ALL MOSBY REVIEW
A digital image is made up of rows and columns known as a: A. photon-induced image. B. matrix. C. paradigm. D. image grid.
B. matrix.
That which has form and occupies space best defines: A. mass. B. matter. C. weight. D. energy.
B. matter.
The function of the autotransformer is to: A. vary the voltage going to the primary coil of the step-down transformer. B. vary the voltage going to the primary coil of the step-up transformer. C. vary the voltage going to the primary coil of the rheostat. D. change current from AC to DC.
B. vary the voltage going to the primary coil of the step-up transformer.
Mechanical respirators are called: A. oxygen tanks. B. ventilators. C. CPR machines. D. respirators.
B. ventilators.
Used bandages and dressings must be placed into: A. lead containers. B. waterproof bags and sealed. C. plastic bags. D. metal pans.
B. waterproof bags and sealed.
The concept that although x-ray photons exist as waves, they exhibit properties of particles is known as: A. law of contradiction. B. wave-particle duality. C. Einstein's law. D. Bohr's law.
B. wave-particle duality.
The distance from peak to peak of sine waves is called: A. frequency. B. wavelength. C. hertz. D. cycle.
B. wavelength.
Radiographic contrast in computed radiography may be adjusted by changing the: A. window level. B. window width. C. area of the patient being irradiated. D. imaging plate.
B. window width.
Voltage wave forms are created 120 degrees out of phase with one another. This describes: A. single-phase, two-pulse alternating current. B. three-phase alternating current. C. high-frequency current. D. direct current.
B. three-phase alternating current.
Violations of civil law are known as: A. felonies. B. torts. C. minor violations. D. intentional misconduct.
B. torts.
In the event of a respiratory arrest, the radiographer must be aware of the location of a(n): A. sterile tray. B. tracheotomy tray. C. emergency alarm station. D. myelogram tray.
B. tracheotomy tray.
To best demonstrate the axillary portion of the ribs on the right side, place the patient in the: A. LPO position and rotate the body 45 degrees. B. RPO position and rotate the body 45 degrees. C. LPO position and rotate the body 15 degrees. D. RPO position and rotate the body 15 degrees.
B. RPO position and rotate the body 45 degrees.
According to the Code of Ethics, which was developed by the American Society of Radiologic Technologists, which of the following is a radiographer forbidden to do? A. Diagnose B. Limit all unnecessary radiation to the patient C. Maintain confidentiality of patient information D. Try to assess a patient's condition
A. Diagnose
What type of current is required for proper operation of the x-ray tube? A. Direct B. Falling load C. Alternating D. Fluctuating
A. Direct
Which of the following is a violation of the ARRT Rules of Ethics? A. Discussing specific questions from the Registry examination with classmates or instructors after completion of the test. B. Excessive absenteeism on the job C. Insufficient continuing education hours for certification renewal D. Reporting another's unethical behavior
A. Discussing specific questions from the Registry examination with classmates or instructors after completion of the test.
Which of the following provides the most effective means of protection from ionizing radiation? A. Distance B. Lead shielding 1/16 inch thick C. Spending only a few minutes standing near a patient who has a radioactive implant D. Concrete blocks 4 inches thick
A. Distance
Which of the following types of infection transmission occur via coughing or sneezing? A. Droplet transmission B. Contact transmission C. Vectorborne transmission D. Airborne transmission
A. Droplet transmission
Which of the following is not a property of x-rays? A. Electrically negative B. Invisible to the human eye C. Travel at the speed of light D. Travel as bundles of energy
A. Electrically negative
Where is the subtalar joint located? A. Foot B. Shoulder C. Thoracic spine D. Wrist
A. Foot
Which of the following bones has a glabella? A. Frontal bone B. Temporal bone C. Occipital bone D. Mandible
A. Frontal bone
What are radiation effects that manifest themselves in the next generation called? A. Genetic B. Exposed cell C. Somatic D. Molecular
A. Genetic
The relationship between mAs and density is governed by what law or rule? A. Ohm's law B. Reciprocity law C. Inverse law D. Power equation
B. Reciprocity law
When a fluoroscopic tube is close to a tabletop, patient dose is: A. higher and magnification is greater. B. lower and magnification is greater. C. higher and demagnification is greater. D. lower and demagnification is greater.
A. higher and magnification is greater.
On some fluoroscopes, the x-ray tube is positioned over the top of the radiographic table, while the image receptor is then located under the table. Personnel exposure to radiation is: A. higher because there is more scatter radiation present. B. lower because there is better image quality. C. higher because there is better image quality. D. lower because there is less scatter radiation.
A. higher because there is more scatter radiation present.
Exposure latitude is wider at: A. higher kVp levels. B. lower kVp levels. C. lower mAs levels. D. higher mAs levels.
A. higher kVp levels.
The ilium is part of the: A. hip bone. B. scapula. C. skull. D. small intestine.
A. hip bone.
H/O stands for: A. history of. B. hematology office. C. hospital outpatient. D. hospital officer.
A. history of.
The fluoroscopic image is brightened and reduced in size by means of the: A. image intensifier. B. cine camera. C. television camera. D. video disc scanner.
A. image intensifier.
Near the pyloric portion of the stomach, the notch located along the lesser curvature is the: A. incisura angularis. B. incisura cardiac. C. jugular. D. omenta.
A. incisura angularis.
Most damage from exposure to radiation occurs as a result of: A. indirect effect. B. RNA malfunction. C. direct effect. D. no effect.
A. indirect effect.
The result of hydrogen peroxide poisoning the cell is: A. indirect effect. B. RNA replacement. C. direct effect. D. nothing.
A. indirect effect.
The photoelectric interaction most likely occurs between an incident photon and a(n): A. inner shell electron. B. outer shell electron. C. positron. D. neutron.
A. inner shell electron.
The word root "enter" means: A. intestine. B. pancreas. C. liver. D. foot.
A. intestine.
Wavelength and frequency are: A. inversely proportional. B. directly proportional. C. directly related. D. indirectly related.
A. inversely proportional.
If the radiation weighting factor of ionizing radiation is higher, relative biologic effectiveness: A. is also higher. B. is lower. C. remains the same. D. changes with the changing rate of LET.
A. is also higher.
What technical factor directly controls differential absorption? A. kVp B. mAs C. SID D. OID
A. kVp
The target angle allows for a: A. larger actual focal spot and a smaller effective focal spot. B. smaller actual focal spot and a larger effective focal spot. C. grid-controlled assembly to be added. D. smaller anode to be used.
A. larger actual focal spot and a smaller effective focal spot.
A grid error in which cutoff is visible more to one side of the radiograph is caused by: A. lateral decentering. B. off-level grid. C. upside-down grid. D. grid-focus decentering.
A. lateral decentering.
The x-ray circuit depends on a constant source of power, has power coming into the radiology department may vary, keeps incoming voltage adjusted to the proper value, and usually operates automatically but may be manually adjusted on older equipment. This is the: A. line voltage compensator. B. phototimer. C. autotransformer. D. ionization chamber.
A. line voltage compensator.
Radiation weighting factor (WR) takes into account: A. linear energy transfer. B. kVp. C. mAs. D. quantum mottle.
A. linear energy transfer.
The amount of energy deposited per unit length of tissue defines: A. linear energy transfer. B. relative biologic effectiveness. C. quality factor. D. quantum mottle.
A. linear energy transfer.
An image with many gray tones is referred to as: A. long-scale contrast. B. poor detail. C. low distortion. D. high contrast.
A. long-scale contrast.
An image with many gray tones is referred to as: A. low contrast. B. poor detail. C. low distortion. D. high contrast.
A. low contrast.
The primary circuit of the x-ray generator is also called the: A. low-voltage circuit. B. high-voltage circuit. C. booster circuit. D. Coolidge circuit.
A. low-voltage circuit.
This causes anatomic structures to appear larger on the image than in reality: A. magnification. B. minification. C. foreshortening. D. elongation.
A. magnification.
The upper part of the sternum is called the: A. manubrium. B. floating. C. xiphoid. D. jugular notch.
A. manubrium.
The amount of matter in an object best defines: A. mass. B. matter. C. weight. D. energy.
A. mass.
The law of conservation of matter states: A. matter cannot be created or destroyed, only in changed in form. B. energy cannot be created or destroyed. C. matter cannot be created, but energy can. D. energy cannot be created, but matter can.
A. matter cannot be created or destroyed, only in changed in form.
Infection control in which microorganisms have been eliminated as much as possible by the use of water and chemical disinfectants is called: A. medical asepsis. B. surgical asepsis. C. standard Precautions. D. gas sterilization.
A. medical asepsis.
Germ cell division is called: A. meiosis. B. DNA transfer. C. mitosis. D. interphase.
A. meiosis.
This bone lies in front of the talus on the medial side: A. navicular. B. calcaneus. C. talus. D. cuboid.
A. navicular.
The accuracy of kVp at 70 kVp must be: A. no lower than 63 kVp and no higher than 77 kVp. B. no lower than 69 kVp and no higher than 71 kVp. C. no lower than 66 kVp and no higher than 74 kVp. D. no lower than 68 kVp and no higher than 72 kVp.
A. no lower than 63 kVp and no higher than 77 kVp.
The most common result of LET and the direct effect is: A. nothing. B. disruption of chemical bonds. C. cell death. D. cell line death.
A. nothing.
In computed radiography, image brightness may be adjusted by: A. doubling the mAs. B. changing the window level. C. changing the window width. D. adjusting the window depth.
B. changing the window level.
The production of x-rays comes from two interactions with the anode: A. photoelectric and Compton. B. characteristic and Brems. C. coherent and pair production. D. classical and photoelectric.
B. characteristic and Brems.
A pathologic disease that is a progressive condition marked by diminished capabilities of inspiration and expiration is: A. tuberculosis. B. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). C. histoplasmosis. D. pulmonary metastases.
B. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
The photon-tissue interaction that does not cause ionization is: A. Compton. B. coherent. C. pair production. D. photoelectric.
B. coherent.
The photon-tissue interaction that is also known as classical or Thompson's is: A. Compton. B. coherent. C. pair production. D. photoelectric.
B. coherent.
The photon-tissue interaction that may simply cause electrons to vibrate from the energy of the incident photons is: A. Compton. B. coherent. C. pair production. D. photoelectric.
B. coherent.
The photon-tissue interaction that results from very-low-energy x-rays is: A. Compton. B. coherent. C. pair production. D. photoelectric.
B. coherent.
A variable aperture is also known as a: A. cone. B. collimator. C. filter. D. compensating filter.
B. collimator.
A patient with a gunshot wound of the lower right leg has been sent to the radiology department for radiographs of the tibia and fibula. The radiographs reveal the bones are separated into numerous fragments at midshaft. This type of fracture is considered: A. compound. B. comminuted. C. impacted. D. torus.
B. comminuted.
Filters that provide a more uniform image of anatomic parts with significant differences in thickness are called: A. inherent. B. compensating. C. eveners. D. thoreous.
B. compensating.
Which of the following is essential for protection of the radiographer who is performing a mobile radiographic examination? 1. Protective lead apron 2. Primary protective barrier 3. Six-foot exposure cord A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 3 only
Which of the following reactions to iodinated contrast media is considered life-threatening? 1. Cyanosis and difficulty in breathing 2. Nausea and vomiting 3. Convulsions and cardiac arrest A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 3 only
Which of the following would be considered signs or visual abnormal changes that a radiographer might notice in a given patient? 1. Discoloration 2. Nausea 3. Swelling A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 3 only
If the radiographer is working alone and the patient requires cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), what is the first step to be performed? A. Turn off the oxygen B. Call for help before beginning C. Call and wait for a nurse to perform CPR D. Obtain a doctor's order
B. Call for help before beginning
If the radiographer is working alone and the patient requires suctioning, what is the first step to be performed? A. Turn off the oxygen B. Call for help before beginning C. Call and wait for a nurse to perform suctioning D. Obtain a doctor's order
B. Call for help before beginning
Hypotension and tachycardia are symptoms of this type of contrast agent reaction: A. Local irritation B. Cardiovascular shock C. Anaphylactic shock D. Psychogenic shock
B. Cardiovascular shock
Radiation is more intense on which side of the x-ray tube? A. Anode B. Cathode C. Positive D. Neither side
B. Cathode
SID and receptor exposure are governed by what law or rule? A. Reciprocity law B. Inverse square law C. 15% rule D. Ohm's law
B. Inverse square law
The intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to the square of the distance describes: A. Reciprocity law B. Inverse square law C. 15% rule D. Ohm's law
B. Inverse square law
An algorithm is a(n): A. arithmetic hypothesis used in image reconstruction. B. mathematical formula used to reconstruct the image in digital imaging. C. advanced imaging procedure. D. an image of a cardiac arrhythmia.
B. mathematical formula used to reconstruct the image in digital imaging.
The lowest contrast would be produced by which of the following sets of exposure factors? A. 60 mAs, 80 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID B. 30 mAs, 92 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID C. 120 mAs, 92 kVp, 20-inch SID, 4-inch OID D. 15 mAs, 100 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID
D. 15 mAs, 100 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID
What are possible results of ionization? 1. Unstable atoms 2. Production of low-energy x-rays 3. Formation of new molecules harmful to the cell A. 1 and 3 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
When all other types of immobilization have proven inadequate, the first choices to assist with immobilization of the patient might be: 1. nonradiology employees. 2. male family members of the patient. 3. radiology personnel not routinely exposed. 4. students. A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
When wearing a mask in isolation: A. Leave either the nose or the mouth exposed for freer breathing B. Put it on last C. Cover both the nose and the mouth D. Masks are not necessary
C. Cover both the nose and the mouth
A patient has recently been informed by his physician that he is dying. The grieving process will usually occur in five phases. What is the normal order of occurrence of these phases? A. Acceptance, anger, denial, bargaining, depression B. Denial, bargaining, depression, acceptance, anger C. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance D. Depression, anger, bargaining, acceptance, denial
C. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
What occurs when radiation transfers its energy to the DNA or RNA? A. Indirect effect B. Cell death C. Direct effect D. Nothing
C. Direct effect
Scattered photons emerging from the patient travel in what kind of paths? A. Right angles only B. Backscatter C. Divergent D. Opposite
C. Divergent
What graphs illustrate the relationship between radiation and the organism's response to it? A. Paradigms B. Histograms C. Dose-response curves D. Matrices
C. Dose-response curves
When are embryologic effects most likely to occur? A. During the final trimester of gestation B. During the middle trimester of gestation C. During the first trimester of gestation D. Before conception
C. During the first trimester of gestation
Which of the following is most radiosensitive? A. Adult nerve tissue B. Muscle C. Epithelial tissue D. All are equally radiosensitive
C. Epithelial tissue
During which of the following examinations may high occupational exposure of diagnostic radiographers occur? A. Fluoroscopy, interventional procedures, and extremity radiography B. Portable radiography, chest radiography, and fluoroscopy C. Fluoroscopy, portable radiography, and interventional procedures D. Interventional procedures, fluoroscopy, and skull radiography
C. Fluoroscopy, portable radiography, and interventional procedures
Grid ratio is expressed by the equation: A. D/H. B. H & D. C. H/D. D. H D.
C. H/D.
What is used to modify the absorbed dose amount to account for the greater damage inflicted by some forms of ionizing radiation? A. Linear energy transfer B. Relative biologic effectiveness C. Radiation weighting factor (WR) D. Quantum mottle
C. Radiation weighting factor (WR)
What is the single largest source of natural background radiation? A. Medical and dental x-rays B. Delta rays C. Radon D. Cosmic rays
C. Radon
The WR used to calculate sievert is a measure of what aspect of the radiation being measured? A. kVp B. Half value layer C. Relative biologic effectiveness D. Ionization potential
C. Relative biologic effectiveness
The carpometacarpal joint of the thumb has what type of movement? A. Hinge B. Pivot C. Saddle D. Gliding
C. Saddle
Which of the following is not true concerning scheduling of radiographic exams? A. Schedule several exams in one day if the patient is able to tolerate them B. Seriously ill or weak patients may need to have a rest between examinations C. Schedule pediatric and geriatric patients later in the day D. Schedule radiographic examinations not requiring contrast agents first
C. Schedule pediatric and geriatric patients later in the day
How does beam restriction affect contrast? A. Decreases contrast B. Longer scale of contrast C. Shorter scale of contrast D. No effect on contrast
C. Shorter scale of contrast
The feature of the image intensifier that automatically adjusts kVp and mAs during fluoroscopy is the: A. photocathode. B. electron-focusing lens. C. automatic gain control. D. automatic exposure control.
C. automatic gain control.
A pathologic condition that is characterized by overinflation of alveolar walls is: A. atelectasis. B. asthma. C. emphysema. D. pneumonia.
C. emphysema.
Filters made of aluminum and copper are placed in the film badge to measure x-ray: A. quantity. B. source. C. energy. D. type.
C. energy.
The suffix "-ectomy" means: A. pain. B. surgical condition. C. excision. D. origin.
C. excision.
The increased brightness of an image resulting from accelerated electrons traveling across to the output phosphor is called: A. minification gain. B. brightness gain. C. flux gain. D. electrostatic gain.
C. flux gain.
Grids that have strips angled to coincide with divergence of the x-ray beam are called: A. parallel. B. crosshatch. C. focused. D. rhombic.
C. focused.
A condition caused by angling the x-ray tube against the main axis of the part is: A. magnification. B. minification. C. foreshortening. D. elongation.
C. foreshortening.
This causes anatomic structures to appear shorter on the image than in reality: A. magnification. B. minification. C. foreshortening. D. elongation.
C. foreshortening.
Particles that may cause biologic damage by transferring their excess energy to surrounding molecules or by disrupting chemical reactions are called: A. valence electrons. B. alpha particles. C. free radicals. D. electrolytes.
C. free radicals.
Radiolysis creates ion pairs called: A. ammonia and water. B. sulfuric acid. C. free radicals. D. electrolytics.
C. free radicals.
A change in wavelength will always correspond to a change in: A. x-ray beam speed. B. altitude. C. frequency. D. amplitude.
C. frequency.
The bulge at the upper end of the stomach is called the: A. rugae. B. pylorus. C. fundus. D. greater curvature.
C. fundus.
Decreased receptor exposure along the periphery of an image may be caused by: A. grid frequency. B. grid ratio. C. grid cutoff. D. high mAs.
C. grid cutoff.
Some x-ray tubes use the focusing cup as an electronic grid that can turn the current on and off rapidly, allowing for very short and precise exposure times such as those needed for rapid serial exposures. These x-ray tubes are referred to as: A. trielectrode tubes. B. dual-focus tubes. C. grid-controlled tubes. D. cathode ray tubes.
C. grid-controlled tubes.
When charting, the radiographer must include: 1. Date and time of occurrence of an event or examination of the patient 2. Clear statements regarding patient condition and examination performed 3. Full name and credentials 4. Personal observation of patient's condition A. 1 and 3 B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 C. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
If ionizing radiation interacts with a human cell, causing it to die after one or more divisions, it is classified as: A. interference of function. B. mitotic delay. C. mitotic death. D. reproductive death.
C. mitotic death.
In a full-wave rectification circuit, the: A. negative wave of alternating current is suppressed. B. positive wave of alternating current is suppressed. C. negative wave of alternating current is changed into a second positive wave. D. positive wave alternating current is changed into a second negative wave.
C. negative wave of alternating current is changed into a second positive wave.
The functional unit of the kidney is called the: A. cortex. B. medulla. C. nephron. D. glomeruli.
C. nephron.
Urine is formed in the: A. cortex. B. renal pelves. C. nephron. D. ureters.
C. nephron.
The type of shock that causes blood to pool in peripheral vessels is called: A. hypovolemic shock. B. septic shock. C. neurogenic shock. D. cardiogenic shock.
C. neurogenic shock.
As kVp increases, there is an increased production of: A. long wavelengths. B. low-energy waves. C. short wavelengths. D. electrons.
C. short wavelengths.
Entrance exposure dose is the same as: A. bone marrow dose. B. gonadal dose. C. skin dose. D. organ dose.
C. skin dose.
If biologic effects resulting from exposure to ionizing radiation follow a linear, nonthreshold dose-response pattern, then it may be stated that: A. only a substantial dose of ionizing radiation can cause any biologic damage in humans. B. small doses of ionizing radiation do not cause biologic effects in humans; hence small doses are considered to be "safe" doses. C. some biologic effects are caused in living organisms by even the smallest doses of ionizing radiation. D. ionizing radiation does not cause biologic effects in humans.
C. some biologic effects are caused in living organisms by even the smallest doses of ionizing radiation.
The sharpness with which anatomic structures are displayed in an image defines: A. detail visibility. B. contrast. C. spatial resolution. D. brightness.
C. spatial resolution.
Long-term retention of medical images is governed by: A. Code of Ethics. B. federal law. C. state law. D. hospital policy only.
C. state law.
A term that is synonymous with groove is: A. fossa. B. furrow. C. sulcus. D. sinus.
C. sulcus.
The right lung has: A. two lobes. B. rugae. C. superior, middle, and inferior lobes. D. no hilus.
C. superior, middle, and inferior lobes.
A patient who complains of dysphagia has difficulty: A. breathing. B. evacuating bowels. C. swallowing. D. urinating.
