ASCP EXAM

This state of the granulocytic series is characterized by the appearance of specific granules. Select one: a. Progranulocyte b. Myelocyte c. Metamyelocyte d. Band e. Monocyte

B. Myelocyte

The increased resistance of MRSA strains to beta-lactam antibiotics is due to production of which of the following penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)? Select one: a. PBP 2 b. PBP 2a c. PBP 3 d. PBP 4

B. PBP 2a

HIV is known as a retrovirus because: Select one: a. It can only attach to reticulocytes b. RNA is used as the template for DNA synthesis c. DNA is used as the template for RNA synthesis d. It can cause AIDS immediately upon entering the body.

B. RNA is used as the template for DNA synthesis

Oral candidiasis may be directly exacerbated by the habitual ingestion of: Select one: a. Tofu b. Cola c. Alcohol

B. cola

The infective stage for the majority of all intestinal amoebae is the: Select one: a. Trophozoite b. Cyst c. Larva d. Egg

B. cyst

An electrophorectic separation of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme that demonstrates elevation in LD-1 greater than LD-2 could be indicative of: Select one: a. A normal LD isoenzyme pattern b. Hemolysis c. Pancreatitis d. None of the above

B. hemolysis

What is the quality control term used to describe the reproducibility of a test? Select one: a. Accuracy b. Precision c. Standard Deviation d. Specificity

B. precision

A deficiency of protein C is associated with which of the following? Select one: a. Prolonged APTT b. Decreased fibrinogen levels c. Increased risk of thrombosis d. Spontaneous hemorrhage

C. increased risk of thrombis

A three-year old boy was brought unconscious to the emergency room. Arterial blood gas results were as follows:This patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Metabokic acidosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis

C. respiratory acidosis

Which of the following is the "activation unit" in the classical complement pathway? Select one: a. C1 b. C2 c. C4, C2, C3 d. C5, C6, C7, C8, C9 e. C1, C2, C9

C4,C2,C,3

Why are ANA positive samples titered? (Chose all that apply) -To determine just how ill the pt is - To determine how much antibody is present in the sample -To look for multiple ANA patterns

- To determine how much antibody is present in the sample. - to look for multiple ANA patterns

In von Willebrand's Disease, the APTT is often: Select one: a. Normal b. Prolonged c. Short

B. Prolonged

Each of the following characteristics will differentiate between Listeria monocytogenes and Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiaeexcept: Select one: a. Hydrolsis of esculin b. Motility c. Catalase d. Fermentation of glucose

D. Fermentation of glucose

The image illustrates a Gram stain of a vaginal smear obtained from an 11-year-old girl suspected of being a victim of sexual abuse. The appearance of intracellular gram-negative diplococci (GNDC), as seen in the segmented neutrophil at the tip of the arrow, can represent different organisms. Therefore, recovery of the bacterial species in culture and biochemical identifications is needed before the case can be resolved. Each of the following may appear as intracellular GNDC EXCEPT for which organism? Select one: a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae b. Moraxella osloensis c. Acinetobacter baumannii d. Gardnerella vaginalis

D. G vag

Which of these nitrogenous bases is present in deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), but not in ribonucleic acid (RNA)? Select one: a. Guanine b. Cytosine c. Adenine d. Thymine

D. Thymine

Transfusions of stored blood can lead to diminished levels of: Select one: a. II and XIII b. I c. V and III d. V and VIII

D. V and VIII

A deficiency of factor VIII and platelet adhesion occurs in which disease? Select one: a. Classic Hemophilia b. Thrombasthenia c. Blood vessel disease d. Von Willebrand's disease

D. Von Willebrand's disease

The globin component of hemoglobin F Select one: a. is composed of 2 alpha and 2 beta chains b. is composed of 4 epsilon chains c. is composed of 2 alpha and 2 delta chains d. is composed of 2 alpha and 2 gamma chains

D. is composed of 2 alpha and 2 gamma chains

T A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus was isolated from a throat culture. It gave the following biochemical reactions:· Bacitracin - Susceptible· Bile esculin - Negative· 6.5% NaCl - No growth· CAMP - Negative· SXT - ResistantWhat is the presumptive identification? Select one: a. Beta Streptococcus, group B b. Beta Streptococcus, not group A, B, or D c. Beta Streptococcus, group G d. Beta Streptococcus, group A

