3.3.3)
Contrast, distance estimation and depth perception?
Decrease because of scattering
Can reduce FLIR image quality through?
Decrease in thermal contrast
CLOSING
Decreasing in range.
DAS
Deep air support: unrestricted forces beyond the FLOT, no detailed integration required
Anti-Jam
Defensive measure used to prevent the enemy from gaining unauthorized interception of our communications or jamming our communications. Provides transmission security (TRANSEC) through frequency hopping
If NVGs are hit with laser, what could happen?
Degain/Shutdown Could cause immediate damage
Optical Flow
Degraded
Specified task
Delegated in mission tasking
Two types of TRAP
Deliberate and immediate
Columbus procedures.
Deliberate navigational deviations shall be preceded with the pro word "COLUMBUS" and the direction and distance of the deviation from a checkpoint or key terrain feature.
Columbus
Deliberate navigational deviations shall be preceded with the proword "COLUMBUS" and the direction and distance of the deviation from a checkpoint or key terrain feature.
COLUMBUS*
Deviation from the briefed route due to threat, weather, timing.
DASC
Direct Air Support Center: The DASC is a subordinate operations component of a tactical air control system designed for control and direction of close air support and other tactical air support operations. The DASC is normally collocated with fire-support coordination elements. The DASC processes immediate direct air support requests, controls assigned aircraft (through procedural control), and coordinates aircraft employment with supporting arms.
LOAL max trajectories for Direct, Low and High
Direct: 400'. Low: 800'. High: 1400'
BLOW THROUGH
Directive / informative call that indicates aircraft will continue straight ahead at the merge and not turn with the target.
SUNSHINE
Directive / informative that target illumination is being conducted with artificial illumination.
COVER (ING)**
Directive / informative to take S/A action or establish an A/A posture that will allow engagement of a specified target or threat.
SLIDE
Directive call to HVAA to continue present mission while extending range from target in response to perceived threat.
HOOK**
Directive for free aircraft to maneuver for unobserved forward quarter shot. Joint: perform an in-place 180 degree turn.
HOOK**
Directive for free aircraft to maneuver for unobserved forward quarter shot. Joint: perform an in-place 180 degree turn.
PADLOCKED
Directive to aircrew to maintain VID of an aircraft or surface position to prevent losing TALLY / VISUAL.
COVER*
Directive to assume support position and responsibilities.
ABORT (ING), (ED)
Directive to cease action, attack, event or mission.
PRESS
Directive to continue the attack; mutual support will be maintained. Supportive role will be assumed.
BUSTER
Directive to fly max continuous speed (military power).
BUSTER [A/A]
Directive to fly max continuous speed (military power).
COMEOFF (LEFT / RIGHT / LOW / DRY)
Directive to maneuver to either regain mutual support or to deconflict flight paths for an exchange of engaged and supporting roles. Implies both visual and tally.
SNAKE
Directive to oscillate an IR pointer at a target.
BREAK (DIRECTION)
Directive to perform an immediate maximum performance turn in the indicated direction. Assumes a defensive situation.
GOGGLE / DEGOGGLE
Directive to put on / take off NVGs.
SHIFT
Directive to shift laser illumination.
LASER ON
Directive to start laser designation.
STEADY
Directive to stop oscillation of IR pointer.
CLOAK
Directive to switch from normal external lighting to covert NVD only compatible lighting.
TEN SECONDS
Directive to terminal controller to standby for laser on call in approximately 10 seconds.
YARDSTICK
Directive to use A/A TACAN for ranging.
Moon is brightest where?
Directly overhead *A quarter moon directly overhead may provide more ileum than a full moon at a low angle
CEASE FIRE
Discontinue firing/do not open fire. Missiles in flight are allowed to continue to intercept; continue to track.
CEASE (activity)
Discontinue stated activity (e.g. CEASE BUZZER, CEASE LASER, CEASE SPARKLE).
Fog differs from clouds only by?
Distance to the ground
CEASE FIRE
Do not open fire; discontinue firing; complete intercept if weapons are in flight; continue to track.
Depth of field?
Dramatically decreases at short distances
Wet Light Plowed Soil or Dry Dark Soil
Dry Dark Soil
Gearbox Temp
Dual Engine Single Engine 132° High Warning 121° 110-132° High Caution 110-121° 20-110° Normal 20-110° 20° Low Caution 20°
The RWS responds to radar signals associated with hostile search, track, and fire control radar in the ____ to ____ frequency bands, spiral antennas. Missile guidance signals in the ____ and ____ bands, blade monopoles.
E - J. C and D.
ENG OIL LEVEL LOW
ENG oil level is at 1.4 quarts remaining.
BURN
EO / IR illuminator is being used to provide illumination of suface points of interest.
EMCON PROCEDURES Level Three.
ESM threat is negligible, as compared to the fire power threat to survival. Only essential radio transmissions will be made and aircraft emitters will be used as required.
EMCON Level 1
ESM threat is negligible, as compared to the fire power threat to survival. Only essential radio transmissions will be made and aircraft emitters will be used as required. "
(EPA)
EVASION PLAN OF ACTION
Gingerbread
Each station can have two tries to authenticate, then call gingerbread. Net is compromised, marks a call sign as a potential spoofed
Thick dense clouds
Easily seen with NVGs Reduce Illumination from moon
BUZZER
Electronic communications jamming.
MUSIC
Electronic radar jamming (on AI radar, electronic deceptive jamming).
What are elements of LZ brief?
Elevation. Location. Mark. Obstacles. Winds. Friendlies. Enemies. Remarks.
Evacuee category IV
Eligible non-Americans who are seriously ill, injured, or whose lives are in imminent peril (but who do not qualify for a higher priority)
EEAT
Emergency Expected Approach Time - Future time assigned prior to launch where aircraft are cleared to depart inbound from a pre-assigned fix during lost comm
EFB
Emergency Final Bearing - Magnetic heading provided prior to launch used for lost comm. It is the final bearing for a lost comm TACAN approach
EM
Emergency Marshal
ERB
Emergency Recovery Bearing
ESA
Emergency Safe Altitude (ESA) - An altitude that provides a minimum of 1000 ft clearance above the highest obstacle that is within 25 nm either side of course line.
SCRAM (DIRECTION)
Emergency directive to egress for defensive or survival reasons.
Emergency mission precedence
Emergency precedence is assigned for missions involving the safety of US or other friendly lives and missions requiring immediate transport of vital supplies or equipment.
BEEHIVE*
Execute the scatter plan / then proceed to the Rendezvous Point as briefed.
Fe
External load drag. Calculated by HAT team. Can be entered into JMPS
TRAP EXTRACT SIGNAL PRIMARY AND ALTERNATE
Extract signal. The primary signal to extract the recovery force should be radio; the alternate shall be specified in planning / briefing. Once signaled, the RV shall return to the LZ (if holding elsewhere), landing in the same formation as the insert. The signal to lift the flight remains the same.
Two aircraft you can simultaneous refuel with:
FA-18 and AV-8
True or False: With a transfer alignment value of 9 and a TSS boresight of 111, you can NOT accurately provide laser energy for a Hellfire autonomous shot.
False
When does the Fuel Boost Pump turn on
Feed Boost Pump kicks on automatically at 565 lb level in Feed Tank
COMMIT (TED)
Fighter intent to engage / intercept; controller continues to provide information.
List mandatory read backs for restrictions:
Final attack headings. ACAs. TOT. Lateral and altitude separation. Approval forward of the HA/BP. Post Launch Abort. Danger close with commanders initials.
WEAPONS FREE
Fire only at targets not identified as friendly IAW current ROE.
WEAPONS TIGHT
Fire only at targets positively identified as hostile IAW current ROE.
Weapons Tight
Fire only at targets positively identified as hostile.
WEAPONS HOLD
Fire only in self-defense or in response to a formal order. NOTE USN / NATO use "weapons safe" to avoid confusion with the phrase "hold fire."
Weapons Hold
Fire only in self-defense. This is the most restrictive weapons control condition. Clearance to fire shall be in accordance with ROE.
FFFTDA
Fires fuels freqs triggers deconfliction accountability
_______ can be used on short final to slightly extend the flare.
Flaps FULL
Image flickering
Flashing, flickering or intermittent operation may be impending failure of the tube, faulty wiring, or impending battery failure
Bright Spots
Flaw in the film on the I2 tubes MCP.
Starboard Delta
Flown at 300ft, 80 KCAS Upwind at 1NM abeam turn outboard on 045 degree relative bearing to turn downwind at 3NM abeam. Turn inbound at the 110 degree relative bearing.
Port Delta
Flown at 300ft, 80 KCAS Upwind at 3NM abeam turn outboard on 315 degree relative bearing to turn downwind at 5NM abeam. Turn inbound at the 225 degree relative bearing.
GATE
Fly as quickly as possible, using afterburner/max power.
SAUNTER
Fly at best endurance.
FEET WET / DRY
Flying over water / land.
From where should STO take place
For LHD class ships STO should be commenced abeam spot 4 along the port side spots longitudinal line up line. For LHA class ships STO shall be conducted along the V-22 STO line (NATOPS 8.3.1.2)
range and line of sight limitations of an unamplified man pack radio
MANPADS threat with a range of 3 NM in the LZ
What is the tactical advantage of a MATA straight in?
MATA straight-in approaches enable aircraft to stay as far away from a threat for the longest possible time by remaining aloft and delaying the descent
what pub would you check to move troops with explosive cargo
MCO 4030.19I
Difference between MEDEVAC and CASEVAC
MEDEVAC - defined by Geneva conventions as permanent medical aircraft staffed by noncombatants. USMC has no MEDEVAC capability. CASEVAC - personnel onboard are combatants, not protected under Geneva.
When you do a middle finger pull, what comes off the aircraft?
MIDDLE FINGER = REACTIVE RING FINGER = PROACTIVE PULL = FLARE PUSH = CHAFF Ring Ringer Pull = (Short: 5 & 10) / (Long: 8 &16) Ring Finger Push = Predetermined Chaff Middle Finger Pull = 5 or 10 Middle Finger Push = Crow Response SETTINGS: 1- SHORT W/ TACTICAL REPEAT 2- LONG W/ TACTICAL REPEAT 3- SHORT 4- LONG >150' & >60kts = 57s >150' & <60kts = Flare of FWD bucket <150' & <60kts = No FWD bucket
Overt flare
MJU-32
Nomenclature and types of expendables
MJU-32: OVERT FLARE MJU-49: IR FLARE MJU-57: FWD FIRING RR-129: CHAFF RR-144: TRAINING CHAFF
Covert flare
MJU-49
Forward firing flare (kinematic)
MJU-57
Hydraulic system number 1 powers:
MRA. Oil cooler fan motor, primary. Tail rotor actuator, primary. Rotor brake. Cyclic secondary boost actuators. Pitch SCAS. Yaw SCAS.
Hydraulic system number 2 powers:
MRA. Oil cooler fan, backup. Tail rotor actuator, backup. Roll SCAS.
Loss of MRGB oil pressure and CBOX rising oil temperature numbers for helo unflyable.
MRGB: 15 minutes. CBOX: 2.5 minutes.
Fuel summary page in CMS
MSN > FUEL PLANNING Displays: planned (PLN) and actual (ACT) fuel usage fuel remaining at the end of each leg predicted fuel reserves at the destination.
Continuous illumination
MV-22 to release the first string of flares at a preplanned time. Once the initial flares are released, the aircraft will enter a pattern that allows the subsequent strings of flares to be released and ignited prior to the burnout of the preceding flares in order to provide constant illumination of an area for a set period of time or as directed by the mission commander.
List the symbols for the threats HMSD and DFD: MW threat, RF threat, Laser Threat, HFI.
MW threat: Christmas tree and letter M. RF Threat: Triangle and Letter R. Laser threat: Astrick and letter L. HFI: G in diamond and Letter G.
Mandatory calls in objective area
Made on TAD if JTAC available Made on predetermined freq if no JTAC 1. (Checkpoint) Prior 2. Winter/devil 3. Continue/Hold 4. (IP) Inbound 5. Waveoff/lifting
PIGEONS (LOCATION)
Magnetic bearing and range to homeplate (or specified destination).
FLIR has the ability to?
Magnify and Slew
0 Ps
Maintain Current E state
Washout effect does what to navigation?
Makes use of FLIR hazardous
Mandatory mission precedence
Mandatory precedence is assigned for missions involving possible loss of human life or national prestige to the extent that normally unacceptable risks are taken in their accomplishment.
OFFSET (DIRECTION)
Maneuver in a specified direction with reference to the target.
ENGAGED**
Maneuvering against an air threat (offensive or defensive). Joint: Intra-flight call from an aircraft maneuvering in the visual arena to relinquish deconfliction responsibilities.
ENGAGED**
Maneuvering against an air threat (offensive or defensive). Joint: Intra-flight call from an aircraft maneuvering in the visual arena to relinquish deconfliction responsibilities.
Energy Bleed Region of the E-M diagram
Maneuvering where the pilot will have to trade airspeed and/or altitude in order to achieve an angle of bank.
The load plan assigns serials, both ______________, to each aircraft in each wave.
Marines and cargo
MACO AIRCRAFT MARKINGS
Mark aircraft with Arabic numbers in the windows using white reflective/duct tape. For NVG operations, white reflective/duct tape is easily visible through NVDs.
Thermal signature of clouds can do what to terrain?
Mask thermal signature of terrain due to scattered or emitted radiation.
Maximum Range / Maximum Effective range for M240D
Max Range: 3725m Max Effective Range: 1200m"
Maximum Range / Maximum Effective range / TOF / 1/2 TOF for GAU-16
Max Range: 6500m Max Effective Range: 1850m TOF: 679m 1/2 TOF: 373m"
Types of climbs
Max rate Max angle Max range Enroute airspeed
Thermal inertia
Measure of the rate at which objects change temperature
System Gain
Measured with the I2 tube placed in the NVG and measures the brightness of the output picture as compared with the input
Medium threat
Medium Threat. An air threat environment in which the specific aircraft performance and weapons systems capability allow acceptable exposure time to enemy air defenses.
Key feature of the FLIR?
Mid and Far IR ability
MAGR
Miniaturized Airborne Global Positioning System Receiver (MAGR) The MAGR (GPS) uses satellite information and internal computers to provide date, time, lat/long, altitude, and velocity of the aircraft to the INSs and MCs. It also provides date and coordinated universal time
This is defined as the lowest equivalent thermal difference between a target and it's background that can be detected by an observer using the particular FLIR system.
Minimal resolvable temperature difference.
Max angle
Minimize distance traveled while climbing (IOT get to altitude while still over friendly territory)
Max rate
Minimize time spent in a climb IOT transit threat envelopes expeditiously
Min alt capable
Minimum Altitude Capable (MAC) - That altitude below comfort level at which the pilot is capable of performing terrain clearance tasks only.
MSA
Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) - An altitude that provides a minimum of 500 feet clearance above the highest obstacle that is within 5 NM either side of course line
What is the purpose of the AN/AAR-47B(V)2
Missile Warning Set (MWS) is designed to passively detect attacking IR missiles and battlefield lasers (Range Finder, Target Designator, and Beam Rider missiles), while minimizing false alarms.
AAR-47 function
Missile warning set, passively detects attacking IR missiles and battlefield lasers (Range Finder, Target Designator, and Beam Rider missiles). MWS sensors operate in the ultraviolet (UV) spectrum For laser detection, the sensor detects laser pulses in the 0.5 to 1.6 micron region For Hostile Fire Indication (HFI), the AN/AAR-47 evaluates the same UV photon count streams that the missile warning detection algorithms use.
MESM
Mission Essential Subsystem Matrix- What determines PMC or FMC -Can I fly without it?
What are the elements of a CAS check in?
Mission Number Number and type of aircraft Position and altitude Ordnance Time on station available Capabilities Abort code
MCA
Mission coordination area Soda
(MOPP)
Mission-Oriented Protective Posture
Warhead fuze combinations Flechette: Mk 149, WDU-4A/A.
Mk 149: Model 113A. WDU-4A/A: Model 113A.
Which smoke rocket has improved cook off characteristics and does not require special handling?
Mk 67 mod 1.
Warhead fuze combinations Smoke and Illumination: Mk 67, M 156, M 257, M 278.
Mk 67: M427, Mk 352 mod 2. M 156: M 427. Illum: M 442.
How to say yes to training mode:
Mode - STBY, PRGM - 1, hold in BIT. After it asks "RESET INVENTORY" and "TURN ON FTI" it asks "TURN ON TRN." Toggle PRGRM to 2 for yes, to BIT for no.
India
Mode IV
INDIA
Mode IV IFF.
INDIA
Mode IV.
Amount of light Moon provides based on these 4 factors
Moon Phase (lunar cycle) Moon Angle Lunar Albedo Earth-Moon Distance
More MCP channels provides two things?
More Pixels (Higher resolution) Smaller Halos
Heavy Rain
More discernible due to luminance blocking and rain on windscreen
Mid IR energy passes _____ through small water particles?
More easily
Atmospheric Conditions
Most important environmental factor controlling performance of NVGs
Mowed Grass vs Tall Grass
Mowed Grass
Effects on 3-5 Micron FLIRs?
Much less
Essential task
Must be achieved to accomplish the mission
ASTACSOP fan break vs. NATOPS fan break
NATOPS makes you hold for 30 seconds?
List the 4 restrictive FSCMs.
NFA RFL RFA ACA memory aid: no rockets for ryan, arse!.
Is it compatible with the HUD
NO
Scintillation
NOISE. Sparkling as light level decreases
Unaided Peripheral Cueing
NVG and helmet design so that there is considerable unaided peripheral viewing capability depending on ileum level, terrain type and artificial light sources
Nacelle position when the aircraft is more susceptible to a main landing gear lifting off of the deck during an uncommanded roll on deck event.
Nacelle angles less than 85 degrees (NATOPS 8.2.3.3)
The 3 ones indicate what.
Narrow (N), Very Narrow (VN), and TV Narrow.
Illumination
Natural or Artificial -lux -lumen/meter squared
AUTHORIZED AIRFIELDS
Naval aircraft are authorized to operate at and land at all U.S. military and joint civil-military airfields.
PNAC
Navigation, avoiding obstacles, directing the pilot as required to keep aircraft on course -backup pilot on altitude/airspeed -Monitor closure, drift, altitude and rate of descent during approaches -Make altitude calls from the RADALT -During wave call out Rate of climb, aircraft attitude, airspeed, altitude and engine performance -Switches
Thin wispy clouds
Near IR energy (shorter wavelengths) have better chance of passing through clouds without being scattered These clouds could be invisible on NVGs Degrade NVG image
List three things required to have HAVEQUICK communications:
Net ID. Time of Day. Word of day or Multiple word of day.
List 4 things required to have SINCGARS communication.
Net ID. Transec. Hopset. Lockout set.
GINGERBREAD* (CALL SIGN)
Net compromised; an unreliable, suspect or operator (call sign) failed proper authentication. Joint: Voice imitative deception is suspected on this net.
GINGERBREAD* (CALLSIGN)
Net compromised; an unreliable, suspect or operator (call sign) failed proper authentication.
Sensor tasking brevity terms define: Neutral, Offensive, and Defensive.
Neutral: Lead is friendly focused, dash 2 is scanning objective area then back to friendlies. Offensive: Both scan objective area. Defensive: Lead on friendly, dash 2 sanitizes route ahead of friendlies.
If an engine failure is detected based on ____ less than ____ for the failed engine, the torque gauge for the operating engine resets to OEI limits.
Ng. 60 percent.
What are the restrictions placed on night or IMC transitions
Night or IMC transitions shall not be initiated below 500ft. Frequency changes, or other routine cockpit tasks shall not be performed during night or IMC transitions (NATOPS 8.3.1.3)
Can you do TACFORM in Cruise?
No
ARIZONA
No ARM ordnance remaining.
NAKED
No RWR indications.
Naked
No RWR indications. Opposite of SPIKE/MUD/DIRT/SINGER.
EMCON 4
No emitters will be used unless specifically authorized by the plan that TAAR is supporting (ATO, SPINS, rules of engagement [ROE], operations plan, safe passage procedures, or other mission directive).
"Hats off"
No longer role playing
Command bars deselected
No lower than 200 AGL
Limitations for lowering a life raft while in a hover
No lower than 50' AGL day and 100' AGL night
WINCHESTER
No ordnance remaining.
2.75 inch rocket fuzes are classified according to their location in the warhead. the two classifications are ____ and _____ fuze. Further classified into 3 modes of operation.
Nose. Base. Point detonation. Acceleration deceleration. Mechanical time.
NO FACTOR
Not a threat.
Implied task
Not specified but required for mission
What does "O1", "O2", "CH", and "FL" mean on the CDU/DCDU?
O1: "OTHER 1" INHIBITS FWD FIRING FLARES O2: "OTHER 2" INHIBITS COVERT FLARES CH: "CHAFF" INHIBITS CHAFF FL: "FLARE" INHIBITS OVERT FLARES
Failure of the SDC will cause a loss of _________, _________, and __________. There is no means to mechanically disengage the SDC.
OBIGGS/OBOGS, ECS, wing deice, and avionics particle separator scavenge air.