C. swallowing.
When initiating treatment for a patient who is in shock, after calling for help what should the radiographer do? 1. Determine blood pressure 2. Administer oxygen 3. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position 4. Initiate CPR A. 4 B. 2 and 4 C. 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
The first step in performing venipuncture is to: A. put on gloves. B. secure the tourniquet in place. C. wash hands. D. insert the needle into the vein.
C. wash hands.
The cytoplasm consists primarily of: A. red blood cells. B. leukocytes. C. water. D. oil.
C. water.
The prefix "a-" means: A. away from. B. two. C. without. D. within.
C. without.
The collection of all different energies (wavelengths) of x-rays is called the: A. x-ray rainbow. B. x-ray homogeneous beam. C. x-ray emission spectrum. D. peak electron energy.
C. x-ray emission spectrum.
For an AP projection of the knee, the central ray is directed to what point? A. The knee joint B. The patella C. ½ inch inferior to the patellar apex D. ½ inch superior to the patellar apex
C. ½ inch inferior to the patellar apex
The lowest patient dose would be administered by which of the following sets of exposure factors? A. 60 mAs, 80 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID B. 30 mAs, 92 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID C. 120 mAs, 92 kVp, 20-inch SID, 4-inch OID D. 15 mAs, 100 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID
D. 15 mAs, 100 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID
The rule or law that governs changing technique using kVp is the: A. inverse square law. B. density maintenance law. C. 50-50 rule. D. 15% rule.
D. 15% rule
The fluoro timer must sound after: 1. 3 minutes. 2. 300 seconds. 3. 5 minutes. 4. 10 minutes. A. 3 B. 1 C. 4 D. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 3
Which of the following radiographic examinations would produce the greatest amount of scatter radiation? A. AP projection of the elbow B. Dorsoplantar oblique projection of the foot C. Lateral projection of the knee D. Axiolateral projection of the hip
D. Axiolateral projection of the hip
Equipment sources of motion may be: A. CR cassette. B. x-ray tube. C. reciprocating grid. D. B and C
D. B and C
Which of the following devices should be used to reduce exposure to the mammary glands during a juvenile scoliosis examination? A. Thyroid shield B. Shadow shield C. Shaped contact shield D. Breast shields
D. Breast shields
Which of the following cervical vertebrae are considered to be atypical? A. C1, C3, and C7 B. C2, C4, and C6 C. C1, C2, and C5 D. C1, C2, and C7
D. C1, C2, and C7
Which of the following parts of the stomach is most proximal? A. Pyloric portion B. Fundus C. Body D. Cardia
D. Cardia
The pulse may be checked at what point? A. Jugular vein B. Carotid artery C. Radial artery only D. Carotid and radial arteries
D. Carotid and radial arteries
Which of the following systems in the adult human is most insensitive to ionizing radiation? A. Cardiovascular B. Hematopoietic C. Gastrointestinal D. Central nervous
D. Central nervous
In the event of cardiac arrest, what must be done immediately? A. Obtain a portable chest x-ray study B. Insert chest tube C. Start IV D. Commence CPR
D. Commence CPR
This type of infection transmission is defined as being primarily spread on contaminated items, food, or water: A. Contact transmission B. Airborne transmission C. Droplet transmission D. Common vehicle transmission
D. Common vehicle transmission
Use of which of the following would not contribute to ensuring safety during a fluoroscopic procedure? A. Cumulative timing device B. Dead-man type fluoroscopic exposure switch C. 0.25 mm lead-equivalent Bucky slot shielding device D. Compression device
D. Compression device
When kVp is decreased, which of the following happens? A. receptor exposure increases B. Contrast decreases C. Spatial resolution decreases D. Contrast increases
D. Contrast increases
What is the cell's master molecule? A. RNA B. Hydrogen peroxide C. A free radical D. DNA
D. DNA
Which of the following is not effective in reducing exposure to the patient during a diagnostic examination? A. Increasing filtration B. Using high-speed IR C. Decreasing field size D. Decreasing kVp
D. Decreasing kVp
Which of the following is not a legal entry on a radiograph? A. Lead markers B. Patient identification C. Date of exam D. Digital markers applied after exposure
D. Digital markers applied after exposure
In image-intensified fluoroscopy, no matter what the distance is between x-ray source and image receptor, the radiologist must ensure that the primary beam: A. does not overlap the image receptor borders by more than ½ inch on each side. B. does not overlap the image receptor borders by more than ¾ inch on each side. C. does not overlap the image receptor borders by more than 1 inch on each side. D. is confined to the limits of the image receptor.
D. is confined to the limits of the image receptor.
A negative contrast agent used in chest radiography and some arthrography is: A. barium sulfate. B. iodine. C. perforated ulcers or ruptured appendix. D. air.
D. air.
The x-ray tube manufacturer's warm-up procedure should be followed to: A. prevent excessive evaporation of the filament. B. allow for slow heating of the filament. C. cause localized melting of the target. D. allow for even expansion of the target.
D. allow for even expansion of the target.
Grid conversion factor (Bucky factor) is described as the: A. height of the lead strips divided by the distance between the lead strips. B. distance between the lead strips divided by the height of the lead strips. C. number of lead strips per inch or centimeter. D. amount of exposure increase necessary to compensate for the absorption of image-forming rays and scatter in the cleanup process.
D. amount of exposure increase necessary to compensate for the absorption of image-forming rays and scatter in the cleanup process.
OSL dosimeters may be scanned and reanalyzed: A. only once. B. monthly. C. five times. D. an unlimited number of times.
D. an unlimited number of times.
This is located on the superior border of the manubrium: A. manubrium. B. floating. C. xiphoid. D. jugular notch.
D. jugular notch.
A flat piece of lead with a circle or square opening in the middle that is used to restrict the x-ray beam is called a: A. cone. B. mini-collimator. C. variable aperture. D. aperture diaphragm.
D. aperture diaphragm.
A positive contrast agent administered to the patient when barium sulfate is contraindicated is: A. barium sulfate. B. iodine. C. perforated ulcers or ruptured appendix. D. aqueous iodine compound.
D. aqueous iodine compound.
The prefix "peri-" means: A. back. B. front. C. below. D. around.
D. around.
The portion of the colon located between the cecum and the hepatic flexure is called the: A. duodenum. B. jejunum. C. ileum. D. ascending colon.
D. ascending colon.
Photons travel: A. quickly. B. at the speed of sound. C. at the speed of electrons. D. at the speed of light.
D. at the speed of light.
The prefix "ab-" means: A. above. B. below. C. front. D. away from.
D. away from.
The trochlea are located: A. on the femur. B. between the greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus. C. behind the patella. D. below the tubercles of the humerus.
D. below the tubercles of the humerus.
A skull that is short from front to back and broad from side to side would be described as: A. synarthroses. B. amphiarthroses. C. diarthroses. D. brachycephalic.
D. brachycephalic.
The type of shock that occurs secondary to heart failure is called: A. hypovolemic shock. B. septic shock. C. neurogenic shock. D. cardiogenic shock.
D. cardiogenic shock.
A patient is to undergo an invasive procedure in the radiology department. Before starting the procedure, the radiographer should first: A. assist the patient in removing all clothing. B. give the patient a cleansing enema. C. prep the patient. D. check the patient's chart to see if the informed consent form has been signed.
D. check the patient's chart to see if the informed consent form has been signed.
Radiographic grids are used to: A. decrease the exposure to the patient. B. increase image brightness. C. decrease image contrast. D. clean up scatter radiation before it reaches the IR.
D. clean up scatter radiation before it reaches the IR.
The filtration needed to attenuate the intensity of the beam by half is called: A. tenth-value layer. B. kVp reduced layer. C. inherent filtration. D. half-value layer.
D. half-value layer.
The most effective method to prevent the spread of infection is: A. use of gloves. B. use of gowns. C. time, distance, and shielding. D. handwashing.
D. handwashing.
When calculating heat units for three-phase, six-pulse equipment, which equation is used? A. kVp × mAs × 2.00 B. kVp × mAs × 1.41 C. kVp × mAs × 1.00 D. kVp × mAs × 1.35
D. kVp × mAs × 1.35
Decreased sharpness caused by x-rays emanating from a larger area of the anode is a result of: A. too long of an OID. B. too short of an SID. C. small focal-spot size. D. large focal-spot size.
D. large focal-spot size.
A haustrum may be found in the: A. esophagus. B. stomach. C. small intestine. D. large intestine.
D. large intestine.
A digital image may be printed on to film using a: A. high-resolution dot matrix printer. B. photon transfer imager. C. flux capacitor. D. laser camera.
D. laser camera.
Like poles repel, unlike poles attract, and the force of attraction between poles is governed by the inverse square law describes: A. Ohm's law. B. inverse square law. C. law of relativity. D. law of magnetics.
D. law of magnetics.
Shock is indicated when the diastolic pressure is: A. more than 100 beats per minute. B. fewer than 60 beats per minute. C. greater than 90. D. less than 50.
D. less than 50.
Written false information about another person that results in defamation of character or loss of reputation is: A. slander. B. assault. C. battery. D. libel.
D. libel.
An area of the patient that may turn cyanotic is (are): A. lips only. B. nail beds. C. voice. D. lips and nail beds.
D. lips and nail beds.
The word root "hepat" means: A. stomach. B. pancreas. C. spleen. D. liver.
D. liver.
The collision of projectile electrons with the atoms of the target material causes a conversion of the electrons' kinetic energy to: A. gamma rays and x-ray. B. x-rays and light. C. x-rays and protons. D. heat and x-rays.
D. heat and x-rays.
The quantity of x-rays produced is directly controlled by: A. filtration. B. kVp. C. focal-spot size. D. mAs.
D. mAs.
Decreased SID causes image: A. minification. B. foreshortening. C. elongation. D. magnification.
D. magnification.
Increased OID causes image: A. minification. B. foreshortening. C. elongation. D. magnification.
D. magnification.
Size distortion is also called: A. minification. B. elongation. C. foreshortening. D. magnification.
D. magnification.
Droplet precautions require the use of: A. gowns and masks. B. masks. C. Standard Precautions. D. masks and Standard Precautions.
D. masks and Standard Precautions.
For a PA projection of the wrist, the central ray is directed perpendicular to the: A. first metacarpophalangeal joint. B. midtarsal area. C. third PIP joint. D. midcarpal area.
D. midcarpal area.
The amount of darkness on a radiograph is primarily controlled by: A. kVp. B. scatter radiation. C. collimation. D. milliampere-seconds.
D. milliampere-seconds.
Film badges are changed: A. quarterly. B. weekly. C. yearly. D. monthly.
D. monthly.
Inducing current flow in a secondary coil by varying the current flow through a primary coil describes: A. electromagnetism. B. electrodynamics. C. self-induction. D. mutual induction.
D. mutual induction.
This item is used to administer oxygen through the nose: A. crash cart. B. suction unit. C. defibrillator. D. nasal cannula.
D. nasal cannula.
Grid ratio is expressed as: A. length of the lead strips to the space between them. B. height of the aluminum strips to the space between them. C. height of the interspacers to the lead strips. D. height of the lead strips to the space between them.
D. height of the lead strips to the space between them.
An image with few gray tones, mainly black and white, is referred to as: A. low contrast. B. poor detail. C. low distortion. D. high contrast.
D. high contrast.
Blood vessels, the bronchial tree, and nerves enter the lungs at this point: A. trachea. B. left lung. C. right lung. D. hilus.
D. hilus.
Diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mm Hg indicates some level of: A. hypotension. B. atrial fibrillation. C. shock. D. hypertension.
D. hypertension.
After donning sterile gloves, the hands must be placed: A. under the arms when tired. B. in front of the body, resting on the front of the sterile gown. C. in a folded arms position. D. in front of the body without touching anything.
D. in front of the body without touching anything.
A trauma patient has a decreased temperature, weak pulse, rapid heartbeat, pale skin color, and shallow respiration. These symptoms indicate that the patient is: A. convulsing. B. hyperventilating. C. in cardiac arrest. D. in shock.
D. in shock.
As mAs is increased, receptor exposure: A. decreases. B. increases. C. remains the same. D. increases in the same amount.
D. increases in the same amount.
The suffix "-itis" means: A. pain. B. excision. C. origin. D. inflammation.
D. inflammation.
A patient who is cyanotic is suffering from: A. a lack of food. B. a lack of fluids. C. excessive oxygen in body tissues. D. insufficient oxygen in body tissues.
D. insufficient oxygen in body tissues.
The prolapse of one segment of bowel into another section is: A. diverticulosis. B. ileus. C. volvulus. D. intussusception.
D. intussusception.
Violation of confidentiality defines: A. assault. B. battery. C. false imprisonment. D. invasion of privacy.
D. invasion of privacy.
When performing a quality control test to ensure that the penetrating ability of the x-ray beam is accurate, the result must be within this amount of the control panel setting: A. ±2% of SID. B. ±4%. C. ±10 % D. ±4 kVp.
D. ±4 kVp.
The secondary protective barrier must overlap the primary protective barrier by at least: A. 1/10 inch. B. 1 inch. C. 1 foot. D. ½ inch.
D. ½ inch.
This item contains all equipment and drugs needed during respiratory or cardiac arrest: A. crash cart. B. suction unit. C. defibrillator. D. sphygmomanometer.
A. crash cart.
The composition of the x-ray beam as it leaves the anode is: A. heterogeneous. B. homogeneous. C. monoenergetic. D. monochromatic.
A. heterogeneous.
The image on the output phosphor of the intensifier tube is: 1. brighter than the input phosphor. 2. dimmer than the input phosphor. 3. larger than the input phosphor. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1 and 3 only
A. 1 only
Which of the following are classified as controlled areas? 1. Radiographic room 2. Hallway 3. Unattended elevators A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
A. 1 only
According to NCRP Report #160, what percentage of human exposure is natural background radiation? A. 50% B. 82% C. 40% D. 25%
A. 50%
Artificial radiation accounts for what percentage of human exposure? A. 50% B. 75% C. 18% D. 5%
A. 50%
Gonadal shielding may reduce female gonad dose by up to: A. 50%. B. 75%. C. 10%. D. 25%.
A. 50%.
What is an area called that is primarily used by people trained in radiation safety and wearing personnel monitoring devices? A. Controlled area B. Uncontrolled area C. Off-limits area D. Radiation area
A. Controlled area
Current that flows in one direction only is called: A. DC. B. fluctuating. C. rectified. D. AC.
A. DC.
A CCD may be used in the television system instead of what device(s)? A. Vidicon and Plumbicon tubes B. C-arm C. Automatic brightness control D. Output phosphor
A. Vidicon and Plumbicon tubes
What is usually used to perform medical asepsis? A. Water and chemicals B. Complete sterilization procedure C. Surgical suite procedures D. None of the above
A. Water and chemicals
The practice of intermittent fluoroscopy: 1. prolongs the life of the fluoroscopic tube. 2. decreases patient dose. 3. blurs the fluoroscopic image. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
A. 1 and 2 only
Which of the following must be increased to increase the quality of the x-ray beam?1. Filtration2. kVp3. mAs A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
A. 1 and 2 only
As tube current is increased, the following occur(s): 1. The quantity of x-ray photons will increase. 2. The quantity of x-ray photons will decrease. 3. The energy level of x-ray photons will increase. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1 and 3 only
A. 1 only
A patient with an elbow injury was sent for AP and lateral elbow radiographs. The patient was unable to fully straighten the elbow. Which of the following procedures would result in the most diagnostic radiographic examination of the AP elbow? A. Two AP exposures: (1) ulna parallel and CR perpendicular to IR; (2) humerus parallel and CR perpendicular to IR B. Two AP exposures with elbow flexed slightly and resting on olecranon process: (1) with a perpendicular CR centered over ulnar portion of elbow joint; (2) with a perpendicular CR centered over humeral portion of elbow joint C. One exposure with elbow flexed slightly, resting on olecranon process and with a perpendicular CR centered over elbow joint D. One exposure with elbow flexed slightly, humerus parallel to IR, and CR angled 20 degrees caudad through elbow joint
A.
If the air kerma 4 feet from the x-ray table is 2 Gya, what is the dose at a distance of 8 feet? A. 0.5 Gya B. 1.0 Gya C. 4.0 Gya D. 6.0 Gya
A. 0.5 Gya
Early somatic effects of a substantial dose of ionizing radiation include: 1. Nausea 2. Epilation 3. Formation of solid malignant tumors A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
A. 1 and 2 only
Before moving a patient, the radiographer should assess which of the following? 1. The patient's ability to breathe 2. The presence of nausea 3. The presence of sensitive or thin skin 4. The patient's level of consciousness A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 B. 1, 2, and 3 C. 1 and 4 D. 1, 3, and 4
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Oxygen: 1. should not be removed during radiographic examinations. 2. may be removed only with a physician's order. 3. tubing should never be pinched or kinked. 4. is regarded as a drug in some states. A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 B. 1, 2, and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2, and 4
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Artifacts in computed radiography may be caused by which of the following? 1. Scatter radiation 2. Improper use of grids causing a moiré pattern 3. Dust on the imaging plate (IP) A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 1 and 2 C. 2 D. 3
A. 1, 2, and 3
Characteristics of computed radiography include which of the following? 1. Accurate positioning is critical 2. Radiographer selects exposure factors as in conventional radiography 3. Film-screen system is replaced by an imaging plate (IP) 4. Insensitivity to scatter radiation A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 C. 4 D. 1 and 2
A. 1, 2, and 3
Conditions needed to establish malpractice include:1. Establishment of the standard of care and proof it was violated2. Demonstration that the injury was caused by the caregiver3. Proof that the injury actually occurred and is a result of the negligence A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 1 and 3
A. 1, 2, and 3
Symptoms of shock may include: 1. Restlessness and apprehension 2. Pale, cool, and clammy skin 3. Systolic blood pressure less than 30 mm Hg A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2
A. 1, 2, and 3
Place the following exams in the order in which they should be scheduled and performed: 1. Fiberoptic (endoscopy) studies 2. Radiography of the urinary tract 3. Computed tomography (CT) studies 4. Lower gastrointestinal (GI) series 5. Upper GI series A. 1-2-3-4-5 B. 5-4-3-2-1 C. 1-4-2-3-5 D. 5-3-1-4-1
A. 1-2-3-4-5
How thick are secondary protective barriers? A. 1/32-inch lead equivalent B. 1/16-inch aluminum equivalent C. 1/32-inch concrete D. 1/16-inch lead equivalent
A. 1/32-inch lead equivalent
Optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeters are sensitive to exposures as low as: A. 10 μGya B. 5 μGya C. 100 μGya D. 20 μGya
A. 10 μGya
mA linearity must be recalibrated when a difference greater than: A. 10% is noted throughout the mA range of the equipment being tested. B. 20% is noted throughout the mA range of the equipment being tested. C. 30% is noted throughout the mA range of the equipment being tested. D. 40% is noted throughout the mA range of the equipment being tested.
A. 10% is noted throughout the mA range of the equipment being tested.
The minimum source-to-skin distance for portable radiography is at least: A. 12 inches. B. 15 inches. C. 72 inches. D. 40 inches.
A. 12 inches.
Three-phase, six-pulse, full-wave rectification produces what percentage of ripple? A. 13 B. 4 C. 1 D. 100
A. 13
What is the minimum source-to-skin distance for fixed fluoroscopes? A. 15 inches B. 20 inches C. 10 inches D. 12 inches
A. 15 inches
When a quality control test is performed to ensure that the collimator is providing appropriate Safety, the result must be within this amount: A. 2% of SID B. 4% C. 10% D. 5%
A. 2% of SID
According to NCRP Report #160, what is the annual effective dose equivalent per person from natural background radiation? A. 3.11 mSv B. 1 mSv C. 50 mSv D. 900 mrem
A. 3.11 mSv
The number of chromosomes in the cell after mitosis is: A. 46. B. 23. C. 10. D. 40.
A. 46.
The annual effective absorbed dose equivalent limit for the general public, assuming infrequent exposure, is: A. 5 mSv B. 0.1 mSv C. 500 mSv D. 1 mSv
A. 5 mSv
The annual effective absorbed dose equivalent limit for occupational exposure is: A. 50 mSv B. 5000 mSv C. 5 mSv D. 25 mSv
A. 50 mSv
A diagnostic lateral radiograph of the paranasal sinuses has been obtained with the following technical factors: 66 kVp, 20 mAs. To significantly reduce patient exposure while maintaining overall average receptor exposure, which of the following technical factors should be used? A. 76 kVp, 10 mAs B. 70 kVp, 5 mAs C. 68 kVp, 15 mAs D. 60 kVp, 25 mAs
A. 76 kVp, 10 mAs
The voltage actually used in high frequency is about: A. 99% of the kVp set on the control panel. B. 96% of the kVp set on the control panel. C. 87% of the kVp set on the control panel. D. 50% of the kVp set on the control panel.
