Associate Safety Professional

"The pressure applied to a confined incompressible fluid is transmitted undiminished to all the points in the fluid and to the walls of its container." The above sentence is a statement of which principle? a. Continuity principle b. Pascal's principle c. Archimedes' principle d. Imbert-Fick principle e. Bernoulli's principle

b. pascals principle

A(n) _________________ is a regimented and methodical evaluation of a planned or existing undertaking or process in an attempt to identify and assess potential issues that may ultimately culminate in risks to workers, equipment, and/or operational efficiencies. a. hazard and operability study (HAZOP) b. failure modes and effects analysis (FMEA) c. job safety analysis (JSA) d. fishbone analysis

A: A Hazard and operability study (HAZOP) is a regimented and methodical evaluation of a planned or existing undertaking or process in an attempt to identify and assess potential issues that may ultimately culminate in risks to workers, equipment, and/or operational efficiencies.

A disaster recovery plan should designate a _____________________ who ultimately decides what recovery actions need to be taken and assigns responsibilities for achieving such actions. a. Recovery coordinator b. Emergency response team task leader c. Disaster preparedness liaison d. Contingency manager

A: A disaster recovery plan should designate a recovery coordinator who ultimately decides what recovery actions need to be taken and assigns responsibilities for achieving such actions.

A histogram most closely resembles which of the following in its construct? a. a bar graph b. a line graph c. a stem-and-leaf plot d. a box-and-whiskers plot

A: A histogram most closely resembles a bar graph in its construct. Each vertically oriented bar typically houses a specific set of data that falls under the requirements of that particular bar's regime. The larger the number of data points included within a bar, the taller the bar becomes.

Which of the following project management tools emphasizes how much time should be spent on each project step and prioritizes the order in which those steps should be completed? a. Project plan b. Work breakdown structure (WBS) c. Scope of work (SOW) d. Time and materials balance sheet

A: A project plan emphasizes how much time should be spent on each project step and prioritizes the order in which those steps should be completed. Other project management tools, such as WBSs and GANTT Charts, are also robustly effective at laying out project elements and associated timetables.

What is a quantitative fit test? A. A respiratory protection testing protocol B. An encapsulating hazardous materials ensemble testing protocol C. A statistical test of correlation between two variables. D. A fire extinguisher regulator testing system

A: A quantitative fit test is a respirator fit testing protocol used to determine how well a respirator fits on an individual by measuring the concentration of a benign contaminant gas inside the face piece

Which of the following is a strongly recommended approach for proper chair usage in a workstation? a. To move the chair in as close as reasonably possible to the work area while seated b. To move the chair in to the point where the work area is a forearm's length away from the forward ends/edges of the elbow rests c. To set a chair's back support to approximately a 10 degree offset angle d. To set a chair's recline limit to approximately a 10 degree counter-offset angle

A: A strongly recommended approach for proper chair usage in a workstation is to move the chair in as close as reasonably possible to the work area while seated. This facilitates proper posturing and reduces the propensity for overreaching.

The installation of a wet-pipe automatic sprinkler system may cause an increase in facility risk when storing which chemical? A. Calcium carbide B. Benzoyl peroxide C. Peroxyacetic acid D. Potassium permanganate

A: All of these chemicals present a serious fire hazard, however, the preferred method of fire control for the last three items is to use water. Calcium carbide with moisture creates corrosive calcium hydroxide and liberates acetylene (ethyne). Acetylene (ethyne), if inhaled can cause depression of the central nervous system and can ignite

What helpful end-product tool is conventionally derived from a failure modes and effects analysis? a. an action list b. a reliability plan c. a fault tree d. a frequency/severity concept summary

A: An action list is the usually sought-after end-product tool that is typically rendered from the conduct of a failure modes and effects analysis. If this list is well executed after the fact, it normally provides a substantial level of risk reduction within the workplace.

Which of the following acids would be considered the most dangerous to overall human health? a. 15M nitric acid b. 0.1M hydrochloric acid c. 20M acetic acid d. 0.01M sulfuric acid

A: Compared to 0.1M hydrochloric acid (HCl), 20M acetic acid (C2H4O2), and 0.01M sulfuric acid (H2SO4), 15M (molar) nitric acid (HNO3) would be the most dangerous to overall human health due to its being a strong acid and having a high molar concentration (15M). In this case example, HCl and H2SO4 are also strong acids (comparable to nitric), but much less concentrated (0.1M and 0.01M, respectively); for C2H4O2, although the molar concentration is higher than that for HNO3 in this instance, it is a very weak acid in nature at nearly all comparable molarities.

Dust explosions are more likely to occur when a. a high concentration of small dust particles are in the air b. the air has a high moisture level c.inert dust particles are mixed with flammable dust particles in the air d.air turbulence is low

A: Dust explosions are more likely to occur when a high concentration of small dust particles are in the air. Other factors that increase the likelihood of a dust explosion include low moisture content and the presence of oxygen. Turbulence increases the likelihood of an explosion, as it mixes the oxygen and dust particles together.