Power Switch
ON-respective battery Off
Main components of Image intensifier tubes
Objective Lens Photocathode: Photons into electrons MCP: Multiplies electrons Phosphor screen: Electrons into photons Fiber optic inverter: Flips image Diopter Lens: Focus image on retina
What are the 4 Positions at the Tanker?
Observation Astern Contact Reform
• What are the different positions for Aerial Refueling?
Observation, Astern, Contact, Reform
When does INT Power activate and turn on/off?
Off: >60kts OR <70° NAC. On: <55 kts AND >70° NAC
Nacelle modulation procedure with an inoperable coanda exhaust deflector
On deck idling not to exceed 10 minutes is acceptable using the 5/5 minute modulation technique 1. Immediately after landing or engine start the nacelles shall be rotated to 70 degrees for no more than 5 minutes 2. The nacelles shall then be rotated to 90 degrees for no more than 5 minutes after which time the aircraft shall launch or the over deck engine(s) shall be shutdown 3. A 60 minute cool down period is required before the restart of an engine with an inoperable coanda exhaust deflector system or follow on landings to the same spot and orientation. (NATOPS 8.2.3.3.3a)
Nacelle modulation procedure with an operable coanda exhaust deflector
On deck idling not to exceed 90 minutes is acceptable using 10/15 minute modulation technique 1. within 10 minutes of landing or engine start, rotate nacelles to 70 degrees for 15 minutes, then 97 degrees for 10 minutes and repeat. 2. If the aircraft is launched within 10 minutes of setting the 90 or 97 degree position, nacelles shall be rotated to the 70 degree position for a minimum of 5 minutes immediately prior to setting nacelle angle for launch. 3. If on deck idling time reaches 90 minutes, over deck engine shall be shut down. 4. A 20 minute cool down period is required before restart of any over-deck engine or aircraft recovery at the same spot and orientation. (NATOPS 8.2.3.3.3a)
Brightness difference
One image appears brighter than another
THUNDER
One minute until air-to-surface ordnance impact.
What are you allowed to FCF as a TAC?
Only a Ground Turn as a TAC and not FCP NATOPS: min crew req for GT is a TAC and a plane captain. GT for leak checks shall be conducted during the daylight period only.
In a high threat environment what types of communications should be used
Only active and secure comms
SQUAWK ( )
Operate IFF as indicated or IFF is operating as indicated.
Blue Water Operations
Operations where sufficient fuel is not available to conduct a bingo profile to a suitable divert
Sweet
Operative or up equipment
We optimize NVGs for flight by setting them to?
Optical infinity *Things very close or cockpit instruments will be blurry
CONTINUE DRY
Ordnance release not authorized.
Evacuee category V
Others eligible (as directed by ambassador or joint force commander)
What band does it protect against?
Out of band filter protects tubes
Hellfire firing order.
Outboard to inboard, bottom to top then move to next rail and repeat.
FL on ALE-47
Overt flare
What is the nomenclatures for our overt, covert, and flare simulators?
Overt: MJU-32. Covert: MJU-49. SIM: SM-875.
AN/AVS-9R uses what type of phosphor?
P43 phosphor with a spectral output in the green that closely matches the peak sensitivity of the human eye
IIMC procedures
PAC immediately advise crew, transition to instrument scan until advised by the crew that VMC has been regained PNAC will back up the PAC by monitoring the instruments, ensuring pre briefed procedures are followed and scanning outside to regain VMC
How does the N-5 differ from the N?
Software change to lower the angle of attack on impact for the LOBL and LOAL-DIR only.
Four principle sources of thermal energy
Solar Fuel combustion Frictional Heat Thermal reflection
SLAP
Solar Lunar Almanac Program
Emergencies while wearing NS
PNAC remain goggled to retain outside visual cues while simultaneously assisting PAC. Other crew members should also remain goggled , clear the aircraft of obstacles, and assist the pilot as necessary. Other crew members can be used to locate various switches and circuit breakers, not easily accessible to the pilot.
BEADWINDOW CODES 01 02 03 04 05 06 07
POSITION CAPABILITIES OPERATIONS ELECTRONIC WARFARE PERSONNEL COMSEC WRONG CIRCUIT
Loss of ELS function with a subsequent ________________ dictates an immediate landing.
PRGB PRESS LOST
MOTHER
Parent ship.
Mother
Parent vessel
How should brake and nosewheel be configured for landings on the boat
Parking brake set ON, and Nosewheel locked
(PET)
Patient Evacuation Team
Black body
Perfect absorber and emitter of radiant energy
HOLSTER*
Perform battle damage checks.
PEEPSHOW
Perform non-traditional ISR on target / track
PEEPSHOW
Perform nontraditional ISR on the referenced target/track.
Different Types of AD
Personnel and Cargo
Electrons exiting the MCP are in turn accelerated forward maintaining their relative spatial position until they strike and excite the?
Phosphor Screen
What are the three primary internal components of the GEN-3 tubes?
Photocathode, Micro-channel plate, Phosphor screen.
Since reflection dominates the portion of the spectrum that NVGs occupy, they are dependent entirely on?
Some sort of external illumination to view the scene
Sparrowhawk / Bald eagle
Sparrowhawk - Reinforce platoon-sized QRF element Bald eagle - Reinforced company-sized QRF element
Who may engage rotors/engines of a tiltrotor AC
Pilots only
Where can you conduct LAT?
Pilots shall conduct low altitude flight in restricted airspace, MOAs, and on published Military Training Routes. Wing/MAGTF commanders may designate other low altitude training areas.
Flight Leader Expectations
Plan - FL is in charge of all assigned assets, be the leader in the planning Brief - Cover what everyone needs to know and do not go into TMS details as the AFL Execution - Be in charge, success or failure is your responsibility
PIM
Point of Intended Movement- Where the carrier is expected to be (LAT/LONG) at a certain time
three basic BI targets
Point target Linear target Area target
LIGHTING CONDITION 1
Position bright Anticollisions (AC) on (top and bottom)
Position light configurations for landing on the boat
Position lights flashing if left seat is landing and steady if right seat is landing.
Primary cause of photocathode end of life is?
Positive Ion Bombardment
Out of Band
Possesses output wavelengths outside the sensitivity of the sensor
+Ps
Power to climb or accelerate
Two types of CASEVAC
Pre planned and immediate
Golden freq
Pre-briefed intraflight freq upon which all members of a flight can be marshaled ICO comm degradation (usually single channel UHF clear)
GOLDEN FREQUENCY*
Pre-briefed intraflight frequency upon which all members of a flight can be marshalled in event of comm degradation; typically single-channel UHF (clear).
GOLDEN FREQUENCY*
Pre-briefed intraflight frequency upon which all members of a flight can be marshalled in event of comm degradation; typically single-channel UHF (clear).
Desert
Presents a washed out image through NVGs due to poor contrast and terrain density -Gradually rising terrain and ridge lines can be particularly difficult
Clear moonlit night
Spend majority of time looking out towards the horizon and down to the terrain
Prohibited spots for landing on an LHD
Spot 1
What must be on while in local class D airspace?
Spotlight or Landing light
Prohibited spots for landing on an LHA
Spots, 3A, 5, and 6
Types of descents
Standard Tactical Max
PRIFLY
Primary Flight Control (Tower) - Supervises flight deck activity and provides recovery, launch, and operational control of aircraft within towers control zone.
Pilot at the Controls
Primary emphasis and attention must be devoted outside the aircraft during NVG operations -Can aide in navigation by calling out checkpoints or visual references
Absorption
Primary source of atmospheric attenuation
• When is the fuel sample taken & How long is a fuel sample good for?
Prior to the activation of the apu at the start of the day. It's good for 24 hrs.
Requires medical treatment within four hours to prevent a medical condition from deteriorating to Urgent or to prevent unnecessary pain or disability.
Priority
State the difference between pro-word and codeword (brevity codes)
Pro-word: are a single word or phrase used to rapidly convey standardized information. Used to pass procedural info during mission execution and are not meant to keep info from the enemy (eg - buster, bingo) Codeword: used to keep the meaning of the word classified from the enemy (eg - an execution check list item)"
Buster
Proceed at max speed
Flashing Red ALDIS Lamp
Proceed to alternate field/ship
DIVERT
Proceed to alternate mission/base.
Proficiency
Proficiency - Proficiency is a measure of achievement of a specific skill. Proficiency Period - establishes the maximum time between syllabus Events. Specified T&R Events have a Proficiency Period, measured in number of days/months, that indicates the period within which the event must be reflown or updated. To attain Individual Skill proficiency, an individual must be simultaneously proficient in all events for that Skill. Individuals may be attaining proficiency in some skills while maintaining proficiency in others.
• Define currency and proficiency?
Proficiency - refers to when an individual has demonstrated an event in relation to the refly factor. Currency - based on exposure frequency to a particular skill, by measuring the time since the last event within the refly factor.
Difference between currency/proficiency:
Proficiency is a time elapse in reference to the T&R Currency is a time elapsed in reference to SOP "You can be Proficient but not Current"
Purpose
Protect NVG tubes from laser energy
Purpose of an EOTDA
Provides performance prediction of a weapon or sensor system
Bald Eagle
QRF: a reinforced company-size GCE element
Sparrowhawk:
QRF: reinforced platoon-size GCE element
100% Nr Over-Torque 84% Nr Over-torque
Qm Greater than 132% for 5 sec OR Qm = 150% Qm Greater than 110% for 5 Sec OR Qm = 126%
TAKEOFF MINS
Standard instrument rating — Published minimums for the available NPA, but not less than 300-foot ceiling and 1-statute mile visibility. When a precision approach compatible with installed and operable aircraft equipment is available, with published minimums less than 300/1, takeoff is authorized provided the weather is at least equal to the precision approach minimums for the landing runway in use, but in no case when the weather is less than 200-foot ceiling and 1/2-statute-mile visibility/2,400-foot runway visual range (RVR).
Avoid excessive proprotor downwash effects
Stay above 150 AWL for water Ops, 50 AGL land Ops
Emission Points
Steady or flickering pinpoints of bright light in the NVG image area.
Light rain/mist
Still able to gain some information
STINGER
Stinger within a group, a formation of three or more aircraft with a single aircraft in trail.
STOP
Stop IR illumination of target.
How low will fuel dump drain the fuel system before it automatically secures?
Stopped manually or by FMU 60±10 sec after the total on-board transfer and quantity is less than 500lbs. (does not dump Feed Tanks, but all other fuel could be dumped)
Aircrew laser eye protection
Structure of NVG tube acts as a mechanical stop, but peripheral is not protected
Mission of VMM
Support the MAGTF commander by providing assault support transport of combat troops, supplies, and equipment, day or night, under all weather conditions during expeditionary, joint, or combined operations.
Control Zone
Surface to 2500 ft, 10 nm diameter. Tower controlled
Control area
Surface to unlimited, 100 nm diameter. Controlled by AATC or TACC
EMPTY NEST*
Survivors not located.
Signal for ready to launch at night
Switch lights from steady to flashing
PUSH (CHANNEL)
Switch to designated frequency; no acknowledgment required.
POGO
Switch to previously assigned frequency.
POGO**
Switch to previously assigned frequency.
CLOAK/CLOAKING
Switch/switching from normal/overt external lighting to covert NVD only compatible lighting.
(system) SICK
System indicated is degraded/partially operative. Cancelled by SWEET.
BENT
System indicated is inoperative.
(system) BENT
System indicated is inoperative. Cancelled by SWEET.
Element RIO with Flight Leader, Mission Commander, C2 Agencies (as required)
T-10:00
Element RIO Load Troops
T-15:00
Start
T-20:00
Man Aircraft
T-30:00
Taxi
T-5:00
FAC(A) capabilities:
TAC 1,2,3. Radio relay. Reconnaissance. Indirect CFF. Asset coordination/deconfliction. BDA. Target marking. SEAD coordination.
Battle damage checks, flight of two
TAC wing slides into cruise to inspect lead. Wing then crosses over and checks top, then other side. When done, initiate a lead change. Repeat.
FATHER
TACAN station.
_____, _____, ______ are all critical for entering autorotation.
TCL, nacelle position, and airspeed
Tac Turn Procedure
Tac Turns are maneuvers to change the direction of the element from 45 to 120 degrees (i.e., 90 degrees is assumed)
TACRON
Tactical Air Control Squadron
TAOC
Tactical Air Operations Center (TAOC) is the MACCS's principal air defense agency that conducts airspace control and management. Through radar inputs from its organic sensors and data link information from other military radar units (MRU), the TAOC provides real-time surveillance of assigned airspace in addition to air direction, positive aircraft control, and navigational assistance to friendly aircraft.
Tactical approach timing
Tactical approaches as described from a 3-NM CvP average between 1+45 and 2+15 minutes to wheels on deck
What is the proword "BRAA".
Tactical control format containing bearing, range, altitude, aspect relative to the specified friendly aircraft
BRAA
Tactical control format providing target bearing, range, altitude and aspect, relative to a friendly aircraft
BRAA
Tactical control format providing target bearing, range, altitude and aspect, relative to a friendly aircraft.
List the operating wavelengths of lasers: Tactical, ESAF, IR PTR, IRAD.
Tactical: 1.064. Eye Safe: 1.57. IR pointer: 0.86. IR alignement diode: 0.83.
WARNING
Take caution when handling NVGs. The phosphor screen material is very toxic. If there is serious damage to the NVG housing frame, it may allow for the toxic phosphor screen material to escape. Do not inhale or touch this material.
SCRAMBLE
Takeoff as quickly as possible.
AAR-47 verbatim description
The AN/AAR-47 MWS is a passive electro-optical threat warning system designed with integrated laser warning circuits to detect surface-to-air missiles and warn of laser aided or laser guided threats, and warn of small arms and unguided munitions threats.
ALE-47 verbatim description
The AN/ALE-47 countermeasures dispensing system (CMDS) is an integrated, reprogrammable, threat-adaptive, computer controlled aircraft defense system designed to provide protection against hostile radar and infrared threats through the use of expendable decoys.
APR-39 verbatim description
The APR-39A(V)2 radar signal detecting set(RSDS)is a threat detection and warning system designed tomonitor, detect, classify, locate, and track external radio frequency(RF) emitter platforms in the aircraft's operating environment.
The High Sink Rate Indicator will be displayed when _______ when decreasing speed and will be displayed until 63 kts when increasing speed. If the vertical velocity becomes invalid the High Sink Rate Indicator will not be shown.
The High Sink Rate Indicator will be displayed when nacelles are greater than 65 and airspeed is below 60 kts when decreasing speed and will be displayed until 63 kts when increasing speed. If the vertical velocity becomes invalid the High Sink Rate Indicator will not be shown.
How does the Kalman Filter work?
The Kalman Filter checks the INS position 50 times a second and compares that position to the GPS position. It then filters out the GPS noise and the induced error in the INS to arrive at an estimated position. During the next observation, the Kalman Filter makes its position estimate based on its previous estimated position updated to the predicted present position. The result is a "blended" position. The process is then repeated: Check INS Compare to GPS Filter Estimate
Explain GPS/INS Blending
The Kalman Filter is a mathematical formula (software) that allows GPS/INS blending. In electronic terms, the two systems have their own strengths and weaknesses. The INS is electronically "quiet" but has a predictable drift. The GPS is electronically "noisy" but has no drift.
Kalman Filter
The Kalman Filter is a mathematical program that blends the Global Positioning System (GPS) data with the INS data to provide a very accurate position. Mission Computers (MCs) correlate the Inertial Navigation System (INS) data with active flight plans or search patterns to create navigation overlays and cues.
Qualification
Qualification (QUAL) - Qualifications are assigned to personnel based on demonstration of proficiency in a specific skill. All qualifications are assigned one or more T&R qualification Events. When all qualification requirements and Events are completed, the individual may be granted the respective qualification by the commanding officer or in the case of aviation ground communities, as directed in their respective T&R Manual. Proficiency status of these qualification Events are used to determine qualification status; an individual qualification status may be either "Qualified" or "Not Qualified." Specific re-qualification criteria shall be delineated in individual T&R manuals.
Qualification (QUAL)
Qualifications are assigned to personnel based on demonstration of proficiency in a specific skill. All qualifications are assigned one or more T&R qualification events. When all qualification requirements and events are completed, the individual may be granted the respective qualification by the commanding officer or in the case of aviation ground communities, as directed in their respective T&R Manual. Proficiency status of these qualification events are used to determine qualification status; an individual qualification status may be either "Qualified" or "Not Qualified." Specific re-qualification criteria shall be delineated in individual T&R manuals.
RESCAP
RESCAP is an aircraft patrol provided over a TRAP objective area for the purpose of intercepting and destroying hostile aircraft. Its primary purpose is to protect the CSAR task force (CSARTF) during recovery operations. RESCAP aircraft will perform the following tasks: • Patrol over and protect the survivor until the CSARTF arrives. • Assist the TRAP aircraft in locating and authenticating the survivor. • Assist rescue escort (RESCORT) in suppressing ground threats. • Protect against and ensure suppression of airborne threats. • Function as OSC until other elements of the CSARTF arrive.
SINGER (TYPE / DIRECTION)
RWR indication of SAM launch.
Singer
RWR indication of SAM launch.
SPIKE
RWR indication of an AI threat in track or launch.
SPIKE/SPIKED (direction)
RWR indication of an AI threat in track or launch.
Spike
RWR indication of an AI threat in track or launch.
DIRT
RWR indication of surface threat in search mode.
Dirt
RWR indication of surface threat in search mode.
DIRT [S/A]
RWR indication of surface threat in search mode. See MUD.
List the nomenclature for the following ASE components: RWS, MLWS, and CMDS.
RWS: AN/APR-39BV2 MLWS: AN/AAR-47V2 CMDS: AN/ALE-47
BI drop patterns
Racetrack Continuous orbit Dogbone Continuous illumination
APR-39 function/description
Radar detection set
GADGET
Radar or emitter equipment.
What is the purpose of the AN/APR-39A(V)2
Radar signal detecting set (RSDS) is a threat detection and warning system designed to monitor, detect, classify, locate, and track external radio frequency (RF) emitter platforms in the aircraft's operating environment."
Zone signals. _____ is the primary means of signaling and communicating with rescue aircraft. The alternate methods are: A. Day: B. Night:
Radio A. signal mirror; day flare. B. strobe (IR hooded if possible), flashing red lens flashlight, night flare, pen flare or chemlight buzzsaw (IR if possible).
JACK
Radio call sign for isolated personnel when call sign is unknown
CHARLIE 1*
Radio designated for comm. external to the flight.
CHARLIE 2*
Radio designated for intraflight comm.
EMCON 3
Radio silent operations including formation, RV and TAAR. the use of other emitters is authorized unless specifically prohibited
Assault transport
Raid air assault R&S team insert QRF in-extremis hostage rescue
Luminous Gain
Ratio of the NVG's output brightness to the input illumination
Texture provides?
Recognition and depth perception cues
Does what to the amount of light coming in to the NVGs?
Reduces
BASE (+/-NUMBER)
Reference number used to indicate information such as headings, altitude, fuels, etc.
BASE (NUMBER)
Reference number used to indicate information such as headings, altitude, fuels, etc.
COMM 1/2/3
References the aircraft's physical number 1/2/3 radio.
Low, broken, or overcast clouds may do what with cultural lighting?
Reflect enough cultural lighting to help offset loss of lunar ileum
Below 3 Microns, the background is dominated by?
Reflected and scattered solar or lunar radiation
Mid IR energy combines the properties of?
Reflection and Radiation
Snow
Reflects about 85% of the energy
Attenuation of the light and thermal energy can occur by ___, ____ or ____?
Refraction, Absorption, or scattering
Bald eagle
Reinforced Company -size GCE QRF
Sparrowhawk
Reinforced Platoon-size GCE QRF
Steady Red ALDIS Lamp
Remain in or enter Delta Pattern
WARNING
Removal of the lanyard from the NVGs or twisting the lanyard around the upper part of the helmet is not authorized. The only authorized modification to the lanyard is the addition of velcro to the cord and helmet by gear issue per the NAVAIR instruction.
CUTOFF
Request / directive to intercept using cutoff geometry.
TACTICAL
Request / directive to switch to tactical control.
You're on final for the PAR into Miramar (wx is CAVU) with a new 2P, and your nose gear doesn't go down. Talk through the scenario and how you'd handle it.
Request 1600' left pattern for troubleshooting Request 800' LHD pattern for troubleshooting Contact base have them prep the mattresses Check fuel state Alt and Airspeed in the FDP: Hold Break out PCL Blow down steps Request another osprey to join Request tower fly by for light confirmation Use FLIR to confirm lock pin Make approach to Spot 4 when able Lock pins before taxi
ALPHA CHECK**
Request for / confirmation of bearing and range to described point. Joint: [A/A] Request for / confirmation of bearing and range from described point to requesting aircraft.
ALPHA CHECK**
Request for / confirmation of bearing and range to described point. Joint: Request for / confirmation of bearing and range from described point to requesting aircraft.
STATUS
Request for tactical situation.
BOGEY DOPE
Request for target information as briefed or available.
CLEARED
Requested action is authorized (no engaged / support roles are assumed).
Minimum interval for aircraft stacking
Require a minimum interval of 15ft between the nose cone and the trailing edge of the empennage. A one spot distance is required between the STO aircraft and the next aircraft in the stack (NATOPS 8.2.4.3)
RESUME
Resume last formation, station or mission ordered.