D. strep A

An O pos patient has no reactions at immediate spin but both screen cells are positive and all antibody panel cells are reacting 1+ at AHG. The auto control is 1+. What would you suspect to be the cause? Select one: a. Cold autoantibody b. Warm autoantibody

Warm autoantibody

Which of the following test(s) that are the most useful in separating Listeria monocytogenesfrom Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae? Select one: a. Room temperature motility b. Catalase c. Esculin hydrolysis d. All of the above

D. All of the above

Heparin inhibits clotting by: Select one: a. Chelating calcium ions b. Preventing activation of prothrombin c. Causing liver synthesis of non functional factors d. Enhancing the action of antithrombin

D. Enhancing the action of antithrombin

While ABO, Rh, Kell, Duffy, Kidd, SsU are clinically significant, which of the following antibodies generally react at ONLY the Coombs phase (also knowns as Antihuman Globulin phase): Select one: a. Rh, Kell b. ABO c. Kell, Duffy, Kidd d. SsU, Kidd

C. Kell, Duffy, Kidd

Isoenzymes of CK include all of the following except: Select one: a. MB b. MM c. MBM d. BB

C. MBM

The lupus anticoagulant is directed against: Select one: a. Factor VIII b. Factor X c. Factor IX d. Phospholipid

D. Phospholipid

The most common cause of hemostasis abnormalities is: Select one: a. Factor VIII deficiency b. Factor IX deficiency c. Fibrinogen deficiency d. Quantitative platelet abnormality

D. Quantitative platelet abnormality

Which one of the following does NOT have capsular material as a defense mechanism? Select one: a. H. influenza b. K. pneumonia c. N. meningitides d. S. aureus e. S. pneumonia

D. S. auerus

Platelet aggregation is enhanced by: Select one: a. Cyclooxygenase b. A rachidonic acid c. Prostacyclin d. Thromboxane A2

D. Thromboxane A2

A CSF glucose value is 62 mg/gL. What would you estimate the serum glucose? Select one: a. 65 mg/dL b. 93 mg/dL c. 120 mg/dL d. 180 mg/dL e. 41 mg/dL

62x1.5= 93

What is the MOST common infective agent to be transmitted through blood transfusion that results in morbidity and mortality? Select one: a. Bacteria b. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) c. Hepatitis A virus (HAV) d. Malarial parasites

A. bacteria

Which statement about the fibrin degradation product (FDP) test is false? Select one: a. Detects early degradation products b. Elevated in DIC c. Evaluates the fibrinolytic system d. Detects late degradation products

A. detects early degradation products

After coumadin or warfarin administration the prothrombin time: Select one: a. increases b. decreases c. remains unchanged

A. increases

A bedside test that can be used to monitor heparin activity is the: Select one: a. Activated clotting time b. Stypven time c. Reptilase time d. Partial thromboplastin time

A. Activated clotting time

The Hepatitis B virus vaccine was administered to MLS students during Orientation. Which type of immunity is expected and provide long-term protection? Select one: a. Active b. Passive c. Adoptive d. Innate

A. Active

Oliguria is usually correlated with: Select one: a. Acute glomerulonephritis b. Diabetes mellitus c. Hepatitis d. Tubular damage

A. Acute glomerularnephritis

Given the following results, what is the immune status for the patient?HbsAg: positiveHbeAg: positiveAnti-HBc IgM: positiveAnti-HBs: negative Select one: a. acute infection b. chronic infection c. immunization d. susceptible

A. Acute infection

Which one of the following usually shows a decrease during an acute phase response? Select one: a. Albumin b. Alpha-1 Antitrypsin c. Fibrinogen d. Ceruloplasmin

A. Albumin

A decrease in which of the following in AIDS patients results in increased susceptibility to infection: Select one: a. CD 4+ cells b. CD 8+ cells c. HIV antibodies d. HIV antigens

A. CD 4+ cells

A peak or spike at the left end (2-3 fl area) of a platelet histogram may indicate interference by: Select one: a. Cytoplasmic fragments from WBC's b. Nucleated red blood cells c. Schistocytes d. Platelet clumps e. None of the above