A force of 125 N/m2 is required to compress an automobile suspension spring 0.36 m. Determine the potential energy of the spring. Use the formula: P.E.elastic = (kx2)/2, where P.E. = potential energy (elastic) (J), k = spring constant (N/m2), and x = amount of compression (distance in meters) A. 22.49 J B. 8.1 J C. 14.2 J D. 18.4 J

A: Elastic potential energy is the energy stored in elastic materials as the result of their stretching or compressing. The equation to determine elastic potential energy is: P.E.elastic = (kx2)/2, where P.E. = potential energy (elastic) (J), k = spring constant (N/m2), and x = amount of compression (distance in meters) To solve this problem, we first need to determine the spring constant (k). We know that F = 125 N when x = .36 m. Since F = kx, then k = f/x. k = (125 N) / (.36 m) k = 347.22 N/m We can now plug k into the PE equation. P.E.elastic = (kx2)/2 = ((347.22 N/m) x (0.36m)2))/2 P.E.elastic = ((347.22 N/m) x (0.1296m))/2 P.E.elastic = 22.49 J

Heat syncope occurs when A. blood flows more to the arms and legs and less to the brain B. a person working in a hot environment doesn't drink enough water to replace fluids lost to sweat C. a person's thermal regulatory system fails, leading to lack of sweating, hot and dry skin, fever, and mental confusion D. sweat glands become plugged, leading to inflammation and prickly blisters on the skin

A: Heat syncope occurs when blood flows more to the arms and legs and less to the brain. This heat illness is characterized by fainting in an individual who is not used to a hot environment and has been standing for a long time. The victim needs to lie down in a cool area.

In legal terms, strict liability is conventionally defined as which of the following? a. When a corporate entity is forced to pay compensatory damages associated with a product/service they provided, irrespective of fault b. When a corporate entity has failed to invoke reasonable standards (criteria) of care to prevent injuries or death in the workplace c. A legal charge resulting from a worker injury or death that occurs due to improper implementation of worker safety criteria d. An intentional act of neglect during the administration of reasonable care

A: In legal terms, strict liability is conventionally defined as when a corporate entity is forced to pay compensatory damages associated with a product/service it provided, irrespective of fault. During litigation, a claimant only needs to prove that a subject tort actually occurred and that the defendant was responsible. Federal law typically assigns strict liability to situations it considers to be inherently hazardous.

In the realm of project and/or business management, what is the ultimate objective of a break-even analysis? a. To determine the shortest amount of time that a project's break-even point can be reached b. To determine the level of revenue (in future dollars) required to break even on a present-day capital investment c. To be able to produce an equally weighted balance sheet d. To determine how much margin is required on a fixed revenue stream, over a set time period, in order to fully recoup a capital investment

A: In the realm of project and/or business management, the ultimate objective of a break-even analysis is to determine the shortest amount of time required for a project's break-even point to be reached.

Which technique effectively decreases a project's schedule risk without increasing the overall risk? A.Incorporating slack time into the project's critical path schedule early in the project planning B. Decreasing resource allocation to long-lead items C. Increasing attention to short-term schedule items to ensure they are delivered on-time. D.Increasing the number of vendors providing critical products and service to ensure that at least one of them will deliver the products and services on-time.

A: Incorporating slack into a project schedule is an effective way to reduce schedule risk without increasing overall risk, assuming that the slack was incorporated early in the project life cycle.

Which pathway entrance into the body is typically most hazardous for a potential plutonium intake/uptake? a. Inhalation b. Absorption c. Ingestion d. Osmosis

A: Inhalation is by far the most hazardous pathway for a potential plutonium intake/uptake. Associated high-energy alpha particle tracks damage thin lung (epithelial) tissues much more easily and severely than any other organ in the body.

What is most significant when evaluating maintenance operating procedures? A. Ensuring that machine energy is zero and will remain so during maintenance B. Ensuring that a tagout procedure is described and will be implemented during maintenance C. Ensuring that the maintenance procedure has supervisory oversight D. Ensuring that there is at least one additional person on hand to assist in an emergency during maintenance

A: It is essential that all energy sources are zero and remain that way during maintenance operations. This includes unexpected energy sources such as the kinetic energy (mechanical energy) from engulfment hazards and items that could fall and strike employee, in addition to the usual energy sources such as electricity, high pressure and heat sources.