Deck heating mitigation procedure for LHA/LHD with an operable coanda exhaust deflector
Retard the over deck engine toward idle (~84% Nr) within 10 minutes of engine start or landing (NATOPS 8.2.3.3.2)
POGO
Returned to last frequency
Rock or Asphalt
Rock
TIMEX*
Roll IFF/SIF and crypto to next time period.
Deconfliction methods
Route Altitude Time
These casualties do not require immediate medical attention however, the requirement to evacuate the patient for specialized treatment still remains, and evacuation should occur within 24 hours.
Routine
EMCON 2
Routine EMCON: A. Emission Option 2 is the desired standard for day to day TAAR. General: B. Radio silent formation except for RV and TAAR which is conducted with limited radio exchange. C. All other emitters are authorized. D. Essential radio transmissions for flight safety may be made. E. At initial contact, receivers and tankers will exchange call signs, FL/altitude/height, Mode 3 and any changes in tanker timing that would affect RV (in minutes early or late). F. Altimeter setting and hot armament check will also be coordinated, if applicable. G. If not at the planned RV FL/altitude/height, an additional call is required when reaching that FL/altitude/height. Restrictions under EMCON 2: H. More restrictive procedures under emission Option 2 will be fully coordinated between tanker and receiver units. In an emergency/abnormal condition (KC-1) the tanker may transmit over an TAAR frequency.
Chaff identifier
Rr-129
ALE setup prompts
Select stby mode, then the following prompts will appear: Prompt Displayed Results When Selected ?RPT MAG IDS Sequencer Address with Magazine IDs ?TURN FTI ON / ?TURN FTI OFF Turns Flight Test Instrumentation ON / OFF ?TURN TRN ON / ?TURN TRN OFF Turns Training ON / OFF ?MWS AUTO SAFE / ?ENABLE MW SAFE Turns MWS Auto Inhibit ON ?DISABLE MW SAFE Turns MWS Auto Inhibit OFF
What should be done to ensure adequate proprotor tip clearance when taxiing past the island
Self taxi past the island shall be conducted with the nosewheel traveling along the port side of the spots longitudinal lineup line (NATOPS 8.2.4.1)
Missile alert on the APR-39 and what causes it. what does dicriminator do?
Sensitivity is controlled by the discriminator switch and the C and D portions illuminate the MA light. Discriminator on -enabling the circuit will significantly reduce the sensitivity and reception/display capability of the system. signal level must meet a min threshold, pw must be less then a max pw, prf must be greater then min pps. must have a min pulse train. "
BUG-OUT (DIRECTION)
Separation from that particular engagement, attack or operation; no intent to reengage / return.
Aluminum oxide increases?
Service life to equal the first gen tubes Greater than 10,000 hours
FENCE IN / OUT
Set cockpit switches as appropriate before entering/exiting
FENCE IN / OUT
Set cockpit switches as appropriate prior to entering / exiting the combat area.
STEER*
Set magnetic heading indicated.
Shading could indicate
Shift in MCP caused by goggles being dropped or mishandled Improper wear
FEELER
Shipboard fire control radar.
Father
Ships TACAN
Acute
Short term, being worn out and will usually be relived by a single nights rest
EXTEND (DIRECTION)
Short-term maneuver to gain energy, distance, or separation; normally with the intent of re-engaging.
VISUAL
Sighting of a friendly aircraft / ground position; opposite of BLIND.
TALLY
Sighting of a target, bandit, bogey or enemy position; opposite of no joy.
FOX (NUMBER)
Simulated / actual launch of air-to-air weapons. One — Semi-active radar-guided missile. Two — Infrared-guided missile. Three — Active radar-guided missile.
CHERRY PICKER*
Simulated CASEVAC.
Fox
Simulated/actual launch of air-to-air weapons.
LZ size requirements Day
Single 100 x 120 Section 250 x 270 FEET
LZ size requirements Night
Single 160 x 180 Section 310 x 330 FEET
LZ size requirements RVL
Single 200 x 200 Section 600 x 600
Two methods of trap recovery
Single unit or trap task force
What causes most of the attenuation
Size of flakes causes scattering
SMOKE
Smoke marker used to mark a position.
What is standard timing for a mark prior to TOT for smoke and illumination:
Smoke: minus 30 seconds. Illum: minus 45 seconds.
White Ice or Fresh Snow
Snow
LZ DEVIL NO COMMS
The escorts will give an LZ devil signal by flying back to the assault IP with lead flashing the search light in the day (IR search light at night.)
Immediate Re-embark:
The expeditious embarkation of troops either to move them to another location or in response to an insert abort, all taking place in a permissive threat environment (i.e., not under enemy pressure).
Emergency Extract:
The extraction of a unit that is in contact with the enemy or whose contact with the enemy is imminent.
Doesn't protect?
The eye
Rule of thumb for rocket wind considerations.
For every 10 knots of wind a correction of 300 meters or 5 degree heading change into wind.
Evacuee category III
Foreign service nationals and third-country national employees of the US government
Forests vs. Desert
Forest has much more texture and depth Desert will likely wash out the image in HLL and LLL
LIGHTING CONDITION 2
Form level 10 Position bright Proprotor unaided AC on (top and bottom)
LIGHTING CONDITION 3 (NVD flights outside restricted areas)
Form level 10 Position dim Proprotor aided IR AC off AC (last aircraft) on Tail (last aircraft) on Lower AC off
5 (NVD) all covert
Form level 10 Position off Proprotor aided IR AC off AC (all aircraft) off
LIGHTING CONDITION 4 (NVD flights inside restricted areas)
Form level 10 Position off Proprotor aided IR AC off AC (last aircraft) on Lower AC of
FALCONS
Formation Altitude/airspeed Lighting Comms Ordnance Nav procedures Sensors
FAC(A)
Forward air controller. A naval aviator or naval flight officer specifically trained, qualified, and designated to perform the dual tasks of conducting aerial reconnaissance/surveillance and exercising control from the air, of aircraft engaged in CAS of ground forces. Normally the FAC(A) functions as an airborne extension of the TACP or ground commander. The FAC(A) can provide terminal control for CAS aircraft alone, or he can assist the ground FAC.
O1 on ALE-47
Forward firing flare
Weapons conditions
Free - fire at targets not PID as friendly IAW ROE Tight - fire only at targets PID as hostile IAW ROE Hold - fire only in self defense
Define the weapons conditions: Free, tight, hold
Free: May engage anything not positively identified as friendly, Tight: May engage anything positively identified as Enemy. Hold: May fire in self defense.
FREEZE*
Freeze the sensor position in the present location.
They differ from one another only in their?
Frequency or wavelength
ACTIVE**
Frequency-agile net. Joint: [EW] Referenced emitter is radiating at the stated location or along the stated bearing. (ELINT derived)
ACTIVE**
Frequency-agile net. Joint: An emitter is radiating.
RIFLE
Friendly air-to-surface missile launch.
CHERUBS
Friendly aircraft altitude in hundreds of feet.
HOTDOG (color)
Friendly aircraft is approaching or is at a specified standoff distance. (Color may indicate additional standoff distance.) Follow briefed procedures.
BUDDY SPIKE
Friendly system radar lock-on indication on RWR.
buddy spike (position/bearing/altitude)
Friendly system radar lock-on indication on RWR.
Max range
Fuel conservation
FLPN BINGO fuel planning
Fuel reserve calculates the current leg based on the current aircraft and environmental parameters and then uses the parameters set in FPLN for the remaining legs
JOKER
Fuel state above BINGO at which separation/bugout/event termination should begin.
JOKER**
Fuel state above bingo at which separation, Bug-out or event termination should begin.
Hold Down
Fuel state below which the aircraft shall not launch. Bingo + 1000 lbs
NVG image brightness remains constant from approx. ____ to _____ through activation of the goggles_______?
Full moon - quarter moon Automatic Brightness Control
Define Core Skill:
Fundamental, environmental, or conditional Fundamental, environmental, or conditional capabilities required to perform basic functions. These basic functions serve as tactical enablers that allow crews to progress to the more complex Mission Skills. Primarily 2000 Phase events but may be introduced in the 1000 Phase. FAM/CAL/FORM/LAT/NS HLL/NS LLL/AAR/TG/AD/MAT/GTR/CQ
Other series bombs: GBU 28, BLU-82, MK-77.
GBU 28: 5000 pound laser penetrator. BLU-82: 15,000 pound daisy cutter. MK-77: 500 pound firebomb.
GBU 5 series types and weights.
GBU-54: laser guided JDAM. GBU-51B: laser guided low collateral damage.
GYPSY*
GPS
GPS Impact on INS
GPS impact on INS: 1. Faster initialization through GPS PPS inputs 2. Limits INS drift by providing boundary limit for INS position error accumulation
Photocathode is made of?
Gallium Arsenide
FOOTRACE*
Generic term for a TRAP survivor in the absence of established spins.
FLIR Lenses made from
Geranium Selenium Indium Antimonide
You're on deck at a FOB after dropping off pax/ stuff for a GS run, and a LtCol runs to the bird saying he has troops in contact and needs you to do a casevac right now. What do you do?
Get a hasty 9-Line out of him. Who, what, where, how many, frequency, call sign? Access aircraft status—Fuel? Expendables? Ammo? Is CASEVAC a pre-briefed mission of the day? I need to contact DASC/Battle Captain/Base/MEU CMD 1 for permission and routing to the zone. With a TIC, I can expect a CAS stack and a JTAC/FAC controlling the airspace.
Program Provides
Global prediction of sun and moon position for most areas of the world, and can output this information in various formats`
Go vs. No-go
Go - internal factors No-go - external (Wx, enemy)
GO ACTIVE
Go to briefed HAVE QUICK / SINCGARS net.
GO ACTIVE
Go to briefed frequency agile net.
PUSH (CHANNEL)
Go to designated frequency. No acknowledgment required.
The chances of survival are greatly enhanced if the casualty can receive surgical treatment within one hour of sustaining the injury. Although the Golden Hour refers specifically to surgical treatment, for all intents and purposes it applies to the entire Urgent classification.
Golden Hour:
Depth Perception
Greatly reduced
RVL waveoff criteria
Ground speeds at or less than 15 KGS at 50 feet. Ground speeds at or less than 5 KGS at 20 feet. Lateral drift at or less than 3 KGS at touchdown. Rate of descent at or less than 400 fpm. Climbing above profile in a hover or entering a HOGE condition.
ECHELON
Groups / contacts / formation with wingman displaced approximately 45 degrees behind leader's 3 / 9 line.
ECHELON*
Groups / contacts / formation with wingman displaced approximately 45 degrees behind leader's 3 / 9 line. Joint [A/A] Fill-in to a picture label describing GROUPs aligned behind and to the side of the closest GROUP.
What are the five major criteria for evaluating a landing zone?
H-S-W-P-D 1. Height of obstacles which determine approach angle. 2. Size and topography of the landing zone. 3. Wind direction and possible loss of wind effect. 4. Power available vs power required. 5. Departure route."
MICKEY
HAVE QUICK time of day (TOD) signal.
"GO ACTIVE" refers to
HAVEQUICK / SINCGARS transmissions.
Nomenclature for the M50 and the PGU series for HEI, TP, TP-T, HEI-T.
HEI: M56A3/A4, PGU-28. TP: M55A2, PGU-27 TP-T: M221, PGU-30 HEI-T: M242
The status of the "gingerbread" net will be passed to _______ via an in-flight report (IFREP).
HHQ / DASC
What is powered by the MWGB?
HYD 3, #1 CFG, #4 VFG, Shaft Driven Compressor (SDC) as well MWGB oil pump (the APU is not powered by the MWGB, it powers the MWGB, MWGB oil cooler, RPU and Rotor brake also reside here)
HYD X HOT
HYD X fluid temperature is > 121 C.
HERO
Hazard of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance
ANGELS
Height of friendly aircraft in thousands of feet MSL.
ANGELS
Height of friendly aircraft in thousands of feet.
HST
Helicopter Support Team signalman, static wand person, hookup person, and team superviso
BROKEN SPUR
Helicopter buddy or self-extraction is not possible
What is the difference between the M-36E1 and the M36E3 training missiles?
Hellfire 1 variant seeker and Hellfire two variant seeker.
High threat
High Threat. An air threat environment created by an opposing force possessing air defense combat power, including integrated fire control systems and electronic warfare (EW) capabilities that would seriously diminish the ability of friendly forces to provide necessary air support.
Honeycomb Patern
High light level or a bright light source is introduced in the FOV, if it appears as a bold outline or during low light it is down
HOME PLATE
Home airfield or carrier.
HOME PLATE
Home airfield or ship.
VAMPIRE
Hostile anti-ship missile
WARNING RED
Hostile attack is imminent or in progress.
WARNING WHITE
Hostile attack is improbable (all clear).
WARNING YELLOW
Hostile attack is probable.
FLIR will continue to see?
Hotter objects through the sand or dust clouds
Density
How many things are on the ground that can be seen
Circadian
Human body and physiological functions are strongly controlled by a biological clock, an approximate 24 hour cycle.
Still better than?
Human eye
HOTDOG
Informative / directive call that an aircraft is approaching at a specified standoff distance from the sovereign airspace of a nation (as defined by national boundaries or territorial sea and airspace). (Color may indicate additional standoff distance.) follow briefed procedures.
DEADEYE
Informative call by an airborne laser designator indicating the laser / IR system is inoperative.
OFF (DIRECTION)
Informative call indicating attack is terminated and maneuvering to the indicated direction.
OFFSET (DIRECTION)
Informative call indicating maneuver in a specified direction with reference to the target.
ON BOARD*
Informative call indicating that wingman is established in appropriate formation.
WINGS LEVEL*
Informative call to terminal controller that an aircraft nose is pointed toward ground target.
IN (DIRECTION)
Informative indicating a turn to a hot aspect relative to a threat / target.
SPOOFING
Informative that voice deception is being employed.
ON STATION
Informative unit / aircraft has reached assigned station.
Sour
Inoperative or down equipment
DECLARE
Inquiry of the identification of a specified tracks, targets or correlated group.
Where are instrument ratings valid? ie different models of AC
Instrument ratings shall be valid in all aircraft in which the naval aviator/NFO is NATOPS qualified regardless of the model in which the check was flown.
IWO
Integrity Watch Officer
INTERROGATE
Interrogate the designated contact of the iff mode indicated.
PAINT (S)
Interrogated group / radar contact that is responding with any of the specified IFF modes and correct codes established for the ID criteria. Friendly IFF Interrogation return.
Fresh snow may be?
Invisible to FLIR, making it usable if NVGs have little contrast or texture
Define a flight leader
Is an experienced aviator fully qualified to employ five or more aircraft
You lose your ICS 29 Palms en route to dropping grunts off at a FOB..what do you do? Complete the frag? Go home?
Is the FOB secure? Are TIC? What type of assets is there? Fuel? Am I closer to FOB or home? Most likely continue. Troubleshoot on deck. The cockpit is quiet. If radios still work, we can transmit over a squadron freq to each other.
• What does the numeric value mean on the APR-39 RSI mean? When the number continues to move toward the center of the RSI, what information is that providing and what are the different levels?
It is displaying the lethality rings, in the picture on ANTTP, but enemy weapons can also be displayed with numeric value (i.e. SA-4 with a "4" or SA-8 with "8") These show which radar sequence is in use by how close to the center it is. 1- Radar Searching 2- Aquisition 3- Target Tracking 4- Fire Control / Missile Guidance Radar 5- C&D Band with missle guidance signals (i.e. IR) It doesn't show proximity of radar, but where you are in the weapon's kill chain.
When to deploy ramp?
It's recommended when transiting to the objective area the ramp be leveled and weapon deployed prior to a tactical descent to the IP SOP: -should be level by the IP but no sooner than when departing HA -TG FCLP CAL training -when gear is down in landing phase
ALE jettison- what does it jettison, when will it not work?
Jettisons flares only, Will not work when on the ground or with pin in. If you're off the ground with pin out, it will jettison anytime you select jettison
Who can you tank with?
KC-130 KC-10
Knock it off
Knock It Off (KIO). When a dangerous loss of situational awareness is recognized or a potentially hazardous circumstance develops, any crewmember shall call for a KIO without delay. The response to a KIO call will be an immediate wings level controlled climb to briefed altitude and discontinuation of training until the cause for the KIO has been adequately addressed and all aircrew concur on a course of action.
FEED TANK OVERFILL
L/R feed tank is overfilled at 675 lb.
Potential indications or effects of MLG bay fire may be noticed in-flight or during landing, which may or may not include:
LAND GEAR ABORT and/or LAND GEAR FAULT, inability to extend landing gear, failed tires or tire failure upon touchdown, loss of wheel brake function on affected side, UTIL SYSTEMS INOP, LDG GEAR/UTIL INOP and/or HYD 3 FAIL.
Fixed Wing Delta Pattern
LH racetrack pattern within 5 DME of the ship Minimum altitude 2000ft
NVG laser hardening
LIFS
May reduce performance in what light level?
LLL or low contrast but not HLL
What are the Hellfire 2 temperature limits?
LOBL: above 125 degrees F, 30 minutes.
Recommended min ignition altitudes
LUU-2 A/B and LUU-2B/B should be ignited at 2,500 feet AGL for ground illumination to ensure burnout prior to ground contact. LUU-19 should be ignited at a minimum of 6,000 AGL.
(ZIPPO) briefs
LZ BRIEFS
DEVIL*
LZ conditions do not meet briefed winter criteria.
WINTER*
LZ conditions meet briefed criteria.
X Insert/extract
LZ<300m from threat or objective. Capitalizing on Speed and Surprise.
Y Insert/extract
LZ>300M<1000M from objective. balance of speed surprise w/ threat exposure.
List the naming conventions for LZs, Landing Sites, and Landing Points
LZs: Birds Landing Sites: Colors Landing Points: Numbers"
-Ps
Lack or of ability to maintain current state. Loss of speed or altitude
DEADEYE
Laser designator system inoperative.
In-Band
Lasers that emit energy in the same spectral region as the sensitivity of the sensor Requires less energy outputs to produce damaging results
BEADWINDOW
Last transmission potentially disclosed unauthorized information.
Magellan Parameters
Lateral 1:50k = 500m / 1:250k = 1mn Heading 15° Timing 1 min Other Over CP without turn
MAGELLAN STANDARDS
Lateral deviations 1:50,000 routes ±500 meters 1:250,000 routes ±1 nm Heading deviations 15° Timing deviations ±1 minute Other deviations Over flight of the checkpoint without appropriate turn or maneuver
MAGNUM
Launch of friendly antiradiation missile.
Deck heating mitigation procedure for LHA/LHD with an inoperable coanda exhaust deflector on the over water engine
Launch or shut down the over water engine within 5 minutes of engine start or landing. If aircraft remains on deck, aircraft shall shut down the over deck engine within 10 minutes of engine start or landing (NATOPS 8.2.3.3.2)
Deck heating mitigation procedure for LHA/LHD with an inoperable coanda exhaust deflector on the over deck engine
Launch the aircraft or shutdown the over deck engine within 5 minutes of engine start or landing (NATOPS 8.2.3.3.2)
With four rocket pods selected, single, and quantity one, what is the order of firing for 4 trigger pulls?
Left to right, outboard to inboard.
MV-22 APLN Egress
Left/Right turn out no earlier than 1 nm with subsequent unrestricted climb to requested altitude
Blowing sand or dust is similar to snow except?
Less reflective and larger
LIFS
Light Interference Filters
Veiling Glare
Light outside the FOV strikes the objective lens and scatters instead of passing though the lens
Hold down fuel
Like mission fuel, it's the amount required to depart, conduct a mission, and return
ZIPLIP
Limit transmission to critical information only
Chicken Wire
Lines in the FOV that could lead to non transmit of image
Signs of entering clouds
Loss of Moon and Stars Loss of ground lights Scintillation Increased Halo Effect Degraded NVG image
BROKE LOCK*
Loss of radar / IR lock-on (advisory).
System gain is Luminous Gain minus?
Losses from the optics
Altitudes definitions
Low - lat ( below 500') Medium - 500 to 13,000' High - above 13,000'
Low threat
Low Threat. An air threat environment that permits combat operations and support to continue without prohibitive interference.
When does the hi/lo altitude landing gear alert arm and trigger itself?
Low alt armed - armed when gear is up, NAC >70°, >500 fpm ROC (rate of climb) Low alt trigger - if ROC <200 fpm for 3 secs below 240' AGL Hi alt armed - above 240' or NAC <70° Hi alt triggered - below 200', NAC >70° and gear not down and locked
What are three threat levels?
Low, Medium, and High. Low: Allows tactical operation to proceed without interference. Medium: Allows acceptable exposure to enemy air defense. High: En has air defense with integrated fire control and EW.
DRI rule of thumb for TSS
Low: 30, 8.5, 4.5 Medium: 30, 12.6, 9.5
Define Low, Medium and Hight Altitudes
Low: NOE to 500' Medium: 500' to 3000' High: 3000' and up
LDI
Lunar Daily Illumination Graph -Lunar illuminance (lux) vs. time for a 24 hour period -Moon, peak ileum and four values of illuminance are displayed
LEAA
Lunar Elevation/Azimuth Angles -Displays the lunar angles for the period of time specified -Time, angle, and illumination level for the given location -2400/33.6º/0.021 Lux = 2400 moon will be 33.6º above the horizon with a 0.021 Lux ileum
Which Hellfire variants have the delayed fuze?