A. Cytoplasmic fragments from WBC's

Approximately what percent of the overall population is Rh negative: Select one: a. 10% b. 15% c. 25% d. 35%

B. 15%

The accuracy of an immunoassay is its ability to discriminate between results that are true positive and results that are true negative. Two parameters of test accuracy are specificity and sensitivity. Which of these statements apply to an immunoassay with high specificity? Select one: a. Accurately identifies the presence of disease b. Accurately identifies the absence of disease c. Has many false-positives d. Has few false-negatives

B. Accurately identifies the absence of the disease

All of the following are characteristics of vitamin K except: Select one: a. Required for biological activity of some coagulation factors b. Activity is enhanced by heparin therapy c. Required for carboxylation of glutamate residues of some coagulation factors d. Prolonged antibiotic treatment causes vitamin K deficiency

B. Activity is enhanced by heparin therapy

The lecithin hydrolysis, indicated by the tips of the arrows in this photograph of an egg yolk agar plate, may be produced by each of the following Bacillus species except: Select one: a. Bacillus cerebus b. Bacillus subtilis c. Bacillus mycoides d. Bacillus anthracis

B. Bacillus subtilis

A gram-negative coccobacillus produces small gray colonies surrounded by a zone of hemolysis on a potato-blood-glycerol agar. The organism also grew on chocolate agar, but NOT on sheep blood agar. This is MOST likely to be which organism? Select one: a. Alcaliqenes fecalis b. Bordetella pertussis c. Franciscella tularensis d. Hemophilus influenza e. Yersinia pestis

B. Bordetella Pertusis

Patient screening tests had the following results:Prothrombin = -->11 secondsActivated Partial Thromboplastin Time = -->100 secondsThe patient's plasma was mixed with fresh plasma and the APTT was repeated. The result was 95 seconds. Select one: a. This confirms that the patient has a plasma factor deficiency b. This suggests the presence of circulating anticoagulants in the patient's plasma c. Platelets are either quantitatively or qualitatively affected d. The tech. must have erred in the repeat procedure

B. This suggest the presence of circulating anticoagulants in the patient's plasma

Bence-Jones proteinuria can be seen in all of the following conditions except: Select one: a. Amyloidosis b. Nephrotic syndrome c. Multiple myeloma d. Macroglobulinemia

B. nephrotic syndrome

Platelets should be stored at what temperature: Select one: a. 1-6 degrees Celsius b. 10-16 degrees Celsius c. 20-24 degrees Celsius d. 34-37 degrees Celsius

C. 20-24 degrees Celsius

A ficin (enzyme) treated panel can be a useful tool for determining the identity of an antibody. On a ficin-treated panel, reactions with systems are enhanced, while reactions with systems are degraded and reactions with stay the same (unaffected). Select one: a. (Rh, Kidd, Kell) (Lewis) (Duffy) b. (Rh, MN) (Duffy) (ABO) c. (Duffy) (Rh, Lewis, Kell) (Kell) d. (Rh, Lewis, Kidd) (MN, Duffy) (Kell)

D. (Rh, Lewis, Kidd) (MN, Duffy) (Kell)

For the ANA test to be positive what must be present in the nucleus of the interphase cell? a. Strong staining b. Centromeres c. dsDNA d. A clearly discernible pattern

D. A clearly discernible pattern

Any laboratory that analyzes microbes or refers specimens that have the potential to contain microbial agents or toxins is a sentinel laboratory. Select one: True False

True

In real-time PCR procedures, fluorescence resonance energy transfer (FRET) is the process that allows for probes to emit fluorescence only after hybridization. True or False?

True

True or False: When antigen typing, mixed-field agglutination (MFA) due to red cell transfusion indicates RECENT transfusion, specifically transfusion within the past three months.