A. 99% of the kVp set on the control panel.
Which of the following is an all glass container that holds a single dose of an injectable medication? A. Ampule B. Vial C. Vacoliter D. Disposable syringe
A. Ampule
Flushing, hives, and nausea may be symptoms of what type of reaction to iodinated contrast media? A. Anaphylactic B. Psychogenic C. Cardiovascular D. Hypovolemic
A. Anaphylactic
Which of the following bones has (have) no body? A. Atlas B. Axis C. Thoracic vertebrae D. Lumbar vertebrae
A. Atlas
Which of the following devices permits the radiographer to vary the kilovoltage in the x-ray circuit? A. Autotransformer B. Induction motor C. Rectifier D. Prereading kilovoltmeter
A. Autotransformer
X-rays produced by a cascade effect of outer shell electrons filling inner shell vacancies are a result of what interaction? A. Characteristic B. Brems C. Photoelectric D. Compton
A. Characteristic
A transverse fracture through the distal radius with posterior angulation and overriding of the distal fracture fragment is: A. Colles. B. Boxer. C. Pott. D. trimalleolar.
A. Colles.
Which photon-tissue interaction may expose radiographers during fluoroscopy? A. Compton B. Coherent C. Photoelectric interaction D. Pair production
A. Compton
The photon-tissue interaction that occurs when an outer shell electron is struck by an incident photon is: A. Compton. B. coherent. C. pair production. D. photoelectric.
A. Compton.
The photon-tissue interaction that produces a recoil electron is: A. Compton. B. coherent. C. pair production. D. photoelectric.
A. Compton.
The photon-tissue interaction that produces scatter that exits the patient is: A. Compton. B. coherent. C. pair production. D. photoelectric.
A. Compton.
Which of the following is (are) located just below the head of the humerus? A. Greater and lesser tubercles B. Bicipital groove C. Capitulum D. Trochlea
A. Greater and lesser tubercles
Which of the following should be used when a person is choking on a piece of food? A. Heimlich maneuver B. Modified Valsalva maneuver C. Valsalva maneuver D. Toe touch maneuver
A. Heimlich maneuver
The elbow has what type of movement? A. Hinge B. Pivot C. Saddle D. Gliding
A. Hinge
The abbreviation that means "history" is: A. Hx. B. Bx. C. CVA. D. MI.
A. Hx.
When caring for isolation patients in the radiology department, what is the first step to take? A. Identify the isolation category and follow guidelines B. Cover the x-ray table with a sheet C. Place contaminated materials in appropriate discard bag D. Determine what has caused the infection
A. Identify the isolation category and follow guidelines
Which of the following is most radiosensitive? A. Immature sperm cells and ova B. Adult nerve tissue C. Muscle cells D. All are very radiosensitive
A. Immature sperm cells and ova
What effect do beam restrictors have on contrast? A. Increase contrast B. Decrease contrast C. No effect D. Varying effect
A. Increase contrast
What effect do grids have on image contrast? A. Increase contrast B. Decrease contrast C. No effect D. Varying effect
A. Increase contrast
What occurs when radiation transfers its energy to the cytoplasm? A. Indirect effect B. Cell death C. Direct effect D. Nothing
A. Indirect effect
X-ray energy is converted to light energy in what part of the image-intensifier tube? A. Input phosphor B. Output phosphor C. Photocathode D. Electrostatic lenses
A. Input phosphor
A comminuted fracture of the ring of the atlas is: A. Jefferson fracture. B. Hangman fracture. C. seat belt fracture. D. stress fracture.
A. Jefferson fracture.
Directing the central ray at the lateral surface of the zygomatic bone is done for what projection? A. Lateral facial bones B. Lateral skull C. Oblique mandible D. SMV
A. Lateral facial bones
How does the energy of a scattered photon compare with that of the incident photon? A. Less B. Greater C. Equal to D. It has no energy.
A. Less
Which of the following is true when radiations with lower LET are absorbed? A. Less radiation damage occurs B. More radiation damage occurs C. LET is unrelated to radiation damage D. The same radiation damage results
A. Less radiation damage occurs
Which of the following is not part of proper body mechanics? A. Lift with the strong muscles of the back B. Keep knees slightly bent C. Stay on the same plane as the patient D. Always work in teams of three
A. Lift with the strong muscles of the back
This may occur if the contrast material extravasates at the site of injection: A. Local irritation B. Cardiovascular shock C. Anaphylactic shock D. Psychogenic shock
A. Local irritation
What are the most radiosensitive blood cells in the body? A. Lymphocytes B. Leukocytes C. Red blood cells D. Platelets
A. Lymphocytes
In the image-intensifier tube, conversion factor is a product of what? A. Minification gain times flux gain B. Input phosphor-to-output phosphor ratio C. X-ray energy times light energy D. Photocathode to output phosphor ratio
A. Minification gain times flux gain
What is the process of somatic cell division called? A. Mitosis B. Spermatogenesis C. Organogenesis D. Cytogenesis
A. Mitosis
At the moment of exposure, the focusing cup has what type of charge applied? A. Negative B. Neutral C. Positive D. None
A. Negative
What tissues or cells are relatively insensitive to radiation? A. Nerve tissue B. Reproductive cells C. Epithelial tissue D. Immature sperm cells
A. Nerve tissue
Which of the following is not an organelle? A. Nucleus B. Centrosomes C. Mitochondria D. Endoplasmic reticulum
A. Nucleus
Voltage in the circuit is equal to the current times resistance describes what law? A. Ohm's law B. Inverse square law C. Law of relativity D. Right hand rule
A. Ohm's law
When handling hazardous materials, the following should be worn: A. PPE (personal protective equipment). B. lead apron. C. sterile gown. D. street clothes.
A. PPE (personal protective equipment).
Which of the following forms of x radiation should the radiographer never receive? A. Primary B. Scatter C. Off-focus D. Secondary
A. Primary
In a variable rectangular collimator, placement of the upper shutters as close as possible to the window of the x-ray tube: A. Reduces the amount of off-focus radiation coming from the useful beam. B. Eliminates the production of secondary radiation. C. Restricts the length and width of the radiographic beam to 2 × 2 cm. D. Eliminates the possibility of electrons reaching the patient's skin.
A. Reduces the amount of off-focus radiation coming from the useful beam.
After the placement of the needle in the vein is verified, what should be done next? A. Remove the tourniquet B. Remove the butterfly C. Observe return blood flow D. Wash hands
A. Remove the tourniquet
The distance from the x-ray tube to the image receptor is: A. SID. B. OID. C. focal-spot size. D. SOD.
A. SID.
For shielding purposes, what is the x-ray control booth considered? A. Secondary protective barrier B. Primary protective barrier C. Equivalent to a lead apron D. A tertiary protective barrier
A. Secondary protective barrier
What transformer is used in the high-voltage section of the x-ray circuit? A. Step-up transformer B. Autotransformer C. Step-down transformer D. Rectifying transformer
A. Step-up transformer
Which of the following effects describes the following: Increased dose equals increased probability of effects? A. Stochastic effects B. Deterministic effects C. Direct effect D. Indirect effect
A. Stochastic effects
When moving a patient involves a wheelchair or cart, what is the first thing to double-check after verifying patient ID? A. That the brakes are applied B. What examination is to be done C. The patient's diagnosis D. None of the above
A. That the brakes are applied
What should fill the needle before injection of a contrast agent is made? A. Air B. Water C. Contrast agent D. Blood
C. Contrast agent
What is atomic mass? A. The number of protons plus the number of neutrons B. The number of photons C. The number of electrons D. The number of protons plus the number of electrons
A. The number of protons plus the number of neutrons
A code signaling cardiac arrest should be initiated when a: A. carotid pulse cannot be detected. B. patient has chest pain. C. patient faints. D. patient becomes cyanotic.
A. carotid pulse cannot be detected.
mAs controls the number of electrons passing from: A. cathode to anode in the x-ray tube. B. anode to cathode in the x-ray tube. C. the x-ray tube to the patient. D. the x-ray tube to the image receptor.
A. cathode to anode in the x-ray tube.
The focusing cup is located at the: A. cathode. B. anode. C. x-ray tube window. D. control panel.
A. cathode.
A small bowel series is considered complete when the column of barium reaches well into the: A. cecum. B. jejunum. C. transverse colon. D. rectum.
A. cecum.
For a properly positioned plantodorsal projection of the calcaneus, the central ray is directed to the long axis of the foot at a: A. cephalic angle of 40 degrees. B. caudad angle of 40 degrees. C. cephalic angle of 25 degrees. D. caudad angle of 25 degrees.
A. cephalic angle of 40 degrees.
An interaction that produces x-rays at the anode as a result of outer shell electrons filling holes in the K shell is called: A. characteristic. B. photoelectric. C. Compton. D. Brems.
A. characteristic.
A fracture that breaks through overlying skin is: A. compound. B. greenstick. C. comminuted. D. transverse.
A. compound.
The suffix "-osis" means: A. condition. B. tumor. C. disease. D. excision.
A. condition.
When a patient takes in a deep breath during chest radiography, the diaphragm: A. contracts and the dome moves downward. B. expands and the dome moves upward. C. contracts and the dome moves upward. D. expands and the dome moves downward.
A. contracts and the dome moves downward.
What dose-response curve best illustrates cataractogenesis, which does not occur at low levels of radiation exposure? A. Threshold B. Nonthreshold C. Low dose D. Occupational dose
A. Threshold
Which of the following is not true concerning sterile fields? A. Touch the inner surface to make sure it is smooth and ready for sterile instruments B. Unfold the first corner of the pack away from you C. Pull the front portion of the wrap toward you and drop it D. All of the above are true
A. Touch the inner surface to make sure it is smooth and ready for sterile instruments
How much may female gonadal dose be reduced by using proper shielding? A. Up to 50% B. Up to 75% C. Up to 85% D. Up to 95%
A. Up to 50%
Which of the following grid errors will result in an image that shows normal IR exposure in the middle but decreased IR exposure on the sides and may follow removal and replacement of the grid? A. Upside-down grid B. Off-focus grid C. Lateral decentering D. Grid-focus decentering
A. Upside-down grid
What takes into account the amount of time the beam is on and directed at a particular barrier? A. Use factor B. Shielding factor C. Occupancy D. Workload
A. Use factor
Which of the following correctly indicates the different forms of energy, in proper progression, that make up the fluoroscopic image as produced by an image intensifier? A. X-ray photons, light photons, electrons, light photons B. Light photons, electrons, light photons, x-ray photons C. Electrons, light photons, x-ray photons, light photons D. Light photons, x-ray photons, light photons, electrons
A. X-ray photons, light photons, electrons, light photons
An electromagnetic device that changes alternating current from high voltage to low voltage is called: A. a step-down transformer. B. a step-up transformer. C. an electric motor. D. rectification.
A. a step-down transformer.
A double-contrast examination of the gastrointestinal tract would use a media mixture of barium and: A. air. B. a fat-soluble iodinated agent. C. a water-soluble iodinated agent. D. a nonionic agent.
A. air.
Portable radiography of a fractured bone should include two projections, one at a right angle to the other, to demonstrate: A. alignment of the fragments. B. arterial damage. C. muscle insertion sites. D. porosity.
A. alignment of the fragments.
When an emergency department physician orders radiographs to determine the presence of a Pott fracture, the anatomic part to be radiographed is the: A. ankle. B. knee. C. shoulder. D. wrist.
A. ankle.
When viewing a submentovertical projection of the cranium for demonstration of certain paranasal sinuses, the ethmoidal sinuses are visualized: A. anterior to the sphenoidal sinuses. B. posterior to the sphenoidal sinuses. C. to the right of the sphenoidal sinuses. D. to the left of the sphenoidal sinuses.
A. anterior to the sphenoidal sinuses.
An AP lordotic chest radiograph best demonstrates the: A. apices of the lungs. B. bases of the lungs. C. mediastinal structures. D. position of the diaphragm.
A. apices of the lungs.
A nonpregnant relative to a 2-year-old child volunteers to help restrain the child while AP and lateral radiographs are obtained in the upright position. This person should be provided with: A. appropriate protective apparel. B. an OSL badge. C. a self-reading pocket dosimeter. D. a thermoluminescent dosimeter.
A. appropriate protective apparel.
Causing a patient to become apprehensive of being injured is called: A. assault. B. battery. C. false imprisonment. D. invasion of privacy.
A. assault.
A pathologic condition that is characterized by the collapse of lung tissue is: A. atelectasis. B. asthma. C. emphysema. D. pneumonia.
A. atelectasis
Two x-ray photons from the primary beam have interacted with atoms in a patient's body. After the interaction, one of the two photons was absorbed and the other photon scattered in a direction away from the image receptor. Both of these photons may now be classified as: A. attenuated photons. B. primary photons. C. remnant photons. D. secondary photons.
A. attenuated photons.
Partial absorption of the energy of an x-ray beam as it traverses an object is called: A. attenuation. B. transmission. C. law of reduced energy. D. filtration.
A. attenuation.
This device is also known as a variable transformer: A. autotransformer. B. step-up transformer. C. step-down transformer. D. x-ray generator.
A. autotransformer.
The unit of radioactivity is the: A. becquerel. B. gray. C. quality factor. D. Sievert.
A. becquerel.
The xiphoid is the: A. blunt cartilaginous tip of the sternum. B. end of the coccyx. C. tip of the chin. D. side of the head.
A. blunt cartilaginous tip of the sternum.
The most anterior part of a typical thoracic vertebra is the: A. body. B. laminae. C. pedicles. D. transverse processes.
A. body.
A pulse of less than 60 beats per minute is indicative of: A. bradycardia. B. atrial fibrillation. C. ventricular fibrillation. D. tachycardia.
A. bradycardia
The age of the radiographer in years multiplied by 10 mSv may be used to determine: A. cumulative exposure for occupationally exposed individuals. B. annual effective dose limit. C. effective dose for emergency occupational exposure. D. effective dose allowed per month for education and training of such people.
A. cumulative exposure for occupationally exposed individuals.
The volt is related to potential difference as the ampere is related to: A. current. B. resistance. C. capacitance. D. back EMF.
A. current.
When going from single-phase to three-phase or high-frequency machines, kVp values may be: A. decreased 12% to 16%. B. increased 10% to 20%. C. decreased 20% to 25%. D. increased only slightly.
A. decreased 12% to 16%.
As kVp is increased, the wavelength of the x-ray photons: A. decreases. B. increases. C. remains the same. D. fluctuates.
A. decreases.
As the wavelength of the x-rays increases, penetrating ability: A. decreases. B. increases. C. remains the same. D. fluctuates.
A. decreases.
The atomic number, tissue density, and tissue thickness of the part being imaged cause: A. differential absorption. B. recorded detail. C. motion. D. distortion.
A. differential absorption.
The pylorus of the stomach is located at the: A. distal end. B. proximal end. C. middle of the small intestine. D. ascending colon.
A. distal end.
The presence of pouchlike herniations through the wall of the colon is: A. diverticulosis. B. ileus. C. volvulus. D. intussusception.
A. diverticulosis.
Electron flow from negative to positive is: A. electric current. B. electromotive force. C. potential difference. D. resistance.
A. electric current.
Structures seen outside of the collimated area on a radiograph, produced by "off-focus" (extra focal) radiation, are the result of: A. electron interaction within the x-ray tube at a point other than the focal spot. B. scatter radiation emanating from the patient or tabletop. C. the use of an SID not recommended with the grid in use. D. the x-ray tube positioned off center to the grid.
A. electron interaction within the x-ray tube at a point other than the focal spot.
The ability to do work defines: A. energy. B. matter. C. mass. D. ionization.
A. energy.
Magnification may be caused by: A. excessive OID. B. long SID. C. small focal spot. D. high kVp.
A. excessive OID.
The increase in brightness caused by acceleration of the electrons in the image intensifier is called: A. flux gain. B. minification gain. C. total brightness gain. D. image gain.
A. flux gain.
When the "fat pad sign" is visible on a lateral radiograph of the elbow after trauma: A. fracture should be suspected. B. joint dislocation should be suspected. C. foreign body may be present. D. metastatic disease is present.
A. fracture should be suspected.
For a routine, nontrauma lateral projection of the cervical spine, the central ray is directed: A. from a distance of 72 inches. B. parallel to C4. C. from a distance of 40 inches. D. perpendicular to C2.
A. from a distance of 72 inches.
The radiation dose that, if received by the entire population, would cause the same genetic injury as the total of doses received by the members actually being exposed is called: A. genetically significant dose. B. doubling dose. C. mean marrow dose. D. genetic dose.
A. genetically significant dose.
Rotation of the target allows for: A. greater heat dissipation. B. greater x-ray production. C. longer exposure times. D. lower radiation dose.
A. greater heat dissipation.
The factor that is expressed as the ratio of primary radiation transmitted through the grid to secondary radiation transmitted through the grid is: A. grid selectivity. B. grid ratio. C. contrast improvement factor. D. grid radius.
A. grid selectivity.
Diastolic blood pressure measures: A. heart at rest. B. atrial fibrillation. C. pumping action. D. tachycardia.
A. heart at rest.
Because an x-ray beam has a range of photon energies, it may be classified as: A. heterogeneous. B. homogeneous. C. heterologic. D. homologic.
A. heterogeneous.
Carefully observing the patient's overall condition or the condition of a wound enables the radiographer to: A. notify emergency department personnel of any changes, including fresh bleeding. B. note changes on the requisition. C. note changes on the patient's chart. D. notify admitting of whom to call.
A. notify emergency department personnel of any changes, including fresh bleeding.
Most of the mass of an atom is contained in the: A. nucleus. B. shells. C. electrons. D. neutrons.
A. nucleus
By increasing the mA control on the operating console of the x-ray machine, the radiographer can increase the: A. number of electrons boiled off the filament. B. length of time that electrons take to cross the tube gap. C. energy of the electrons crossing the gap. D. wavelength of the x-rays produced.
A. number of electrons boiled off the filament.
The cortex is the: A. outer part of the kidney. B. core of the kidney. C. functional unit of the kidney. D. blood supply to the kidney.
A. outer part of the kidney.
For a lateral L5-S1 projection of the lumbar spine, the central ray is directed: A. perpendicular to L5 at a point 1.5 inches anterior to the palpated spinous process of L5 and 1.5 inches inferior to the iliac crest. B. parallel to L5 at a point 1.5 inches anterior to the palpated spinous process of L5 and 1.5 inches inferior to the iliac crest. C. perpendicular to L5 at a point 2 inches anterior to the palpated spinous process of L5 and 2 inches inferior to the iliac crest. D. perpendicular to L5 at a point 1.5 inches anterior to the palpated spinous process of L5.
A. perpendicular to L5 at a point 1.5 inches anterior to the palpated spinous process of L5 and 1.5 inches inferior to the iliac crest.
Marks on the anode resulting from bombardment by electrons are called: A. pitting. B. cracks. C. bullet marks. D. craters.
A. pitting.
Motion results in: A. poorer spatial resolution. B. better spatial resolution. C. no effect on the image.
A. poorer spatial resolution.
A primary advantage to digital fluoroscopy is: A. postprocessing manipulation of the image. B. radiation dose to the patient is substantially lower. C. no radiologist is needed. D. lower cost.
A. postprocessing manipulation of the image.
To prolong the life of the x-ray tube, all of the following procedures should be followed except: A. preheat anode with a single high-mA, high-kVp, longtime exposure. B. minimize rotor depression time. C. sequence exams so that the view requiring the largest exposure is first. D. keep heat units to a minimum.
A. preheat anode with a single high-mA, high-kVp, longtime exposure.
One of the purposes of the backup timer used with automatic exposure control (AEC) devices is to: A. prevent excessive exposure to the patient. B. control the minimal response time of the AEC device. C. prevent excessive production of IR exposure. D. ensure a proper level of radiographic contrast.
A. prevent excessive exposure to the patient.
How a reasonable person with similar education and experience would perform under similar circumstances defines: A. reasonably prudent person doctrine. B. standard of care. C. scope of practice. D. professional ethics.
A. reasonably prudent person doctrine.
The ability of radiation to produce biologic damage is called: A. relative biologic effectiveness (RBE). B. linear energy transfer (LET). C. quantum mottle. D. quality factor (QF).
A. relative biologic effectiveness (RBE).
Cessation of breathing is called: A. respiratory arrest. B. bradycardia. C. cardiac arrest. D. CVA.
A. respiratory arrest.
The legal doctrine stating that an employer is responsible for the employee's negligent actions is: A. respondeat superior. B. res ipsa loquitur. C. gross negligence. D. slander.
A. respondeat superior.
The wrinkled striations on the inner surface of the stomach are called the: A. rugae. B. pylorus. C. fundus. D. greater curvature.
A. rugae.
This bone is located in the wrist on the lateral side of the proximal row: A. scaphoid. B. hamate. C. pisiform. D. capitate.
A. scaphoid.
Walls that may be struck by scatter or leakage radiation require: A. secondary protective barriers. B. lead. C. primary protective barriers. D. None of the above
A. secondary protective barriers.
For optimum spatial resolution, OID should be the: A. shortest possible. B. longest possible. C. longest practical. D. average distance.
A. shortest possible.
The simplest type of current, this voltage (and accompanying current) flows as a sine wave, begins at zero, peaks at full value at the crest of the wave, returns to zero, reverses, and again peaks on the inverse portion of the cycle at the trough. This describes: A. single-phase, two-pulse alternating current. B. three-phase alternating current. C. high-frequency current. D. direct current.
A. single-phase, two-pulse alternating current.
There are two types of distortion: A. size and shape. B. definition and resolution. C. large and small. D. None of the above
A. size and shape.
Spoken false information about another person that results in defamation of character or loss of reputation is: A. slander. B. assault. C. battery. D. libel.