M and N.
Rate of fire for the M-240D and GAU-16 and size of cans associated
M-240: 650-950 rpm 200 rnd can GAU-16: 750-850 rpm 100 rnd can
HE Frag warhead explosive and compound weights: M151, M229, Mk 152, Mk 146.
M151: 2.3 pounds of Comp B-4. M229: 4.8 pounds of Comp B-4. Mk 152: 2.1 pounds of PBXN-110. Mk 146: 4.3 pounds of PBXN-110.
Warhead fuze combinations HE-FRAG: M151, 229, MK152, 146.
M151: M423, M427. M229: M423. Mk 152: Mk435 mod 0. Mk 146: Mk435 mod 0.
The ____ is an overt illumination warhead used to provide battlefield illumination. The permanently installed base fuze functions ____ seconds after launch and provides a ____ second delay prior to drogue chute deployment. Total time from launch to flare ignition is _____ seconds. The warhead produces ____ candlepower for ____ minutes and illuminates ____ of area.
M257, 1.5 seconds and provides 9 second delay. 13.5 seconds. 1 million, 2 minutes, 1 square mile.
The ____ is a covert illumination warhead and produces ____ candlepower for ____ minutes.
M278, 700 candlepower for 3 minutes.
What is the difference between the type of fuze used by the M50 and the PGU?
M50 is mechanical fuze ball and rotor assembly. PGU is chemical consisting of RS40 and RS41.
You're flying to the boat at night, and boss gives you spot 2... what are your considerations? [They read BRC, winds, pitch/roll and then hand you the shipboard PCL and you have to see if you can land there] Difference between Alternate A and B shipboard approaches.
You can't land left seat spot 2 at night Approach A is a straight in on BRC with a slide right Approach B is approach to 45 off BRC with a tail slide right
PEL situation at 29 palms; you have a mx issue with a landing criteria. QA is on board, checks it out, and says it's good. However, you can't reach home with comms to get CO's permission... what now?
You cannot take off. You need one-shot permission. You can call Bearmat or KNXP TWR, for a radio relay back home. They can make phone calls for you.
Specific Excess Power
The power you have while performing a maneuver
• How do you lock in a descent rate when conducting coupled HVR approaches? (New NATOPS change)
The slew switch is a momentary 5 position switch. When HVR coupled is active in vs mode, depression and release updates the vertical speed.
LASING
The speaker is firing the laser.
H hour
The specific hour on D-day at which a particular operation commences
Corner Speed
The speed at which the maximum instantaneous turn rate is achieved
L hour
The time at which the first helicopter of the helicopterborne assault wave touches down in the landing zone.
ANV 20/20 NVG Infinity Focus Device
There is a green ambient light OK indicator when ambient light entering the viewing port is less than or equal to 0.1 foot-candle -Contains 9 test targets from 20/20 SVA to 20/70 -Contains Normal mode and low light mode -Contains circular 8 step grey scale used for evaluating dynamic gain range
LWINS
Three inertial navigation sets with an interface with the GPS are installed on the aircraft to provide navigation data to the MCs and attitude data to the FCCs
ROLEX (+ / - TIME)
Time line adjustment in minutes from planned mission execution time (plus means later; minus means earlier).
AIRPLAN
Time line document produced by the ship's air department depicting the deck flow, emergency marshals, squawks, and other pertinent information
Types of route deconfliction
Time, space, altitude
The 442 is a ____ fuze. Air travel to arm is ____ feet and time to arm is ____ seconds.
Time. 2137 feet. 1 second.
Aircraft Speed
To reduce midair collision hazards associated with high aircraft speeds at low altitudes, reference (d), subpart 91.117, imposes a maximum airspeed limitation of 250 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) on all aircraft operating below 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) in airspace where reference (d), applies and a maximum of 200 KIAS for aircraft operating: (1) at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 nm of the primary airport of a class C or D airspace area, or (2) in the airspace underlying a class B airspace area designated for an airport or in a VFR corridor designated through such a class B airspace area.
AUTHENTICATE
To request or provide a response to a coded challenge.
CHECK
Turn ( ) degrees left or right and maintain new heading (left / right).
STRANGLE ( )
Turn off equipment indicated.
SMASH (ON / OFF)
Turn on / off anticollision lights.
STACK [A/A]
Two or more CONTACTs within GROUP criteria with an altitude separation in relation to each other.
STACK
Two or more groups / contacts / formations with a high / low altitude separation in relation to each other.
RIPPLE**
Two or more munitions released or fired in close succession.
List 3 types of controls.
Type 1: JTAC requires controls of individual attacks and can visually acquire aircraft and target. Type 2: JTAC requires controls of individual attacks but cannot acquire both aircraft and target. Type 3: Multiple attacks given in form on "engagement window".
minimal requirements used to assess the threat level
Type, quantity, and quality of enemy individual weapons and weapon systems. Control and communications systems used to integrate threat enemy systems. Centralized or decentralized control of enemy assets. Proficiency/training level of enemy forces.
UNIFORM
UHF radio.
UNIFORM
UHF/AM radio.
Types of frequencies used for HAVEQUICK
UHF/AM/FM
Assisted hover coupled procedure
UPDATE
Assisted no hover procedures
UPDATE
ON STATION*
Unit / aircraft has reached assigned station.
AS FRAGGED
Unit or element will be performing exactly as briefed.
AS FRAGGED
Unit or element will be performing exactly as stated by the ATO.
What does a 'U' on the RSI mean?
Unknown
What do you expect to hear from a JTAC that gives you clearance to fire for a type 3 simulated hellfire engagement?
Unknown, find answer.
Magellan procedures.
Unplanned navigational deviation shall be challenged with the proword "MAGELLAN" followed by a steer (azimuth and distance) to the briefed course line or the next checkpoint.
Magellan
Unplanned navigational deviation shall be challenged with the proword "MAGELLAN" followed by a steer (azimuth and distance) to the briefed course line or the next checkpoint.
JINK
Unpredictable maneuvers to negate a gun tracking solution.
Terrain Slope
Up slope will require more effort to flight path monitoring compared to even or down slope
A scene based correlations track can be initiated by selecting the ____ track mode on the TSS top page and uses ____ dynamic track windows to maintain the track symbology about the track current FOV.
Urban, 19 dynamic track windows.
These casualties require emergency, short notice evacuation within one hour to prevent loss of life, limb, eye sight, serious complications, or permanent disability.
Urgent
These casualties follow the same handling criteria as a regular urgent, but this classification is used to indicate the criticality of immediate surgery in order to save a life - basically, if this casualty does not receive immediate surgical intervention, he/she will die.
Urgent Surgical
Urgent mission precedence
Urgent precedence is applicable only to the CASEVAC of critically wounded, injured, or ill personnel whose immediate evacuation is a matter of life or death.
CASEVAC: define the following degrees of priority: Urgent, Priority, Routine.
Urgent: Patients require emergency medical within a max of 2 hours. Priority: Patients require prompt care within 4 hours. Routine: Do not require immediate attention, should be evacuated within 24 hours. Memory aid: 2,4,24, like saying 24 twice.
GO SECURE
Use encrypted voice communications.
When should you use mission number? When should you use side number
Use mission number when outside of towers airspace. Use side number when inside of towers airspace.
GO CLEAR
Use un-encrypted voice communications.
Smokelight Approach
Used as last resort when equipment does not allow normal procedures or the ship cannot be visually acquired and ditching is imminent.
Alternate Approach Technique A
Used for landing on port spots with port winds. align the aircrafts heading with the ships heading early during final approach to alleviate pitch up with sideslip (NATOPS 8.3.2.3)
Alternate Approach Technique B
Used for landing on port spots with starboard winds. Delay aircraft heading alignment with ships heading until crossing the deck edge to reduce uncommanded pitch up tendency (NATOPS 8.3.2.4)
Linear target
Used to illuminate a linear target such as a road or river. A string of flares is released parallel to the road or river providing desired illumination.
Point target
Used to illuminate a small area of interest, such as a Landing Zone or extraction point. Either a single flare or group of flares is released nearly simultaneously over a point.
Area target
Used to illuminate an area target such as a drop zone or a large objective area. A single or a string of flares is released to provide the desired illumination
TRAP COA 1
Used when the survivor's location is known and the survivor is ambulatory. Upon landing in the LZ, minimal members (recommend a fire team sized element) of the recovery force exit the RV and move toward the survivor's location.
Definition of Raid
Usually a limited-scale operation involving swift penetration of hostile territory to secure information, confuse the enemy, or to destroy installations and personnel, followed by a planned withdrawal. Raids may be conducted as separate operations or in support of other operations.
Emergency Low Visibility Approach (ELVA)
Utilized by any ship equipped with radar. Consists of a procedure card that allows the ship to provide radar assisted approach
FOX MIKE
VHF / FM radio.
Sister
VHF radio
VICTOR
VHF radio.
VICTOR
VHF/AM radio.
Types of frequencies used for SINCGARS
VHF/FM
Case I
VMC 1000/3 for rotary wing and 3000/5 for fixed wing IMC not anticipated at any time during descent, break, or pattern
When on the ground and not actively snowing?
Very bright and could help with navigation due to contrast between other low reflectivity objects
SAM (DIRECTION)
Visual acquisition of SAM or SAM launch should include position.
SAM (DIRECTION)
Visual acquisition of a SAM in flight or a SAM launch; should include position.
Recommended distances for flechette rocket employment
WDU-4A/A: 1200-1500 MK-149: 600-800
What conditions must be met in order to conduct an ISMS reset?
WOG equals Ground.
Under HLL, flight over low contrast terrain will do what to the goggles?
Washout the NVG image because the image is too bright
What are the only mandatory signals from the LSE
Wave Off and Hold (NATOPS 8.3)
Bending or Wave distortion
Wavvy appearance
Weapons free
Weapons Free. Aerial gunners may engage any threat not positively identified as friendly. This is the least restrictive weapons control condition. Clearance to fire will be granted at a predetermined phase of flight based on available intelligence on the position of friendly troops.
Weapons hold
Weapons Hold. Fire only in self-defense. This is the most restrictive weapons control condition. Clearance to fire shall be in accordance with ROE.
Weapons tight
Weapons Tight. Fire only at targets positively identified as hostile.
Shorter focal distances for?
Weapons systems trainers or sims
Case III
Weather less than Case II, but greater than 3NM prevailing visibility or no visible horizon
When an AMC is assigned
When different TMS aircraft formations, each lead by its own element leader, are required for a common mission OR when a formation of four or more aircraft must perform a multiple-sortie mission
Approach Criteria for Multipiloted Aircraft
When reported weather is at or below published landing minimums for the approach to be conducted, an approach shall not be commenced in multipiloted aircraft unless the aircraft has the capability to proceed to a suitable alternate in the event of a missed approach.
Trajectory shift
When the boreline axis of the weapon differs from the flightpath of the MV-22, the forward velocity of the aircraft causes a change in the direction and velocity of the projectile. Firing from the rear or ramp will cause the projectile to lose muzzle velocity; therefore, the round will fall short. Trajectory shift is corrected by leading the target with the RMWS. (Fire should be placed on the near side of the target as the MV-22 passes it.)
"See You" Call
When this call is made you will go from Case I to Case II procedures
• Why do you create a Bingo No Flt plan if you already have a flight plan with bingo calculations going?
When utilizing INAV DIR, bingo flt plan calculations are not being calculated. Bingo no flt plan will calculate with current conditions.
When is it your responsibility to give the command open fire?
When you know its is safe and legal to do so. And you have attained the necessary requirements for engagement.
Increased potential for what when landing?
White Out
FLIR theory/polarity: ____ hot produces bright targets that can generally be detected at greater ranges while ___ hot tends to produce a more natural scene.
White hot. Black hot.
____ is the only TSS FOV that will indicate the position of the AIM-9M reticle in relation to the actual position of the target.
Wide Field of view. WFOV
Contrast?
Will decrease
Questions to ask regarding shadows while flight planning?
Will the targets shadow aid in locating the target? Will I be within a mountain shadow when attempting to visually identify a turn point Am I going to be in shadowed terrain while terrain masking?
X, Y, offset inserts/extracts
X - within 300 meters Y - 300 to 1,000m Offset - greater than 1,000m
RAID Types:
X = LZ less than 300m from Obj Y = LZ 300-1000m from Obj Offset = LZ more than 1000m from Obj
What is the X and Y axis in the Em diagram
X axis: KCAS Y axis: Turn Rate"
What is the X and Y axis in the Ps diagram
X axis: press alt Y axis: kcas
For a raid, define landing at the X, Y, and Offset.
X: less than 300 meters. Y: 300 to 1000 meters. Offset: Greater than 1000 meters.
• What is Lost comm Orange/Yellow in the local area?
Yellow - FW lost comm. Maintain ≤5000 MSL until NKX R64/16 Fly final of tacan 24R Orange - INT 15 course rules at 2500' MSL recover spot 3. Or 10 mile arc at 4,000 MSL to R064/10 fly final of tacan 24R
Can you do TACFORM with multiple sections/divisions of maneuver elements?
Yes
Can you frequency hop while covered?
Yes
• If issued a plane with an INOP overt spotlight, could you still take that plane on a night flight?
Yes as long as the other spotlight is still operational. The complies with T&R and OPNAV. You can also use probe light and landing gear light
Can they ever fire without your approval? How does ROE play into it?
Yes: Pre-briefed clearance to fire Training- No pre-briefed clearance to fire ROE determine the legality of the kill. It defines hostile act. Ex: they have to be actively shooting in your direction. Or, any person shooting is a hostile. Who is hostile? What buildings can we fire on? What line on a map determines sovereign land?
NVG Failures
a. Communicate the failure to the crew. If its the PAC, immediately shift to an instrument scan and transfer the controls. i. On takeoff, instrument scan, you have the controls, ITO profile ii. On final, instrument scan, transfer controls, initiate wave off. iii. En route/at altitude, transfer controls, if the failure cannot be corrected, the event is terminated and the the A/C shall return to NAS SW.
In accordance with FAA authorization, flight operations below 10,000 feet MSL at an indicated airspeed in excess of 250 knots are authorized under the following conditions:
a. Within restricted areas. b. Within military operations areas. c. When operating on DoD/FAA mutually developed and published routes. d. When operating on DoD-developed and DoD-published VR routes e. When operating within large-scale exercises or on short-term special missions approved by commanders f. If the airspeed required or recommended in the aircraft NATOPS manual to maintain safe maneuverability is greater than the maximum speed described in reference (d),
What is the micron range of the flir?
aaq 16b- 8-12 micron aaq-29 - 3-5 micron "
High Altitude
above 13,000' MSL to service ceiling.
Routine mission precedence
administrative or tactical transport of personnel, materiel, or equipment when time is not a critical factor and delay would not endanger lives or loss of materiel. -A routine CASEVAC would be assigned for the tiltrotor evacuation of deceased personnel, a patient with a minor illness, or a patient requiring routine transfer from one medical facility to another for further treatment
Variables of Terrain Clearance Tasking
aerodynamic control, vector control, altitude control, and time control.
5-minute strip alert:
aircraft turning, armed and checklists complete awaiting launch order.
Complete FENCE-OUT checks as threat and safety dictate, but no later than crossing the ________________
airfield / FOB / FARP boundary
MCP is coated with?
aluminum oxide film *transparent to electrons but not ions
Bullseye
an effective way to communicate aircraft position in relation to a common reference point. Bullseye reference points may come from theater SPINS, premission planning, or on-call during execution. Bullseye calls are made in the format of "(callsign), BULLSEYE (ref point), (bearing from), (DME), (altitude)."
As light levels pass below star light, further decreases in ileum do not result in?
an increase in I2 tube gain, rather the image starts to decrease in brightness and contrast while NVG SCINTILLATION becomes visible
A cross-country flight is
any flight that either does not remain in the local flying area or remains in the local flying area and terminates at a facility other than an active military facility.
Urgent
applicable only to CASEVAC of critically wounded, injured, or ill personnel whose immediate evacuation is a matter of life or death.
Urgent def
applicable only to the CASEVAC of critically wounded, injured, or ill personnel whose immediate evacuation is a matter of life or death.
Fuel flow
approximately 1,600 pounds per hour (pph) during max endurance flight profiles to more than 4,000 pph during max performance maneuvering. This translates to an operational flight window ranging from just over 2 hours to more than 4 hours
minimum speed where maximum G can be attained.
approximately 250 KCAS. At speeds less than that, the aircraft will experience wing stall before maximum G is attained
Instrument approaches with or without intent to land in IMC by formations of more than two aircraft :
are not authorized. Penetration of IMC to obtain VMC by formations of more than two aircraft is authorized.
special VFR weather minimums,
are permitted except at those airports where special VFR is not authorized in fixed-wing aircraft. For special VFR within controlled airspace, the pilot must obtain authorization from air traffic control; ceiling must be a minimum of 500 feet; visibility must be a minimum of 1 statute mile; aircraft must remain clear of clouds, and (except for CNATRA helicopter operations) the pilot and aircraft must be certified for instrument flight.
FENCE-IN checks shall be completed
as soon as possible after launch based on the threat
Routine
assigned for administrative or tactical transport of personnel, material, and equipment when time is not a critical factor and delay would not endanger lives or loss of material.
Mandatory
assigned for missions involving possible loss of human life or national prestige the extent that normally unacceptable risks are taken in their accomplishment."
Mandatory def
assigned for missions involving possible loss of human life or national prestige to the extent that normally unacceptable risks are taken in their accomplishment.
Emergency def
assigned for missions involving the safety of US or other friendly lives and missions requiring immediate transport of vital supplies or equipment.
Priority
assigned for the tactical movement of personnel, material, and equipment where excessive delay would jeopardize the success of the mission. Priority CASEVAC of seriously wounded, injured, or ill personnel who require hospitalization but whose immediate evacuation is not a matter of life or death.
Firing Points (FP):
assigned numbers.
Emergency
assigned to missions involving the safety of US or other friendly lives and missions requiring immediate transport of vital supplies and equipment.
LOBL peak altitudes:
at 3 kilometers, 300 feet 5 kilometers 500 feet 7 kilometers 600 feet
From where should STO take place
at spot 4 on LHD class ships from spot 6 on CVN class ships
On encountering IIMC, lead will call and fly ____ AND _____ and climb (if necessary) to the MSA.
base heading and airspeed
Final determination with regard to actual wearing of anti-exposure suits shall
be made by the commanding officer or officer in charge of the aviation unit concerned.
Any station may initiate a ________ call if friendly information is compromised
beadwindow
Chattermark
begin using briefed radio procedures to counter communications jamming.
Fuel planning BINGO NO FLPN setting
calculates direct routing to the point set in the CMS and via the parameters set in the CMS
BI drop altitude
can start at 3,000 AGL but should be the highest altitude commensurate with threat and mission accomplishment considerations.
Terminal ballistics
characteristics and effects of projectiles at the point of impact. Normally, terminal ballistics deal with different types of fuzes and warheads; however, the RMWS is concerned with only one aspect of terminal ballistics—the surface conditions at the point of impact.
CAS
close air support: fires in close proximity to friendlies, requires integration with GCE on ground
Do not retract landing gear in the event of brake overheating/fire or failure due to ______.
close proximity to fuel lines.
Brevity code/proword
code which provides no security but which has as its sole purpose the shortening of messages rather than the concealment of their content
Code word
code word method of communication significantly reduces radio transmission time, thus denying an enemy threat the ability to home on the transmission. Code words serve to keep the meaning of the word concealed from the enemy. Unlike brevity codes/prowords, whose definitions do not change, code words should change their meaning from mission to mission to prevent compromise. Code words are often used in the mission execution checklist or theater ATO special instructions (SPINS); for example, the word "COWBOYS" could mean the GCE is requesting extract.
There are three standard types of FARPS
cold, assault and static
Interflight
communications between multiple flights of aircraft (i.e., between the assault flight and the escort flight).
Intraflight
communications over discreet frequencies (i.e., usually squadron tactical or assault support common) between aircraft of the same flight.
During a dual engine failure, the flight control system automatically reconfigures __________ off and enables _______
conversion corridor protection TCL overtravel.
FCFs should be conducted during
daylight hours within the local flying area in VMC.
Intensity of ground lights will?
decrease
ASSAT
detailed composition of each serial for aircraft commanders and serial leaders to aid in weight planning and accountability
Dogbone
effective for constant illumination of a linear target. After a string of flares is dropped, a course reversal at each end of the pattern quickly returns the aircraft to the reciprocal run-in course over the same drop line.
Racetrack BI drop pattern
effective for constant illumination of a point target or area target.
Continuous orbit BI drop pattern
effective for constant illumination of a point target.
BDCs are completed as necessary by flights as they _____________________ and are past the last point of ____________
egress the objective area probable enemy contact
What do the following symbology mean for the TSS yardstick? Numbers in parenthesis. (999). Numbers not 999. dashes in parenthesis. Three X in parenthesis.
estimated, actual, exceeds, and cannot be computed.