A lightning bolt is a visible manifestation of the ......................... of a large potential electrical difference between a cloud and another cloud, or the ground. A. Equalization B. Creation C. High current (amperage) nature D. High power (wattage) nature

A: Lightning is an electrical arc produced to equalize the buildup of two opposite charges between two clouds or between a cloud and an object (usually on the ground)

Which of the following do musculoskeletal disorders (MSDs) typically NOT significantly affect? a. bones b. nerves c. muscles d. tendons

A: Musculoskeletal disorders (MSDs), by definition, usually do not directly affect bone(s). Nerves, muscles, tendons, joints, ligaments, and cartilage are typically the (softtissue) sources that incur MSD-related trauma and injury.

Which is a key component in a typical behavioral approach to improving safety? A. Setting goals B. Having active safety contests C. Enforcing disciplinary action programs D. Writing safety procedures

A: Setting safety-related performance goals can change behavior if management is willing to routinely check on progress toward fulfilling goals (especially by establishing intermediate objectives by which progress toward meeting the goals can be measured).

The domain of safety engineering typically does NOT focus on which of the following: a. Performing statistical trials b. Determining appropriate mitigations associated with incorrect product handling c. Assessing potential scenarios in which products may be misused d. Removing design defects

A: The domain of safety engineering typically focuses on determining appropriate mitigations associated with incorrect product handling; assessing potential scenarios in which products may be misused; removing potential design defects; and performing product/process risk assessments. The rendering of statistical trials (data measuring and sample binning) is not typically inclusive of the work scope of most safety engineers

What is the recommended upper weight/force limit of an object that is to be horizontally pushed or pulled from a kneeling position? a. 42 lbs.-force b. 33 lbs.-force c. 25 lbs.-force d. 16 lbs.-force

A: The recommended upper weight/force limit of an object that is to be horizontally pushed or pulled from a kneeling position is a 42-lb force.

Which of the following is an appropriate measure to follow for safely managing flammable and combustible materials? a. Plunger cans should be used for dispensing small quantities of material. b. ANSI standards for storage cabinet design/configuration should be followed. c. Pressurized vacuum pumps should be used for dispensing large quantities of material. d. Static-electricity conductor mechanisms should be employed where flammable/combustible materials are stored or utilized.

A: The use of plunger cans is widely implemented for dispensing small quantities of flammable/combustible materials (such as solvents), particularly for industrial maintenance and cleaning activities. Such materials should never be highly pressurized, should always be grounded for safely dispensing of static charges, and should always be stored in NFPA-approved configurations.

Training typically does NOT render improvement in work areas/functions that entail: a. inherent procedural deficiencies b. certifications c. temporary contract-based commitments d. independent study

A: Training typically does NOT render improvement in work areas/functions that entail inherent procedural deficiencies or shortcomings. If procedures are flawed, only enhancements to such will result in associated improvements. Training generally instructs employees to abide by procedures; thus, if procedures are insufficient, resulting work will likewise follow suit.

Which of the following is considered a robust physical control against electrical hazards? a. Utilizing wires that are not excessively long b. Utilizing insulators for keeping conductors separated c. Maintaining equipment in unsealed configurations to facilitate heat dissipation due to resistance buildups d. Use of step-down transformers to protect against electrocution hazards

A: Utilizing wires that are not excessively long is considered a physical control against electrical hazards. The longer a wire is, the more electrical resistance tends to build within, and thus a higher level of associated heat is produced. Other physical controls against electrical hazards include ensuring proper connections of conductors; using insulation, conduits, and barriers to provide a buffer between electrical sources and personnel; and properly locating/situating high-voltage equipment.

What is a GANTT chart? a. A project management tool used for presenting a logical breakdown of task requirements. b. A project management tool used for planning purposes, which graphically depicts a project plan via a bar-chart layout. c. A project management tool that graphically tracks a project's budgetary outsourcing trends via a line-chart layout. d. A project management tool that calculates a project's ongoing performance metrics in the way of meeting budgets, schedules, and performance criteria/deliverables.

B: A GANTT chart is a project management tool used for planning purposes, which usually depicts a project plan via a bar-chart layout. It is regularly used by project managers, along with work-breakdown structures and other project management tools, to assist in determining project timelines, schedules, budgetary constraints, and critical paths.

Which is the best example of leading indicator of safety, health and environmental performance? A. Number of hazardous materials spills reported B. Number of corrective actions closed from incident reports C. Number of lost workdays incidents D. Number of regulatory citations issued

B: A leading indicator can help to predict safety performance. Therefore, the number of corrective actions resolved from incident reports is predictive (leading) measure of safety performance

ANSI Z490.1 is of vital importance in which of the following regards? a. It is the OSHA-mandated guidance for the proper design and use of PPE eyewear. b. It is the professional standard for the planning and conductance of ES&H training programs. c. It contains essential criteria for the deployment and maintenance of scaffolding. d. It maintains essential criteria for the proper treatment, handling, and disposal of combustible materials used in the workplace.