A. slander.
For optimum spatial resolution, focal-spot size should be: A. small. B. large. C. grid-controlled. D. average.
A. small.
If you suspect an object is contaminated, assume: A. that it is contaminated. B. that it should be used immediately. C. that it is not contaminated so you do not waste supplies. D. that your hands must be sterilized.
A. that it is contaminated.
For an oblique projection of the toes, the central ray enters at the: A. third metatarsophalangeal joint. B. second metacarpophalangeal joint. C. first metatarsophalangeal joint. D. third metacarpophalangeal joint.
A. third metatarsophalangeal joint.
This device is wired in the circuit between the autotransformer and the high-voltage transformer: A. timer. B. rectifier. C. step-down transformer. D. cathode.
A. timer.
TKO stands for: A. to keep open (referring to IV line). B. to keep orderly. C. to keep offering. D. to keep open (referring to the radiology department).
A. to keep open (referring to IV line).
A pathologic condition that is characterized by a chronic inflammation of the lungs caused by acid-fast bacillus is: A. tuberculosis. B. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). C. histoplasmosis. D. pulmonary metastases.
A. tuberculosis.
The trochlea articulates with the: A. ulna. B. radius. C. tibia. D. fibula.
A. ulna.
The laws of electrostatics state that: A. unlike charges attract; like charges repel. B. electrostatic charges reside on the outer surface of a conductor and are concentrated at the area of least curvature. C. only positive charges move. D. like charges attract; unlike charges repel.
A. unlike charges attract; like charges repel.
The unit of electromotive force is the: A. volt. B. ohm. C. ampere. D. resistor.
A. volt.
For low-ratio grids, the grid radius is: A. wide. B. narrow. C. irrelevant. D. nonexistent.
A. wide.
Compared with conventional radiography, computed radiography exhibits: A. wider exposure latitude. B. narrower exposure latitude. C. a "noisier" image. D. no quantum mottle.
A. wider exposure latitude.
Examples of low-LET radiations include: A. x-rays. B. alpha particles. C. neutrons. D. radioactive fallout.
A. x-rays.
The x-ray machine receives what type of current from the incoming line? A. 120 watt B. 240 DC C. 120-Hz DC D. 120-Hz AC
D. 120-Hz AC
The longitudinal folds found in the lining of the stomach are: A. fistula. B. fissura. C. ructus. D. Rugae.
D. Rugae.
Which of the following is the target responsible for radiation-induced leukemia? A. Breasts B. Bone marrow C. Gonads D. White blood cells
B. Bone marrow
A transverse fracture of the neck of the fifth metacarpal with palmar angulation of the distal fracture fragment is: A. Colles. B. Boxer. C. Pott. D. trimalleolar.
B. Boxer.
This item is used to measure blood pressure: A. crash cart. B. suction unit. C. defibrillator. D. sphygmomanometer.
D. sphygmomanometer.
X-rays produced by the slowing (braking) of projectile electrons are a result of what interaction? A. Characteristic B. Brems C. Photoelectric D. Compton
B. Brems
The abdominal structure that is not an accessory digestive organ is the: A. gallbladder. B. liver. C. pancreas. D. spleen.
D. spleen.
Rotation of the head occurs between: A. the foramen magnum and the odontoid process. B. C1 and C2. C. the foramen magnum and C2. D. C7 and T1.
B. C1 and C2.
An injection set that includes a needle with plastic wings attached is called: A. large bore. B. butterfly. C. contrast agent injecting set. D. sterile tray.
B. butterfly.
Which of the following are patients' rights? 1. To be able to examine her own medical records on request 2. To take possession of and permanently keep her radiographs 3. To have the opportunity to review and receive an itemized copy of her hospital bill A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 3 only
The diagnostic useful range of x-rays is from: A. 0.01 to 0.05 angstrom. B. 0.1 to 0.5 angstrom. C. 1.0 to 5.0 angstrom. D. 10.0 to 50.0 angstrom.
B. 0.1 to 0.5 angstrom.
The blood count is depressed following a whole-body dose equivalent of at least how many sievert? A. 0.10 B. 0.25 C. 5.0 D. 100.0
B. 0.25
The effective absorbed dose equivalent limit for the unborn per month of gestation is: A. 500 mSv B. 0.5 mSv C. 0.05 mSv D. 5 mSv
B. 0.5 mSv
For the lateral projection for the sinuses, the central ray enters: A. 1 to 1.5 inches anterior to the outer canthus. B. 0.5 to 1.0 inch posterior to the outer canthus. C. 2 to 2.5 inches posterior to the outer canthus. D. at the lateral surface of the zygomatic bone.
B. 0.5 to 1.0 inch posterior to the outer canthus.
What is the thickness of a lead apron that should be worn while being exposed to scatter radiation? A. 0.10-mm lead equivalent B. 0.50-mm lead equivalent C. 0.50-mm aluminum equivalent D. 0.10-mm aluminum equivalent
B. 0.50-mm lead equivalent
What is the thickness of a thyroid shield that should be worn during fluoroscopy? A. 0.10-mm lead equivalent B. 0.50-mm lead equivalent C. 0.50-mm aluminum equivalent D. 0.10-mm aluminum equivalent
B. 0.50-mm lead equivalent
When kilovoltage is increased: 1. intensity increases. 2. wavelengths become shorter. 3. wavelengths become longer. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
With automatic exposure control (AEC) techniques, the radiographer must consider: 1. the position of the part relative to the AEC sensor. 2. minimal response time of the AEC unit. 3. mAs value needed. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
How may cell damage be manifested? 1. Loss of function 2. Nothing occurs 3. Abnormal function A. 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2, and 3 D. NULL
B. 1 and 3
A radiographic grid should be used when: 1. the body area to be radiographed measures more than 10 cm. 2. a field size larger than 10 × 12 inches is used. 3. more than 60 kVp is required to penetrate a body part. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 3 only
Diagnostic x-ray exposure of the patient can be kept to the lowest possible level when the radiographer: 1. uses the smallest exposure that will yield diagnostically acceptable radiographs. 2. repeats radiographs of inferior quality. 3. produces high-quality radiographs with each initial exposure. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 3 only
The AIDS virus is not transmitted by: 1. airborne germs. 2. sexual contact. 3. casual contact such as touching a patient who has the disease. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 3 only
What is the limit on leakage radiation from a diagnostic x-ray tube? A. 10 mGya per hour at a distance of 1 m from the housing B. 1 mGya per hour at a distance of 1 m from the housing C. 100 mGya per hour at a distance of 1 m from the housing D. No leakage is allowed
B. 1 mGya per hour at a distance of 1 m from the housing
Assessment of patient conditions may be done by observing: 1. Changes in skin color to cyanotic or waxen pallor 2. Cyanosis of lips or nail beds 3. Skin temperature and moisture 4. Blood pressure A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 B. 1, 2, and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2, and 4
B. 1, 2, and 3
Before injecting a contrast agent, what must the radiographer do? 1. Determine whether there is a history of allergies or previous hypersensitivity to contrast media 2. Determine the extent of the patient's medical problems 3. Review possible reactions to the contrast agent being used A. 1 and 3 B. 1, 2, and 3 C. 1 D. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2, and 3
If scheduled for GI studies, patient preparation includes: 1. Low-residue diet. 2. NPO for 8 to 12 hours before the procedure 3. Cathartics and enemas 4. Follow-up phone call to remind patient about preps A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2, and 3 C. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 2 and 3
B. 1, 2, and 3
Informed consent requires that: 1. the patient must be mentally competent and of legal age. 2. consent must be offered voluntarily. 3. the patient must be adequately informed using language he or she understands. 4. the patient is given a brochure describing the procedure. A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 B. 1, 2, and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 1 and 3
B. 1, 2, and 3
Symptoms of shock may include: 1. Dyspnea 2. Accelerated pulse 3. Alteration in ability to think 4. Nervousness A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 B. 1, 2, and 3 C. 1, 2, and 4 D. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2, and 3
What are the levels of consciousness? 1. Alert and conscious or drowsy 2. Unconscious but reactive to stimuli 3. Comatose A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2, and 3 C. 1 and 3 D. NULL
B. 1, 2, and 3
How short of an exposure is possible with electronic timers? A. 1/10 second B. 1/1000 second C. 1 microsecond D. 1 megasecond
B. 1/1000 second
A lateral radiograph of the paranasal sinuses was taken at 36 inches source-to-image distance (SID) using 25 mAs. To obtain preoperative measurements, the radiologist requested another lateral radiograph be obtained at 72 inches SID. What new mAs must be employed to maintain overall IR exposure? A. 50 mAs B. 100 mAs C. 150 mAs D. 200 mAs
B. 100 mAs
Following single-phase full-wave rectification, the waveform contains two pulses per cycle, or: A. 60 pulses per second. B. 120 pulses per second. C. 2 pulses per second. D. 360 pulses per second.
B. 120 pulses per second.
If a patient's blood pressure is 120 over 70, the systolic pressure is: A. 190. B. 120. C. 70. D. 50.
B. 120.
The minimum source-to-skin distance for portable fluoroscopes is at least: A. 12 inches. B. 15 inches. C. 72 inches. D. 40 inches.
B. 15 inches.
For the right PA oblique projection (RAO) for the sternum, the body should be rotated how many degrees? A. 10 to 15 B. 15 to 20 C. 20 to 25 D. 5 to 10
B. 15 to 20
With the patient placed in an RAO position to radiograph the sternum, the left side of the thorax should be elevated: A. 5 to 10 degrees. B. 15 to 20 degrees. C. 25 to 30 degrees. D. 30 to 45 degrees.
B. 15 to 20 degrees.
Under which of the following circumstances does alternation of the base sequence in a DNA macromolecule occur? 1. During random x-ray interaction with a water molecule 2. When high-energy radiation directly interacts with a DNA macromolecule 3. When low-energy radiation indirectly interacts with a water molecule A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 2 only
Positive beam limitation is required on most radiographic units within the United States. These must be adjusted so that collimation accuracy is within a specific percent of the standard source-to-image distance. What is this required percent? A. 5% B. 2% C. 10% D. 12%
B. 2%
Total filtration in the x-ray beam must be at least: A. 2.5-mm lead equivalent. B. 2.5-mm aluminum equivalent. C. the same as the amount of compensating filtration. D. the same as the added filtration.
B. 2.5-mm aluminum equivalent.
Under what dose must an uncontrolled area be kept? A. 10 μSv per week B. 20 μSv per week C. 50 μSv per week D. 100 μSv per week
B. 20 μSv per week
The number of chromosomes in the cell after meiosis is: A. 46. B. 23. C. 10. D. 40.
B. 23.
For the AP axial projection of the clavicle, the central ray is angled: A. 25 to 30 degrees caudad. B. 25 to 30 degrees cephalad. C. 20 degrees caudad. D. 20 degrees cephalad.
B. 25 to 30 degrees cephalad.
Three-phase, 12-pulse, full-wave rectification produces what percentage of ripple? A. 13 B. 4 C. 1 D. 100
B. 4
For the PA oblique projection (RAO) for the stomach, the patient is rotated how many degrees? A. 20 to 30 B. 40 to 70 C. 50 to 90 D. 10 to 15
B. 40 to 70
Three-phase, 12-pulse equipment produces how much higher average photon energy? A. 1.41% B. 41% C. 1.35% D. 35%
B. 41%
Thermoluminescent dosimeters measure doses as low as: A. 5 μGya B. 50 μGya C. 100 μGya D. 500 μGya
B. 50 μGya
In an x-ray tube circuit with four rectifiers, how much will exposure output decrease if one of the rectifiers fails? A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%
B. 50%
The exposure switch for mobile radiographic equipment must be on a cord at least how long? A. 3 feet B. 6 feet C. 4 feet D. 10 feet
B. 6 feet
How many kilovolts equal 70,000 volts? A. 7 B. 70 C. 700 D. 7000
B. 70
Gonadal shielding may reduce male gonad dose by up to: A. 50%. B. 95%. C. 25%. D. 10%.
B. 95%.
The voltage actually used in three-phase, 12-pulse units is about: A. 99% of the kVp set on the control panel. B. 96% of the kVp set on the control panel. C. 87% of the kVp set on the control panel. D. 50% of the kVp set on the control panel.
B. 96% of the kVp set on the control panel.
When taken orally, the normal body temperature is: A. 99.6°F. B. 98.6°F. C. 97.6°F. D. 96.6°F.
B. 98.6°F.
Atomic mass is represented by the letter: A. M. B. A. C. Z. D. Q.
B. A.
Which of the following statements concerning alternating current, direct current, and the x-ray circuit is true? Transformers require: A. DC, but x-ray tubes work more efficiently with AC. B. AC, but x-ray tubes work more efficiently with DC. C. AC, and x-ray tubes work more efficiently with AC. D. DC, and x-ray tubes work more efficiently with DC.
B. AC, but x-ray tubes work more efficiently with DC.
Directing the central ray to the base of the third metatarsal is done for what projection? A. AP ankle B. AP foot C. AP leg D. Oblique ankle
B. AP foot
The patient's body is rotated 30 degrees for what projection? A. Lateral humerus B. AP oblique of kidneys C. Lateral sinuses D. Lateral sacrum
B. AP oblique of kidneys
This type of infection transmission occurs mainly on dust: A. Contact transmission B. Airborne transmission C. Droplet transmission D. Common vehicle transmission
B. Airborne transmission
When wearing a protective cap for isolation: A. It should be put on last B. All hair should be tucked inside C. Hair may remain outside because it cannot become contaminated D. NULL
B. All hair should be tucked inside
The Standards of Ethics for the profession of radiologic technology are written and published by which organization? A. American Society of Radiologic Technologists B. American Registry of Radiologic Technologists C. American College of Radiology D. Radiological Society of North America
B. American Registry of Radiologic Technologists
What is the smallest particle of an element that retains the characteristics of the element? A. Mole B. Atom C. Molecule D. Quark
B. Atom
When an AEC is used, where is the ionization chamber? A. Behind the IR B. Between the IR and the patient C. Between the patient and the x-ray tube D. In front of the x-ray tube
B. Between the IR and the patient
The accuracy of collimation at a 60-inch SID must be: A. ±6 inches. B. ±3 inches. C. ±2 inches. D. ±1.2 inches.
D. ±1.2 inches.
Which of the following structures is most proximal? A. Ascending colon B. Cecum C. Descending colon D. Sigmoid
B. Cecum
Standard Precautions are stipulated by the: A. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency. B. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration. D. State Department of Public Health.
B. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
After birth, a baby is suspected of having newborn atelectasis. Which part of the body should be radiographed to facilitate a diagnosis? A. Abdomen B. Chest C. Extremities D. Skull
B. Chest
Issues such as acting with discretion and professional judgment, using technology for its intended purpose, and practicing with respect for all humanity is addressed in which section of the Standards of Ethics? A. Rules of Ethics B. Code of Ethics C. These issues are not addressed in the ARRT Standards of Ethics D. NULL
B. Code of Ethics
Which of the following processes of interaction between x-ray and matter are responsible for most of the radiation received by members of the medical radiography team? A. Coherent scattering B. Compton scattering C. Photoelectric absorption D. Pair production
B. Compton scattering
Which of the following kinds of infection transmission occur secondary to touching? A. Droplet transmission B. Contact transmission C. Vectorborne transmission D. Airborne transmission
B. Contact transmission
The exposure switch on a fluoroscope must be what type? A. Operated by hand only B. Dead-man C. Electronic D. Operated by foot only
B. Dead-man
What effect does increasing filtration have on contrast? A. Increase contrast B. Decrease contrast C. No effect D. Varying effect
B. Decrease contrast
What is contained in the orbital shells of an atom? A. Protons B. Electrons C. Neutrons D. Negatrons
B. Electrons
Which of the following bones has nasal conchae? A. Sphenoid bone B. Ethmoid bone C. Mandible D. Maxilla
B. Ethmoid bone
What type of imaging equipment provides dynamic visualization of internal structures? A. Computed tomography B. Fluoroscopy C. Conventional radiography D. Computed radiography
B. Fluoroscopy
What is the unit of air kerma? A. Becquerel B. GrayA C. Sievert D. GrayT
B. GrayA
A fracture caused by acute hyperextension of the head on the neck is: A. Jefferson fracture. B. Hangman fracture. C. seat belt fracture. D. stress fracture.
B. Hangman fracture.
In digital fluoroscopy, what equipment should be used to view the image? A. Conventional view box B. High-resolution monitor capable of displaying millions of pixels C. High-definition television D. Plasma TV required
B. High-resolution monitor capable of displaying millions of pixels
Thermoluminescent dosimeters use what type of crystals to record dose? A. Dilithium B. Lithium fluoride C. Flux D. Silver bromide
B. Lithium fluoride
Which of the following statements is true? A. High kVp = high contrast = short-scale contrast = few gray tones B. Low kVp = high contrast = short-scale contrast = few gray tones C. When kVp is increased, there is an increase in the number of photoelectric interactions that occur. D. When kVp is decreased, there is an increase in the number of Compton interactions that occur.
B. Low kVp = high contrast = short-scale contrast = few gray tones
Which of the following surrounds a current running through a conductor? A. Alpha particles B. Magnetic field C. Insulator D. Circuit
B. Magnetic field
Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase are the four stages of what? A. Interphase B. Mitosis C. The life cycle D. Response to radiation exposure
B. Mitosis
Which of the following is true when radiations with higher LET are absorbed? A. Less radiation damage occurs B. More radiation damage occurs C. LET is unrelated to radiation damage D. The same radiation damage results
B. More radiation damage occurs
The distance from the object being imaged to the image receptor is: A. SID. B. OID. C. focal-spot size. D. SOD.
B. OID.
Which of the following will not provide radiation protection for the radiographer? A. Bucky slot shielding device B. OSL dosimeter C. Lead apron of 0.5 mm lead equivalent D. Sliding panel of 0.25 mm lead equivalent
B. OSL dosimeter
Which of the following grid errors will result in an image that shows decreased IR exposure across the entire radiograph? A. Upside down B. Off-level C. Lateral decentering D. Grid-focus decentering
B. Off-level
Inside the tube housing, what is the x-ray tube immersed in to assist with cooling and additional electrical insulation? A. Plastic B. Oil C. Water D. Coolant
B. Oil
Electron energy is converted to light in what part of the image-intensifier tube? A. Input phosphor B. Output phosphor C. Photocathode D. Electrostatic lenses
B. Output phosphor
A central ray angle of 25 to 30 degrees caudad is required for what projection? A. AP clavicle B. PA axial clavicle C. Oblique lumbar spine D. AP cervical spine
B. PA axial clavicle
Computed radiography may be part of an integrated system of images and text called: A. digital patient record. B. PACS. C. patient information system. D. computed patient files.
B. PACS.
kVp determines what aspect of the x-ray beam? A. Quantity B. Penetrating ability C. Detail D. Distortion
B. Penetrating ability
Patient anxiety or suggestions of the possible reactions described during the informed consent process may be symptoms of what type of reaction to iodinated contrast media? A. Anaphylactic B. Psychogenic C. Cardiovascular D. Hypovolemic
B. Psychogenic
Issues such as alcohol and drug abuse, HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) violations, inappropriate sexual relationships on the job, and mental competency are addressed in which section of the Standards of Ethics? A. Code of Ethics B. Rules of Ethics C. These issues are not addressed in the ARRT Standards of Ethics D. NULL
B. Rules of Ethics
A focused grid must be used with specific ranges of: A. kVp. B. SID. C. OID. D. focal-spot sizes.
B. SID.
When involved in a trauma case, what assumption must the radiographer make? A. The patient will become unconscious. B. Serious internal injury is present. C. The patient is in cardiac arrest. D. The patient is in respiratory arrest.
B. Serious internal injury is present.
A system that uses barriers between blood, all body fluids, nonintact skin, and mucous membranes of all individuals and susceptible people is called: A. Universal Precautions. B. Standard Precautions. C. infection control. D. liner, nonthreshold.
B. Standard Precautions.
The first tier of transmission-based isolation precautions is called: A. Universal Precautions. B. Standard Precautions. C. infection control. D. liner, nonthreshold.
B. Standard Precautions.
What includes complete sterilization of equipment and the appropriate skin preparation? A. Medical asepsis B. Surgical asepsis C. Sterilization asepsis D. None of the above
B. Surgical asepsis
For an AP projection of the thoracic spine, both the central ray and the image receptor should be centered at: A. T3. B. T7. C. T9. D. T12.
B. T7.
Which of the following bones has the external acoustic meatus? A. Frontal bone B. Temporal bone C. Occipital bone D. Mandible
B. Temporal bone
Before injection, the patient's skin must be: A. placed in a sterile field. B. thoroughly cleansed. C. left alone. D. fitted with a tourniquet.
B. thoroughly cleansed.
A device in which the x-ray tube and image intensifier are located on opposite cusps of a semicircular arch is called a: A. portable x-ray machine. B. c-arm. C. mammographic unit. D. dedicated chest room.
B. c-arm.
This bone is located beneath the talus: A. navicular. B. calcaneus. C. talus. D. cuboid.