If contaminated during the mission, fly at maximum speed feasible and low altitude to ________________
evaporate gross contamination
Fuel planning updates
every 5 seconds for the current leg every 30 seconds for future legs
Priority def
excessive delay would jeopardize the success of the mission.
Hellfire designator safety zone
extends from the shooter. 8 kilometers out, 22000 feet high at centerline which equals 40 degrees up. plus or minus 30 degrees wide and 15000 feet high on edges.
AUTO JETT occurs when
external cargo hooks sense 300 pounds or less
Projectile jump
firing to the right produces a downward jump, and firing to the left produces an upward jump. Since compensation devices do not correct for this effect, the gunner must aim slightly below the target when firing to the left and slightly above when firing to the right. No compensation is required when firing from a hover.
What are the elements of a Call for fire?
first transmission: Observer Id, Warning order. Second transmission: Target Location. Third transmission: Target description, method of engagement, method of fire and control.
Fuel check:
fist raised to mouth with thumb extended toward mouth in a drinking motion. Wingmen respond in pounds remaining.
RESCORT
fixed-wing or rotary-wing aircraft designed to protect the recovery aircraft from possible hostile action while en route to and from the CSAR objective area and during the recovery phase. These aircraft should be capable of operating roughly within the same altitude, speed, and endurance regimes of the recovery aircraft;
Tiltrotor LAT
flight conducted during day or night, VMC, where the briefed intent is to conduct tactical flight where terrain avoidance is a significant factor. LAT is further defined as intent to fly below 500' AGL in order to develop terrain avoidance skills. LAT should only be used because the threat or weather prevents the use of medium- or high-altitude tactics.
The designated _______ should be assigned as the primary OSC.
flight lead
Primary navigation responsibility rests with the _______
flight leader
Section crossover:
forearm extended vertically with closed fist, pumped up and down.
Wingman crossover:
forearm extended vertically with closed fist.
In a high-threat CBRN environment, aircrews must fly in Mission-Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) level ____ since rapid donning of the mask and protective clothing while flying is virtually impossible.
four
Sectors of fire are established based on _____ AND _____, and should maximize weapons employment while minimizing collateral damage and fratricide by clearly delineating where door / ramp guns can fire without effects on friendlies.
friendly positions and control measures
If alternate is not required,
fuel to fly from takeoff to destination airfield, plus a reserve of 10 percent of planned fuel requirements.
If alternate is required,
fuel to fly from takeoff to the approach fix serving destination and thence to an alternate airfield, plus a reserve of 10 percent of planned fuel requirements.
There will be a grayish white, acrid smelling smoke (the extinguishing agent) that enters the cabin and cockpit when the ________ discharge.
gas generators
Each station is afforded two opportunities to correctly respond to authentication before initiating the __________ procedures
gingerbread
A wheels down report shall be
given as the aircraft turns onto the base leg or after lowering the landing gear on straight-in approach.
Before an air assault operation can be planned, the ______________ must be tight.
ground scheme of maneuver
A "devil zone" indicates that the threat
has exceeded the briefed winter criteria
Cruise:
hitchhiking motion from shoulder to shoulder.
The FADEC will sense a _____ or _____ start and discontinue the start sequence. If fuel is exiting ________________.
hot or hung the IR suppressor, pilot intervention is required.
Types of TRAP
immediate or deliberate.
Anti-collision lights shall be used
immediately before engine start and at all times when the aircraft engine(s) is in operation, except when the use of such lights adversely affects ground operations
The M 427 is a ____ fuze. Air travel to arm is ____ to ____ feet and time to arm is ____ to ____ seconds.
impact. 800 to 1250 feet. 1.09 to 1.34 seconds.
The Mk 352 is a ____ fuze. Air travel to arm is ____ to ____ feet. and time to arm is ____ to ____.
impact. 800 to 1200 feet. 1.07-1.36 seconds.
All naval aircraft are prohibited from taking off or landing at closed airfields except
in the case of an emergency.
"SECURE"
indicates encrypted communications
Bugout
initiate the immediate response to a threat within weapons system parameters. Refueling will normally cease.
Offset insert/extract
inserting the air assault force to an LZ that is greater than 1,000 meters from the threat at the objective.
Y insert/extract
inserting the air assault force to an LZ that is greater than 300 meters but less than or equal to 1,000 meters from the threat at the objective.
X insert/extract:
inserting the air assault force to an LZ that is less than or equal to 300 meters from the threat at the objective.
Debriefs will be conducted for each flight and can be broken down into two areas:
intelligence and operations.
four types of ballistics
interior, exterior, aerial, and terminal
Minimum fuel
is an advisory term indicating that in the judgment of the pilot the fuel state is such that no undue delay can be accepted en route to the destination.
"Land immediately"
is defined as executing a landing WITHOUT DELAY. Continued operation of the aircraft is extremely hazardous. If over water, conduct a controlled ditching without delay. The primary consideration is to assure the survival of occupants.
"Land as soon as possible"
is defined as executing a landing at the nearest available site which a safe landing can be made.
In aircraft where oxygen systems are not available (such as helicopters),
it must be determined that it is mission essential for flight altitude to exceed 10,000 feet. Time above 10,000 feet shall not exceed 1 hour and altitude shall not exceed 12,000 feet.
"Execute" is used when:
it refers to another procedure in this chapter.
Air support Request formats
joint tactical air strike request (JTAR) is used when requesting aircraft to support offensive air support (OAS) missions. The assault support request (ASR) is used to request assault support
Execution Checklist:
labeled with a theme (alphabetically) for mandatory items and a separate theme (alphabetically) for exception items.
In the event of power failure or whenever an engine is stopped as a precaution on an aircraft that has two engines, the PIC shall
land at the nearest suitable airport, in terms of time, provided weather conditions, terrain, and facilities available indicate that a safe landing can be accomplished.
Laager points are represented by
letters (A-Z) in the same manner (N-S, E-W).
Precautionary TRAP options
lifeguard, airborne orbit, strip alert, and delayed TRAP.
LASER
light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
FARP fueling points are normally
linear and numbered (1, 2, 3, ...) north to south or east to west.
Consider allowing passengers and crewchief to exit from a ______ prior to landing, if possible.
low hover
Medium/High Altitude Airspeed
lower calibrated airspeeds. However, the reduced calibrated airspeed (CAS) translates to a greater true airspeed (TAS) that, depending on winds, equals a faster ground speed
Battle position
maneuvering area that contains firing points laterally and in-depth for attack helicopters. 2x2 boxes for a section 3-5 mi from BP to LZ
Near ITG used to
mark the specific landing site or point. (e.g., Smoke, IR buzzsaw)
What are the tactical advantages and disadvantages of a MATA spiral approach?
maximizes the MV-22's speed and altitude capabilities to deny acquisition and/or engagement while retaining the maneuverability to defeat incoming fires. Decreased lateral distance from the intended point of landing, providing less exposure over a longer distance. However, the aircraft remains in a potential engagement envelope longer
MIJI
meaconing, intrusion, jamming, and interception
"Land as soon as practical"
means extended flight is not recommended. The landing site and duration of flight is at the discretion of the pilot‐in‐command.
When a MAG is tasked with a mission requiring the assets of multiple squadrons, one squadron commander will be designated the _________ and act as the _________.
mission commander, supported commander
Battle Positions (BP):
named after animals, beginning with snakes.
Landing Zones (LZ):
named after birds. Depicted with a triangle.
Airspace Coordination Areas (ACA):
named after camera manufacturers.
Initial Points (IP):
named after cars. Depicted as squares.
Checkpoints:
named after cities in the selected state-named route. Depicted with a circle.
Landing Sites (LS):
named after colors or after cardinal directions (north, northwest, etc). Experience has shown that cardinal directions increase situational awareness.
FARPS:
named after fast food restaurants.
Air to Air Refueling (AAR) Tracks:
named after gas stations.
Mission Coordination Areas (MCA):
named after sodas.
Mission Specific Routes:
named after states.
Holding Areas (HA):
named after women
With the DEPR LT on, the gun depression is limited to negative ____ degrees.
negative 3 degrees.
Is the K2A authorized for shipboard use?
no
Implied tasks
not specified but required for mission accomplishment
SINGLE ENG During shipboard operations without a suitable divert, a ___________________________ with wind down the bow shall be executed.
no‐hover or slow ROL to the back of the ship
Landing Points (LP):
numbered
• When does the COANDA activate for exhaust deflecter?
o Eng trq - <28% o Ng - >67% o NAC - > 52° o MGT - <565°C o NIU receives a weight on wheels indication
• What is the definition of Land as soon as practical/possible, immediately, PEL.
o Land as soon as practical - extended flight not recommended. Landing and duration is at the discretion of the pilot in command. o Land as soon as possible - means land at the first site at which a safe landing can be made, and no further than your refuel point (tactical scenario) o Land immediately - self explanatory.
• What are the different types of flight formations and distances related to each?
o Parade - generally welded wing o Cruise - 0-0.2nm o Trail - no more than 1 nm o Combat - cruise conv: 0.1-0.2, apln: 0.3-1.5, spread - 0.5-2.0
Combat spread:
open hand over eyes in a scanning motion.
Amphibious raid
operation involving a swift incursion into, or temporary occupation of, an objective followed by a planned withdrawal.
Low Threat
operations to proceed without prohibitive interference. Referred to as permissive. A low-threat environment may include the following: Small arms and medium antiaircraft weapons. Limited optical acquisition air defense artillery (ADA) with no integrated fire control systems.
120-minute strip alert:
ordnance prestaged, aircraft safe for flight and signed for. Aircrews standby in the ready room or quarters as appropriate. Aircraft maintenance will not be performed without approval of the aircraft commander. Strip alert aircrew shall draw personal weapons and ammunition as early as possible prior to standing the alert.
Medium altitude
outside of the engagement envelope of small arms, rocket-propelled grenades (RPG), and light ADA; however, SAMs can still be a threat
Do not use the tail wag / wing rock signals in ______ formation; use hand and arm signals.
parade
DITCHING For high sea states, land _____ to swells. Roll and yaw angles should be minimized to avoid nacelle/wing damage. Touch down speed and sink rate should not exceed ____ kts and ___ fpm.
parallel 30 360
Name ASE passive and active feature and give an example of each:
passive - ir suppressors; active - dispensing flares, maneuvering
DITCHING For low to moderate sea states, adjust approach to land _______ to swells and into wind, timing touchdown to occur at swell peak.
perpendicular
PPRs need not be obtained for
planned alternate fields or emergency divert airfields.
Seeker acquisition zone for Hellfire.
plus or minus 10 degrees is avoid plus or minus 45 degrees and outside of avoid is optimal plus or minus 60 degrees is max
Set ___________ to indicate ready for RIO and taxi.
position lights to steady
Golden Frequency
pre-briefed intra-flight frequency upon which all members of a flight can be marshaled in event of communication degradation; typically single channel UHF clear.
ASLT
provide a summary of the flow and composition of assault support assets
50 percent ruke
provides a maximum FPV (50 percent of the maneuver initiation altitude in AGL hundreds of feet) to initiate a descent from high altitude to LAT. For example, the maximum FPV for a descent from 4,000 feet AGL would be 20 degrees
5 degree rule
provides maneuver guidance following a vertical climb in response to a threat system. In order to rapidly descend back down to the LAT environment, the maximum FPV down will be 5 degrees less than the maximum FPV up during the climb
Sectors of fire should be tied to
recognizable terrain features.
Why does the V-22 have a fuel suction pump design?
ref SECRET NATIP
"Conduct"
refers to checklists used for normal operations.
AR In no case shall the fuel reserve at
rendezvous point be less than 10 percent.
MV-22 airborne rendezvous MV-22B conversion mode: Flight lead shall announce ______,________, AND ________ AND maintain 120 KCAS, and fly 1-minute legs, right hand turns. Aircraft join holding in dash number multiplied by ____ feet from ____ TO ____.
rendezvous point, altitude, and holding course 500 high to low.
MV-22 airborne rendezvous MV-22B airplane mode: Flight lead shall announce ______,_____,______ maintain 190 KCAS, and fly 5 nm legs, right hand turns. Aircraft join holding in dash number multiplied by ____ feet from ___ TO ____
rendezvous point, altitude, and holding course 500 high to low
Rough Terrain
require almost exclusive effort to flight path monitoring
Rolling Terrain
requires more effort toward flight path monitoring
Flat Terrain
requires the least amount of effort
Do not attempt a PFCS reset while _______ is changing.
rotor RPM
60-minute strip alert:
same as 120-minute strip alert with the addition of aircraft preflighted and ordnance loaded.
15-minute strip alert:
same as 30-minute strip alert with the addition of aircraft being spotted and aircrew in the aircraft.
30-minute strip alert:
same as 60-minute strip alert with aircraft turned, armed and op-checked to include weapons systems and comm checks. Once checked, dearm and shut down. Aircrews stand by in the ready room or with the airboss as appropriate.
For an engine "failed fixed" at a high-power setting, consider _________.
securing the malfunctioning engine. Once the engine is secured, it cannot be restarted.
HAT techniques
setting this function to aircraft (A/C), will show all terrain obstacles that are co-altitude to the aircraft in yellow on the DIGMAP. All obstacles that are higher in altitude will appear in red. An alternate technique that is useful when descending from altitude into terrain is to set the MSL alert altitude to the intended level off altitude. This will highlight any terrain features that are potential hazards during the descent
Cellular telephones
shall not be operated in naval aircraft while airborne.
Pilots declaring minimum fuel
should not expect special handling from FAA controllers.
2 methods of TRAP
single unit and TRAP task force (TTF).
Combat cruise:
slapping palm of hand with fist.
Evasive actions are broken into four categories:
small arms and air defense artillery (ADA); infrared surface to air missiles (SAM) and air-to-air missiles; radar warning receiver (RWR) indications; and air threat
Medium Threat
specific aircrafts performance and weapon systems capability allows acceptable exposure time to enemy air defenses. This air threat environment restricts the flexibility of tactics in the immediate target/objective area (OA). A medium-threat environment may include the following: Limited radar or EO acquisition capability not supported by fully integrated fire control systems. A fully integrated fire control system that is degraded because of terrain, weather, or other factors.
The _________ assembles units and air assets in the PZ in preparation for loading
staging plan
Embassy evacuation phases
stand fast leave via commercial means evacuation close post
The _________ is normally used by attack aircraft and operates similar to a cold FARP in that aircraft land at a single point and fuel / ordnance services come to the aircraft; the difference is that aircraft are not required to shut down.
static FARP
By OPNAV 3710, a dual engine aircraft with a single engine failure shall not proceed past a __________. If possible, execute a normal _____.
suitable airport ROL
VMM mission
support the Marine air-ground task force (MAGTF) commander by providing assault support transport of combat troops, supplies and equipment—day and night—under all-weather conditions during expeditionary, joint, or combined operations.
Above 200 KCAS, certain ____ AND ____ faults may inhibit PFCS RESET. If a PFCS RESET cannot be reset, reduce airspeed below 200 KCAS. PFCS RESET above 200 KCAS will not produce undesirable transients.
swashplate and elevator actuator
Meaconing
system of receiving radio beacon signals and rebroadcasting them on the same frequency to confuse navigation. Meaconing stations cause inaccurate bearings to be obtained by aircraft or ground stations.
Priority mission precedence
tactical movement of personnel, materiel, or equipment where excessive delay would jeopardize the success of the mission. - includes logistic operations where delay would result in excessive materiel loss either through spoilage or seizure by the enemy. - A priority CASEVAC would be assigned for the tiltrotor evacuation of seriously wounded, injured, or ill personnel who require hospitalization but whose immediate evacuation is not a matter of life or death.
AR Aircraft shall carry sufficient usable fuel to fly from
takeoff point to air refueling control point(s) (ARCP), thence to a suitable recovery field in the event of an unsuccessful refueling attempt.
Radio failure:
tap ear cup (can not receive) or microphone (can not transmit) and point down with thumb.
Formation flights shall not commence an instrument approach when the reported weather is less
than circling minimums for the particular instrument approach in use. In the event a circling approach is not authorized, the ceiling and visibility must be at least 1,000 feet and 3 statute miles.
High Threat
the enemy has an air defense structure that includes integrated fire control systems and electronic warfare capabilities that would seriously diminish the ability of friendly forces to provide necessary air support. May include: effective C2 network, mobile and/or tactical and strategic SAMs, EW radar, EW, Integrated ADA fire control systems, intercept aircraft.
LZ WINTER NO COMMS
the escorts will give an LZ winter signal by sending an aircraft back to the assault IP with a steady search light in the day (IR search light at night) and then join at the 5 or 7 o'clock to escort them to the LZ.
Exterior ballistics
the factors that affect projectile motion along the trajectory. The trajectory is the path described by the projectile's center of gravity (CG) as it passes from the muzzle, to the point of impact exterior ballistic factors affecting all weapon systems are air resistance (drag), yaw, gravity, wind drift, and projectile drift (horizontal plane gyroscopic effects).
Interior ballistics
the factors within the barrel affecting the motion of the projectile before it leaves the barrel. These factors affect the accuracy of all aerial-fired weapons regardless of T/M/S and cannot be compensated for by aircrew actions. The total effect of all interior ballistic factors determines the velocity with which the projectile leaves the muzzle. This is defined as muzzle velocity and is expressed in feet per second (fps).
Lead change (night):
the flight lead moves a chemlight or flashlight in a circular motion. The wingman mirrors the signal, accepting the lead.
Lead change (day):
the flight lead taps his forehead and points to the wingman, passing the lead. The wingman taps his forehead and points forward, accepting the lead.
Rotor wash
the force from the proprotor's downwash acting on a projectile. This force has an appreciable effect only if the aircraft has not reached translational lift (because rotor wash hits the round twice in ground effect and once out of ground effect)
Far ITG used to orient the flight to
the general location of the LZ. (e.g., IR sparkle, signal mirror)
All EM energy sources obey the same laws of physics and travel at _____ velocity?
the same
H-Hour:
the specific hour on D-Day at which a particular operations commences. The operation may be the commencement of hostilities; the hour at which an operation plan is executed or to be executed (as distinguished from the hour the order to execute is issued); the hour that the operations phase is implemented, either by land assault parachute assault, amphibious assault, air or naval bombardment
L-hour:
the time at which the first helicopter of the helicopterborne assault wave touches down in the landing zone.
Two-plane formation for subsequent flight into instrument conditions is authorized provided
the weather (ceiling and visibility) is at or above the published circling minimums for the runway in use. In the event a circling approach is not authorized, ceiling and visibility must be at least 1,000 feet and 3 statute miles.
Routine precedence definition
time is not a critical factor and delay would not endanger lives or loss of materiel
The three methods of de-confliction in the objective area are
time, lateral distance and altitude.
In icing conditions EAPS will be on. Due to the high demand on HYD 3 setting Nr ______ will assist the start.
to 100%
Goal of TRAP
to effect the expeditious return of personnel and/or aircraft without further loss of friendly forces.
Fields of fire depict the_____________________. Limited by the _____ AND _____ of the weapon system.
traverse range of a weapon system that falls within a sector of fire; sectors of fire and mechanical stops
Tiger fuel
triggers to commit to mission related actions and should be briefed by the flight lead
The ICDS Failure warning will post in the event of a _________
triple Nr sensor failure on one side.
True or false: Manual automatically goes to laser range when the gun is selected and the pilot starts lasing.
unknown. update.
The term "CLEAR" indicates
unsecure communication
180-degree offset tactical approach
used when the ingress heading is 180 degrees ±45 degrees of the landing heading, requiring an approximate 180-degree left/right turn to final.
90-degree offset tactical approach
used when the ingress heading is 90 degrees ±45 degrees from the landing heading requiring an approximate 90-degree turn to final
Straight in tactical approach
used when the ingress heading is within + 45 degrees of the landing heading for a preplanned LZ. Most desirable
aerial ballistics
vary and depend on the projectile. Projectiles fired off of the MV-22 are spin-stabilized. Factors common to tiltrotor aircraft are turning error, rotor wash error, trajectory shift, projectile jump (vertical plane gyroscopic effect), and port-starboard effect.
LAT vertical maneuver
vertical maneuver is defined by an FPV of ±5 degrees
Low battery LED indicator on Mount
voltage below 2.2 volts
Essential tasks
what must be accomplished for mission success
NAC modulation limits for shipboard ops?
when NAC angle <85 deg NAC strike on ship deck possible. When no heat-shield modulation from 70 to 96, 2 minutes, five minutes - verify
What does Maximum Sustained Turn Rate (MSTR) Diagram tell you
where maneuver can b maintained without a loss in airspeed or altitude (Ps=0)
Magellan
±5 nm 15° ±2 minute Overflight of the checkpoint without appropriate turn or maneuver
Weapons commands
• "LOCK AND LOAD" • "OPEN FIRE" • "CEASE FIRE" • "CLEAR YOUR WEAPONS" • "MAKE COMPLETE SAFE"
Elements of a trap task force
• AMC. • OSC. • Rescue vehicles (RV). • RESCORT. • RESCAP. • Support assets (e.g., EW, tankers, or FARP). • GCE security force
considerations for positioning an MV-22 in a traditional mixed flight of rotary-wing assets
• Ability to close on a flight (favors placement toward the rear or outside of the flight). • Ability to displace (favors placement toward the rear or outside of the flight). • Precision navigation capability (favors placement near the front of the flight). • Fields of fire for defensive weapons (favors placement toward the rear of the flight). • Rotor-wash and brownout/whiteout effects (favors increased separation between aircraft on landing). • CONV mode acceleration/decelerations comparable with helicopter assets.
