Anatomy Chapter 6 The Skeletal System: Axial Division

E

12) Bones of the skull that articulate with the zygomatic bone include (the) A) temporal bone. B) frontal bone. C) maxillary bone. D) sphenoid. E) All of the answers are correct.

B

13) The bony structure of the orbit is composed of which of the following? A) maxilla, zygomatic, lacrimal, and palatine only B) ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, lacrimal, maxilla, zygomatic, and palatine C) zygomatic, nasal, frontal, and sphenoid only D) zygomatic, nasal, frontal, sphenoid, palatine, lacrimal, and temporal E) None of the answers are correct.

B

14) Which of the following lists includes only facial bones? A) frontals, nasals, parietals, and occipital B) maxillae, palatines, mandible, zygomatics, lacrimals C) sphenoid, ethmoid, maxillae, and mandible D) inferior conchae, vomer, ethmoid, nasal, lacrimals, and sphenoid E) None of the answers are correct.

E

15) Features of the maxillae include A) sinuses. B) alveolar processes. C) orbital surfaces. D) inferior orbital foramina. E) All of the answers are correct.

C

16) Which of the following bones makes up most of the medial wall of the orbit? A) frontal bone B) sphenoid bone C) ethmoid bone D) zygomatic bone E) maxilla

D

17) The largest of the paranasal sinuses is (are) located within which of the following bones? A) frontal bone B) sphenoid C) ethmoid D) maxillae E) nasal bone

C

20) The temporal processes are part of what bone? A) occipital B) temporal C) zygomatic D) sphenoid E) maxilla

E

21) Which of the following bones bear teeth? A) maxillae B) mandible C) palatine bones D) lacrimal bones E) maxillae and mandible

A

27) The coronal suture is the boundary between which bones? A) frontal and parietal B) frontal and nasal C) frontal and sphenoid D) parietal and temporal E) nasal and vomer

D

28) The squamous suture is the boundary between which bones? A) frontal and parietal B) frontal and nasal C) frontal and sphenoid D) parietal and temporal E) nasal and vomer

E

29) Which of the following is true of the vomer bone? A) It is a part of the ethmoid bone. B) It forms a part of the bridge of the nose. C) It is located lateral to the nasal septum. D) It supports the olfactory epithelium. E) It forms part of the nasal septum.

A

3) The parietal, temporal, frontal, and occipital bones are part of (the) A) cranium. B) skull. C) facial bones. D) axial skeleton. E) None of the answers are correct.

D

31) Which bone is not part of the skull? A) ethmoid B) sphenoid C) palatine D) hyoid E) zygomatic

C

49) The part of the vertebra that transfers weight along the long axis of the vertebral column is (are) the A) spinous process. B) transverse process. C) vertebral body. D) vertebral arch. E) vertebral pedicles.

B

5) Which of the following describes the occipital bone? A) covers the parietal lobes of the brain B) contains the foramen magnum C) bears mandibular fossa D) is paired in the adult E) makes up the forehead

B

50) Which of the following structures can most easily be felt on the dorsum? A) transverse process B) spinous process C) body D) intervertebral disc E) pedicle

A

51) Surgery of the spinal cord most often involves cutting of the A) lamina. B) transverse process. C) superior articular facet. D) spinous process. E) body.

C

52) Which of the following can be found on cervical vertebrae only? A) facets B) transverse processes C) multiple foramina D) laminae E) spinous processes

E

53) Which type of vertebra has a transverse costal facet? A) coccygeal B) sacral C) cervical D) lumbar E) thoracic

A

54) The posterior tubercle is a part of the A) atlas. B) vertebra prominens. C) anticlinal vertebra. D) axis. E) thoracic vertebra.

B

55) Ribs 1—10 articulate with the bodies of the thoracic vertebrae and (the) A) spinous processes of the lumbar vertebrae. B) transverse processes of the thoracic vertebrae. C) spinous processes of the thoracic vertebrae. D) xiphoid process of the sternum. E) None of the answers are correct.

E

56) False ribs are also known as A) vertebrosternal ribs. B) vertebrochondral ribs. C) vertebral ribs. D) floating ribs. E) both vertebrochondral ribs and floating ribs.

C

57) The true ribs A) consist of twelve pairs. B) are the only ribs that are unpaired. C) attach to the sternum by separate cartilaginous extensions. D) attach only to the vertebral column. E) attach directly to the body of the sternum by bone to bone contact.

D

58) Choose the type of rib and number of ribs that matches. A) true ribs; 6 B) false ribs; 4 C) true ribs; 4 D) floating ribs; 4 E) true ribs; 10

D

59) Which of the following organs is protected by the rib cage? A) lungs B) heart C) thymus D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.

E

6) The structure that houses the pituitary gland is called the A) crista galli. B) greater wing. C) lesser wing. D) dorsum sellae. E) sella turcica.

C

60) The most inferior portion of the sternum is called the A) manubrium. B) body. C) xiphoid process. D) sternal angle. E) sternal groove.

C

61) Which of the following organ systems would most likely be affected by breaking a rib? A) endocrine B) digestive C) respiratory D) excretory E) All of the answers are correct.

C

7) The small depression on temporal bone that the mandibular condyle fits into is called (the) A) temporal fossa. B) temporal foramen. C) mandibular fossa. D) mandibular foramen. E) None of the answers are correct.