B. calcaneus.
For an AP projection of the coccyx, the central ray is directed: A. cephalad at an angle of 10 degrees. B. caudal at an angle of 10 degrees. C. cephalad at an angle of 25 degrees. D. caudal at an angle of 25 degrees.
B. caudal at an angle of 10 degrees.
Which of these describes somatic effects of radiation? A. They are common. B. They are caused when a large dose of high-LET radiation is received by a large area of the body. C. They result from exposure of DNA. D. They include genetic mutations.
B. They are caused when a large dose of high-LET radiation is received by a large area of the body.
Attenuation may be defined as: A. radiation that emerges from the patient. B. changes in the x-ray beam as it travels through the patient. C. interactions that only produce scatter radiation. D. interactions that only occur at doses used in radiation therapy.
B. changes in the x-ray beam as it travels through the patient.
What must precede any examinations involving iodinated contrast media? A. Chest x-ray study B. Thyroid assessment C. Patient held NPO D. Pregnancy test
B. Thyroid assessment
What regulates the duration of x-ray production? A. Autotransformer B. Timer C. Step-up transformer D. Rectifier
B. Timer
What is the area called for the general public, such as a waiting room? A. Controlled area B. Uncontrolled area C. Off-limits area D. Radiation area
B. Uncontrolled area
What is contained within the x-ray tube to prevent the filament's electrons from colliding with the atoms of gas? A. Metal anode B. Vacuum C. Sterile air D. Plastic cathode
B. Vacuum
TLDs are heated and release what type of energy to indicate dose? A. Laser B. Visible light C. X-rays D. Gamma rays
B. Visible light
The prefix "hyper-" means: A. below. B. above. C. all. D. around.
B. above.
The prefix "anti-" means: A. front. B. against. C. large. D. below.
B. against.
Using an increased OID that allows scatter to miss the IR is called: A. autotomography. B. air gap technique. C. scatter technique. D. cervical spine technique.
B. air gap technique.
With the patient properly adjusted in a 45-degree right anterior oblique position for demonstration of the cervical vertebrae, the intervertebral foramina demonstrated will be: A. all those on the left side. B. all those on the right side. C. only the first four on the left side. D. only the first four on the right side.
B. all those on the right side.
One of the functions of the vacuum created by the glass envelope surrounding the working components of the x-ray tube is to: A. decrease the risk of electrical shock. B. allow free flow of electrons from cathode to anode. C. decrease the amount of leakage radiation leaving the tube. D. eliminate the buildup of heat units inside the tube.
B. allow free flow of electrons from cathode to anode.
Radiation may also exist as particles, such as: A. radiation only exists as rays. B. alpha and beta particles. C. electrons and protons. D. waves and quarks.
B. alpha and beta particles.
Cartilaginous joints are called: A. synarthroses. B. amphiarthroses. C. diarthroses. D. mesocephalic.
B. amphiarthroses.
A type of shock that may follow injection of iodinated contrast media is: A. hypovolemic. B. anaphylactic. C. neurogenic. D. cardiogenic.
B. anaphylactic.
As kVp increases, a greater potential difference exists between: A. tube and patient. B. anode and cathode. C. photoelectric and Compton Interactions. D. kVp and mAs.
B. anode and cathode.
Sterile objects or fields touched by nonsterile objects or people: A. remain sterile. B. are immediately contaminated. C. must be used immediately before microorganisms can grow. D. must be touched immediately by a sterile person.
B. are immediately contaminated.
The major advantage of nonionic contrast media over ionic contrast media is that nonionic contrast agents: A. are considerably less expensive. B. are less likely to cause an adverse reaction in the patient. C. provide better radiographic contrast. D. require the use of considerably less kV and mAs.
B. are less likely to cause an adverse reaction in the patient.
The Code of Ethics portion of the Standards of Ethics provides information on: A. assisting radiologic technologists with continuing education. B. assisting radiologic technologists with self-evaluations of their professional conduct. C. setting rules and regulations that are strictly enforced. D. regulations pertaining to annual renewal of certification.
B. assisting radiologic technologists with self-evaluations of their professional conduct.
A pathologic condition that is characterized by increased mucus production in the bronchi causing hyperventilation of the lungs is: A. atelectasis. B. asthma. C. emphysema. D. pneumonia.
B. asthma.
A radiographer who takes a radiograph against the patient's will can be charged with: A. assault. B. battery. C. defamation of character. D. invasion of privacy.
B. battery.
Unlawful touching or touching without consent constitutes: A. assault. B. battery. C. libel. D. slander.
B. battery.
The bicipital groove is located: A. on the femur. B. between the greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus. C. behind the patella. D. on the sacrum.
B. between the greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus.
When human tissues lack sufficient oxygen, the skin demonstrates: A. ash coloration. B. bluish coloration. C. pale yellow coloration. D. reddish coloration.
B. bluish coloration.
The purpose for establishing annual limits for occupationally exposed individuals is to: A. determine the minimum risk that an individual should take in any given year. B. control the maximum risk to a person in any year. C. avoid the need for initiating federal legislation to police the medical radiation industry. D. prevent the normal occurrence of job-related genetic damage from occurring.
B. control the maximum risk to a person in any year.
When beam restriction is used, receptor exposure: A. increases. B. decreases. C. remains the same. D. varies.
B. decreases.
When beam restriction is used, scatter production: A. increases. B. decreases. C. remains the same. D. varies.
B. decreases.
The greatest source of human-made radiation exposure is from: A. consumer products. B. diagnostic Imaging Procedures. C. nuclear weapons testing. D. high-altitude flight.
B. diagnostic Imaging Procedures
A condition caused by improper tube, part, or IR alignment is: A. definition. B. distortion. C. minification. D. None of the above
B. distortion.
Diabetic patients should be scheduled: A. later because of their need for insulin. B. early because of their need for insulin. C. just before mealtime. D. just after mealtime.
B. early because of their need for insulin.
The result of thermionic emission is a(n): A. recoil electron. B. electron cloud. C. scattered photon. D. characteristic photon.
B. electron cloud
Electrons are held in orbit around the nucleus by a force called: A. gravity. B. electron-binding energy. C. centrifugal force. D. slingshot effect.
B. electron-binding energy.
The study of stationary electric charges is: A. electromagnetism. B. electrostatics. C. electrification. D. electrodynamics.
B. electrostatics.
The law of conservation of energy states: A. matter cannot be created or destroyed. B. energy cannot be created or destroyed, only in changed in form. C. matter cannot be created, but energy can. D. energy cannot be created, but matter can.
B. energy cannot be created or destroyed, only in changed in form.
The cardiac portion is where the: A. lungs are connected to the heart. B. esophagus enters the stomach. C. trachea enters the lungs. D. nasopharynx enters the throat.
B. esophagus enters the stomach.
The suffix "-ectasis" means: A. excision. B. expansion. C. surgical correction. D. tumor.
B. expansion.
Bradycardia indicates a pulse of: A. more than 100 beats per minute. B. fewer than 60 beats per minute. C. greater than 90. D. less than 50.
B. fewer than 60 beats per minute.
For an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the lumbar spine, lumbar lordosis can be sufficiently reduced by: A. extending the legs and arching the back. B. flexing both hips and knees enough to bring the back against the radiographic table. C. slightly flexing the hips and knees. D. slightly flexing only one hip and knee.
B. flexing both hips and knees enough to bring the back against the radiographic table.
The unit of absorbed dose is the: A. coulomb/kilogram. B. gray. C. Becquerel D. Sievert
B. gray.
As the potential difference increases, electrons from the cathode strike the anode in greater numbers and with: A. less energy. B. greater energy. C. shorter wavelengths. D. longer wavelengths.
B. greater energy.
A fracture that is incomplete with the cortex intact on the opposite side from the fracture is: A. compound. B. greenstick. C. comminuted. D. transverse.
B. greenstick.
The SID at which a focused grid must be used is called: A. grid frequency. B. grid radius. C. grid ratio. D. contrast improvement factor.
B. grid radius.
A grid error in which there is normal exposure in the center of the image with cutoff visible on the sides is caused by: A. lateral decentering. B. grid-focus decentering. C. off-level grid. D. low kVp.
B. grid-focus decentering.
An act that demonstrates reckless disregard for life or limb is called: A. unintentional misconduct. B. gross negligence. C. assault. D. defamation.
B. gross negligence.
This bone is located in the wrist on the medial side of the distal row: A. scaphoid. B. hamate. C. pisiform. D. capitate.
B. hamate.
As low-energy x-rays are removed from the beam, it becomes: A. softer. B. harder. C. less penetrating. D. of lower energy.
B. harder.
While viewing a follow-up radiograph of a fractured femur, the radiographer observed a callus formation around the bone at the fracture site. This indicates that: A. x-ray has damaged the bone. B. healing is occurring. C. the bone will not heal. D. surgery to repair the fracture is needed.
B. healing is occurring.
Rotating anodes can tolerate higher instantaneous heat loads than stationary anodes because: A. rotating anodes are thicker than stationary anodes. B. heat is distributed over a larger area in rotating anodes. C. rotating anodes are made of materials that can withstand greater heat loading. D. none of the above; stationary anodes can actually tolerate higher heat loads than rotating anodes.
B. heat is distributed over a larger area in rotating anodes.
A patient with urticaria following an intravenous injection of an iodinated contrast has: A. dizziness. B. hives. C. numbness at the injection site. D. rapid heartbeat.
B. hives.
Medical and dental x-rays are examples of: A. natural background radiation. B. human-produced radiation. C. nonionizing radiation. D. ionizing, natural background radiation.
B. human-produced radiation.
Free radicals may recombine to form: A. DNA. B. hydrogen peroxide. C. sulfuric acid. D. new cytoplasm.
B. hydrogen peroxide.
An intestinal obstruction that may be mechanical or dynamic is: A. diverticulosis. B. ileus. C. volvulus. D. intussusception.
B. ileus.
A portable chest radiograph has been ordered "stat." This means that the radiograph must be done: A. at the earliest possible moment. B. immediately. C. within the next 2 hours. D. whenever time permits.
B. immediately.
The doctrine that provides for care when the patient is unconscious is: A. Bill of Rights. B. implied consent. C. res ipsa loquitur. D. respondeat superior.
B. implied consent.
The primary purpose of filtering the x-ray beam is to: A. increase contrast. B. improve safety. C. soften the beam for proper imaging. D. remove short-wavelength rays.
B. improve safety.
A cross table lateral projection of the cervical spine of a trauma patient is to be taken with a mobile radiographic unit. In addition to using a high-speed image receptor system, the radiographer uses a stationary 8:1 grid. This results in the following change in absorbed dose for the patient: A. slight decrease. B. increase. C. extreme decrease. D. doubling.
B. increase.
As kVp is decreased, the wavelength of the x-ray photon: A. decreases. B. increases. C. remains the same. D. fluctuates.
B. increases.
As the wavelength of the x-rays decreases, penetrating ability: A. decreases. B. increases. C. remains the same. D. fluctuates.
B. increases.
When a grid is used, the radiation dose: A. decreases. B. increases. C. remains the same. D. None of the above
B. increases.
The rotation of the target is stopped by a braking action provided by the: A. anode. B. induction motor that spins the anode. C. induction motor that controls the cathode. D. collimator.
B. induction motor that spins the anode.
Barium sulfate is a(n): A. negative contrast agent. B. inert salt. C. radionuclide. D. iodinated contrast medium.
B. inert salt.
The obturator foramen is located in the: A. base of the occipital bone. B. inferior part of the hip bone. C. lateral margins of the cervical vertebrae. D. superior part of the pelvis.
B. inferior part of the hip bone.
The law that states that the intensity of the x-ray beam is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the source of the x-rays and the object is: A. Ohm's law. B. inverse square law. C. law of relativity. D. left hand rule.
B. inverse square law.
When mobile radiography is performed in isolation, the cassette: A. should be disposable. B. is placed in a protective cover. C. is not sterile so may be used without protection. D. should be placed under a sheet.
B. is placed in a protective cover.
The portion of the small bowel in which the greatest amount of absorption takes place is called the: A. duodenum. B. jejunum. C. ileum. D. ascending colon.
B. jejunum.
When calculating heat units for three-phase, 12-pulse equipment, which equation is used? A. kVp × mAs × 2.00 B. kVp × mAs × 1.41 C. kVp × mAs × 1.00 D. kVp × mAs × 1.35
B. kVp × mAs × 1.41
This structure contains two lobes: A. trachea. B. left lung. C. right lung. D. hilus.
B. left lung.
A backup timer is used in automatic exposure devices to: A. control minimum response time of the equipment. B. limit exposure in case of equipment failure. C. allow longer time exposure for extremely large patients. D. control tissue density altered by pathology.
B. limit exposure in case of equipment failure.
The larger the actual focal spot, the greater the heat capacity; the smaller the effective focal spot, the greater the spatial resolution. This is called: A. anode heel effect. B. line-focus principle. C. magnification technique. D. dual-focus tube.
B. line-focus principle.
The largest solid organ in a human is the: A. colon. B. liver. C. pancreas. D. spleen.
B. liver.
Exposure latitude is narrower at: A. higher kVp levels. B. lower kVp levels. C. lower mAs levels. D. higher mAs levels.
B. lower kVp levels.
Twice as many electrons strike the target in the x-ray tube when: A. kVp is doubled. B. mAs is doubled. C. SID is reduced by one-half. D. OID is reduced by one-half.
B. mAs is doubled.
This device is located between the step-up transformer and the x-ray tube: A. timer. B. rectifier. C. autotransformer. D. prereading voltmeter.
B. rectifier.
The inner part of the kidney is called the: A. cortex. B. medulla. C. nephron. D. glomeruli.
B. medulla.
The word part that means "large" is: A. viscer. B. megal. C. trans. D. emia.
B. megal.
This is wired between the rectifier and the x-ray tube: A. prereading voltmeter. B. milliammeter. C. transformer. D. semiconductor.
B. milliammeter.
X-ray tube current is measured in: A. kilovoltage. B. milliamperes. C. electromotive force. D. anode revolutions per minute.
B. milliamperes.
Because the output phosphor is smaller than the input phosphor, there is an increase in brightness, called: A. flux gain. B. minification gain. C. total brightness gain. D. image gain.
B. minification gain.
The shortest time possible to operate an AEC is called: A. phototiming. B. minimum response time. C. backup time. D. None of the above
B. minimum response time.
A compound's smallest component is the: A. electron. B. molecule. C. element. D. atom.
B. molecule.
During a radiographic examination, the probability of biologic damage to the patient increases as: A. less energy is absorbed by body atoms. B. more energy is absorbed by body atoms. C. normally aerated cells become deoxygenated. D. protein synthesis increases in the ribosomes.
B. more energy is absorbed by body atoms.
According to the Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau, radiation has the greatest effect on cells that are: A. most mature, specialized, reproductively inactive, and divide over the shortest period of time. B. most immature, unspecialized, reproductively active, and divide over the shortest period. C. most mature, least specialized, most reproductively active, and divide over the longest period. D. most immature, specialized, reproductively inactive, and divide over the shortest period.
B. most immature, unspecialized, reproductively active, and divide over the shortest period.
For high-ratio grids, the grid radius is: A. wide. B. narrow. C. irrelevant. D. nonexistent.
B. narrow.
A sterile field may be temporarily abandoned or out of sight: A. anytime during the procedure. B. never. C. anytime before the procedure. D. if necessary because of short staffing.
B. never.
Urinary tract infections are the number one cause of: A. myocardial infarctions. B. nosocomial infections. C. cerebrovascular accidents. D. renal calculi.
B. nosocomial infections.
When a bone is being radiographed to evaluate a fracture, the tube, part, and IR must be in: A. a straight line. B. parallel planes. C. a sterile field. D. right angles to one another.
B. parallel planes.
With the patient properly positioned for an axiolateral projection of the hip, the central ray should be directed: A. parallel with the long axis of the femoral neck of the side being radiographed. B. perpendicular to the long axis of the femoral neck of the side being radiographed. C. cephalic at an angle of 45 degrees. D. caudad at an angle of 45 degrees.
B. perpendicular to the long axis of the femoral neck of the side being radiographed.
The active portion of a computed radiography imaging plate (IP) is (are): A. calcium tungstate. B. photostimulable phosphors. C. silver bromide crystals. D. rare earth phosphors.
B. photostimulable phosphors.
The charge on the atomic nucleus is: A. neutral. B. positive. C. negative. D. a positron.
B. positive.
The best bone detail may be obtained when radiographing the clavicle when the patient's position is: A. lateral. B. prone. C. recumbent posterior oblique. D. supine.
B. prone.
Infectious waste is placed in containers: A. made of lead. B. properly labeled as to the type of waste inside. C. that will be incinerated. D. made only of plastic.
B. properly labeled as to the type of waste inside.
The narrow distal end of the stomach that connects with the small intestine is called the: A. rugae. B. pylorus. C. fundus. D. greater curvature.
B. pylorus.
Which of the following equations expresses grid ratio? A. r1:r2::h2:d2 B. r = h/d C. h = old D2 r D. D = h/r
B. r = h/d
Ulnar flexion is synonymous with: A. radial flexion. B. radial deviation. C. ulnar deviation. D. dorsiflexion.
B. radial deviation.
X-ray photons depositing their energy in the water of the cytoplasm may cause: A. electrolysis. B. radiolysis. C. radioactivity. D. pair production.
B. radiolysis.
The operating portion of this device consists of silicon-based n-type and p-type semiconductors: A. timer. B. rectifier. C. autotransformer. D. prereading voltmeter.
B. rectifier.
A radiographer injures her hand while performing a job-related task. To determine whether it is fractured, a radiographic examination of the radiographer's injured hand is necessary. During the examination, the radiographer should: A. wear her personnel monitoring device because the injury is job related and therefore occupational. B. remove her personnel monitoring device and leave it outside the x-ray room because the exposure is for personal medical need and therefore considered to be nonoccupational. C. wear her personnel monitoring device because the injury is job related but cover the device with a protective apron to minimize the chance of a false high reading. D. remove her personnel monitoring device and place it on the radiographic table near her, thus allowing the device to receive only occupational scatter.
B. remove her personnel monitoring device and leave it outside the x-ray room because the exposure is for personal medical need and therefore considered to be nonoccupational.
During an injection of contrast media, extravasation occurs. The proper procedure is to: A. continue the injection and tell the patient the burning sensation will subside momentarily. B. remove the needle and hold pressure on the vein until all bleeding has stopped. C. remove the needle, repuncture the same vein, and continue the injection. D. place a warm compress above the site of injection and continue administering the contrast.
B. remove the needle and hold pressure on the vein until all bleeding has stopped.
Cylinder cones work by: A. focusing the x-ray beam down the cone. B. restricting the beam to a small area. C. filtering the beam. D. None of the above
B. restricting the beam to a small area.
R/O stands for: A. radiology outpatient. B. rule out. C. right or left. D. radiology operations.
B. rule out.
The exposure switch must be placed so that the radiographer stays behind the: A. primary protective barrier. B. secondary protective barrier. C. x-ray tube. D. door.
B. secondary protective barrier.
A material that may act as an insulator or conductor under different conditions is called a: A. rectifier. B. semiconductor. C. sine wave. D. solenoid.
B. semiconductor.
The type of shock that occurs when toxins produced during infection cause a dramatic drop in blood pressure is called: A. hypovolemic shock. B. septic shock. C. neurogenic shock. D. cardiogenic shock.
B. septic shock.
Needles and syringes must be disposed of in: A. lead containers. B. sharps containers. C. plastic bags. D. metal pans.
B. sharps containers.
Magnification may be caused by: A. short OID. B. short SID. C. small focal spot. D. large focal spot.
B. short SID.
The prefix "decub-" means: A. back. B. side. C. upon. D. below.
B. side.
The suffix "-myel" means: A. inspection. B. spinal cord. C. muscle. D. nerve.
B. spinal cord.
Transformer that decreases voltage from the primary to the secondary coil and increases current in the same proportion; it has more turns in the primary coil than in the secondary coil; it is used in the filament portion of the x-ray circuit to increase current flow to the cathode. This is the: A. rectifier. B. step-down transformer. C. autotransformer. D. step-up transformer.
B. step-down transformer.
The manubrium, body, and xiphoid process are parts of the: A. scapula. B. sternum. C. skull. D. typical vertebrae.
B. sternum.
The word root "gastr" means: A. intestine. B. stomach. C. liver. D. head.
B. stomach.
The word root "lith" means: A. cartilage. B. stone. C. white. D. air.
B. stone.
The portion of contrast represented by the anatomy and physiology is: A. IR contrast. B. subject contrast. C. pathology contrast. D. trauma contrast.
B. subject contrast.
Sx stands for: A. sex or gender. B. symptoms. C. "state of." D. stay in x-ray.
B. symptoms.
Do not invade the space between: A. the sterile field and the wall. B. the physician and the sterile field. C. the radiographer and the patient. D. the radiographer and the c-arm.
B. the physician and the sterile field.
Which pieces of equipment would a radiographer need to take a patient's blood pressure? 1. Electronic thermometer 2. Sphygmomanometer 3. Stethoscope A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
X-ray photons have no: 1. energy. 2. electric charge. 3. mass. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
High-frequency full-wave rectification produces what percentage of ripple? A. 13 B. 4 C. 1 D. 100
C. 1
Geometric sharpness: 1. is defined in terms of the distinct shadow evident on an image. 2. should ideally originate from a point source. 3. is not dependent on the relationship of the object to the image detector or location within the x-ray beam. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1 and 2 only
Which of the following statements regarding barium sulfate as a contrast media are true? 1. It dissolves when mixed with water. 2. It forms a suspension when combined with water. 3. It is radiopaque. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
OSL dosimeters may be worn as long as: A. 1 month. B. 1 week. C. 1 quarter. D. 1 year.