Evacuee category II
• Alien members of American families • Allied or assisted nations legation personnel and families
MCHUM must include
• All obstructions within 100 feet of the minimum altitude for the width of the route. • All obstructions exceeding 500 feet AGL within 5 NM of the route boundary. • Any obstruction that determines an minimum safe altitude or emergency safe altitude. • All obstructions within 100 feet of the minimum altitude for the width of the route displayed on Vector Vertical Obstruction Data (VVOD).
Route Selection at Night
• Avoid brightly lit areas, roads, and population centers that may degrade NVG effectiveness. • Avoid navigational aids and airports due to hazards associated with other aviation operations and prevent detection by associated radars. • Consider shadows cast by terrain (either avoiding them for safety or taking advantage of them for concealment) when transiting mountainous areas. • Avoid route headings directly into a low rising/setting moon or sun. • Avoid being silhouetted by the moon during approach into the objective area. • Anticipate the presence of wires near roads, towers, and buildings in open fields. Look for easier to detect posts, poles, or stanchions associated with wires to facilitate acquisition. • Smart pack route cards should use a large, bold font that is easy to read under the NVGs.
Equipment required for BI
• Flare storage boxes (as required). • Two pair of welders gloves. • Set of cable cutters. • Pressurized water fire extinguishers (as required). • One shovel. • Oxygen masks (with visor) for all aircrew and passengers on the aircraft and sufficient oxygen ports in the cabin.
Tactical planning considerations
• Frequencies—appropriate time period, active/secure requirements, crypto selection. • Fuels—mission/Joker/Bingo fuels, fuel availability, fuel/time for contingency holding. • Fires—EFSTs, objective area fires integration, assault sectors of fire, ACMs. • Triggers—mission events, contingencies, event/time driven, correlated to Go/No-Go. • Deconfliction—time, lateral distance, and altitude deconfliction, routing, chokepoints. • Accountability—MACO plan, ASSAT/ASLT, reporting requirements.
LZ diagram
• LZ location (i.e., MGRS grid or latitude and longitude) • Topography • Soil composition • LZ size in meters • Elevation in feet • Orientation (N-S and E-W) • Obstacles • Winds • Ingress/egress heading • ITG • Landing formation • Landing sites and points • Sun/moon position • Fields of fire • Waveoff direction • TRPs and GEOREFs • Friendly and enemy positions • North "seeking" arrow • Frequencies
3 types AD
• Personnel. Container delivery system (CDS). Door bundle.
Sighting techniques
• Rule One—When firing to the right, the gunner should aim high and to the right side of the target. • Rule Two—When firing to the left, the gunner should aim low and to the left side of the target. • Rule Three (General Rule of Thumb)—Lead by half the size of the target and aim at 7 or 2 o'clock, depending on the direction of the weapon is employed (left: left-low or right: right-high).
SYS TOT methods
• Set SYS TOT to L-hour minus X min and plan to fly CMD GS. • Set SYS TOT for L-hour and plan to fly X min ahead. • Set SYSTOT to the IP rather than LZ. IP to LZ timing can then be used to hit TOT to the LZ
Objective area diagram
• Sun/moon azimuth and elevation during the TOS. • Forecast winds. • North seeking arrow. • Friendly positions and SoM. • Enemy positions. • Preplanned targets, TRP or GEOREFs. • FW final attack headings/cones. • Gun target line (GTL) to preplanned targets or indirect fires PDF. • Objective area communication nets (MC, TAD, COF, LZ control, GCE TAC) and key player call signs. • FSCMs. • BPs. • LZ, IP, HAs. • Assault sectors of fire. • Attack aircraft routes with heading and timing to BPs at the planned ingress ground speed. • Assault aircraft routes with heading and timing from IP to LZs at the planned ingress ground speed. • Waveoff direction. • Threat/sensor rings. • Conversion points. • ACA. • Mission coordination areas (MCA). • Datum/grid designator.
Entry into POSN HOLD occurs when:
• The POSN sub-mode commands zero ground speed. • Aircraft ground speed is less than 2.0 KGS. • Aircraft deceleration is less than 0.05G.
Evacuee category I
• US citizens • Ambassador's staff of allied or assisted nation's delegation and their families • Designated VIPs
Engine anti-ice ON will reduce engine power available by _____
≈ 7%.
HOSTILE
[A/A] A contact identified as enemy upon which clearance to fire is authorized in accordance with theater ROE. WARNING: This use of HOSTILE is as a brevity term for air-to-air engagements and should not be confused with the same term in TADIL and ROE.
SHOOTER
[A/A] Aircraft / unit designated to employ ordnance.
HOLDING HANDS
[A/A] Aircraft in visual formation.
JUDY
[A/A] Aircrew has taken control of the intercept and only requires situation awareness information; controller will minimize radio transmissions.
BEAM (ING) (DIRECTION)
[A/A] CONTACT stabilized within 70 to 110 degrees of aspect.
TERMINATE
[A/A] Cease local engagement without affecting the overall exercise.
BLOW THROUGH
[A/A] Continue straight ahead at the merge and do not become ANCHORED with target(s).
PLAYMATE .
[A/A] Cooperating aircraft
CLOSING
[A/A] Decreasing separation.
PUSHING
[A/A] Departing designated point.
PADLOCKED**
[A/A] Directive to aircrew to maintain VID of an aircraft or surface position to prevent losing TALLY / VISUAL.
TIGER
[A/A] Enough fuel and ordnance to accept a commit.
MARSHALL (ING)
[A/A] Establish/established at a specific point.
BUDDY SPIKE
[A/A] Friendly system radar lock-on indication on RWR.
TUMBLEWEED
[A/A] I have limited situational awareness, (i.e., NO JOY, BLIND) and request information.
INTERROGATE
[A/A] Interrogate the designated contact of the IFF mode indicated.
PAINT (S)
[A/A] Interrogated group / radar contact that is responding with any of the specified IFF modes and correct codes established for the ID criteria.
BROKE LOCK
[A/A] Loss of radar / IR lock-on.
NAKED
[A/A] No RWR indications.
FURBALL
[A/A] Nonfriendly aircraft and FRIENDLY aircraft are in close proximity to each other. Can be response to a DECLARE request.
SHACKLE**
[A/A] One weave; a single crossing of flight paths; maneuver to adjust or regain formation parameters. 2. Maneuver to clear the flight's 6 o'clock position.
SQUAWK (mode/code)
[A/A] Operate IFF / SIF as indicated or IFF / SIF is operating as indicated.
BREAK (DIRECTION)
[A/A] Perform an immediate maximum performance turn in the indicated direction (default is a 180-degree turn).
MUSIC
[A/A] Radar electronic deceptive jamming.
CUTOFF (direction)
[A/A] Request / directive to intercept using cutoff geometry.
BOGEY DOPE
[A/A] Request for target information as requested or for closest GROUP in BRAA (with appropriate fill-ins).
RESUME
[A/A] Resume last formation/route/mission ordered.
BUG-OUT (DIRECTION)
[A/A] Separation from that particular engagement/attack/operation with no intent to reengage/return.
FOX (NUMBER)
[A/A] Simulated/actual launch of A/A weapons. (ONE): Semiactive radar-guided missile. (TWO): IR-guided missile. (THREE): Active radar-guided missile.
SCRAMBLE
[A/A] Takeoff as quickly as possible.
CHECK (number, LEFT/RIGHT)
[A/A] Turn (number) degrees left or right and maintain new heading.
OUT (DIRECTION):
[A/A] Turn/turning to a cold aspect relative to a known threat.
YARDSTICK
[A/A] Use A/A TACAN for ranging.
KNOCK IT OFF
[A/A] [A/S] Cease all air combat maneuvers/attacks/activities/exercises (training use only).
GOGGLE / DEGOGGLE
[A/A] [A/S] Directive call for aircrew to put on/take off NVD/NVG.
SHOTGUN
[A/A] [A/S] Prebriefed weapons state.
EXTEND/EXTENDING (direction)
[A/A] [A/S] Short-term maneuver to gain energy, distance, or separation, with the intent of reengaging.
TALLY
[A/A] [A/S] Sighting of a target, bandit, bogey or enemy position; opposite of NO JOY.
BANDIT
[A/A] [AIR-MAR] Positively identified as enemy IAW theater ID criteria. The term does not necessarily imply direction or authority to engage.
BOGEY
[A/A] [S/A] A radar or visual air CONTACT whose identity is unknown.
LEAKERS
[A/A] [S/A] Airborne threat has passed through a defensive layer. Call should include amplifying information.
NO FACTOR
[A/A] [S/A] Not a threat.
BRAA
[A/A] [S/A] The following information is in a tactical control format providing target bearing, range, altitude, and aspect (BRAA) relative to the specified friendly aircraft.
DEFENSIVE (SPIKE / MISSILE / SAM / MUD / ADA)
[A/A][A/S] Aircraft is under attack, maneuvering defensively, and unable to ensure deconfliction or mutual support.
OFF (DIRECTION)
[A/A][A/S] Attack is terminated and maneuvering to the indicated direction.
REMINGTON:
[A/A][A/S] No ordnance remaining except gun or self-protect ammo.
JINK
[A/A][A/S] Perform an unpredictable maneuver to negate a tracking solution.
VISUAL
[A/A][A/S] Sighting of a friendly aircraft or ground position. Opposite of BLIND.
ROLEX (+ / - TIME)
[A/A][A/S] Timeline adjustment in minutes always referenced from original preplanned mission execution time. "Plus" means later; "minus" means earlier.
NOTCH / NOTCHING (DIRECTION)
[A/A][A/S][S/A] Aircraft is in a defensive position. Maneuver(ing) with reference to a threat.
NO JOY
[A/A][A/S][S/A] Aircrew does not have visual contact with the TARGET/ BANDIT. Opposite of TALLY.
RIDER
[A/A][S/A] A BOGEY that is complying with ACO/safe passage procedures.
SPARKLE
[A/A][S/A] An interrogated GROUP/radar contact that lacks all of the ATO (or equivalent) IFF/SIF modes and codes required for the ID criteria.
SPADES
[A/A][S/A] An interrogated group / radar contact that lacks all of the ATO (or equivalent) IFF / SIF modes and codes required for the ID criteria.
COVER
[A/A][S/A] Assign S/A weapons or establish an A/A posture that will allow engagement of a specified track or threat if required.
SQUAWKING (mode #)
[A/A][S/A] BOGEY is responding with an IFF/SIF mode or code other than that prescribed by the ATO/identification criteria
PARROT
[A/A][S/A] IFF/SIF transponder.
BLIND
[A/A][S/A] No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft/ground position. Opposite of VISUAL.
STRANGLE ( )
[A/A][S/A] Turn off equipment indicated.
LOOKING
[A/S] Aircrew does not have the ground object, reference point, or target in sight (opposite of CONTACT).
ROPE
[A/S] Circling an IR pointer around an aircraft to help the aircraft identify the friendly ground position. CAUTION: This technique may damage NVDs.
CONTINUE DRY
[A/S] Continue present maneuver, ordnance release not authorized. Note: Simulated weapons deliveries may be performed.
STOP BURN
[A/S] Directive call to discontinue IR illumination for AC-130 operations.
SUNSHINE
[A/S] Illuminating target with artificial illumination.
SNAKE
[A/S] Oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target.
TEN SECONDS
[A/S] Standby for LASER ON call in approximately 10 seconds.
STEADY
[A/S] Stop oscillation of IR pointer.
MAGNUM (system/ location)
[A/S] [EW] Launch of friendly antiradiation missile.
ARIZONA
[A/S] [EW] No ARM ordnance remaining
RIPPLE
[A/S] [S/A] Two or more munitions released or fired in close succession.
MATCH SPARKLE:
[A/S] [S/S] Overlay IR pointer.
LASER ON
[A/S] [S/S] [UAS] Start/acknowledge laser designation.
LASING
[A/S] [S/S] [UAS] The speaker is firing the laser.
SMOKE
[A/S] [UAS] Smoke marker used to mark a position.
(target/object) CAPTURED
[A/S] [UAS] Specified surface target/object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor.
SHIFT (direction/TN)
[A/S][AIR-MAR] Shift laser / IR / radar/ device energy / aimpoint.
SQUIRTER
[A/S][S/S][UAS] A ground-borne object of interest departing the objective area.
RIFLE
[A/S][UAS] Friendly A/S missile launch.
MOTHER
[AIR-MAR] Parent ship.
FATHER
[AIR-MAR] Surface TACAN station.
BUZZER
[EW] Electronic communications jamming.
SINGER (TYPE / DIRECTION)
[EW] RWR indication of SAM launch.
FEELER
[EW] Shipborne fire control radar.
ZOOM (IN/OUT):
[EW] [UAS] Increase/decrease the sensor's focal length. Note: ZOOM IN/OUT is normally followed by "ONE, TWO, THREE, or FOUR" to indicate the number of FOVs to change.
WARNING (COLOR)
[S/A] Air defense warning. Hostile attack is: (RED): Imminent or in progress. (YELLOW): Probable. (WHITE): Improbable.
SPOOFING
[S/A] Voice deception is being employed.
Tiltrotor AC are authorized to land at other than airfield locations (such as fields, highways, and parks), provided:
a. A military requirement exists for such landing. b. Adequate safeguards are taken to permit safe landing and takeoff operations without hazard to people or property. c. There are no legal objections to landing at such nonairfield sites. Commanding officers are authorized to waive the provisions in subparagraphs a through c above when dispatched helicopters, tiltrotor, or V/STOL/STOL aircraft is engaged in SAR operations.
Define Detect, Recognize, ID.
Detect: Something from nothing. Recognize: Can tell the class, tank, APC... Identify: Specific military designation.
Thermal History
Determined by its exposure to the four principle sources of thermal energy
The AGM-114F pre-cursor warhead contains ____ pounds of ____ and the main charge contains ____ pound of ____.
.64 pounds of LX-14. 13.7 pounds of LX-14.
List 4 affects of High Altitude
1. Less power available 2. more power required 3. slower Airspeed because of blade stall 4. decreased maneuverability "
HANDSHAKE
1. Link 16 Air Control NPG initiation between air control unit and controlled aircraft. 2. [A/S] [UAS] Video data link established. Opposite of HOLLOW.
Requirements for a DZ
1. Location 2. Terrain Features 3. Size 4. DZ Survey 5. Obstacles 6. Water 7. DZ Markings
What are the 3 TRAP COAs
1. Location known / ambulatory 2. Location known / not ambulatory 3. Unknown location
F(C)= F(P)= F(T)=
Failed Comm WRA (Weapons replaceable Assembly) Failed Present Status Failed test status
TUMBLEWEED
Indicates limited situational awareness; no joy; blind; a request for information.
• Scenario - Once designated as a TAC, you have been tasked to fly LAT. One of your co-pilots is not proficient and the other has not flown in over 30 days. Can you do this mission? List the requirements and restrictions.
- Yes you can go out and fly but no, you cannot complete mission as assigned - Only a LATI can fly with a pilot that has lost proficiency in LAT, so your first co-pilot will have to just fly CALS or something. - Per T&R, if not flown LAT in 30 days, the first 50 nm shall be flown at 500' to attain currency prior to descending to 200', so you can go LAT with your second co-pilot but have to stay at 500' for a while.
Terrain Shadows
-At night there is much less energy available to see in the shadow -Could help in discerning terrain features
You're flying -2 for LAT, lead crashes into the mountainside near Warner Springs, what do you do? Who do you call? What does your radio call sound like?
-Attempt to assess the crash site -Any near by landing sites -Can I pick up any survivors? -Attempt radio contact -Get a grid/location -Plot it in reference to JLI -Call LA center: "Mayday, Mayday this is Greyhawk 22, I am currently 25mi SE of JLI. Squawking 7700. My lead aircraft Greyhawk 21 has gone down. 5 souls on board. Request discrete frequency." -Attempt Base or Miramar Tower
Automatic Brightness Control (ABC)
-Automatically adjusts MCP voltage to maintain NVG image brightness at a preset output for a wide range of ileum levels -Controls the number of electrons that exit the MCP -Causes the NVG to "GAIN UP" or "GAIN DOWN" according to light level -At low ileum the benefit from the high gain intensifier tubes is realized to where at high ileum the ABC holds image brightness constant -Tube gain increases from full moon down to star light ileum -Limits the effect of sudden bright flashes
Visual Acuity and Resolution
-Basically a TV image -Contrast . Reduction in contrast occurs as the eye is presented the monochromatic green image and color contrast cues are lost . Contrast is further reduced as ambient light levels decrease beyond the capability of the I2 tubes ABC .Degain further takes contrast away -Misadjustments will increase the likelihood for degradation -Defects such as minor tube alignment discrepancies can lead to headaches or double vision
NVGs Operate in this portion of the spectrum?
-Below 3 Microns, the background is dominated by reflected and scattered solar or lunar radiation -Visible and NEAR INFARED
Terrain Profile
-Cant merely read off the RADALT -Must operate according to the terrain
GAU-16 Caliber
.50
Image intensifier tube
-Electorinic device amplifying available atmospheric illumination or light
EOTDA
-Electro Optical Tactical Decision Aid -Determine the effects of environmental conditions on the performance of NVDs, FLIR, and LASER
EOC
-Equipment Operational Capability -EOC codes are documented when a specific system or subsystem is degraded and impacts the mission capability of that equipment or aircraft.
Degoggle
-Final landing will be accomplished with NVGs on. -Degoggling will take place after
Eyepiece
-Final optical component -Focus the light from the phosphor screen and fiber optic inverter onto the eye
Objective Lens
-First optical component -Combo of optical elements that function to FOCUS INCOMING RAYS OF LIGHT ONTO the image intensifier tube
Ability to sign at night
-Flight with in last 15 days
NVGs are dependent on?
-Some sort of external illumination -Moon -Stars -Cultural Lighting (city) -In some Cases the Sun
Exterior Lighting
-Will have adverse effect on NVGs because of design -The area illuminated by the searchlight will be much brighter and the area outside of the beam will be darker -When flying in well lit areas, consider using searchlight landing light to offset -Detection ranges of other aircraft are significantly greater than with the unaided eye
Evacuation Control Center
-consist of search, processing, screening, and medical sections. - A standard ECC package is designed for short-range operations that require screening of not more than 100 evacuees per hour. -Normally, 25 to 50 personnel are required to operate the ECC 1 Headquarters (HQ) Section. 2 Processing Unit. 3 Medical Unit. 4 Screening Unit. 5 Transportation Unit. 6 Security Unit.
Reflected light (Luminance)
-expressed in terms of foot-lamberts (ft-L)
Illuminance
-expressed in terms of unit lux or lumens per square meter (lm/m squared)
Phosphors emit?
-light when electrons strike them and the output light wavelength is a function of the type of phosphor used
Can a TAC change the medical assessment status in a CASEVAC
-yes he can increase it ie( priority to urgent) but he can not decrease it
AN/AVS9R NVG
...
CLOUDS
...
Contrast difference
...
Effects of Atmospheric Conditions
...
FLIR
...
FOG
...
Lock-Release Button
...
MAWTS-1 Goggle/Degoggle Procedures ON DECK
...
NVD Manual
...
NVG SCENE INTERPRETATION
...
RAIN
...
SAND, DUST
...
SNOW
...
WIND
...
WINDS
...
8 MIN ALIGN COMPLETE advisory is displayed when...
...all 3 INSs have completed 8 minutes of GC alignment. This indicator is used to indicate that it is permissible to taxi to a new offset HDG for the second phase of an EIA
PRECISION NAV READY advisory is displayed when...
...all 3 INSs have completed a full EIA and can provide the specified 0.5 nm/hr or better navigation performance. Estimated accuracy is 0.5 nm/hr.
Starlight
.00022 lux (about one tenth the level of a quarter moon)
Starlight, the other significant illumination souce in the night sky, provides _____ lux.
.00022 lux.
HLL and infinity focus distance.
.0022 lux. 150 feet.
Combat Cruise definition
.3 to 1.0 Nm on any bearing up to 110° either side.
Visible Range of EM Spectrum
.4 - .7 Microns
All laser energy between what and what is absorbed by retinas?
.4 to 1.4 microns
What are the three types of short takeoffs?
1. 60 deg att capture 2. 60 deg level attitude 3. 75 deg level attitude"
What are the three ASE systems
1. AN/ALE-47(V) 2. AN/AAR-47B(V)2 3. AN/APR-39A(V)2
SPOT
1. Acquisition of laser designation. 2. Platform is LST capable.
Flight plans shall be filed based on the following 3 weather criteria:
1. Actual weather at point of departure and time of clearance. 2. Existing and forecast weather for route of flight. 3. Destination and alternate forecast plus or minus one hour of ETA.