C

8) Which of the following is true of the foramen magnum? A) It allows passage of the carotid arteries into the head. B) It is located between the parietal and occipital bones. C) It is located in the inferior surface of the occipital bone. D) It is the second largest foramen in the cranium. E) None of the answers are correct.

C

9) Which of the following contains the foramen ovale? A) frontal B) temporal C) sphenoid D) ethmoid E) maxillary

B

1) The divisions of the skeletal system include (the) A) dorsal and ventral. B) axial and appendicular. C) proximal and distal. D) cranial, caudal, and anterior. E) None of the answers are correct.

D

10) Which of the following features belongs to the occipital bone? A) mental foramen B) mandibular foramen C) coronoid process D) hypoglossal canal E) mylohyoid line

E

11) Which of the following features belongs to the mandibular bone? A) supraorbital margins B) supraciliary arches C) frontal suture D) lacrimal fossa E) mental foramen

C

18) The facial bone that is midsagittal structure is the A) maxilla. B) lacrimal. C) vomer. D) palatine. E) zygomatic.

B

19) The point of attachment for muscles that extend and rotate the head is the A) styloid process. B) mastoid process. C) posterior clinoid process. D) articular tubercle. E) external occipital protuberance.

A

2) Which of the following is the connection point between the axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton? A) sternum - clavicle B) vertebra - skull C) pelvis - femur D) vertebra - scapula E) vertebra - sacrum

A

22) Which bone makes up most of the floor of the orbit? A) maxilla B) sphenoid C) frontal D) palatine E) ethmoid

C

23) The temporomandibular joint is A) the location of the insertion of the temporalis muscle. B) the suture between the temporal and maxillary bones. C) the site of the articulation between the cranium and mandible. D) the first suture to be completely ossified in the adult skull. E) None of the answers are correct.

E

24) Someone who is referred to as having a "large chin" likely has a very prominent A) mandibular notch. B) mandibular body. C) maxilla. D) mandibular angle. E) mental protuberance.

A

25) Which of the following openings is found within the frontal bone? A) supra-orbital foramen B) foramen spinosum C) foramen lacerum D) optic canal E) foramen ovale

E

26) Which of the following bones supports some of the weight of the brain? A) frontal bones B) lacrimal bones C) zygomatic bones D) parietal bones E) ethmoid bone

A

30) Which of the following structures makes up the superior portion of the nasal septum? A) perpendicular plate B) cribriform plate C) inferior nasal concha D) vomer E) None of the answers are correct.

D

32) Bones within the temporal bone that are important to hearing are called A) acoustic bones. B) external acoustic meatus. C) internal acoustic meatus. D) auditory ossicles. E) None of the answers are correct.

E

33) Which of the following bones might be broken during strangulation? A) mandible B) temporal bone C) sphenoid bone D) nasal bone E) hyoid bone

D

34) The large "soft spot" on top of an infant's head A) occurs where the parietal and frontal bones have not yet grown together. B) is one of several fontanels in an infant skull. C) is covered in fibrous connective tissue. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.

A

35) Which of the following sutures is found in the infant but sometimes has no evident marking in the adult? A) frontal B) coronal C) squamous D) lambdoid E) sagittal

C

36) The frontal bone of an infant is separated into two bones by the A) coronal suture. B) anterior suture. C) frontal suture. D) sagittal suture. E) longitudinal suture.

B

37) Problems with proper growth of the skull can be caused by A) expansion of the brain. B) early closure of the sagittal and coronal sutures. C) ossification of the bony processes that form the temporomandibular joint. D) retarded ossification of the fontanels. E) None of the answers are correct.

A

38) Pregnancy can cause which of the following abnormal curvatures of the back? A) lordosis B) scoliosis C) kyphosis D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.

C

39) Compression fracture is most likely to occur in which of the following bones? A) mandible B) ethmoid C) vertebra D) rib E) parietal bone

B

4) Which of the following bones contain the infraorbital foramen? A) zygomatic B) maxilla C) frontal D) ethmoid E) sphenoid

A

40) Injury to what region of the vertebral column is usually most threatening? A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral E) coccygeal

C

41) Which of the following vertebral column levels has the thickest intervertebral disc? A) between C1 and C2 B) between C7 and T1 C) between T12 and L1 D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.

E

42) Which of the following vertebral curvatures is convex anteriorly? A) sacral B) thoracic C) cervical D) lumbar E) both cervical and lumbar

B

43) The primary curves of the vertebral column are the A) cervical and thoracic. B) thoracic and sacral. C) dorsal and ventral. D) thoracic and coccygeal. E) cervical, lumbar, and sacral.

A

44) The lumbar and cervical curves of the vertebral column are called A) secondary curves. B) primary curves. C) tertiary curves. D) quaternary curves. E) None of the answers are correct.

A

45) The primary curvatures of the spine serves mainly to A) accommodation of the thoracic and abdominopelvic viscera. B) aligning the weight of the head over the legs. C) shifting the weight of the trunk to the hips and lower extremities. D) increasing the ability to extend the limbs. E) take weight off of the hips.

A

46) What event causes the cervical curve to begin development? A) an infant begins to lift his or her head B) walking begins C) intrauterine events D) the birth process E) None of the answers are correct.

D

47) The vertebral arches surround and protect the A) spinal nerves. B) cranial nerves. C) vertebrae. D) spinal cord. E) ribs.

D

48) The major function of the body of the vertebra is A) allowing twisting motions. B) providing support. C) protection of the spinal cord. D) transferring weight along the axis of the vertebral column. E) providing a passageway for nerves.