C. 1 quarter.
Thermoluminescent dosimeters may be worn as long as: A. 1 month. B. 1 week. C. 1 quarter. D. 1 year.
C. 1 quarter.
A reaction to iodinated contrast agents may be: 1. sneezing. 2. itching. 3. hoarseness. A. 1 and 2 B. 1 C. 1, 2, and 3 D. 3
C. 1, 2, and 3
Methods of electrification include: 1. friction. 2. contact. 3. induction. 4. self-induction. A. 1 and 4 B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 C. 1, 2, and 3 D. 3 and 4
C. 1, 2, and 3
Possible causes of respiratory arrest include:1. Upper respiratory tract swelling2. Failure of the central nervous system3. Choking A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1, 2, and 3 D. NULL
C. 1, 2, and 3
The radiation weighting factor (WR) for x-ray is: A. 10. B. 100. C. 1. D. 1000.
C. 1.
When performing a quality control test to ensure that adjacent mA stations are accurate, the results must be within this amount of one another: A. 2% of SID B. 4% C. 10% D. 5%
C. 10%
The dose at the tabletop during fluoroscopy must be limited to no more than: A. 1 mGya per minute. B. 10 mGya per minute. C. 100 mGya per minute D. 5 mGya per minute.
C. 100 mGya per minute
Film badges measure doses as low as: A. 1 μGya B. 10 μGya C. 100 μGya D. 1000 μGya
C. 100 μGya
Normal adult respiration is: A. more than 100 breaths per minute. B. fewer than 60 breaths per minute. C. 12 to 16 breaths per minute. D. 15 to 25 breaths per minute.
C. 12 to 16 breaths per minute.
The poorest spatial resolution would be produced by which of the following sets of exposure factors? A. 60 mAs, 80 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID (object-to-image distance) B. 30 mAs, 92 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID C. 120 mAs, 92 kVp, 20-inch SID, 4-inch OID D. 15 mAs, 100 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID
C. 120 mAs, 92 kVp, 20-inch SID, 4-inch OID
The relationship between kVp and IR exposure is governed by what rule or law? A. Reciprocity law B. Inverse square law C. 15% rule D. Ohm's law
C. 15% rule
For the lateral projection of the chest, the central ray is directed: A. 2 inches posterior to the midaxillary plane at the level of T7. B. parallel to the thoracic spine. C. 2 inches anterior to the midaxillary plane at the level of T7. D. perpendicular to the posterior ribs.
C. 2 inches anterior to the midaxillary plane at the level of T7.
For the AP axial (Towne) projection for the skull, the central ray enters: A. 2 to 2.5 inches below the glabella. B. at the foramen magnum. C. 2 to 2.5 inches above the glabella. D. 2 to 2.5 inches below the nasion.
C. 2 to 2.5 inches above the glabella.
The pelvocaliceal system will visualize approximately how many minutes after injection? A. 1 to 2 B. 2 to 5 C. 2 to 8 D. 5 to 10
C. 2 to 8
The pelvocalyceal system can be seen approximately how many minutes after injection? A. 1 to 2 B. 2 to 5 C. 2 to 8 D. 5 to 10
C. 2 to 8
Given an original technique of 10 mAs and 70 kVp, which of the following will produce a radiograph with double the receptor exposure? A. 20 mAs, 80 kVp B. 30 mAs, 92 kVp C. 20 mAs, 70 kVp D. 15 mAs, 82 kVp
C. 20 mAs, 70 kVp
Which of the following statements regarding precautions for body substances are true? 1. Used needles should be recapped before placing them in an appropriate disposable container 2. Latex gloves need not be worn when wiping up all blood spills 3. Protective mask and/or eye shields should be worn whenever the eyes and/or mucous membranes could be splashed with body substances A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 3 only
For the AP axial projection for the colon, the central ray is angled cephalad how many degrees? A. 10 to 20 B. 20 to 30 C. 30 to 40 D. 25 to 45
C. 30 to 40
The grid conversion factor for a 12:1 grid is: A. 3. B. 4. C. 5. D. 6.
C. 5.
What new kVp is needed to halve IR exposure if the original kVp is 80? A. 75 B. 60 C. 68 D. 72
C. 68
To what height must in-wall primary protective barriers extend? A. 4 feet B. 10 feet C. 7 feet D. 12 feet
C. 7 feet
What percentage of the cell is water? A. 50% B. 10% C. 80% D. 30%
C. 80%
If a patient has a blood pressure of 130 over 80, the diastolic pressure is: A. 210. B. 130. C. 80. D. 50.
C. 80.
The voltage actually used in three-phase, six-pulse units is about: A. 99% of the kVp set on the control panel. B. 96% of the kVp set on the control panel. C. 87% of the kVp set on the control panel. D. 50% of the kVp set on the control panel.
C. 87% of the kVp set on the control panel.
The intensity of the scattered beam is 1/1000th the intensity of the primary beam at what angle from the patient? A. 45-degree B. 180-degree C. 90-degree D. 25-degree
C. 90-degree
A diabetic patient has received insulin before coming to the hospital radiology department but has not eaten. On arrival, the patient suddenly becomes weak and starts to sweat and shake. What should be administered to the patient to counteract this hypoglycemic episode? A. A full meal B. More insulin C. A piece of candy or sweet fruit juice D. Liquids without sugar
C. A piece of candy or sweet fruit juice
Directing the central ray perpendicular to the midline, entering at the level of the iliac crests, is done for what projection? A. AP thoracic spine B. Sacroiliac joints C. AP lumbar spine D. AP coccyx
C. AP lumbar spine
When may immobilization devices such as cervical collars or splints be removed? A. When the nurse gives the order B. Never C. After permission is granted by the attending physician D. As needed to obtain images
C. After permission is granted by the attending physician
What does DNA control? A. Cell division B. Radiation sensitivity C. All cellular functions D. RNA production
C. All cellular functions
The height of a sine wave is called: a. Wavelength b. Altitude c. Amplitude d. Frequency
C. Amplitude
Flushing, urticaria, and nausea are symptoms of this type of contrast agent reaction: A. Local irritation B. Cardiovascular shock C. Anaphylactic shock D. Psychogenic shock
C. Anaphylactic shock
Where does most radiation-induced damage to cells occur? A. At diagnostic levels of radiation B. During fluoroscopy C. At doses of radiation much higher than that used in radiography D. From background radiation
C. At doses of radiation much higher than that used in radiography
What device may be used to ensure consistency of radiographic quality from one exposure to the next? A. Electronic timer B. Step-up transformer C. Automatic exposure control D. High-frequency generator
C. Automatic exposure control
For an AP projection of the cervical spine, the central ray is centered at: A. C2. B. C3. C. C4. D. C5.
C. C4.
Infectious waste must be handled according to: A. RSafety guidelines. B. radiology department rules. C. CDC guidelines. D. the condition of the patient.
C. CDC guidelines.
The abbreviation that stands for a stroke is: A. Hx. B. Bx. C. CVA. D. MI.
C. CVA.
Which of the following part(s) of the humerus articulate(s) with the radius? A. Greater and lesser tubercles B. Bicipital groove C. Capitulum D. Trochlea
C. Capitulum
Hypotension, tachycardia, and cardiac arrest may be symptoms of what type of reaction to iodinated contrast media? A. Anaphylactic B. Psychogenic C. Cardiovascular D. Hypovolemic
C. Cardiovascular
Beam restrictors reduce the amount of scatter produced by reducing which of the following? A. Characteristic rays B. Photoelectric effect C. Compton interactions D. Pair production
C. Compton interactions
Repeat radiographic examinations required because of technical error or carelessness: A. Increase radiation exposure to the patient only B. Increase radiation exposure to the radiographer only C. Increase radiation exposure to both patient and radiographer D. Occur frequently; hence, they are not considered an increase in absorbed dose equivalent
C. Increase radiation exposure to both patient and radiographer
The ARRT Rules of Ethics require that a radiologic technologist also abide by which of the following? A. American Medical Association Code of Ethics B. American Nurses Association Code of Ethics C. Individual state laws, rules, and regulations pertaining to the practice of radiologic technology D. All other health professions' codes of ethics, because they are part of the health care team
C. Individual state laws, rules, and regulations pertaining to the practice of radiologic technology
What do we call the process of removing electrons from the atoms of the body by x-ray interactions? A. Electrification B. Exposure C. Ionization D. Beaming
C. Ionization
Electromagnetic radiation travels: A. in curves. B. in straight lines. C. as waves in straight lines. D. at the speed of sound.
C. as waves in straight lines.
Which of the choices listed below is the most recent example of humans suffering from acute radiation syndrome? A. Navajo Indians in Arizona and Mexico who mined uranium B. Marshall Islanders who were accidentally subjected to fallout from atomic bomb testing C. Japanese citizens exposed to nuclear power plant leak following earthquake and tsunami D. Japanese atomic bomb survivors
C. Japanese citizens exposed to nuclear power plant leak following earthquake and tsunami
During a barium enema, which of the following positions would best demonstrate the hepatic flexure? A. Supine B. Lateral C. LPO D. RPO
C. LPO
Flexion of the elbow 90 degrees is required for what projection? A. Lateral hand B. Lateral thumb C. Lateral wrist D. Oblique elbow
C. Lateral wrist
Genetic effects follow what type of dose-response curve? A. Nonlinear-threshold B. Nonlinear-nonthreshold C. Linear-nonthreshold D. Linear-threshold
C. Linear-nonthreshold
Which of the following bones has rami? A. Sphenoid bone B. Ethmoid bone C. Mandible D. Maxilla
C. Mandible
What is radiation that is contained in the environment called? A. Manmade ionizing B. Artificial ionizing C. Natural background D. Artificial background
C. Natural background
An antiemetic medication is administered to combat: A. Acute pulmonary edema B. Anaphylactic shock C. Nausea and vomiting D. Ventricular fibrillation
C. Nausea and vomiting
When may a trauma patient be left alone? A. If the patient is unconscious B. If the radiographer needs to process images C. Never D. If the radiology department is short staffed
C. Never
If a patient is to be kept NPO: A. Medication in any form may not be administered B. Only liquids are permitted C. No food or liquids are permitted D. Only food but no liquids may be administered
C. No food or liquids are permitted
DNA is contained where in the cell? A. Cytoplasm B. Ribosomes C. Nucleus D. Lysosomes
C. Nucleus
After venipuncture, what should be done? A. Wash the patient's arm B. Leave the room and allow the patient to rest C. Observe the injection site for swelling D. Recap the needle and dispose of it
C. Observe the injection site for swelling
What is administered at 3 to 5 L per minute? A. Iodinated contrast media B. Barium sulfate C. Oxygen D. Blood
C. Oxygen
What type of treatment will be required for a patient suffering from anoxia? A. Blood transfusion B. Burn therapy C. Oxygen therapy D. Physical therapy
C. Oxygen therapy
Directing the central ray perpendicular to T7 is done for what projection? A. AP (anteroposterior) lumbar spine B. Oblique cervical spine C. PA chest D. Lateral humerus
C. PA chest
With the central ray centered perpendicular to the third metacarpophalangeal joint, what projection is being performed? A. PA wrist B. Oblique wrist C. PA hand D. Navicular
C. PA hand
For what projection does the OML form an angle of 37 degrees with the cassette? A. AP Towne for skull B. AP reverse Caldwell C. Parietoacanthial (Waters) for sinuses D. Oblique mandible
C. Parietoacanthial (Waters) for sinuses
Visible light is converted into an electronic image in what part of the image-intensifier tube? A. Input phosphor B. Output phosphor C. Photocathode D. Electrostatic lenses
C. Photocathode
Which photon-tissue interaction is responsible for producing radiographic contrast? A. Compton B. Coherent C. Photoelectric D. Pair production
C. Photoelectric
A fracture of the medial and lateral malleoli of the ankle with ankle joint dislocation is: A. Colles. B. Boxer. C. Pott. D. trimalleolar.
C. Pott.
If normal, which anatomic structure cannot be demonstrated radiographically? A. Breast B. Kidney C. Prostate gland D. Urethra
C. Prostate gland
How is damage to the cell being irradiated described? A. Genetic B. Exposed cell C. Somatic D. Molecular
C. Somatic
A radiology request was received for "plain films of the abdomen" to rule out bowel obstruction. Which of the following positions would not demonstrate the air-fluid levels associated with this condition? A. Left lateral decubitus B. Right lateral decubitus C. Supine D. Upright
C. Supine
For the AP projection of the upper ribs, the central ray is directed perpendicular to: A. T10. B. T5. C. T7. D. T12.
C. T7.
From what anatomic structure does the zygomatic process arise? A. Ethmoid bone B. Sphenoid bone C. Temporal bone D. Zygoma
C. Temporal bone
To what height must in-wall secondary protective barriers extend? A. 7 feet B. 6 feet C. The ceiling D. 10 feet
C. The ceiling
Separately wrapped sterile items may be added to the sterile field by opening the pack and: A. carefully placing the items by hand into the sterile field. B. using forceps to place the times into the sterile field. C. allowing the items to drop onto the sterile field. D. never add other sterile items to an already sterile field.
C. allowing the items to drop onto the sterile field.
The recording material in an OSL dosimeter is: A. film. B. lithium fluoride. C. aluminum oxide. D. silver halide.
C. aluminum oxide.
The unit of electric current is the: A. volt. B. ohm. C. ampere. D. resistor.
C. ampere.
A patient with edema has: A. a fungus infection. B. dehydration. C. an excessive amount of fluid in the intercellular tissue. D. severe diarrhea.
C. an excessive amount of fluid in the intercellular tissue.
Magnification may be caused by: A. short OID. B. long SID. C. short SOD. D. large focal spot.
C. short SOD.
In digital fluoroscopy and computed radiography, the energy must be changed to a digital format by a(n): A. digital-to-analog converter. B. dilithium crystal. C. analog-to-digital converter. D. digital amplifier.
C. analog-to-digital converter.
The variation of x-ray intensity along the longitudinal axis of the x-ray beam describes: A. cathode heel effect. B. anode angle effect. C. anode heel effect. D. line-focus principle.
C. anode heel effect.
Infectious waste may be defined as: A. bodily waste. B. used dressings. C. anything that has the potential to transmit disease. D. only materials covered by Standard Precautions.
C. anything that has the potential to transmit disease.
Which of the following bones has (have) costal facets? A. Atlas B. Axis C. Thoracic vertebrae D. Lumbar vertebrae
C. Thoracic vertebrae
What is the primary function of contrast? A. To make a pleasing image B. To control recorded detail C. To make detail visible D. To reduce distortion
C. To make detail visible
Which of the following is not a property of x-rays? A. Electrically neutral B. Invisible to the human eye C. Travel at the speed of sound D. Travel as bundles of energy
C. Travel at the speed of sound
Into what position should the radiographer place the patient who goes into shock? A. Fetal B. Upright C. Trendelenburg D. Fowler's
C. Trendelenburg
What supports and protects the x-ray tube, restricts leakage radiation during exposure, and provides electrical insulation? A. Glass envelope B. Vacuum C. Tube housing D. Grid-controlled cathode
C. Tube housing
Cleaved or broken chromosomes are a consequence of ionizing radiation striking and breaking: A. The center of the sugar-phosphate molecular chain on either side of a DNA macromolecule B. Two different areas of the sugar-phosphate molecular chain of a DNA macromolecule that are remote from one another C. Two opposite areas of the sugar-phosphate molecular chain of a DNA macromolecule that lie within the same rung D. A single area of the sugar-phosphate molecular chain of a DNA macromolecule on either the upper or lower end
C. Two opposite areas of the sugar-phosphate molecular chain of a DNA macromolecule that lie within the same rung
When working with an isolation patient in the radiology department, who should be involved? A. One radiographer, so as not to contaminate two radiographers B. A nurse who is familiar with isolation guidelines C. Two radiographers D. A radiographer and a physician
C. Two radiographers
Which of the following types of infection transmission occur from animal to human? A. Droplet transmission B. Contact transmission C. Vectorborne transmission D. Airborne transmission
C. Vectorborne transmission
When ready to leave the patient who is in isolation, what must be done? A. Wash hands B. Wash the patient's hands C. Wash hands and use paper towels to touch the faucet handles, if equipped with handles D. Shower
C. Wash hands and use paper towels to touch the faucet handles, if equipped with handles
Which of the following statements is true? A. High kVp = high contrast = short-scale contrast = few gray tones B. Low kVp = low contrast = long-scale contrast = many gray tones C. When kVp is increased, there is an increase in the number of Compton interactions that occur. D. When kVp is decreased, there is an increase in the number of Compton interactions that occur.
C. When kVp is increased, there is an increase in the number of Compton interactions that occur.
Atomic number is represented by the letter: A. M. B. A. C. Z. D. Q.
C. Z.
One of the factors that causes magnification of the radiographic image is: A. speed of the rotating anode. B. an increase in the source-to-object distance. C. a decrease in the source-to-object distance. D. kilovoltage range.
C. a decrease in the source-to-object distance.
When the x-ray beam is attenuated, the IR receives: A. a greater number of low-energy photons. B. the same number of both low-energy and high-energy photons. C. a greater number of high-energy photons. D. no photons.
C. a greater number of high-energy photons.
To obtain an AP projection of the thumb, the hand must be placed in: A. supination. B. pronation. C. a position of extreme internal rotation. D. an arched position.
C. a position of extreme internal rotation.
This type of transformer contains an iron core and a single winding of wire, it is used in the x-ray circuit to provide a small increase in voltage before the step-up transformer, and it is here that the kVp settings are made. This is the: A. rectifier. B. step-down transformer. C. autotransformer. D. neutral transformer.
C. autotransformer.
For an axial projection of the calcaneus, the central ray enters at the: A. base of the second metatarsal. B. head of the fifth metatarsal. C. base of the third metatarsal. D. base of the fifth metatarsal.
C. base of the third metatarsal.
Compared with conventional radiography, computed radiography exhibits: A. poorer visualization of bone and soft tissue. B. narrower exposure latitude. C. better visualization of soft tissue and bone. D. less detail.
C. better visualization of soft tissue and bone.
Photons are: A. packets of protons. B. bundles of light. C. bundles of energy. D. pieces of electrons.
C. bundles of energy.
Cessation of heart function is called: A. respiratory arrest. B. bradycardia. C. cardiac arrest. D. CVA.
C. cardiac arrest.
The first step in pouring liquids into containers in a sterile field is to: A. allow the liquid to drop onto the sterile field. B. pour a small amount into a waste receptacle to cleanse the lip of the bottle. C. carefully determine the contents of the container. D. immediately pour the solution when requested to do so.
C. carefully determine the contents of the container.
The filament and the focusing cup are part of the: A. anode assembly. B. cathode ray tube. C. cathode assembly. D. generator.
C. cathode assembly.
The negative electrode of an x-ray tube is termed the: A. anode. B. electric ground. C. cathode. D. target.
C. cathode.
The first step to take when transferring (moving) a patient is to: A. explain what is going to be done. B. establish proper body mechanics. C. check patient ID band. D. ask the patient for date of birth.
C. check patient ID band.
The item that is used to remove fluid or air from the pleural space is the: A. ventilator. B. nasogastric tube. C. chest tube. D. venous catheter.
C. chest tube.
Before the portable x-ray machine is returned to the radiology department or storage area, it must be: A. recharged. B. calibrated. C. cleaned thoroughly. D. completely discharged and then recharged.
C. cleaned thoroughly.
A fracture that produces two or more fragments is: A. compound. B. greenstick. C. comminuted. D. transverse.
C. comminuted.
When adjacent mA stations are employed and exposure time is adjusted so as to achieve constant mAs, the resultant output radiation intensity must remain: A. flowing. B. never ending. C. constant. D. unequal.
C. constant.
The most commonly used gonadal shield is the: A. shadow shield. B. collimator. C. contact shield. D. Lead apron
C. contact shield.
Differences in adjacent densities on a radiograph defines: A. density. B. detail. C. contrast. D. distortion.
C. contrast.
A case in which the injured person caused some of the injury is called: A. gross negligence. B. defamation. C. contributory negligence. D. slander.
C. contributory negligence.
The purpose of beam limitation devices is to: A. focus the electron beam. B. focus the photon beam. C. control scatter radiation. D. change the quality of the radiographic beam.
C. control scatter radiation.
If SID is doubled, IR exposure is: A. doubled. B. halved. C. cut to one fourth. D. quadrupled.
C. cut to one fourth.
A step-down transformer is used in the x-ray circuit to: A. send current to the anode. B. reduce current for the cathode. C. decrease voltage and increase current for the filament circuit. D. change AC to DC.
C. decrease voltage and increase current for the filament circuit.
The variation in how the x-ray beam interacts with the body is called: A. flux. B. emission spectrum. C. differential absorption. D. x-ray variation.