True

Which of the following species of Mycobacteriummight be associated with contamination of the hot water system in large institutions such as hospitals? Select one: a. M. xenopi b. M. ulcerans c. M. marinum d. M. haemophilum e. M. tuberculosis

a. M. xenopi

The Iodine prep method is used to detect which of the following protozoan stages: Select one: a. Cysts b. Eggs c. Larvae d. Trophozoites

a. cysts

Which of the following conditions produce glycosuria? Select one: a. Diabetes mellitus b. Fanconi's syndrome c. Impaired tubular reabsorption/advanced kidney failure d. All of the above

all of the above

binary fission is the means of reproduction for which of the following groups of parasites? -Amebae -round worm -tape worm -fluke

amebae

Which of the following HPV types are most likely to be associated with cervical cancer? Select one: a. 6 and 11 b. 16 and 18 c. 42 and 43 d. 44 and 54

b. 16 and 18

A 30 year old man with chronic persistent hepatitis developed an abscess in the right hepatic lobe. A needle aspiration revealed purulent material. The small colonies shown in the upper photograph were isolated after 36 hours incubation at 35 degrees C. They emitted a butter scotch odor. The lower photomicrograph reveals the gram stain features. The antigen most likely carried by this isolate is: Select one: a. Group A b. Group B c. Group G d. Group F

d. group F

Charcot-Leyden crystals in stool may be associated with an immune response and are thought to be the breakdown products of: Select one: a. neutrophils b. eosinophils c. monocytes d. lymphocytes e. basophils

eosinophils

A 62-year-old man drank an unknown liquid in a suicide attempt, and his urine contained crystals similar in shape to those shown in this image. This man MOST likely ingested: Select one: a. Methanol b. Isopropanol c. Ethylene glycol d. Ethanol

ethylene glycol

what is the most prevalent blood type found in the US? o pos b pos a pos o neg

o pos

At what temperature should the urine be prior to testing with the reagent strip method? Select one: a. 4o C b. 37 o C c. Room temperature d. Temperature does not affect test results

room temperature

The estimation of hyaluronic acid concentration by measurement of viscosity is useful in evaluating which type of fluid? Select one: a. Cerebrospinal b. Peritoneal c. Pleural d. Synovial e. Seminal

synovial

Which of the following cells when found upon microscopic examination of the urine would be most indicative of kidney disease: Select one: a. WBCs and bacteria b. Tubular epithelial cells c. Squamous epithelial cells d. RBCs

tubular epithelial cells

The Quellung test is useful for which of the following: Select one: a. Differentiate between Staphylococcus and Streptococcus b. Serological typing of Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Isolation of various strains of Staphylococcus d. Isolation of various strains of Streptococcus

B. Serological typing of strep pneumo

Patients with antibody to the following antigen are immune to hepatitis B: Select one: a. Core antigen b. Surface antigen c. e antigen d. Delta antigen

B. Surface antigen

The coagulation factors affected by coumarin-type drugs include: Select one: a. VIII, IX, and X b. I, II, V, and VII c. II, VII, IX, and X d. II, V, and VII

C. II, VII, IX, X

What type of follow-up testing is recommended for a Speckled ANA pattern? a. None b. Testing for antibodies to the extractable nuclear antigens (ENA) c. Testing for antibodies to dsDNA

B. Testing for antibodies to the extractable nuclear antigens (ENA)

How many white blood cells (WBCs) would be considered normal for adult cerebrospinal fluid? Select one: a. Any number of WBCs is considered abnormal b. 0-5 WBCs/uL c. 6-10 WBCs/uL d. up to 30 WBCs/uL

0-5

The greatest risk for the manifestation of anomalies in maternal rubella infection during gestation is the: Select one: a. first trimester b. second trimester c. third trimester d. delivery e. eighth month

A. First trimester

When performing an antibody panel, which one of the following antigens will be rendered inactive by enzyme treatment? Select one: a. Fya b. Jka c. E d. Lua

A. Fya

Which is the first marker (antigen or antibody) which will become positive after exposure to Hepatitis B: Select one: a. HBsAg b. Anti-HBs c. Anti-HBe d. Anti-HBc

A. HBsAg

Which of the following is NOT true about hybridization in PCR procedures? Select one: a. Hybridization cannot happen between a strand of DNA and a strand of RNA b. Hybridization is the process of single strands of nucleic acid bonding together to form double strands c. Hybridization can also be called annealing d. Complementary bases link together with hydrogen bonds

A. Hybridization cannot happen between a strand of DNA and a strand of RNA

Blood collected in EDTA undergoes which of the following changes if kept at room temperature for 6-24 hours? Select one: a. Increased hematocrit and MCV b. Increased ESR and MCV c. Increased MCHC and MCV d. Decreased reticulocyte count and hematocrit