B: ANSI Z490.1 is the professional standard for the planning and conductance of ES&H training programs. It essentially sets the industry benchmark for the conduct of such programs and conveys best practices for how they can be optimally constructed, delivered, and evaluated.

Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding accident-prevention training in the workplace? a. It is fundamentally more important for experienced employees to receive requalification training than for new employees to receive initial training. b. Accidents are statistically prone to occur more frequently when workers have recently started a new job. c. OSHA Standard 29 CFR 1910.38 requires that general safety-related training be conducted at regular annual intervals. d. None of the above.

B: Accidents are statistically prone to occur more frequently when workers have recently started a new job; thus, it is most imperative that robust safety training regimens be rendered prior to such employees commencing work. Employees new to a job need to be effectively trained on how to perform their tasks in a correct fashion and what procedures need to be followed in the event of an incident. They also need to be made aware that safety is of highest priority within their company culture.

Which of the following is an excellent preventive measure/policy to employ for reducing the likelihood of a slipping incident? a. Prohibiting the wearing of high-heels in areas regularly subjected to large degrees of moisture b. Using slip-resistant floor-cleaning products c. Having the floor custodian email regular updates/warnings to potentially affected employees d. Requiring employees to use alternative routes during floor cleaning and waxing

B: An excellent preventive measure/policy to employ for reducing the likelihood of a slipping incident is to regularly use/apply slip-resistant floor-cleaning products. In addition, employing good drainage practices, good housekeeping, floor mats, slip-resistant shoes/covers, and slippery-floor warning signs are also formidable tools to implement for preventing slips.

Computer tools that can assist ASPs in rendering safety-related decisions, particularly in areas that they may not maintain subject-matter expertise, are called _________________________. a. ES&H simulation models b. expert systems c. assimilation modules d. automated self-implementation units

B: Computer tools that can assist ASPs in rendering safety-related decisions, particularly in areas in which they may not maintain subject-matter expertise, are called expert systems

Electrical fires can often occur due to electrical ___________ or poor ____________. a. bonding / grounding b. short-outs / connectivity c. induction / capacitance d. reactivity / impedance

B: Electrical fires can often occur due to electrical short-outs (i.e., shorts) or poor connections. Furthermore, subject fires are also often initiated due to an overflow of current through a material. The resultant excess heat that is generated in such scenarios can ultimately ignite nearby flammable items.

General ergonomic requirements, per OSHA, are enforced per ___________________. a. OSHA 29 CFR 1910.95 b. OSHA General Duty Clause, Section 5(a)(1) c. OSHA Ergonomic Hazards Policy, OSHA-ETS-416P.2 d. OSHA 29 CFR 1926.54

B: General ergonomic requirements, per OSHA, are enforced per the Administration's General Duty Clause, Section 5(a)(1).

Which types of glove materials are best for handling containers contaminated with an acid such as hydrochloric acid? A. Polyvinyl acetate or polycellulose B. Butyl rubber or neoprene C. Polyvinyl alcohol or cellulose D. Butylamine or acetate

B: Glove materials such as butyl rubber or neoprene are generally best for handling acids like hydrochloric acid. The other glove materials are particular poor for corrosive materials.

If an object conveys a force of 19.6 newtons (N) as it perpendicularly affects the earth's surface after falling a distance of 500 feet (in a vacuum), what is the approximate mass of the falling object? a. 30.4 pounds b. 2.0 kilograms c. 0.039 pounds d. 0.98 kilograms

B: If a falling object conveys a force of 19.6 newtons (N) as it perpendicularly impacts the earth's surface, the approximate mass of the object is 2.0 kilograms. This is derived via the fundamental mechanics equation F = ma, whereby F = force, m = mass, and a = acceleration (in this particular case, an acceleration due to gravity [9.8 m/s2]). In terms of the subject SI units, 1N = (1kg)(1m/s2).

In fault-tree analyses, what types of logic gates are applied to linking together event sequences? a. IF/THEN b. AND/OR c. YES/NO d. IN/OUT

B: In fault-tree analyses, AND and OR logic gates are extensively applied for linking together interrelated event sequences.

Before maintaining electrically-powered equipment, an employee opens the electrical circuit powering the equipment and places his personal lock on the circuit breaker to ensure that the circuit remains open while he is performing maintenance on the equipment serviced by that electrical circuit. What type of control does this describe? A.Engineering control B. Administrative control C. Personal control D. Personal protection equipment.