Fatigue
1. Acute 2. Cumulative 3. Circadian
HOLLOW
1. Any data link message not received. 2. [A/S] [UAS] Lost video data link. Opposite of HANDSHAKE.
Case II Procedures
1. Arrive at 12NM, 1200ft. (You can get controlled descent to 800ft if unable to get visual contact at 12NM. 2. If no visual contact by 5NM then you will be cectored to the radar pattern for CCA or TACAN approach
6 functions of Marine aviation
1. Assault support 2. Antiair warfare 3. Offensive air support 4. Electronic warfare 5. Aerial reconnaissance 6. Control of aircraft and missiles
Name the 5 objective area contingencies:
1. Asset attrition 2. TRAP 3. Casevac 4. Immediate Re-embark 5. Emergency extract
To prevent damage to the I2 tubes the power supply has been designed with two automatic protection features?
1. Automatic Brightness Control (AMC) 2. Bright Source Protection -Control the gain of the I2 tube, extend service life, and have a direct effect on performance and resolution
What are the 2 ways of dispensing fuel
1. Aviation Ground Support (AGS) using tactical fuel systems 2. Aviation delivered ground refueling (ADGR) using aircraft specific refueling systems on board the KC-130, CH-53, and MV-22."
List the eight designation errors.
1. Boresight error. 2. Beam divergence. 3. Backscatter. 4. Overspill. 5. Underspill. 6. Attenuation. 7. Spot Jitter. 8. Entrapment.
What must be accomplished prior to the removal of chocks and chains
1. Both engines must be operating 2. AFCS on 3. Must be flight ready with takeoff and lineup checks complete (NATOPS 8.2.4.1)
Types of Radar APR can detect
1. C/D band from underneath blade antenna, 2. E-K band from spiral antennas. Types of radar detected: Low probability intercept (LPI), pulse doppler, continuous wave. 3. Millimeter Wave threats (K-band) via the smaller peripheral dome of the antenna-detector element"
5 mandatory contingencies
1. CASEVAC 2. TRAP 3. Immediate reembark (permissive) 4. Emergency extract (nonpermissive) 5. Asset attrition
Goggle/DeGoggle Three Times
1. Chock-to-chock 2. Airborne 3, Outlying field or LZ
Magellan standards
1. Lateral deviations: 1:50k routes +/- 500m 1:250k routes +/- 1nm 2. Heading deviations: 15* 3. Timing deviations: +/- 1 min 4. Other deviations: over flight of the checkpoint without appropriate turn or maneuver"
BINGO
1. Fuel state needed for recovery. 2. Proceed / am proceeding to specified base (field) or carrier.
BINGO
1. Fuel state needed for recovery. 2. Proceed / am proceeding to specified base (field) or carrier.
Chock-to-chock
1. Goggle. Prior to taxi, all aircrew will have their goggles donned and activated for use. All exterior and interior lighting will be set as briefed 2. Degoggle. The final landing will be accomplished with the NVGs on. Degoggling will take place after the aircraft has taxied to a designated spot in the line environment
5 basic plans required for assault support
1. Ground SOM 2. Landing plan 3. Air movement plan 4. Load plan 5. Staging plan
RVL approach parameters
1. Ground speeds greater than 15 KGS at 50 feet. 2. Ground speeds greater than 5 KGS at 20 feet. 3. Lateral drift greater than 3 KGS at touchdown. 4. Rate of descent greater than 400 fpm. 5. Climbing above profile in a hover or entering a HOGE condition. 6. Obstacle clearance cannot be maintained. 7. Exceeding safe distance from intended point of landing, determined in mission planning.
List the 5 stages of air assault planning in the order that they should be planned:
1. Ground tactical plan. 2. Landing plan. 3. Air movement plan. 4. Loading plan. 5. Staging plan. Memory aid: plan backwards.
NVG Performance Factors
1. ILLUMINATION 2. TERRAIN CONTRAST 3. ATMOSPHERIC CONDITIONS
List the 3 types of lasers for the GAU-16
1. IZLID 200P 2. IZLID 1000P 3. AN/PEQ-3 ***All hand-held"
Final approach configuration for Carrier Controlled Approaches
1. If executing an instrument approach to a VFR break, fly final approach at 60 degrees nacelle, 110 KCAS 2. If executing an instrument approach to a landing, plan to arrive at the final approach fix (usually 3 miles) with gear down, 60 degrees nacelle, 110 KCAS. Plan to arrive at the missed approach point at 75 degrees nacelle, 80-90 KCAS. (NATOPS 8.6.1)
MERGE (D)
1. Information that friendlies and targets have arrived in the same visual arena. 2. Call indicating radar returns have come together.
COLD
1. Initiate / initiating a turn in the CAP away from the anticipated threat. 2. Defined area is not expected to receive fire (enemy or friendly). 3. Intercept geometry will result in a pass or roll out behind the target. 4. Contact aspect stabilized 0-20 degrees from the tail or 160-180 degrees from the nose.
HOT
1. Initiate / initiating a turn in the CAP toward the anticipated threats. 2. Defined area is expected to receive fire (enemy or friendly). 3. Ordnance employment intended or completed. 4. Intercept geometry will result in passing in front of the target.
Preflight
1. Inspect Helmet (Fit, mount) 2. Inspect Quick Don Block Mount (Cracks, clear and clean, wiring, test controls) 3. Load Battery Pack and Mount to Helmet (Power pack off, Attach and align red dots) 4. Inspect Binocular Assembly (No damage to either housing, May move independent of each other but should not be excessive, rotate controls to ensure freedom of movement, free from dust, dirt, grime) 5. Inspect lenses (Smudges, debris, scratches, or other damage. SHALL ONLY BE CLEANED BY MAINTENANCE. If smudge after preflight, use lens paper) 6. Preset Eyepiece or Diopter Adjustment Ring (Initially set to 0) 7. Preset Fore and Aft or Eye Relief Adjustment (Set full forward initially) 8. Center Tilt (Ensure IPD do not move when manipulating tilt lever) 9. Set IPD (Rotate wheels to ensure the mechanisms move freely) 10. Adjust Vertical (Tracks smoothly to the upper and lower limits of movement, set centered) 11. Don Helmet (Check for comfort and to prepare) 12. Attach and Remove Binocular Assembly (90ºalign when attached) a. Battery switch off b. Check lock up and down c. Press lock release button and rotate full down d. Remove them with the intermediate vertical position slight rocking e. Practice donning and doffing bino's
Weapons Commands
1. LOCK AND LOAD, 2. OPEN FIRE, 3. CEASE FIRE, 4. CLEAR YOUR WEAPONS 5. MAKE COMPLETE SAFE
TARGET
1. [A/A] Assignment of targeting responsibilities. 2. [A/S][S/S] ROE, PID, coordination of forces, and commander's guidance requirements on the referenced target/track have been satisfied. Target/track correlation and CDE must be accomplished prior to employing ordnance/fires. 3. ** [AIR-MAR] ROE, PID, coordination of forces, and commander's guidance requirements on the referenced target/ track have been satisfied. Target/track correlation and clear field of fire must be accomplished prior to employing ordnance/fires.
CAP / CAPPING
1. [A/A] Establish a CAP at a specified location. 2. [A/A] Aircraft established in an orbit.
MERGE/MERGED
1. [A/A] FRIENDLIES and targets have arrived in the visual arena. 2. Radar returns have come together.
SNAP
1. [A/A] Fighter request for immediate BRAA call (with appropriate fill-ins) to the GROUP described. Indicates fighter intent to intercept/join. 2. (heading) Urgent directive call to turn to a heading.
TRACKING
1. [A/A] GROUP/CONTACT's direction of flight/movement. 2. [A/S][S/S] Directive call assigning responsibility to maintain sensors/visual on a defined object or area to an asset. 3. [A/S][UAS] Rotary wing directive call to establish rac
ID
1. [A/A] Identify the target/track. 2. (type) [A/A] Identification is accomplished, followed by type.
COLD
1. [A/A] Initiate / initiating a turn in the CAP away from the anticipated threat. 2. [A/S] [UAS] Defined area is not expected to receive fire (enemy or friendly). 3. [A/A] Intercept geometry will result in a pass or roll out behind the target. 4. [A/A] Contact aspect stabilized 0-20 degrees from the tail or 160-180 degrees from the nose.
HOT
1. [A/A] Initiate/initiating a turn in the CAP toward the anticipated threats. 2. Defined area is expected to receive fire (enemy or FRIENDLY). 3. * Ordnance employment intended or completed. 4. * [A/A] CONTACT aspect stabilized at 160-180 degrees angle from tail or 0-20 degrees angle from nose. 5. [A/A] Intercept geometry will result in passing in front of the target.
COMEOFF (direction)
1. [A/A] Maneuver as indicated to either regain mutual support or to deconflict flight paths. Implies both VISUAL and TALLY. 2. [A/S][UAS] Maneuver or execute a specific instruction (e.g., COME OFF DRY).
CLEAN
1. [A/A] No sensor information on a GROUP of interest. 2. No visible battle damage. 3. Aircraft not carrying external stores.
NAILS
1. [A/A] RWR indication of AI radar in search. 2. [A/S] 2.75-inch flechette rockets.
STATUS
1. [A/A] Request for an individual's tactical situation. 2. (GROUP) Request for a full positional update on a specified GROUP (default is digital bullseye).
FLASH (SYSTEM)
1. [A/A] Temporarily activate specified system for identification purposes (IFF/afterburner/flare/chaff/etc). 2. [A/S][S/S] Clear the net immediately, critical information to follow. (e.g., "FLASH, FLASH, FLASH this is Frontier 6, immediate medevac, grid to follow."
STINGER
1. [A/A] Three-ship inner GROUP formation with two lead CONTACTs line abreast and the SINGLE in trail. 2. [S/A] An IR MANPAD.
IN (DIRECTION)
1. [A/A] Turning toward a known threat. Opposite of OUT. 2. (type) [A/S] Entering terminal phase of an air-to-ground attack. Opposite of OFF.
DROP(PING)
1. [A/A][A/S] Stop/stopping monitoring of specified emitter/ target/GROUP and resume/resuming search responsibilities. 2. (TRACK___) Remove the emitter/target from tactical picture/track stores. 3. [EW] Remove a specific system or EOB category from search responsibilities.
SLIDE
1. [A/A][EW] Continue/continuing present mission while flowing from station in response to perceived threat, implies intent to RESET. 2. [A/S] Directive or descriptive term to laterally reposition helicopter.
SPLASH/SPLASHED
1. [A/A][S/A] Target destroyed. 2. [A/S][S/A] Weapons impact. 3. [S/S] Informative call to observer or spotter 5 seconds prior to estimated time of impact.
SPOT
1. [A/S] Acquisition of laser designation. 2. Platform is LST capable.
POP
1. [A/S] Starting climb for air-to-surface attack. 2. [A/A] Max performance climb out of low altitude structure.
CLEARED HOT
1. [A/S] Type 1 and 2 CAS terminal attack control clearance to release ordnance on this pass. 2. [A/S] Training range operations: RCO/RSO authorizes ordnance release.
MUD (TYPE/DIRECTION)
1. [A/S][EW] RWR ground threat displayed with no launch indication. 2. [A/S][EW] RWR indication of surface threat in track mode. See DIRT and SINGER.
SMACK
1. [A/S][S/S] Clearance to employ ordnance/fires on surface target coordinates. ROE, PID, CDE, coordination of forces, and commander's guidance requirements on the referenced target/track have been satisfied. Not to be utilized in a CAS engagement. 2. [AIR-MAR] Clearance to employ ordnance/fires on surface target coordinates/Link-16 track. ROE, PID, clear field of fire, coordination of forces, and commander's guidance requirements on the referenced target/track have been satisfied.
IIMC fan break
2. The lead establishes base heading, altitude, and airspeed. 3. Wingman take separation interval from base heading and altitude: Offset heading by position in the flight multiplied by 10° (e.g., aircraft number three offsets 30°). Climb in 200 ft increments (e.g., aircraft number three climbs 400 ft). 4. All turns are made at standard rate, climbs are made at 500 to 1000 fpm. 5. Each wingman flies at separation heading for thirty seconds, then returns to the base heading.
The M156 smoke rocket contains ____ pounds of ____.
2.0 pounds of white phosphorus.
The AGM-114K pre cursor contains ____ pounds of ____ and the main charge contains ____ pounds of ____.
2.2 pounds of LX-14. 12.6 pounds of LX-14.
The AGM-114K2 pre cursor contains ____ pounds of ____ and the main charge contains ____ pounds of ____.
2.2 pounds of PBXN-9.
The Mk 67 Mod 1 smoke rocket contains ____ pounds of ____.
2.6 pounds of red phosphorus.
Minimum safe distances for: 2.75 inch HE, Hellfire, and all others.
2.75 inch: 700 meters. Hellfire: 900 meters. All other: 500 meters.
After internal temperature changes of more than ___ degrees C, a BSR will be displayed in the FOR box.
20 degrees celcius.
LOBL offset and minimum
20 degrees max offset increases minimum to 700 meters
Min LZ size
20 feet of obstacle clearance during the day, 50 feet of obstacle clearance at night, and 100 feet of obstacle clearance in reduced visibility.
In no case shall the planned fuel reserve after final landing at destination or alternate airfield, if one is required, be less than that needed for ________ of flight, computed as follows:
20 minutes Turbine-powered fixed-wing/tiltrotor aircraft. Compute fuel consumption based on maximum endurance operation at 10,000 feet.
In no case shall the planned fuel reserve after final landing at destination or alternate airfield be less than that needed for _____ minutes of flight.
20 minutes.
Laser range automatically updates based on helicopter movement sensed by the EGI for ____ seconds after laser input.
20 seconds.
Talk through leak logic:
20% Loss = Res Low 30+ cubic inches = Leak 40+ cubic inches = Leak in NAC 50+ cubic inches = Hyd Fail Goal is to provide fluid to the swash plate actuators. Isolate any leaks and preserve fluid.
Tactical descent
20% Qm 240 kcas 4000 fpm
Max descent
20% Qm 260 kcas 6500 fpm
With an off board laser from an RQ-7B, AGM-114 employment should not be farther than ____ from the target location.
4.1 kilometers.
Goggle field of view and difference between NVG compatible and friendly lighting.
40 degree. Compatible must fall outside the range. Friendly is visible to both eye and goggles but wont degain.
The elevator will go to the stow position when the helicopter is less than _____ knots and the collective position is less than ____ percent up.
40 knots. 10 percent.
When RIPPLE is selected on the back of a LAU, one aircraft firing pulse fires all rockets with a ______ millisecond interval.
40 millisecond.
On a moonless night, about ____ percent of the energy is provided by emissions from atoms and molecules in the upper atmosphere known as ____.
40%. Airglow.
The human eye is sensitive to energy wavelengths between ____ and ____ nanometers.
400 and 700 nanometers.
The I2 tubes are sensitive from ____ to ____ nanometers with peak sensitivity between ____ and ___ nanometers but are effectively filtered for cockpit compatibility below ____.
400 to 950. 600-900 peak. 665.
Eyeball sensitive to?
400-700 nm
Total fuel capacity, unusable, negative g flight available, and Gravity fueling limit.
409, 5 gallons, 5 seconds, 138 gallon per minute.
Aircraft operating in a single engine condition can also fly the ELP to mitigate the risk of the remaining engine failing. FLAPS are set to ____ and _____
40° TCL full aft.
OL Focal Range
41 cm to beyond optical infinity (150 ft)
MDF
4109
MDF for your aircraft?
4109
Maximum safe relative wind for folding or unfolding the blades and wing stow
45 knots
The hover box may be displayed once the aircraft is slowed below ___ knots and cyclic 9 is pressed.
45 knots.
Maximum safe relative wind conditions for folding or unfolding the proprotor blades and wing stow/unstow
45 kts from any quadrant (NATOPS 8.2.3)
TAC turns maneuver to change the direction of flight how many degrees? What is assumed
45 to 120 degrees 90 degrees is assumed
Evacuee subcategories
A Pregnant women B Unaccompanied children under 18 C Aged and infirm D Adults with children E Adults 18 years of age or older
FURBALL
A turning fight involving multiple aircraft with known bandits and friendlies mixed.
Go through the ADB:
A-Sheet: Signed off, Date, EPP Oil Consumptions Daily/Turnaround: Check Date 020: Maintenance Control 030: Maintenance Admin 040: QA 120: Airframes 130: Flight Equipment 220: Avionics 230: Ordy 310: Flightline Last 10 Flights
ACTIONS AT THE ASSAULT INITIAL POINT
A. "2 MINUTES FROM LZ": Embarked Marines prepare for landing and load weapons as appropriate. B. Advise the serial leader of any delay or change to the LZ. C. Inform serial leaders on the landing direction before debarking Marines. D. Inform serial leaders whenever the insert element composition changes (e.g., "DASH LAST WITH SERIAL 1234-1 WENT DOWN EN ROUTE"). E. Whenever transition to the alternate LZ is required.
VBSS TEMPLATE A. ASSAULTS: B. SNIPER PLATFORM: C. RW ESCORT: D. UAS: E. FW ESCORT: F. AC2: G. SHOULDERING SHIP: H. COI: I. Coordination level is
A. 300 feet AGL and below. B. 500 feet AGL C.500 to 2,000 feet AGL. D. 3,000 to 4,000 feet MSL E. 10,000 to 18,000 feet MSL. F. Low: 6,000 to 9,000; Hi 19,000 to 23,000 feet MSL. G. All bearings relative to shouldering ship BRC and TACAN. H. Contact of Interest. I. 3,000 feet MSL.
At a minimum, AMCs and flight leaders should consider the following contingencies:
A. Asset attrition B. TRAP C. Casevac D. Emergency extract E. Immediate re-embark ATICE
The two common FARP fuel delivery methods are:
A. Aviation Ground Support (AGS) using tactical fuel systems. B. Aviation Delivered Ground Refueling (ADGR) using aircraft specific refueling systems on board the KC-130, CH-53, and MV-22.
Which weapons symbology has precedence over hellfire and will replace hellfire reticles if selected?
AIM-9.
What are the types of stores automatically identified on the weapons tree?
AIM-9. Hellfire. Aux tank.
If WOG sensing or the internal WOG circuit fails, the WOG output sill default to _____.
AIR.
ASTACSOP Holding in APLN and CONV:
APLN - RHT, 190 kcas, 5 nm legs CONV - RHT, 120 kcas, 1 minute legs
What does a flashing plus (+) symbol displayed in the center of the EW display mean?
APR-39 threat detection capability delayed.
The ____ will automatically shutdown for a fire in the midwing area.
APU
The standard for reporting accountability (e.g., troops into or out of an LZ) is using the _______
ASSAT serial number.
Thermal Mass
Ability of a body to store heat
Emissivity
Ability of an object to emit energy compared to a blackbody at the same temperature
Troubleshooting of the NVGs will be either?
Above 300' AGL, S&L or On the Deck
Similar to fog but more?
Absorption
PLAYTIME
Amount of time aircraft can remain on station, given in hours plus minutes (e.g., ONE PLUS THIRTY equals 1 hour and 30 minutes).
PLAYTIME
Amount of time aircraft can remain on station.
AATC
Amphibious Air Traffic Control Center - Centralized air control agency responsible for control of all aircraft not assigned to the TACC and responsible for IMC approach and departure control.
ASTACSOP holding
Apln- 190 kts, 5 mile legs, right turns, join from high to low Conv- 120 kts, 1 minute legs, right turns, join from high to low
When does the gear warning go off? What altitude/ nacelle angle?
Armed: T/O, NAC >70°, >500 FPM rate of climb Low Alt: <200FPM rate of climb for 3 sec below 240' AGL Armed: >240'AGL or NAC<70° High Alt: <200' AGL and NAC >70°
Carrier Controlled Approach configuration at FAF and MAP
Arrive at FAF (3mi) with gear down 60 degree nacelle, 110 KCAS Hit MAP at 75 degree nacelle. 80-90 kts
Wet Sand or Clay
Clay
What is more reflective? Wet Dark Plowed Soil or Clay
Clay
Flashing Green ALDIS Lamp
Cleared to enter the Charlie Pattern
Charlie
Cleared to land
Steady Green ALDIS Lamp
Cleared to land
FLIR system can detect what type of clouds?
Clouds that may be invisible with NVGs or to the naked eye
Constant rain over extended period will do what to the surfaces?
Cool surfaces to uniform temperature and decrease contrast
PLAYMATE
Cooperating aircraft.
Corner Speed
Corner speed is the speed at which maximum instantaneous turn rate is achieved.
Black Spots
Cosmetic blemishes in the I2 tube or dirt debris between lenses
From Left to Right, type of wavelengths below EM Spectrum
Cosmic Rays Gamma Rays X-Rays Ultra Violet Micro Waves Radio Waves Audio AC
What is the purpose of the AN/ALE-47(V)
Counter Measure Dispensing System (CMDS) is an integrated, reprogrammable, threat-adaptive, computer controlled aircraft defense system designed to provide protection against hostile radar and infrared threats through the use of expendable decoys.
ALE-47 function/description
Countermeasures dispensing set (CMDS)
O2 on ALE-47
Covert flare
Currency def
Currency - Currency is a control measure used to provide an additional margin of safety based on exposure frequency to a particular skill. It is a measure of time since the last event demanding that specific skill. Loss of currency does not affect a loss of proficiency. For example, currency determines minimum altitudes in rules of conduct based upon the most recent low altitude flight.
What determines the degradation of NVG performance
Density and particle size
What is of primary concern?
Density of flakes
What determines the degradation of image with snowfall
Density of snowfall
PUSHING
Departing designated point.