A. Increased hematocrit and MCV

Which of the following is not a feature of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE): Select one: a. Increased serum complement b. Positive ANA c. Circulating immune complexes d. Decreased serum complement

A. Increased serum complement

A 40-year-old female receives two units of Red Blood Cells during a surgical procedure. The patient has no prior history of transfusions. Seven days later, she presents with extensive bruising of the extremities and bleeding of the gums, with no additional symptoms. Her platelet count is 5X109/L (reference interval 150-400 X 109 /L). What is the most likely diagnosis? Select one: a. Post transfusion purpura (PTP) b. Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR) c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) d. Allergic reaction

A. Post transfusion purpura (PTP)

Antibodies in the Rh system typically exhibit which one of the following characteristics? Select one: a. Reacts best at 37 ˚C and AHG b. Reacts best at room temperature c. Shows hemolysis better than agglutination

A. Reacts best at 37 ˚C and AHG

The ketone component that is measured by the nitroprusside reaction is: Select one: a. Acetoacetic acid b. Beta-hydroxybutyric acid c. Acetone d. All of the above

A. acetoacetic acid

Which of the following would be considered most significant as it relates to serological testing: Select one: a. Presence of an antibody titer is generally diagnostic b. Rise of antibody titers is diagnostic c. Concentration of antibody is diagnostic d. Cross reactivity is not significant

B. Rise of antibody titers is diagnostic

Which real-time PCR quantification method is only effective if the amplification efficiency of both target and reference samples are equal? Select one: a. Standard Curve Method b. Comparative Threshold Method

B. Comparative Threshold Method

Which is not positive for ALA? a. Haemophilus parainfluenzae b. Haemophilus influenzae c. Haemophilus parahaemolyticus d. Haemophilus aphrophilus

B. H influenzae

Which is the main limitation of standard PCR that is not a limitation of real-time PCR? Select one: a. Requirement of a large initial sample b. Inability to quantitate DNA product due to endpoint analysis only c. Ability to detect PCR product during the plateau stage

B. Inability to quantitate DNA product due to endpoint analysis only

A delayed hemolytic reaction occurring a week later is MOST likely caused by: Select one: a. Volume overload b. Kidd system antibodies c. Iron overload d. ABO incompatibility

B. Kidd system antibodies

The total white blood cell count in an adult is 3.0 x 109/L with a differential of 20% segs, 5% bands, 67% lymphs and 8% monos. These values indicate the presence of: Select one: a. a shift to the left b. leukopenia and relative lymphocytosis c. absolute lymphocytosis and leukopenia d. shift to the right

B. Leukopenia and relative lymphocytosis

A technologist is having trouble differentiating between red blood cells, oil droplets, and yeast cells on a urine microscopy. Acetic acid should be added to the sediment to: Select one: a. Lyse the yeast cells b. Lyse the red blood cells c. Dissolve the oil droplets d. Crenate the red blood cells

B. Lyse the red blood cells

A urine specimen was collected at 6:00 a.m. and remained at room temperature until it was received in the laboratory at 3:30 p.m. How may the pH of the specimen be affected by the extended time at room temperature if bacteria are present in the specimen? Select one: a. The pH may become more acidic. b. The pH may become more alkaline. c. The pH will become neutral. d. The pH would probably not be affected

B. The pH may become more alkaline

Which of the following represents the approximate percentage of the population that is Rh positive: Select one: a. 35% b. 65% c. 85% d. 95%

C. 85%

What is the approximate volume of spinal fluid in an adult? Select one: a. 10-40 mL b. 50-70 mL c. 90-150 mL d. 200-500 mL

C. 90-150

Twelve weeks after onset of the disease, patients with uncomplicated acute hepatitis B usually will demonstrate which of the following in their serum? Select one: a. HBsAg b. Anti-HTLV c. Anti-HBe d. Anti-HIV

C. Anti-HBe

For the hematologic condition, Aplastic anemia, what is the most likely reticulocyte response? Select one: a. Normal reticulocyte count b. Increased reticulocyte count c. Decreased reticulocyte count d. Total absence of reticulocytes e. Reticulocyte count irrelevant