B: Locking out a circuit is an administrative control (a procedure) since it requires a person to perform the action each time. Engineering controls are permanent fixtures that need no human interaction to operate. Personal protective equipment is worn by employees as a final barrier against coming into contact with a particular

As part of a company's risk management department, you identified a major hazard contributing to a significant number of accidents and injuries each year is vehicular accidents during travel to and from the project site. Which of the following would be considered a reasonable control that could be developed during the risk management process? A. Providing drivers with extra caffeine before travel B. Supervisors ensuring that drivers are not fatigued C. Eliminating the need for drivers D. Penalizing drivers each time they have an accident

B: One major step in the risk management process is the development of controls, which are interventions meant to reduce or eliminate hazards in the workplace. Because a major contributor to accidents and injuries at this company is vehicular accidents, one possible control would be for supervisors to ensure that drivers are not fatigued before traveling. Another reasonable control might be to provide adequate driver training. Providing drivers with extra caffeine before travel is not a reasonable control, as this would not be reliable and may affect some drivers adversely. Penalizing drivers each time they have an accident is also a poor choice for a control, and eliminating the need for drivers is impractical and probably impossible.

Per OSHA requirements, energy control programs require that employers address within their associated procedures the sequential steps necessary to __________________ machines or equipment. a. de-energize, stabilize, and lockout b. shut down, isolate, block, and secure c. redirect, ground, and bond d. discharge, lockout, tagout, and reinitiate

B: Per OSHA requirements, energy control programs require that employers address within their associated procedures the sequential steps necessary to shut down, isolate, block, and secure machines or equipment.

Why should a hood guard be used on the abrasive wheel of a floor-stand grinder? A. To prevent persons or objects from coming in contact with the revolving abrasive wheel B. To contain the fragments of a broken abrasive wheel C. To contain the large dust particles (<20 m) so that they can be removed by the local exhaust system D. To protect the employee's eyes from sparks and small particles.

B: The guard is designed to retain the pieces of the grinding wheel should the grinding wheel break during operation.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the U.S. EPA's hazardous waste identification (HWID) process? a. An initial determination must be made by a generator as to whether subject waste is solid waste. b. The EPA must perform a codified audit series before officially approving a generator's hazardous waste inventory. c. A determination must be made by the generator as to whether subject waste is RCRA hazardous waste. d. Waste generators may petition to have a specific type of waste delisted from their hazardous waste record.

B: There are several items regularly required of waste generators per the U.S. EPA's hazardous waste identification (HWID) process; these include providing an initial determination as to whether subject waste is solid waste, providing a determination as to whether subject waste is RCRA hazardous waste, and implementing a petitioning process to have a specific type of waste delisted from hazardous waste records.

Which of the following is typically NOT utilized as a shielding material for protecting against exposure to gamma- or X-ray radiation? a. Concrete b. Titanium c. Water d. Lead

B: Titanium is usually not employed as an effective shielding material for protecting against exposure to gamma- or X-ray radiation. The best shielding materials against these types of ionizing radiations include lead, concrete, uranium, and water.

Which is an essential component of an effective product hazardous condition warning label? A. How to use the product to cause a hazardous condition to appear B. How to seek medical attention after coming into contact with the hazardous condition C. How to avoid coming into contact with the hazardous condition D. How the hazardous condition warning has been acknowledged by the user

C: Effective product warning labels: • * Identify that there is a hazard • * Indicate the level of seriousness • * Indicate the likelihood of harm • * Explain how to avoid the hazard and • * Describe consequences if not heeded.

When hung on a scale at sea level, the scale indicates that a brick's mass is 25 kg. When the same brick is submerged in water at sea level and hung on the scale, it indicates that the mass of the brick is 15 kg. What is the specific gravity of the brick? A. 0.6 B. 1.6 C. 2.5 D. 4.0

C: 2.5 25 kg / (25kg - 15kg)

At what noise level does pain typically begin to be felt in the ears? a. 100 dBA b. 120 dBA c. 140 dBA d. 160 dBA

C: A noise level of 140 dBA is considered to be typically/medically associated with the threshold of auditory pain.

Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? a. wrist discomfort b. lack of grip c. numbness in the pinky finger d. tingling in the thumb

C: Carpal-tunnel syndrome is an uncomfortable and often painful condition that affects the hands and fingers, caused by the compression of a major nerve that passes over the carpal bones through a passage (tunnel) in the wrist. Several symptoms that normally indicate the onset of carpal-tunnel syndrome include wrist discomfort, weakened grip, and tingling in the thumb, index, middle, and ring fingers. The pinky finger, however, is typically not affected.

Colorimetry is best defined as which of the following? a. Measurement of average temperature extremes over a set period of time b. The study of how different colors and wavelengths can affect behavior and mood c. The use of apparatus to determine whether contaminants are present via changes in color within the apparatus d. Measurement of biological half-lives (per in vivo sampling) following an inadvertent uptake of toxins

C: Colorimetry is the process of using glass tube-like instrumentation to determine whether contaminants are present in a medium via changes in color to indicator materials present within the instrumentation.

Which of the following is NOT one of Heinrich's Ten Axioms of Workplace Safety? a. Knowledge of why people work unsafely can assist in producing appropriate corrective measures. b. Most accidents are the result of unsafe worker behavior. c. Accident prevention strategies usually function independently of production and quality strategies. d. Management usually plays a pivotal role in the realm of accident prevention.