C. differential absorption.
The relationship between kVp and receptor exposure is: A. indirect. B. directly proportional. C. direct, although not proportional. D. inverse.
C. direct, although not proportional.
Humans are partially protected from cosmic rays by: A. lead in the Earth's crust. B. the moon. C. earth's atmosphere. D. ultraviolet rays from the sun.
C. earth's atmosphere.
The movement of electrons between objects is called: A. electromagnetism. B. electrostatics. C. electrification. D. electrodynamics.
C. electrification.
Movement of electrons in a conductor produces a magnetic field around the conductor; a coiled conductor (i.e., a wire), through which an electric current is flowing, will have overlapping magnetic fields and describes: A. Ohm's law. B. electrostatics. C. electromagnetism. D. laws of magnetics.
C. electromagnetism.
This type of timer is controlled by a microprocessor: A. manual. B. synchronous. C. electronic. D. impulse.
C. electronic.
The floating ribs are the: A. first and second pairs of ribs. B. fifth and six pairs of ribs. C. eleventh and twelfth pairs of ribs. D. there is no such thing as floating ribs.
C. eleventh and twelfth pairs of ribs.
When any type of ionizing radiation interacts with human tissue, the direct effect can occur. However, this effect is more likely to occur following exposure to: A. x-rays. B. low-LET radiation. C. high-LET radiation. D. gamma radiation.
C. high-LET radiation.
A pathologic disease that is caused by inhaling fungal spores is: A. tuberculosis. B. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). C. histoplasmosis. D. pulmonary metastases.
C. histoplasmosis.
Patients must be given careful instructions regarding fluid intake so that barium does not cause a(n): A. embolus. B. heartburn. C. impaction. D. hemorrhoids.
C. impaction.
The trachea is located: A. along the left lung. B. in front of the sternum. C. in front of the esophagus. D. in the abdomen.
C. in front of the esophagus.
A nosocomial infection is acquired: A. at home while ill. B. from the outside environment. C. in the hospital. D. from the workplace.
C. in the hospital.
The suffix "-tomy" means: A. inspection. B. inflammation. C. incision. D. enlargement.
C. incision.
For an AP projection of the thumb, the hand is turned in extreme: A. lateral rotation. B. medial rotation. C. internal rotation. D. external rotation.
C. internal rotation.
Atoms with the same number of protons but with a different number of neutrons are called: A. stable. B. ions. C. isotopes. D. radicals.
C. isotopes.
The maximum energy an x-ray photon can have corresponds to what technical factor? A. mAs B. SID C. kVp D. Focal-spot size
C. kVp
When calculating heat units for single-phase equipment, which equation is used? A. kVp × mAs × 2.00 B. kVp × mAs × 1.41 C. kVp × mAs × 1.00 D. kVp × mAs × 1.35
C. kVp × mAs × 1.00
The energy stored in an OSL dosimeter is released by exposing it to: A. heat. B. white light. C. laser. D. ultrasound.
C. laser.
The greater curvature is located on the: A. outer surface of the lungs. B. on the descending colon. C. lateral surface of the stomach. D. lumbar spine.
C. lateral surface of the stomach.
The dose-response relationship that states no level of radiation can be considered completely safe and that the degree of response is directly proportional to the amount of radiation received is: A. nonlinear-threshold. B. nonlinear-nonthreshold. C. linear-nonthreshold. D. linear-threshold.
C. linear-nonthreshold.
A filter is placed in the x-ray beam to remove: A. short-wavelength rays. B. half-value layer rays. C. long-wavelength rays. D. gamma rays.
C. long-wavelength rays.
For optimum spatial resolution, SID should be the: A. shortest possible. B. longest possible. C. longest practical. D. average distance.
C. longest practical.
How do we measure the workload factor? A. Half-value layer B. Amount of time the beam is on C. mA minutes per week D. Average kVp per week
C. mA minutes per week
When a grid is used, what technical factor must be increased to compensate for the loss of image-forming rays? A. kVp B. Time C. mAs D. Distance
C. mAs
The Rules of Ethics portion of the Standards of Ethics provides information on: A. assisting radiologic technologists with continuing education. B. assisting radiologic technologists with self-evaluations of their professional conduct. C. mandatory standards of professional conduct. D. regulations pertaining to annual renewal of certification.
C. mandatory standards of professional conduct.
Protective shielding, which includes lead apron, curtain, and Bucky slot cover, provides: A. minimal protection for the radiographer during fluoroscopy. B. very little protection for the radiographer during fluoroscopy. C. maximum protection for the radiographer during fluoroscopy. D. no protection for the radiographer during fluoroscopy.
C. maximum protection for the radiographer during fluoroscopy.
For a lateral projection of the ankle, the central ray is directed perpendicular to the: A. lateral malleolus. B. ankle joint midway between malleoli. C. medial malleolus. D. tibia.
C. medial malleolus.
In computed radiography, the window level corresponds to the: A. area of the patient being irradiated. B. level of image contrast. C. midpoint of densities. D. toe of the H & D curve.
C. midpoint of densities.
Somatic cell division is called: A. meiosis. B. DNA transfer. C. mitosis. D. interphase.
C. mitosis.
A trauma patient is suspected of having a fracture of the cervical spine. To avoid injury to the spinal cord when radiographing the patient, it is best: A. to move the patient only slightly. B. to allow the patient to move himself. C. not to move the patient if possible. D. to turn the patient in one fast move.
C. not to move the patient if possible.
Grid frequency is described as the: A. height of the lead strips divided by the distance between the lead strips. B. distance between the lead strips divided by the height of the lead strips. C. number of lead strips per inch or centimeter. D. SID at which the grid may be used.
C. number of lead strips per inch or centimeter.
Placement of the needle during venipuncture may be verified by: A. removing the tourniquet. B. removing the butterfly. C. observing return blood flow. D. watching the patient's face.
C. observing return blood flow.
The foramen magnum is a large aperture located in the: A. ethmoid bone. B. frontal bone. C. occipital bone. D. sphenoid bone.
C. occipital bone.
A grid error in which exposure is decreased across the entire radiograph is caused by: A. high kVp. B. lateral decentering. C. off-level grid. D. grid-focus decentering.
C. off-level grid.
The suffix "-algia" means: A. like. B. blood. C. pain. D. lung.
C. pain.
The photon-tissue interaction that does not occur in diagnostic imaging is: A. Compton. B. coherent. C. pair production. D. photoelectric.
C. pair production.
An undistorted radiographic image will result when the object plane and the image plane are: A. angled in relation to each other. B. at right angles. C. parallel. D. perpendicular.
C. parallel.
For a view of the intercondylar fossa of the knee, the central ray is directed: A. parallel to the long axis of the lower leg, entering the mid-popliteal area. B. to the mid-popliteal area. C. perpendicular to the long axis of the lower leg, entering the mid-popliteal area. D. 70 degrees to the mid-popliteal area.
C. perpendicular to the long axis of the lower leg, entering the mid-popliteal area.
This bone is located in the wrist on the medial side of the proximal row: A. scaphoid. B. hamate. C. pisiform. D. capitate.
C. pisiform.
Collimators that automatically restrict the beam to the size of the cassette have a feature called automatic collimation or: A. ionization chamber. B. phototimer. C. positive beam limitation. D. automatic exposure control.
C. positive beam limitation.
P/O stands for: A. post office. B. per os. C. postoperative. D. preoperative.
C. postoperative.
The energy of position is called: A. kinetic. B. positive. C. potential. D. synthetic.
C. potential.
This device is placed in the circuit between the autotransformer and the high-voltage transformer: A. ionization chamber. B. rectifier. C. prereading voltmeter. D. cathode.
C. prereading voltmeter.
Walls that may be struck by the primary beam require: A. secondary protective barriers. B. lead. C. primary protective barriers. D. None of the above
C. primary protective barriers.
If a patient is lying face down on a radiographic table, she may be described as being in the: A. dorsal position. B. lateral position. C. prone position. D. supine position.
C. prone position.
The atomic number of an atom is the number of: A. protons plus neutrons. B. electrons. C. protons. D. neutrons.
C. protons.
Full-wave rectification produces: A. direct current. B. alternating current. C. pulsating direct current. D. pulsating alternating current.
C. pulsating direct current.
Systolic blood pressure measures: A. heart at rest. B. atrial fibrillation. C. pumping action. D. tachycardia.
C. pumping action.
The device in the x-ray circuit that changes AC to DC is the: A. autotransformer. B. step-up transformer. C. rectifier. D. falling load generator.
C. rectifier.
The legal doctrine stating that the cause of negligence is obvious is: A. respondeat superior. B. gross negligence. C. res ipsa loquitur. D. invasion of privacy.
C. res ipsa loquitur.
If hazardous chemicals come in contact with the eyes, the following must be performed: A. rinse immediately with warm water. B. rinse immediately with cool water for at least 5 minutes. C. rinse immediately with cool water for at least 15 minutes. D. rinse with the warmest water that can be tolerated.
C. rinse immediately with cool water for at least 15 minutes.
When scheduling radiographic exams: A. schedule barium studies first to get them over with. B. schedule special studies for the afternoon. C. schedule barium studies last. D. None of the above
C. schedule barium studies last.
A transverse fracture of the lumbar vertebrae accompanied by substantial abdominal injuries is: A. Jefferson fracture. B. Hangman fracture. C. seat belt fracture. D. stress fracture.
C. seat belt fracture.
Autotransformers operate on the principle of: A. mutual induction. B. self-circuitry. C. self-induction. D. current conversion.
C. self-induction.
Opposing voltage created in a conductor by passing alternating current through it describes: A. electromagnetism. B. electrodynamics. C. self-induction. D. mutual induction.
C. self-induction.
Diastolic blood pressure less than 50 mm Hg indicates some level of: A. hypotension. B. atrial fibrillation. C. shock. D. hypertension.
C. shock.
Each cell has a master molecule that directs cell activities. If this master molecule is damaged by radiation and is inactivated, the cell will die. This summarizes: A. indirect effect. B. meiosis. C. target theory. D. relative biologic effectiveness.
C. target theory.
Cells are most sensitive to radiation when they are immature, undifferentiated, and rapidly dividing. This summarizes: A. the inverse square law. B. the law of fractionation. C. the law of Bergonié and Tribondeau. D. target theory.
C. the law of Bergonié and Tribondeau.
Electrons are boiled off the filament during exposure in a process known as: A. electron boiling procedure. B. focusing. C. thermionic emission. D. space charging.
C. thermionic emission.
In the production of x-rays, the liberation of electrons from the cathode filament is called: A. Thompson emission. B. cold cathode emission. C. thermionic emission. D. orbital shell capture.
C. thermionic emission.
The talus distributes body weight from the: A. fibula to the tarsals. B. radius to the carpals. C. tibia to the tarsals. D. femur to the tibia.
C. tibia to the tarsals.
Normal adult oral temperature is: A. to 99°C. B. F. C. to 98°F to 99°F. D. There is no normal temperature.
C. to 98°F to 99°F.
The word part that means "across" is: A. viscer. B. megal. C. trans. D. emia.
C. trans.
A lateral view of the head and neck of the humerus is demonstrated when a(n): A. AP projection of the scapula is obtained. B. lateral projection of the scapula is obtained. C. transaxillary projection of the shoulder is obtained. D. AP projection of the shoulder with palm supinated is obtained.
C. transaxillary projection of the shoulder is obtained
Filaments are primarily made of ____________ because of its high melting point. A. gold B. silver C. tungsten D. platinum
C. tungsten
The target is primarily made of ______________ because of its high melting point. A. gold B. silver C. tungsten D. platinum
C. tungsten
Over time, filaments will vaporize and coat the inner surface of the x-ray tube with: A. gold. B. silver. C. tungsten. D. platinum.
C. tungsten.
When the foot is inverted, it is: A. dorsiflexed. B. pronated. C. turned inward at the ankle. D. turned outward at the ankle.
C. turned inward at the ankle.
Mobile radiography in isolation should be performed by: A. one radiographer so as not to contaminate two radiographers. B. a nurse who is familiar with isolation guidelines. C. two radiographers. D. a radiographer and a physician.
C. two radiographers.
Unnecessarily or improperly exposing the patient's body or photographing the patient without his or her permission constitutes: A. battery. B. assault. C. violation of privacy. D. slander.
C. violation of privacy.
The photocathode of the image intensification tube will convert: A. x-ray photons into visible light. B. electrons into visible light. C. visible light into electrons. D. electrons into x-ray photons.
C. visible light into electrons.
The twisting of the bowel upon itself is: A. diverticulosis. B. ileus. C. volvulus. D. intussusception.
C. volvulus.
In computed radiography, each pixel corresponds to a shade of gray representing an area in the patient known as a(n): A. pathology. B. detector element. C. voxel. D. artifact.
C. voxel.
Mutual induction is key to the operation of what device? A. Rectifier B. Autotransformer C. X-ray tube D. Step-up and step-down transformers
D. Step-up and step-down transformers
The primary function of the digestive system is :1. ingestion and digestion. 2. absorption. 3. elimination. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Select all of the following that are condition(s) necessary for the production of x-rays: 1. Source of electrons 2. Acceleration of electrons 3. Sudden stoppage of electrons against target material 4. Rotating anode A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 B. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Shallow breathing can be used to advantage for radiography of the: 1. ribs. 2. sternum. 3. thoracic spine. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Shape distortion can be: 1. minimized with perpendicular beam projections. 2. elongated with tube-angled projections. 3. foreshortened with tube-angled projections. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
The density (mass per unit volume) of the patient or part under study can affect: 1. radiographic density. 2. radiographic contrast. 3. differential absorption. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
The function of the cell membrane is to: 1. protect the cell. 2. hold in water. 3. allow water, nutrients, and waste to pass through. A. 1 and 3 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
The overall exposure to the image receptor is affected by patient anatomy through its variation of:1. atomic number.2. tissue thickness.3. tissue density. A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Postprocessing image manipulation in computed radiography allows for which of the following? 1. Black/white reversal 2. Contrast and edge enhancement 3. Subtraction A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
The Bucky slot cover must be at least: A. 0.50-mm lead equivalent. B. 0.25-mm aluminum equivalent. C. 0.10-mm lead equivalent. D. 0.25-mm lead equivalent.
D. 0.25-mm lead equivalent.
The protective curtain hanging from the fluoro tower must be at least: A. 0.50-mm lead equivalent. B. 0.25-mm aluminum equivalent. C. 0.10-mm lead equivalent. D. 0.25-mm lead equivalent.
D. 0.25-mm lead equivalent.
A thorough understanding of radiographic exams is needed when scheduling to ensure: 1. patient comfort. 2. fiscal responsibility. 3. that exams do not interfere with one another. 4. adequate staffing. A. 4 B. 1, 2, and 3 C. 2 D. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 3
An image produced by using a horizontal beam is useful in the evaluation of 1. fluid-filled sinuses. 2. free air in the abdomen taken with the left side of the patient superior and the right side inferior. 3. free air in the abdomen taken with the right side of the patient superior and the left side inferior. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
What is the annual effective absorbed dose equivalent limit for the general public (frequent exposure)? A. 0.1 mSv B. 500 mSv C. 0.05 Sv D. 1 mSv
D. 1 mSv
Spatial resolution may also be known as: 1. sharpness. 2. definition. 3. image resolution. A. 3 B. 1, 2 C. 1 D. 1, 2, 3
D. 1, 2, 3
A clinical history can be a significant factor in the formulation of an x-ray technique because: 1. centimeter measurements may be misleading. 2. pathology may affect the absorption of x radiation. 3. contrast and density limitations are often the result of pathologic conditions. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
A key radiation protection practice in fluoroscopy should include: 1. Intermittent fluoroscopy 2. Tight collimation 3. High kVp A. 3 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
A picture archiving and communication system may involve which of the following? 1. Hospital information system 2. Digital images 3. Radiology information system A. 2 B. 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Any written record initiated by the radiographer must be: 1. accurate. 2. legible. 3. permanent. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
At which of the following anatomic locations can a pulse be obtained? 1. At the angle of the mandible 2. Behind the knee 3. On the anterolateral border of the wrist A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Battery may involve: 1. Unlawful touching or touching without consent 2. Harm resulting from physical contact with the radiographer 3. Radiographing the wrong patient, the wrong body part, or performing radiography against a patient's will A. 1 and 2 B. 3 only C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Geometric unsharpness within the radiographic image can be minimized by using the: 1. smallest focal spot. 2. shortest OID. 3. longest SID. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Gloves must always be worn when: 1. assisting patients with urinals or bedpans .2. handling needles and syringes. 3. handling bandages and dressings. 4. touching all patients. A. 4 B. 2 and 3 C. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Matter: 1. has form. 2. has shape. 3. occupies space. A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
OSL dosimeters are relatively unaffected by: 1. temperature. 2. humidity. 3. light. 4. background radiation. A. 4 B. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Patient preparation for an upper gastrointestinal series should include: 1. Being NPO from midnight until the examination 2. No gum chewing 3. No smoking A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
What new kVp is needed to double receptor exposure if the original kVp is 100? A. 85 B. 90 C. 105 D. 115
D. 115
Which of the following are legal rights of the patient? 1. To have considerate and respectful care 2. To be informed of the risk involved with any procedure or treatment prior to the initiation of that procedure or treatment 3. To refuse any procedure or treatment A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following biologic macromolecules can be directly interacted on by ionizing radiation? 1. DNA 2. RNA 3. protein A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following help reduce the effective dose for the radiographer? 1. High-speed image receptor systems 2. Beam limitation devices 3. Proper radiographic processing techniques A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following ionizing radiations have a radiation weighting factor of 1? 1. Beta particles 2. Gamma photons 3. X-ray photons A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following is equivalent to the speed of light in a vacuum? 1. 3 × 108 meters per second 2. 3 × 1010 cm per second 3. 186,000 miles per second A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following may be an example of the early somatic effects of ionizing radiation at very high doses? 1. Central nervous system syndrome 2. Hematopoietic syndrome 3. Gastrointestinal syndrome A. 1 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following methods and/or techniques will reduce the radiographer's radiation exposure? 1. Collimation of the radiographic beam margins to less than the size of the image receptor 2. Use of higher kVp, lower mAs techniques 3. Filtration of the radiographic beam A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following personnel practices will help control the spread of infection in the radiology department? 1. Wash hands between patients 2. Wash hands after handling a bedpan or emesis basin 3. Wash hands after using the toilet A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following statements are true regarding the function of kVp? As kVp is increased: 1. Speed of electrons will increase. 2. Percentage of electrons converting their energy to x-ray photons will increase. 3. Frequency of the x-ray wavelength will increase. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Without medical justification, which of the following radiologic examinations are considered to be nonessential? 1. PA chest radiograph upon scheduled admission to the hospital 2. PA and lateral chest radiographs accompanying a preemployment physical 3. PA and lateral chest radiographs accompanying an annual physical examination A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
The length of the trachea is about: A. 2 feet. B. 12 inches. C. 5 inches. D. 12 cm.
D. 12 cm.
How thick are primary protective barriers? A. 1/32-inch lead equivalent B. 1/16-inch aluminum equivalent C. 1/32-inch concrete D. 1/16-inch lead equivalent
D. 1/16-inch lead equivalent
How thick is the secondary protective barrier used in room shielding required to be? A. 1/32-inch aluminum equivalent B. 1/16-inch concrete equivalent C. 1/16-inch lead equivalent D. 1/32-inch lead equivalent
D. 1/32-inch lead equivalent
Grids are used beginning at what patient part thickness? A. 10 inches B. 5 cm C. 12 inches D. 10 cm
D. 10 cm
Single-phase full-wave rectification produces what percentage of ripple? A. 13 B. 4 C. 1 D. 100
D. 100
For an AP projection of the thoracic spine, the central ray is directed: A. 5 degrees cephalad. B. parallel to T7. C. 3 to 4 degrees caudad. D. 3 to 4 inches distal to the jugular notch.
D. 3 to 4 inches distal to the jugular notch.
What is the cumulative effective dose limit for a 31-year-old radiographer? A. 31 Sv B. 16 mSv C. 11 Sv D. 31 mSv
D. 310 mSv
For the AP oblique projection (LPO and RPO) for the colon, the patient is rotated how many degrees from the supine position? A. 10 to 20 B. 20 to 30 C. 30 to 40 D. 35 to 45
D. 35 to 45
Three-phase, six-pulse equipment produces how much higher average photon energy? A. 1.41% B. 41% C. 1.35% D. 35%
D. 35%
The effective absorbed dose equivalent limit for the unborn during gestation is: A. 500 mSv B. 0.5 mSv C. 0.05 mSv D. 5 mSv
D. 5 mSv
When a quality control test is performed to ensure that the same exposure factors produce consistent x-ray output, successive exposures must be within this amount of one another: A. 2% of SID B. 4% C. 10% D. 5%
D. 5%
The grid conversion factor for a 16:1 grid is: A. 3. B. 4. C. 5. D. 6.
D. 6.
Normal adult pulse is: A. 100 beats per minute. B. 60 to 70 beats per hour. C. 16 beats per minute. D. 60 to 70 beats per minute.