C. Decreased retic count

A spectrophotometric scan of amniotic fluid may be valuable in the determination of which of the following conditions: Select one: a. Neural tube defects b. Maternal hypertension c. Hemolytic disease of the newborn d. Maternal diabetes

C. Hemolytic disease of the newborn

Monoclonal antibodies are usually manufactured in vitro by using: Select one: a. Cultured T cells b. Human plasma cells c. Hybridomas d. Cytotoxic T cells

C. Hydridomas

________________ is predominantly associated with skin and soft tissue infections (SSTIs), such as abcesses, cellulitis, folliculitis and impetigo. Select one: a. Hospital-associated MRSA b. Community-associated MRSA

B. Community acquired MRSA

Chlamydia trachomatis causes which of the following problems? Select one: a. Trachoma, a major cause of preventable blindness in the world b. Zoonosis in birds and the cause of parrot fever in humans c. A skin disease found predominantly in tropical areas.

A. Trachoma, major cause of preventable blindness is the world

A small gram-negative rod isolated from an eye grows on chocolate agar but NOT on sheep blood agar. It produces satellite growth around staphylococci on sheep blood agar, however. The organism requires: Select one: a. X and V factor b. X factor only c. V factor only d. Neither X or V factor

A. X and V factor

Terminal deoxyribonucleotidyl transferase (TdT) is present in: Select one: a. Precursor B and precursor T cells b. Mature B and T lymphocytes c. Precursor B cells and mature B lymphocytes d. Precursor T cells and mature lymphocytes

A. precursor B and T cells

Which of the following would not indicate that RBC's may be interfering with the platelet count? Select one: a. a low MCV and very high RDW b. a very high MPV c. schistocytes on the blood smear d. spherocytosis

D. Spherocytosis

Surprise! Animals are not the only creatures with bacteria. The bacterial species causing onion rot is: Select one: a. Shewanella putrifaciens b. Burkholderia cepacia c. Pantoea agglomerans (Erwinia herbicola) d. Klebsiella planticola

B. Burkholderia cepacia

It's a busy Friday evening in the blood bank and you have been receiving a steady stream of Type & Screen specimens from the emergency room and several of them have positive antibody screens which require further workup. One of these patients is a 46-year-old male whose hemoglobin has dropped from 8.4 g/dL to 4.6 g/dL in the previous 8 hours (normal Hgb for this patient demographic would be ̴ 14 g/dL).Your workup reveals a Type O patient with the following antibodies:Anti - K , anti Fya. The prevalence of K negative donors in your donor population is 91% while the prevalence of Fya negative donors is 37%. Two units of crossmatched RBCs are requested by the physician. How many units of group O RBC units should you phenotype, in order to fulfill the request for two cross matched units? Select one: a. 2 units of type O RBC units b. 3 units of type O RBC units c. 6 units of type O RBC units d. 12 units of type O RBC units

C. 6 units of Type O RBC units

A patient has the following test results:ANA = positive 1:320RA = positiveComplement = decreasedThe above results would be seen in patients with: Select one: a. Rheumatic fever b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Lupus Erythematosus d. Glomerulonephritis

C. Lupus Erythmatosus

The following laboratory data are indicative of which of the disorders listed below:1. Marked hemolysis in the serum obtained from clotted blood incubated at 37oC (90.6oF) for one hour2. Hemolysis of erythrocytes in acidified serum3. Accelerated lysis after 48 hours with addition of sucrose4. Low erythrocytic cholinesterase activity5. Erythrocytes develop pits on their surface6. Strong Prussian blue reaction in the urinary sediment Select one: a. Organic phosphate poisoning b. Lead poisoning c. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria d. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria e. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

C. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

Thick Giemsa-stained smears are primarily used to screen for the presence of: Select one: a. Paragonimus westermani b. Toxoplasma gondii c. Plasmodium species d. Onchocerca volvulus

C. Plasmodium species

Given the following results, what is the immune status of the patient?HBsAg: negativeHBeAg: negativeAnti-HBc: positiveAnti-HBs: positive Select one: a. acute infection b. chronic infection c. recovery d. immunization

C. Recovery

If an antinuclear antibody indirect immunofluorescence test shows a positive, speckled pattern, which would be the MOST appropriate additional test to perform? a. Anti-mitochondrial antibody b. Immunoglobulin quantitation c. Screen for Sm and RNP antibodies d. Anti-DNA antibody using C. luciliae