C: Heinrich's Ten Axioms of Workplace Safety include: knowing why people work unsafely can assist in producing appropriate corrective measures; most accidents are usually correlated to unsafe worker behavior; and management usually plays a pivotal role in the realm of accident prevention. Additional axioms include: unsafe worker actions do not always quickly result in an incident; safety should be the ultimate responsibility of management; and most accidents are in fact, preventable.

What kind of reaction is evidenced by a fuel and an oxidizer igniting on contact without the need of an outside source of ignition? A. Hysteretic B. Hygroscopic C. Hypergolic D. Cryogenic

C: Hypergolic refers to a fuel that will ignite with an oxidizer but does not require an outside source of ignition

If a data point is found to be a 2nd percentile value on a normal Gaussian distribution, what standard-deviation (σ) range below the mean does this value lie within? a. 0σ - 1σ b. 1σ - 2σ c. 2σ - 3σ d. 3σ - 4σ

C: If a data point is found to be a 2nd percentile value on a normal Gaussian distribution, it falls within the 2σ - 3σ standard-deviation range. This range accounts for data points that lie between percentile ranges of 0.3 percent to 5 percent and 95 percent to 99.7 percent.

How should leading indicators of safety, health and environmental performance best be used in a safety, health and environmental program? A. Sparingly B. By trained safety, health and environmental professionals C. As part of the normal line performance and accountability process D. As part of an audit program

C: Measures of safety performance should be a normal part of the line safety function. Managers should expect subordinate supervisors to carry out their safety-related responsibilities in the same way they carry out their production-related responsibilities.

Which of the following machine components typically do NOT create potential nip points? a. Gears b. Pulleys c. Axles d. Belts

C: Nip-point hazards (in which body parts or clothing can become ensnared) are inherently associated with the functionality of many machine components, especially those that rotate toward one another or toward a stationary component. Examples of nip-prone items include gears, pulleys, rollers, belts, and bearings.

What is the minimum required net efficiency for a filtration system to be categorized as high-efficiency particulate arrestance (HEPA), per U.S. Department of Energy standards? a. 99.93 percent; > 3μm diameter b. 99.95 percent; > 1μm diameter c. 99.97 percent; > 3μm diameter d. 99.99 percent; > 1μm diameter

C: Per U.S. Department of Energy standards, the minimum required net efficiency for a filtration system to be categorized as high-efficiency particulate arrestance (HEPA) is 99.97 percent, with particles greater than 3μm in diameter.

Which type of sprinkler system is designed primarily to protect properties when there is danger of serious water damage, resulting from damaged automatic sprinklers or broken sprinkler piping? A. On/off sprinkler system B. Dry pipe system C. Precaution system D. Dry pipe system equipped with exhauster

C: Precaution systems are typically found in environments that have computers or communications equipment, museums or other facilities where an inadvertent discharge of water is a major concern.

From what type of occupational activity is Raynoud's phenomenon a characteristic sign? A. Standing for long periods of time B. Sitting for long periods of time C. Using vibrating tools D. Welding aluminum

C: Raynaud's phenomenon is characterized by white knuckles and fingers and can be brought on by exposure to cold or by the use of vibrating tools

Which of the following is NOT typically considered a key feature of a robust ergonomic chair design? a. a five-point-base stability b. variable seat-height ranges c. cushioned/flexible lumbar supports d. adjustable backrests

C: Several characteristics are typically considered as key features of a robust ergonomic chair design, including a five-point-base stability (as opposed to three-point), variable seat-height ranges, and adjustable backrests. Lumbar supports are most effective when they are relatively firm in nature (yet comfortable), usually composed of semi-rigid plastics or mesh. Soft-cushion-type lumbar supports often do not provide enough support to targeted lower-back areas.

Which of the following does the U.S. Department of Transportation NOT normally regulate in regard to HAZMAT transport? a. Incident reports b. Quantities per shipment c. Material dilution d. Packaging requirements

C: The U.S. Department of Transportation (USDOT) normally regulates the following with regard to HAZMAT transportation: incident reports, allowable quantities per shipment, packaging requirements, allowable transportation modes, routing requirements, labeling requirements, shipment documentation, and required training. USDOT is not responsible for dilution or any other mode of processing for HAZMATs.

Combustion point (or ignition temperature) is defined as the temperature at which: a. a volatile gas will explode b. one watt of heat is produced per cm3 of burned fuel c. a fuel erupts into flame d. a volatile material is in equilibrium phase between gas and flammable vapor

C: The combustion point (or ignition temperature) for a fuel is defined as the temperature at which the fuel erupts into flame.