E/M Diagrams
Depict E State (climb rate, acceleration rate, airspeed) and maneuverability (turn rate, turn radius, AOB) at specific environmental conditions
FLARES*
Deploy / deploying flares.
Desert or Dirt Road
Desert
Designation
Designation - A designation is a status assigned to an individual based on leadership ability. Designations are command specific and remain in effect until removed for cause or the individual is transferred to another command.
List the NOHD for the following TSS modes: Designator, IR DIODE, IR POINTER.
Designator: 17,700 meters. IR DIODE: 500 meters. IR POINTER: 260 meters.
Intentional
Enemy Smoke Oil Fires
Electromagnetic Spectrum
Energy available in the night sky and its relationship to the eye and electro-optical systems
Turning error
Engagement of a target in a turn results in rounds that impact short and inside the turn. To compensate for this ballistic factor, elevate the boreline axis of the weapon above the target. --> For example, the gunner must aim high and opposite the direction of the turn.
Talk about the EPP and what it means. What's the EPP limit? Is the bird down if it goes below that percentage?
Engine Performance Percentage Found on the A-Sheet 95% = don't take it
What are the 12 subsystems of the Utility Hyd system? (Exterior-NAC & Nose - 3) (Top - midwing - 3) (Inside - 3) (Bottom -3)
Engine Start EAPS Aereal Refuel Probe * Rotor Brake RPU (positioning unit) Wing Stow Cargo Winch Ramp & Door Rescue Hoist Wheelbrakes * Nose Wheel Stearing Landing Gear actuators * * - means they have back-ups
TIGER
Enough fuel and ordnance to accept a commit.
Standard descent
Enroute airspeed, 2000 fpm
Airplane mode break procedure
Enter at 800ft and within 4nm of the ship. All breaks shall be level. A descent to 600ft to intercept the downwind leg of the landing pattern shall commence when established downwind. Descent to 600ft and deceleration to 170 KCAS shall be complete prior to reaching the abeam position. Abeam the spot begin a conversion and turn to final. (NATOPS 8.3.2.2)
Cloud cover tends to do what to the temperature of objects on the ground?
Equalize Making man made objects stick out against the washed out background
MARSHALL (ING)
Establish(ed) at a specific point.
FAA exemption 8028
FAA Exemption 8028_ allows the DoN to conduct U.S. Marine Corps aircraft night vision device flight training operations without lighted position lights. The following conditions and limitations are excerpts from the exemption regarding training operations. 1. A flight of two or more aircraft must have a dedicated observer aboard each aircraft to provide timely traffic notifications with nonparticipating traffic. 2. Flights need to be escorted by a properly lighted aircraft serving as an observation platform. 3. When nonparticipating aircraft are relevant, the PIC of each aircraft must light its position lights and keep them lighted until traffic is no longer a factor. 4. Training operations must be conducted at or below 500' AGL and contained within a prescribed and publicized area that is simply defined, is established in an area of low traffic density, is not within 4 NM of any public use airport, does not infringe upon FAA designated airspace areas, and has been coordinated with the appropriate FAA regional offices.
During a single engine failure, the _____ will attempt an automatic relight.
FADEC
PMG 1 is primary power source for _____, with backup power from ______ and a dedicated ________. PMG 2 is primary power source for _____ with backup power from _____ and the _________. PMG 1 is part of generator 3, PMG 2 is part of generator 4, but PMG is electrically independent of generator.
FCC1 dc bus 1 1.5 A‐h battery FCC2 dc bus 1 essential/battery bus
Which is effected more by moisture in the atmosphere, NVGs or FLIR?
FLIR.
What do you do if faced with a "must plug" situation and your boost pumps have been commanded ON by the FMU prior to selecting FMU/AERIAL REFUEL?
FMU has commanded the boost pumps ON and cannot be overridden if FMU/AERIAL REFUEL was not selected prior to refueling. Using the PCL, ref. AERIAL REFUELING WITH A FAILED FMU. The only way to override the boost pumps is to disconnect them from the system by following step 9 to pull CB. Once pulled, the option to select TPUMP BOOST-OFF will be available. Clean up will be done by following POST AERIAL REFUELING WITH A FAILURE checklist.
What option do you have if you needed more fuel to fly?
FMU will make the inop eng feed tank fuel avail once all other fuel has been exhausted.
If no contact is made on CSAR A or B attempt contact on 243.0 then 282.8 and broadcast "_______,_______,________ THIS IS LEGACY 09." Listen for 1 minute, repeat two more times. If comms are not established, secure the radio.
FOOTRACE, FOOTRACE, FOOTRACE
POLAR BEAR
FRIENDLY aircraft has VISUAL/CONTACT on the FRIENDLY package and is joining.
ANYFACE
FRIENDLY command and control agency when call sign is not known
What is the primary purpose of Fire Support Coordination Methods.
Facilitate the attacks of targets.
Unintentional
Factory Smoke Brown Out
Parrot
IFF transponder
PARROT
IFF transponder.
Transfer alignment is a process by which the ____ position and ___ position are correlated to establish alignment between both the TV and FLIR, and the aircraft. XA FOM range from ____ to ____. ___ is optimal.
IMU and EGI. 0 and 9. 0 best.
Monitoring the following can help determine the accuracy of the system:
INS Alignment INS Status GPS Almanac GPS Status GPS Health INS Updates
INS Impact on GPS
INS Impact on GPS: 1. Accelerated GPS in-flight initialization 2. Helps prevent loss of GPS satellite signal lock in high gain maneuvers with faster reacquisition 3. Assists with detecting GPS anomalies, thereby reducing vulnerability to GPS electronic counter measures during wartime 4. Faster initial GPS initialization due to PPS and Time Of Day
BURN [A/S]
IR illuminator is being used to provide illumination of surface points of interest for AC-130 operations.
LUU 19
IR. Can only be seen on NVGs 420 to 540 seconds of illumination at 450 to 650 watts/steradian after a minimum ignition altitude of 6,000 feet AGL. Therefore at approximately 4000m slant range a single LUU-19 flare will provide 0.0022 lux.
Laser approved for MV-22B use
IZLID 200P
Dissimilar rocket warheads may be selected for multiple station firing, however, ____ and ____ warheads cannot be selected for firing in combination with any other warhead.
Illumination and flechette.
Interaction between terrain contrast and what is critical to understand?
Illumination level
ROPE
Illumination of an aircraft with an IR pointer.
What are the three major factors that influence NVD performance?
Illumination, terrain contrast, atmospheric obscurations.
List the 2 types of TRAP
Immediate / deliberate
The Mk 423 is a ____ fuze. Air travel to arm is ____ to ____ feet and time to arm is ____ to ____ seconds.
Impact. 140-300 feet. 0.63 to 0.82
The Mk 435 is a ____ fuze. It is the Navy IM compliant versions of the ____ and the _____ fuzes. Arming distance is ____ to ____ meters.
Impact. M423 and M427. 43 to 92 meters.
Collimation
Improper collimation can cause an oblong FOV, two separate pictures, or shading
TECHNICAL
Improvised fighting vehicle (usually civilian vehicles modified with weapons)
LLL Lat note
In LLL conditions, 300' AGL in airplane (APLN) mode is authorized for a 0-30 day LAT current crew along an approved route segment of 50 nm or less. Descent to 300 AGL under these circumstances shall be commenced from a wings level attitude. Once established at the lower altitude, the aircraft is limited to 30° angle of bank with no single turn exceeding 60° of heading change. Prior to flying a route segment at 300' AGL in LLL conditions, the segment shall be screened to ensure that there are no obstructions in excess of 200'AGL for three nautical miles either side of the route width.
Explain INS/GPS blended mode
In the INS/GPS Blended Mode, the characteristics of each navigation subsystem complement each other to maintain a reliable Navigation System. In this mode, inertial data or any other sensor inputs will not degrade available GPS performance. The incorporation of GPS data does not cause the system performance to be degraded below the INS-Only specification. However, the loss of either GPS or INS will degrade overall Navigation System performance.
• What does the bypass switch do on the CMDS for the ALE-47?
In the event a CMDS NOGO fail appears, this will bypass the programmer and command a preprogrammed dispense directly from the sequencer.
Two separate situations may exist at the MAG level and above:
In the first case, the ACE is tasked as a MAGTF supporting effort. In the second case, the ACE is identified as the MAGTF's main effort
IIMC CUES
Increased chance of occurring because of ability to see through thin clouds and layers. Increased HALO EFFECT Degraded NVG image Obscuration of Moon and stars Increased image scintillation Loss of ground lights
The only repercussion is a voltage increase between the photocathode and MCP which requires?
Increased spacing between the two components to prevent arcing -CAUSES INCREASED HALO when viewing bright light sources
BLIND
No visual contact with friendly aircraft / ground position. Opposite of VISUAL.
• Would you take a plane that has a PLCU fail on a night flight?
No. cockpit lighting required for night flight.
LUU-2B/B BI
Normal light 240 secs, 1.9 million candlepower 2000m diameter circle of illumination 2500ft ignition altitude
State Manpads NATO names
SA-7 Grail SA-14 Gremlin SA-16 Gimlet SA-18 Grouse SA-24 Grinch SA-29 Gizmo QW-2, CSA-8 FN-6, CSA-10 FN-16, CSA-14
Our METs:
SEA, SHORE, CAT, AD, TRAP, AE, RIE, ADGR, BI, C&C
What do the following missile states mean on the Weapons Page? SEL, RDY, SLV, TRK.
SEL: Selected for spin up. RDY: Missile has accepted code. SLV: TRK: Missile has acquired laser energy and is tracking.
Mission statement of the VMM:
SUPPORT THE MAGTF COMMANDER BY PROVIDING ASSAULT SUPPORT TRANSPORTATION OF TROOP, SUPPLIES AND EQUIPMENT—DAY OR NIGHT—UNDER ALL WEATHER CONDITIONS DURING EXPEDITIONARY, COMBINED, OR JOINT OPERATIONS
What is the nomenclature of the launcher that drops LUU-2 and LUU-19 flares? How many flares can the launcher carry?
SUU-25 and can carry 8 flares.
Scan lists
Scan lists can either be plain text or cipher text, but not both. If scanning both plain and cipher text, the scan list will have to be all cipher text. This will allow plain text reception, but will not allow transmission of plain text while in scan. Preset channel 31 and 32 are always present with no frequency displayed. The comment field for Channel 31 is labeled SCAN1, and the comment field for Channel 32 is labeled SCAN2.
_______ are executed based on the need to counter a threat. The flight leader determines if the flight will execute the ________.
Scatter plans, scatter plan.
Particle size will result in?
Scattering
What are the two types of preplanned missions
Scheduled and on call
• What are the 6 METs for a VMM squadron? (3000 level)
Sea, Shore, CAT (Combat Assault Transport), AD (Aerial Delivery), AE (Aerial Evacuation), TRAP
Tall Grass or Coniferous Trees
Tall Grass
BREAK AWAY
Tanker or receiver directive call indicating immediate vertical and nose / tail separation between tanker and receiver is required.
BREAKAWAY
Tanker or receiver directive call indicating immediate vertical and nose / tail separation between tanker and receiver is required.
TAWS
Target Acquisition Weapons Software
What does TLE mean? How many categories?
Target location error. 6 categories, 1 being best.
SPARKLE
Target marking by IR pointer. Target marking by gunship or FAC(A) using incendiary rounds.
BEAM (ING) (DIRECTION)
Target stabilized within 70 to 110 degrees aspect; generally given with cardinal directions.
What does TAR-GE stand for?
Target, Azimuth, Range, Grid, Elevation.
Factors that determine how an object appears on the FLIR
Temperature Thermal history Emissivity Thermal Mass Thermal inertia
FLASH (SYSTEM)
Temporarily turn on briefed IFF mode / system.
Terminate
Terminate. To cease the current maneuver, crewmembers shall use the term "terminate." The response to "terminate" shall be an immediate discontinuation of maneuvering and leveling off at present or briefed altitude.
ALARM
Terminate/terminating emissions control procedures. Opposite of snooze
As we proceed beyond approx. 4 microns, the backgrounds become dominated by?
Terrain self-emission that is proportional to the temperature of the terrain objects and on the objects associated emissivity
The three primary terrain factors that need to be examined for proper NVG mission planning include:
Terrain target emissivity, thermal contrast, and atmospheric attenuation.
Sustained Turn Performance Chart
The Ps=0 line describes the maximum sustained performance of the aircraft in the specified configuration.
Define TAC:
The TAC is responsible for the safe tactical employment of the aircraft. The TAC must demonstrate leadership qualities and traits that enable them to fly an aircraft, as well as utilize and employ the crew and weapons systems to facilitate mission accomplishment.
Definition of TAC
The TAC is responsible for the safe tactical employment of the aircraft. The TAC must demonstrate leadership qualities and traits that enable them to fly an aircraft, as well as utilize and employ the crew and weapons systems to facilitate mission accomplishment.
_________ supports the landing plan and ultimately the ground tactical plan.
The air movement plan
ELEV Immediately rolling the aircraft toward a high AOB accomplishes two critical items. 1. 2.
The aircraft will quickly slow down allowing the nacelles to be converted as well as making the rudder and flaperons effective in keeping the nose near the horizon.
Prerequisites for executing Nacelle Modulation procedure
The aircraft shall be chocked and chained and rotor speed set to 75% Nr when nacelles are below 85 degrees (NATOPS 8.2.3.3.3a)
Gain
The amount that the input photons are amplified
EMCON PROCEDURES Level Two.
The majority of tactical missions are flown under this condition. A serious ESM threat exists; takeoffs and landings will use mincom procedures. Operate radios at a bare minimum and use brevity codes to reduce transmission time. All other emitters may be used.
EMOCON Level 2
The majority of tactical missions are flown under this condition. A serious ESM threat exists; takeoffs and landings will use mincom procedures. Operate radios at a bare minimum and use brevity codes to reduce transmission time. All other emitters may be used.
Mission of VMM
The mission of a Marine medium tiltrotor squadron (VMM) is to support the Marine air-ground task force (MAGTF) commander by providing assault support transport of combat troops, supplies and equipment—day and night—under all-weather conditions during expeditionary, joint, or combined operations.
WTI/T&R • What is the mission of the VMM? "3 threes"
The mission of a Marine medium tiltrotor squadron is to support the Marine air-ground task force commander by providing assault support transport of combat troops, supplies and equipment - day and night- under all weather conditions during expeditionary, joint or combined operations.
EMCON PROCEDURES Level One.
The most restrictive condition and is used when a serious electronic warfare support measure (ESM) threat exists. Electronic emissions are prohibited, to include radios, DME, and IFF / SIF (except required mode 4 / 5 in theater). Radar altimeters are permitted if listed as required equipment under NATOPS or for safety of flight.
EMCON Level 3
The most restrictive condition and is used when a serious electronic warfare support measure (ESM) threat exists. Electronic emissions are prohibited, to include radios, DME, and IFF / SIF (except required mode 4 / 5 in theater). Radar altimeters are permitted if listed as required equipment under NATOPS or for safety of flight. Takeoffs and landings will use EMCON procedures. Comms with controlling agencies shall be made by ground observers or air boss via landline to report departure times and numbers. During training evolutions radio comms are permitted for safety of flight items only.
Out of band lasers with sufficient power can produce?
Thermal eye injuries
The AGM-114N is a ____ warhead that contains ____ pounds of ____, and ____ pounds of ____ explosive.
Thermobaric. 4.1 pounds of Metal augmented charge. 4.6 pounds of PBXN-112 explosive.
Hyd leak FOB in Afg; you're -last of an insert, and are carrying the last stick that would make up 'go' criteria for the GCE. Without that extra stick, they'll have to scrub the mission. Your hyd 2 is now at 150" 4 hours into the flight. You started with it at a normal level (200" or so). What do you do?
They won't be a GO if I crash enroute either. And if I insert a stick and am unable to extract, that will be a problem as well. I should not go in to a landing zone where I can potentially take battle damage with a leaking HYD system. I need to begin accessing possible landing sites. Can I make it back home? Can I make it to a safe FOB?
Restraints
Things a command prohibits its subordinates from doing (i.e., what the commander cannot do).
Constraints
Things that may limit a commander's freedom of action (i.e., what the commander must do).
Peripheral Vision
This cue is severely degraded because of the limited FOV -Because of reduction in peripheral vision motion, the ensuing speed rush that would indicate close proximity to the ground is not available and controlled flight into terrain becomes a real possibility
gyroscopic precession.
This force causes the projectile to precess or move to the right because US projectiles spin clockwise. To compensate for this effect, it is necessary to aim to the left of the target.
What happens with an Eng Cont Fault? What kind of landing criteria is generally associated with Eng Cont Fault?
This is when loss of redundancy on sensors, actuators or FADECs can occur for both the controlling and standby FADECs. The loss of redundancy is on PDS output, eng sensors and actuators (Wf or CVG FPMU), or FADECs . There is no stated landing criteria for this advisory, however, if FADEC faults or engine control is degraded/suspected this will become a land as soon as practical.
• What occurs when you try and aerial refuel without selecting FCS AERIAL REFUEL?
This will result in single or multiple ADS failures. These failures are not resettable in flight. Failure to deselect FCS AERIAL REFUEL after refuel complete will degrade ADS failure detection resulting in degraded handling characteristics and inadequate structural load limiting protection.
Mounted where?
Threaded collar on objective lens
Fade
Threat system encroached within established parameters based on threat system capabilities
List elements of situation update.
Threat. Enemy situation. Friendlies. Artillery. Clearance authority. Hazards. Remarks/restrictions.
Brown Out?
Total block of IR radiation
PRIFLY Observer
Tower Flower - Responsible to the OpsO for administrative conduct of flight operation. Acts as advisor to Air Boss
What is the M - 34 HF training missile?
Training for armament personnel or for simulating a load.
Port-starboard effect
Trajectory shift, projectile drift, and projectile jump result in the port-starboard effect. When firing from the left, the effects of trajectory shift and projectile drift compound each other and cause the round to move to the right. Projectile jump will also cause a round fired from the left to climb. To compensate for these three characteristics, the gunner must aim left and below (low) the target. From the right side, trajectory shift and projectile drift tend to cancel each other out.
Battery Failure
Transfer controls and attempt to switch to backup battery or replace with spares. If still no operational, replace with spare NVGs *A min. of one extra set of googles should be carried on the aircraft as a replacement set for any that become inoperable.
What does the aluminum oxide provide?
Traps the ions preventing them from contaminating the photocathode
_______, ________, ______ commander, if embarked on a mission involving aircraft of their command, retains full authority and responsibility regarding command, including the mission in which participating.
Wing, group, or squadron
POPEYE
Wingman has lost sight due to weather; execute briefed IIMC plan. Joint: Flying in clouds or area of reduced visibility.
POPEYE
Wingman has lost sight due to weather; execute briefed IIMC plan. Joint: Flying in clouds or area of reduced visibility.
Combat spread definition
Wingmen are free to maneuver from ±10 degrees of the lead aircraft's abeam between 0.5 NM to 2.0 NM maintaining ±100 feet of level in the vertical axis, unless altitude separation is briefed
Winter/Devil
Winter- LZ has met pre briefed criteria to land. Devil- LZ hasn't met criteria.
If during escort you are lost comms with the assaults, how do you signal that the LZ is winter or devil?
Winter: steady searchlight overt day or IR night and join at 5 and 7. Devil: Flashing searchlight and proceed to IP.
Aircraft Commander Requirement
a. Operational/tactical missions. b. Administrative missions in helicopters/tiltrotors. c. Training flights, except those that are within the capabilities of pilots of lower classification and which, in the opinion of the commanding officer, are best suited to teach such pilots self-reliance and command responsibility. d. Flights in which the transport of passengers is involved
Pilots shall not file into or through areas for which the SPC has issued a WW unless one of the following exceptions apply:
a. Storm development has not progressed as forecast (1) VFR filing is permitted if existing and forecast weather for the planned route permits such flights. (2) IFR flight may be permitted if aircraft radar is installed and operative, thus permitting detection and avoidance of isolated thunderstorms. (3) IFR flight is permissible in controlled airspace if VMC can be maintained, thus enabling aircraft to detect and avoid isolated thunderstorms. b. Performance characteristics of the aircraft permit an en route flight altitude above existing or developing severe storms.
Flight plans shall be filed based on all the following:
a. The actual weather at the point of departure at the time of clearance. b. The existing and forecast weather for the entire route of flight. c. Destination and alternate forecasts for a period 1 hour before ETA until 1 hour after ETA.
If an alternate airfield is required, it must have a published approach compatible with installed operable aircraft navigation equipment that can be flown without the use of two-way radio communication whenever either one of the following conditions is met:
a. The destination lacks the above described approach. b. The forecasted weather at the alternate is below 3,000-foot ceiling and 3-statute-mile visibility during the period 1 hour before ETA until 1 hour after ETA.
Tobacco Products in Aircraft
a. The use of tobacco products in naval aircraft is prohibited. b. Lighter Prohibition. Lighters with plastic liquid reservoirs and/or containers for refilling any lighter are prohibited in naval aircraft. Lighters with butane, propane, or methyl alcohol as a fuel are also prohibited.
Noise Sensitive and Wilderness Areas
a. These areas shall be avoided when at altitudes of less than 3,000 feet AGL