D. 60 to 70 beats per minute.
An anteroposterior projection is to be taken of a female patient's abdomen. Which radiographic exposure factors will provide the lowest absorbed dose? A. 50 kVp, 300 mAs B. 60 kVp, 200 mAs C. 70 kVp, 100 mAs D. 80 kVp, 50 mAs
D. 80 kVp, 50 mAs
Standard Precautions assumes: A. all body fluids are sources of infection. B. all patients are infected. C. all people in the vicinity are infected. D. A and B
D. A and B
The patient bill of rights provides for: A. informed patient consent. B. patient refusal of any exam. C. full reimbursement for any exam. D. A and B
D. A and B
Current that flows back and forth is called: A. DC. B. fluctuating. C. rectified. D. AC.
D. AC.
A concept of radiologic practice that encourages radiation users to adopt measures that keep the dose to the patient and themselves at minimum levels is called: A. LET. B. RBE. C. MPD. D. ALARA.
D. ALARA.
Electrical generating stations produce what type of current? A. Direct B. Altered C. Pulsating direct D. Alternating
D. Alternating
Grids are made up of lead strips alternated with what type of interspacers? A. Lead B. Cardboard C. Tungsten D. Aluminum
D. Aluminum
What transformer operates on the principle of self-induction? A. Step-up transformer B. Self-induced transformer C. Induction transformer D. Autotransformer
D. Autotransformer
What is the best way to keep radiation dose to the patient low? A. Distance B. Shielding C. Time D. Avoidance of repeat exposures
D. Avoidance of repeat exposures
What type of x-ray machine uses a continually decreasing mA for the shortest times possible? A. Ionization chamber B. Portable C. C-arm D. Falling load generator
D. Falling load generator
What are highly reactive ions with unpaired outer shell electrons called? A. Electrified B. Radiolytic C. Hydrogen peroxide D. Free radicals
D. Free radicals
The wrist and ankle have what type of movement? A. Hinge B. Pivot C. Saddle D. Gliding
D. Gliding
Which of the following is not considered to be a radiographic beam restricting device? A. Aperture diaphragm B. Cylinder C. Variable-aperture collimator D. Grid
D. Grid
Beam quality is expressed using what unit of measurement? A. mAs B. Focal-spot size C. Gray D. Half-value layer
D. Half-value layer
For optimal Safety, what type of exposure technique should be used? A. Low kVp, high mAs B. Small focal spot C. All-manual technique D. High kVp, low mAs
D. High kVp, low mAs
Which of the following should not be asked when taking patient history? A. How did your injury occur? B. Where is your pain? C. When did your injury occur? D. How long have you had cancer?
D. How long have you had cancer?
Which of the following is attributed to linear energy transfer? A. It is the same for all types of radiation. B. It is the same for wave and particulate radiations used in diagnosis and treatment. C. It only occurs during x-ray procedures. D. It varies for different types of radiation.
D. It varies for different types of radiation.
What letters designate the first four inner shells of an atom? A. A, B, C, D B. W, X, Y, Z C. N, M, L, K D. K, L, M, N
D. K, L, M, N
Which of the following does not occur when the first stage of a two-stage exposure switch is depressed? A. A space charge is created. B. Electrons are liberated from the cathode. C. The anode will begin to rotate. D. Kilovoltage is applied.
D. Kilovoltage is applied.
A patient who is unable to stand must have a radiograph of the abdomen that will demonstrate air-fluid levels and intestinal gas patterns. Which of the following positions should be selected? A. Supine B. Recumbent oblique C. AP Trendelenburg D. Lateral decubitus
D. Lateral decubitus
Directing the central ray 5 to 7 degrees cephalad is done for what projection? A. AP axial clavicle B. Lateral ankle C. AP leg D. Lateral knee
D. Lateral knee
When kVp is increased, which of the following happens? A. Brightness decreases B. Contrast increases C. Spatial resolution increases D. Scale of contrast lengthens
D. Scale of contrast lengthens
The abbreviation that stands for a heart attack is: A. Hx. B. Bx. C. CVA. D. MI.
D. MI.
Which of the following bones has a coronoid process? A. Frontal bone B. Temporal bone C. Occipital bone D. Mandible
D. Mandible
What is the average dose to active bone marrow called as an indicator of somatic effects on a population? A. Doubling dose B. Bone dose C. GSD D. Mean marrow dose
D. Mean marrow dose
Examples of high-LET radiations include: A. x-rays. B. alpha particles. C. neutrons. D. More than one of the above
D. More than one of the above
When an AEC is used, the backup timer: A. protects the patient from overexposure. B. prevents the x-ray tube from overheating. C. replaces the radiographer's professional judgment. D. More than one of the above
D. More than one of the above (A & B)
The composition of the x-ray beam comes from which energy conversions? A. Photoelectric and Compton B. Characteristic C. Brems D. More than one of the above
D. More than one of the above (characteristic & Brems)
Which of the following is most radioresistant? A. Immature sperm cells B. Ova C. Epithelial tissue D. Muscle cells
D. Muscle cells
How often is aluminum added filtration adjusted by the radiographer? A. After several exposures B. Daily C. As part of weekly quality control D. Never
D. Never
What is the most frequent cellular response to ionizing radiation? A. Mutations B. Ionization of atoms in the cells C. Cell death D. Nothing
D. Nothing
What imaging modality uses the unit of measurement known as the Bq? A. Computed radiography B. Direct digital radiography C. Sonography D. Nuclear medicine
D. Nuclear medicine
What describes oxygenated cell's radiosensitivity? A. Target theory B. Direct effect C. Doubling dose D. Oxygen enhancement ratio
D. Oxygen enhancement ratio
Differential absorption is a result of which photon-tissue interaction? A. Compton B. Coherent C. Pair production D. Photoelectric
D. Photoelectric
X-rays travel as bundles of energy called: a. Energy waves b. Phasers c. Electromagnetic bursts d. Photons
D. Photons
Mobile radiographic units operate on: A. alternating current. B. 220 volts. C. 110 volts. D. Rechargeable batteries.
D. Rechargeable batteries.
Which of the following anatomic structures is not demonstrated on a KUB? A. Bone structure of the pelvis B. Inferior ribs C. Psoas muscles D. Renal pelvis
D. Renal pelvis
Which of the following is required by the ARRT Rules of Ethics? A. Polite behavior with co-workers, physicians, and employers B. Retesting every ten 10 years C. Continuing education hours for certification renewal D. Reporting in writing to the ARRT another's unethical behavior
D. Reporting in writing to the ARRT another's unethical behavior
When a predetermined level of ionization is reached in the ionization chamber, what does the machine do? A. The unit shuts off as a result of a malfunction B. The maximum allowable time has been reached C. A warning light illuminates D. The exposure is terminated
D. The exposure is terminated
Energy in a computed radiography imaging plate is released after exposure to: A. a high-intensity magnetic field. B. gamma radiation. C. ultrasound. D. a laser beam.
D. a laser beam.
A patient with aphasia cannot: A. hear. B. see. C. smell. D. speak.
D. speak.
Special wiring patterns called wye, star, or delta produce what type of power? A. Single-phase B. High C. High-frequency D. Three-phase
D. Three-phase
What components of the x-ray circuit operate on the principle of mutual induction? A. Rectifiers B. Collimators C. AEC D. Transformers
D. Transformers
Which of the following is a property of x-rays? A. Can be focused by collimators B. Possess wavelengths between 1 and 5 angstroms C. Have no effect on chemicals D. Travel in bundles of energy called photons
D. Travel in bundles of energy called photons
Allowing urine to flow retrograde into the urethra and bladder can cause: A. MI. B. CVA. C. TIA. D. UTI.
D. UTI.
If a patient is experiencing difficulty breathing, which of the following positions would be most beneficial? A. Supine B. Prone C. Lateral recumbent D. Upright
D. Upright
Which of the following structures conveys urine from the urinary bladder to the exterior of the body? A. Nephrons B. Glomeruli C. Ureter D. Urethra
D. Urethra
What is the first step to be performed when gloving? A. Open outer package B. Open inner package, exposing the gloves C. Carefully unfold the cuff on both gloves D. Wash hands thoroughly
D. Wash hands thoroughly
What facility design factor considers the volume and types of exams performed in the room? A. Use factor B. Shielding factor C. Volume factor D. Workload
D. Workload
During fluoroscopy, when a protective apron is worn, a radiographer should wear his/her personnel monitoring device at: A. mandibular level because exposure at that level is 25 to 50 times greater than to the protected body trunk. B. sternal level because exposure at that level is 20 to 30 times greater than to the protected body trunk. C. bronchial level because exposure at that level is 50 to 75 times greater than to the protected body trunk. D. collar level because exposure at that level is 10 to 20 times greater than to the protected body trunk.
D. collar level because exposure at that level is 10 to 20 times greater than to the protected body trunk.
Damp objects are assumed to be: A. sterile. B. safe. C. aseptic. D. contaminated.
D. contaminated.
The measure of a grid's ability to enhance contrast is called: A. grid ratio. B. grid selectivity. C. speed. D. contrast improvement factor.
D. contrast improvement factor.
The primary beam should never be directed toward the: A. upright wall Bucky. B. recumbent radiographic table top. C. upright radiographic table top. D. control booth barrier.
D. control booth barrier.
Electrons in motion in a conductor are called: A. potential energy. B. heat energy. C. ionizing. D. current.
D. current.
Metal cylinders that attach to the bottom of the collimator box to tightly restrict the beam to a small circle are called: A. collimator attachments. B. compensating filters. C. gonad shields. D. cylinder cones.
D. cylinder cones.
The gauge of a hypodermic needle indicates its: A. use. B. length. C. radius. D. diameter.
D. diameter.
A device used for most quality control testing is the: A. sensitometer. B. densitometer. C. ionization chamber. D. digital dosimeter.
D. digital dosimeter.
Any misrepresentation of an anatomic structure on an image receptor that alters its size and/or shape defines: A. elongation. B. magnification. C. definition. D. distortion.
D. distortion.
Nonionic means: A. noniodinated. B. free of iodine. C. barium based. D. does not contain free ions in solution.
D. does not contain free ions in solution.
The amount of radiation that causes the number of mutations in a population to double is called: A. direct effect. B. target theory. C. indirect effect. D. doubling dose.
D. doubling dose.
The process of causing an electric current to flow in a conductor when it is placed within the force field of another conductor describes: A. electromagnetism. B. electrodynamics. C. sine waves. D. electromagnetic induction.
D. electromagnetic induction.
Ionization is the removal of a(n): A. proton from the outer shell of an atom. B. electron from the nucleus. C. neutron from the nucleus. D. electron.
D. electron.
A condition caused by angling the x-ray tube along the long axis of the part is: A. magnification. B. minification. C. foreshortening. D. elongation.
D. elongation.
This causes anatomic structures to appear longer on the image than in reality: A. magnification. B. minification. C. foreshortening. D. elongation.
D. elongation.
The word part that means "blood" is: A. viscer. B. megal. C. trans. D. emia
D. emia.
An x-ray machine that makes maximum use of heat loading potential uses a(n): A. ionization chamber. B. phototimer. C. automatic exposure control (AEC). D. falling load generator.
D. falling load generator.
Unjustified restraint of the patient constitutes: A. assault. B. battery. C. libel. D. false imprisonment.
D. false imprisonment.
The primary type of grid used in diagnostic imaging is: A. crosshatch. B. parallel. C. rhombic. D. focused.
D. focused.
The device that concentrates electrons boiling off the filaments into a narrow stream for travel toward the anode is the: A. cathode. B. anode. C. rectifier. D. focusing cup.
D. focusing cup.
An opening is described as a: A. fossa. B. groove. C. sulcus. D. foramen.
D. foramen.
The number of x-ray waves passing a given point per unit time is called: A. wavelength. B. photonic frequency. C. urgency. D. frequency.
D. frequency
The prefix "ante-" means: A. without. B. against. C. away from. D. front.
D. front.
Exposing items to a mixture of gases that will not harm the materials but will remove microorganisms is called: A. medical asepsis. B. surgical asepsis. C. standard Precautions. D. gas sterilization.
D. gas sterilization.
Airborne precautions require the use of: A. gowns and masks. B. gloves. C. Standard Precautions. D. gloves, masks, and Standard Precautions.
D. gloves, masks, and Standard Precautions.
Contact precautions require the use of: A. gowns and gloves. B. masks only. C. Standard Precautions. D. gowns, gloves, masks, and Standard Precautions.
D. gowns, gloves, masks, and Standard Precautions.
If x radiation interacts with and ionizes a water molecule in the body to form an ion pair (HOH+ and e-), and that ion pair then recombines to reform a normal water molecule (H2O): A. minimal biologic damage will be produced. B. moderate biologic damage will be produced. C. severe biologic damage will be produced. D. no biologic damage will be produced.
D. no biologic damage will be produced.
Smaller bodies within the cytoplasm are called: A. cytelles. B. cytoplasmettes. C. nuclei. D. organelles.
D. organelles.
A half-value layer test is performed to determine the x-ray beam's: A. mAs reproducibility characteristics. B. resolution characteristics. C. rectification characteristics. D. penetrability characteristics.
D. penetrability characteristics.
For a lateral projection of the hand, the central ray is centered: A. perpendicular to the third metacarpophalangeal joint. B. perpendicular to the second metatarsophalangeal joint. C. parallel to the third metacarpophalangeal joint. D. perpendicular to the second metacarpophalangeal joint.
D. perpendicular to the second metacarpophalangeal joint.
The photon-tissue interaction that may produce a photoelectron is: A. Compton. B. coherent. C. pair production. D. photoelectric.
D. photoelectric.
The photon-tissue interaction that occurs when an incident photon strikes a K-shell electron is: A. Compton. B. coherent. C. pair production. D. photoelectric.
D. photoelectric.
The photon-tissue interaction that results in absorption of all of the energy of the incident photon is: A. Compton. B. coherent. C. pair production. D. photoelectric.
D. photoelectric.
A serous membrane surrounding the visceral and parietal layers of each lung is called the: A. trachea. B. left lung. C. right lung. D. pleura.
D. pleura.
A pathologic condition that is characterized by acute inflammation of the lungs is: A. atelectasis. B. asthma. C. emphysema. D. pneumonia.
D. pneumonia.
Cylindrical dosimeters that contain gas that is ionized by x-rays passing through are called: A. TLDs. B. film badges. C. OSL dosimeters. D. pocket ionization chambers.
D. pocket ionization chambers.
A pathologic condition that is a spread of cancer into the lungs from a primary site is: A. tuberculosis. B. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). C. histoplasmosis. D. pulmonary metastases.
D. pulmonary metastases.
mAs controls the: A. quality of x-rays produced at the anode. B. quantity of x-rays produced at the cathode. C. quantity of x-rays produced at the filament. D. quantity of x-rays produced at the anode.
D. quantity of x-rays produced at the anode.
Assessment of changing patient conditions during radiography is the responsibility of the: A. radiology nurse. B. radiologist. C. student radiographer. D. radiographer.
D. radiographer.
If SID is halved, what may be said about radiographic receptor exposure? A. Density doubles B. receptor exposure is reduced by half C. receptor exposure is reduced by one half of the mAs D. receptor exposure is quadrupled
D. receptor exposure is quadrupled
The device that makes use of solid-state, silicon-based diodes is the: A. transformer. B. cathode. C. anode. D. rectifier.
D. rectifier.
Grids: A. increase the amount of scatter produced. B. increase the amount of scatter reaching the IR. C. reduce the amount of scatter produced. D. reduce the amount of scatter reaching the IR.
D. reduce the amount of scatter reaching the IR.
When you are leaving the patient's room in isolation, attire should be: A. left on until completely off the unit. B. removed by an ungowned person. C. removed by the patient. D. removed carefully and disposed of as required.
D. removed carefully and disposed of as required.
To overcome the anteversion of the femoral necks when obtaining an AP projection of the pelvis, the feet should be: A. positioned with toes pointing upward. B. positioned with toes placed parallel with the horizontal. C. rotated externally about 15 degrees. D. rotated internally about 15 degrees.
D. rotated internally about 15 degrees.
An image with few gray tones, mainly black and white, is referred to as: A. low contrast. B. poor detail. C. low distortion. D. short-scale contrast.
D. short-scale contrast.
Increasing the kVp of an x-ray beam will result in the photons having: A. longer wavelength. B. increased velocity. C. lower frequency. D. shorter wavelength.
D. shorter wavelength.
Modern rectifiers are made of: A. silicone-based semiconductors. B. transistors. C. cathode ray tubes. D. silicon-based semiconductors.
D. silicon-based semiconductors.
The waves of electromagnetic radiation are called: A. sign waves. B. current. C. light. D. sine waves.
D. sine waves.
A cavity within a bone is described as a: A. fossa. B. groove. C. sulcus. D. sinus.
D. sinus.
This type of transformer increases voltage from the primary to the secondary coil and decreases current in the same proportion; it has more turns in the secondary than in the primary coil; it is used in the x-ray circuit to increase voltage to the kilovoltage level for x-ray production. This is the: A. rectifier. B. step-down transformer. C. autotransformer. D. step-up transformer.
D. step-up transformer.
The process used to open sterile packs is called: A. medical asepsis. B. surgical asepsis. C. sterilization asepsis. D. sterile technique.
D. sterile technique.
The gladiolus is part of the: A. scapula. B. skull. C. spine. D. sternum.
D. sternum.
This forms the medial part of the anterior chest wall: A. manubrium. B. floating. C. xiphoid. D. sternum.
D. sternum.
A fracture that results from repeated stresses placed on the bone is: A. Jefferson fracture. B. Hangman fracture. C. seat belt fracture. D. stress fracture.
D. stress fracture.
A pulse of more than 100 beats per minute is indicative of: A. bradycardia. B. atrial fibrillation. C. ventricular fibrillation. D. tachycardia.
D. tachycardia.
A patient positioned so that the central ray skims between anatomic parts to outline an area of bony anatomy, projecting it free of superimposition, is in the: A. axial position. B. decubitus position. C. semiaxial position. D. tangential position.
D. tangential position.
The malleus, incus, and stapes are found in the: A. ethmoid bone. B. malar bone. C. sphenoid bone. D. temporal bone.
D. temporal bone.
Respiratory arrest secondary to choking necessitates the use of: A. suction. B. nasogastric tube. C. the Heimlich maneuver. D. the Heimlich maneuver and/or suctioning.
D. the Heimlich maneuver and/or suctioning.
Chemicals should only be used if: A. you are reasonably sure of what is in the container. B. the container is clearly labeled. C. someone has told you what is in the container. D. the container is clearly labeled and you have read the label several times.
D. the container is clearly labeled and you have read the label several times.
Lithium fluoride crystals function as the sensing material of a: A. pocket self-reading ionization chamber. B. digital pocket dosimeter. C. OSL badge. D. thermoluminescent dosimeter.
D. thermoluminescent dosimeter.
Radiation monitors that use lithium fluoride crystals to record dose are called: A. film badges. B. pocket ionization chambers. C. OSL badges D. thermoluminescent dosimeters.
D. thermoluminescent dosimeters.
This changes electric voltage and current into higher or lower values and operates on the principle of mutual induction, so it requires alternating current. This is called the: A. rectifier. B. autotransformer. C. timer. D. transformer.
D. transformer.
A fracture that runs at a right angle to the long axis of the bone is: A. compound. B. greenstick. C. comminuted. D. transverse.
D. transverse.
A fracture of the posterior portion of the tibia and the medial and lateral malleoli is: A. Colles. B. Boxer. C. Pott. D. trimalleolar.
D. trimalleolar.
A large rounded projection is called a: A. prominence. B. sharp prominence. C. tubercle. D. tuberosity.
D. tuberosity.
The olecranon process is part of the: A. humerus. B. scapula. C. radius. D. ulna.
D. ulna.
The semilunar notch is found on the: A. humerus. B. radius. C. scapula. D. ulna.
D. ulna.
Neglect or omission of reasonable care defines: A. respondeat superior. B. res ipsa loquitur. C. gross negligence. D. unintentional misconduct.
D. unintentional misconduct.
The part of the urinary system located between the renal pelvis and the bladder is called the: A. cortex. B. medulla. C. nephron. D. ureter.
D. ureter.
A radiographer wishes to provide more uniform image brightness when obtaining a dorsoplantar projection of a patient's foot. To accomplish this, the radiographer could: A. decrease 10 kVp and double the original mAs. B. increase 10 kVp and reduce the original mAs by one half. C. use a trough filter. D. use a wedge filter placing the thick portion toward the toes and the thin portion toward the heel.
D. use a wedge filter placing the thick portion toward the toes and the thin portion toward the heel.
The item that is used to introduce substances into patients who need long-term chemotherapy is the: A. ventilator. B. nasogastric tube. C. chest tube. D. venous catheter.
D. venous catheter.
A loop of bowel twisted on itself is termed: A. diverticulosis. B. intussusception. C. paralytic ileus. D. volvulus.
D. volvulus.
If a patient is suspected of having a perforated viscus, the contrast medium of choice should be: A. a barium sulfate compound. B. a nonionic agent. C. water insoluble. D. water soluble.
D. water soluble.
Considering probability, x-ray photons will probably strike: A. the nucleus. B. RNA. C. DNA. D. water.
D. water.
In a human cell the molecule that most frequently interacts with ionizing radiation is: A. an enzyme. B. DNA. C. RNA. D. water.
D. water.
Force applied on an object over a distance defines: A. energy. B. matter. C. mass. D. work.
D. work.