C. Screen for Sm and RNP antibodies

If an antinuclear antibody indirect immunofluorescence test shows a positive, speckled pattern, which would be the MOST appropriate additional test to perform? Select one: a. Anti-mitochondrial antibody b. Immunoglobulin quantitation c. Screen for Sm and RNP antibodies d. Anti-DNA antibody using C. luciliae

C. Screen for Sm and RNP antibodies

An isolate of S. pneumoniae from a respiratory specimen gave a zone of inhibition of 18 mm around a 1 ug oxacillin using the disk diffusion test. What should the next step be? Select one: a. Report the isolate as penicillin sensitive b. Report the isolate as penicillin resistant c. Set up an MIC on the isolate d. Report the isolate as moderately susceptible

C. Set up MIC on the isolate

Hemolysis produced by intravascular erythrocyte fragmentation is characterized by the appearance of: Select one: a. spherocytes b. acanthocytes c. schizocytes d. Heinz bodies

C. Shistocytes

In specific factor assays: Select one: a. Only patients plasma is used b. Only reagent plasma is used c. The result is expressed as a percentage of normal d. The result is expressed as positive or negative

C. The result is expressed as a percentage of normal

Which of these is NOT a Systemic Autoimmune Rheumatic Disease (SARD)? Select one: a. Systemic sclerosis b. Lupus erythematosus c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Multiple sclerosis

D. Multiple Sclerosis

The Mycobacterium species capable of growing on modified MacConkey agar (crystal violet removed from the formula), as illustrated in this photograph, is: Select one: a. Mycobacterium avium/intracellulare b. Mycobacterium kansasii c. Mycobacterium marinum d. Mycobacterium fortuitum

D. Mycobacterium fortuitum

What is the most common combination of ANA patterns? a. Homogeneous and centromere b. Speckled and nucleolar c. Speckled and SSA/Ro d. Homogeneous and speckled

D. Homogenous and speckled

Certain clinical conditions such as Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN), Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction (HTR), and Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) result from the attachment of antibodies or complement to human RBCs. What is this process called? Select one: a. Desensitization b. Non-sensitization c. In vitro sensitization d. In vivo sensitization

D. In vivo sensitization

Which method remains the "gold standard" for ANA detection? a. Radioimmunoassay (RIA) b. Lateral Flow Immunoassay c. Enzyme Immunoassay (ELISA) d. Slide-based immunofluorescent assay (IFA) or Colorzyme

D. Slide-based immunofluorescent assay (IFA) or Colorzyme

Which two stages of cell division are the most important for reading ANAs? a. Prophase and metaphase b. Interphase and anaphase c. Anaphase and telophase d. Interphase and metaphase

D. Interphase and Metaphase

During routine inspection, a unit of unexpired blood was noticed to have a black color with numerous small clots. What is the likely cause for this observation? Select one: a. the unit was frozen b. donor had DIC c. viral contamination d. bacterial contamination

D. Bacterial Contamination

Which one of the following statements concerning endocytosis is NOT TRUE? Select one: a. Cells may employ endocytosis to ingest large polar molecules (macromolecules) from extracellular fluid. b. In endocytosis, the cell membrane often extends outward until it surrounds the material that will be ingested. c. Endocytosis is a natural process of intracellular digestion for nutrition. d. Endocytosis is the process by which phagosomes are released by the cell to expel the macromolecules inside.

D. Endocytosis is the process by which phagosomes are released by the cell to expel the macromolecules inside

Observation of each of the following characteristics is helpful in differentiating between Nocardia species and Mycobacteriumspecies except: Select one: a. Partial acid fast staining b. Filamentous rods that branch c. Musty basement smell of the colonies d. Gram positive staining

D. Gram positive staining

Spinal fluid cultures on a 3-day-old infant revealed beta-hemolytic, Gram-positive cocci occurring in pairs and chains. The organism was catalase-negative and bile esculin-negative. Resistance to 0.04 U disk of bacitracin was noted. The other test necessary to identify this organism is a positive test by: Select one: a. Bile solubility b. CAMP c. Coagulase d. PYR

b. CAMP