The wavelength of the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum extends from .................... nanometers A. 100 to 280 B. 170 to 400 C.400 to 780 D.780 to 1400

C: The visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is form 400 to 780 nm. This is important to know in laser safety, since a person's aversion reflex (blink/ turn-away reflex) is based on the visible spectrum of light. Laser energy entering the eye operating outside these wavelengths will not cause a person to blink or turn away

Which of the following is NOT true with regard to hazardous wastes? a. Some hazardous wastes can be recycled and reused. b. Hazardous wastes are permitted to be stored in open pools or piles. c. Hazardous wastes may regularly be combined with other waste types, as deemed applicable. d. Hazardous wastes are regularly categorized as toxic, corrosive, and/or flammable.

C: There are numerous elements to be aware of in regard to the control and management of hazardous waste materials: many forms of hazardous waste can be recycled and ultimately reused; hazardous wastes are permitted to be stored in open pools or piles; hazardous wastes are typically categorized as toxic, corrosive, reactive, and/or flammable; and hazardous wastes should always be separately (independently) contained, treated, stored, and dispensed.

There are presently five (5) separate classes of fire extinguisher technologies available in modern-day industry that are designed to handle different types of fires. What are the five alpha-based codes that denote these classes? a. A-B-C-F-X b. A-B-C-Q-Z c. A-B-C-D-K d. A-B-C-G-O

C: There are presently five (5) separate classes of fire extinguisher technologies available in modern-day industry, each designed to handle a different type of fire. The five alpha-based codes that denote these classes are A, B, C, D, and K. Class A is for typical combustibles such as wood, paper, and plastic, and is symbolized by a green triangle; Class B is for combustible liquids such as gasoline, oil, and grease, and is symbolized by a red square; Class C is for live electrical equipment and is symbolized by a blue circle; Class D is for combustible metals such as sodium, potassium, and magnesium, and is symbolized by a yellow decagon; and Class K is for cooking oils/fats and is symbolized by a black hexagon.

What is typically NOT deemed a vital component of workstation proper seating posture? a. Keeping one's chin down b. Forearms should be kept parallel to the floor c. Maintaining a computer screen distance of at least 28" for a 20/20 vision line of sight d. Both feet should be kept flat on the floor

C: There are several conventional key components of proper seating posture within workstation environments, including keeping one's chin down, maintaining the forearms in a parallel configuration to the floor, and keeping both feet flat on the floor (if possible); footrests may be used as appropriate, however, to facilitate proper posture and worker comfort. Appropriate computer screen distances in the range of 16" to 28" should be regularly exercised.

A key preventive measure for avoiding or reducing the consequences of an explosion incident is to employ the use of ___________________. a. material accountability custodians b. an explosive material disposal (EMD) plan c. explosive dust sniffers/detectors d. barriers and distance

D: A key preventive measure for avoiding or reducing the consequences of an explosion incident is to employ the use of barriers and distance. Materials that can robustly blockade and contain explosive blasts (e.g., concrete bunkers) usually can absorb a large percentage of detonation energies as well as airborne projectiles resulting from such blasts. In addition, in most cases, the greater the distance from a subject explosion, the lesser the incurred human impact

What internal organ would exposure to a chemical labeled a nephrotoxin target? A. Liver B. Brain C. Heart D. Kidney

D: A nephrotoxin targets the kidneys. There is other types of agents that target specific organs or have specific detrimental effects on the human body. Hemotoxins: target the red blood cells Hepatoxins: target the liver Neurotoxin: target nerve cells

Which of the following is generally NOT true with regard to building evacuation plans? a. Plans should be designed so that personnel still know where to exit in virtual total darkness. b. Plans should include use of alarm systems as a mode of communication. c. Plans should specify locations of outdoor mustering areas. d. Plans should include procedures on how to activate emergency response teams in tandem with an evacuation.

D: Building evacuation plans should be designed so that personnel still know where to exit in virtual total darkness; they should include the use of alarm systems as a mode of communication; and should specify locations of outdoor mustering areas. Emergency response plans/protocols usually separately address items related to emergency response team activations.

In an explosion, fragment damage is affected by the a. force of the explosion b. heat of the explosion c.length of time the explosion occurs d.material involved in the explosion

D: Fragment damage occurs when pieces of material involved in the explosion scatter rapidly through the air. The amount of the scatter depends on the material involved: Glass breaks and scatters easily, whereas tougher materials do not scatter as much but may fly farther.

Which of the following is TRUE with regard to high-explosive (HE) material? a. HEs include petroleum-based incendiary bombs. b. HEs typically only undergo deflagration after detonation. c. HEs do not generate categorical blast waves. d. HEs typically produce a supersonic over-pressurization shock wave after detonation.

D: High-explosive (HE) material entails numerous characteristics that distinguish it from other types of explosive materials (e.g., low-explosive [LE] material). Namely, HEs typically produce a supersonic over-pressurization shock wave after detonation, and they usually generate categorical blast waves by convention. Examples of HEs include trinitrotoluene, nitroglycerin, pentaerythritol tetranitrate, and dynamite.

If a business acquires a loan for $100,000 and has agreed to pay it back over 10 years in equal monthly installments at a fixed 5 percent annualized interest rate, approximately how much will the resulting monthly payments be? a. $932 b. $991 c. $1,027 d. $1,061

D: If a business acquires a loan for $100,000 and has agreed to pay it back over 10 years in equal monthly installments at a fixed 5 percent annualized interest rate, the resulting monthly payments will be approximately $1,061. This is derived via the formula... where P is the monthly payment amount, L is the original loan amount ($100,000), i is the annualized interest rate divided by 12 months (0.05/12 = 0.0041667), and n is the total number of monthly payments (120):

In regard to effluent particulate matter released from stacks and other sources, what does the term AMAD conventionally refer to? a. Airborne material ascension dispersion b. Atmospheric measurement adiabatic device c. Allowable modelled atmospheric dilution d. Activity median aerodynamic diameter

D: In regard to effluent particulate matter (especially, radiological effluents) released from stacks and other sources, the term AMAD conventionally refers to a particle's activity median aerodynamic diameter, and is a key parameter used in contaminant dispersion modeling and human uptake assessments.

What is necessary when working with Class 3B lasers? A. Protective eyewear with blast resistance B. Protective eyewear with harmonic protection C. protective eyewear with heat resistance D. Protective eyewear based on the emitted wavelength

D: Laser eyewear must be selected with the specific laser wavelength in mind.

Which of the following is usually NOT associated with the instigation of potential chemical skin burns/irritation? a. Sodium hydroxide b. Degreasers c. Paint thinners d. Potassium chloride

D: Many readily accessible chemicals and agents can be associated with the instigation of chemical burns; such materials typically include numerous acids and bases, detergents, degreasers, solvents, harsh soaps, and cleansers.

Which type of dry chemical material is most suitable for extinguishing fires fueled by ordinary combustibles such as paper and cardboard? A. Sodium chloride B. Potassium chloride C. Potassium bicarbonate D. Ammonium phosphate

D: Of the four listed dry chemicals, only ammonium phosphate is a listed chemical for using on fires with ordinary combustibles as the fuel.

Per EPA guidelines, which of the following is NOT typically designated as an essential element of a robust environmental management system (EMS)? a. Maintaining employee environmental-related competencies and knowledge b. Regularly assessing associated EMS legal requirements c. Regularly reviewing an organization's environmental objectives d. Implementing corrective-action protocols in support of continuous improvement initiatives

D: Per EPA guidelines, a robust environmental management system (EMS) can entail several distinct elements, including maintaining/sustaining employee environmental related competencies and knowledge bases, regularly assessing associated EMS legal requirements, regularly evaluating potential environmental impacts associated with the EMS, and regularly reviewing an organization's environmental objectives.

Which of the following is NOT an acknowledged safety advantage associated with the use of head PPE, such as hard-hats, hoods, helmets, and soft caps? a. Head/hair hygiene and sanitation b. Protection from hair catching on fire c. Protection from hair being caught in machinery d. Protection from laser light

D: Safety features/benefits associated with the use of head PPE, such as hard-hats, hoods, helmets, and soft caps, include head/hair hygiene and sanitation; protection from hair catching on fire; protection from hair being caught in machinery; and blunt-trauma protection. Protection from laser light is not associated with the aforementioned types of head PPE and can only be attained through the use of specially coated visors with laser-light shielding

What predictive analytical method is designated by the acronym THERP? A. Circuit redundancy B. Fault probability C. Failure modes D. Human error

D: The acronym THERP (pronounced "Thurp") stands for Technique for Human Error Rate Prediction. It is a quantitative method for estimating the probability of human error occurring during a process step or sequence of steps

Who is responsible and accountable for ensuring that an employee wears the proper personal protective equipment while at work? A. The safety management B. The employee C. The employee's union D. The employee's employer

D: The employee's employer is responsible and accountable for ensuring that an employee is wearing appropriate personal protective equipment. Though a safety manager may be part of the employer, line supervision should be responsible and accountable for ensuring that personal protective equipment is donned and is the type appropriate for the work.

When a volcano erupts nearby, what hazard can engulf an entire town with little warning? A. Cyclonic event B. Lava C. Seismic event D. Pyroclastic flow

D: The pyroclastic flow (also called the pyroclastic density current) is the hot gases and ash that flows down the side of a volcano at very high speeds

Which of the following is typically NOT included as part of an annual fire-extinguisher maintenance inspection? a. ensuring adequate levels (volumes) of extinguishing agent are present b. ensuring that all external components are in serviceable condition c. verification of adequate canister pressure levels d. hydrostatic testing

D: There are several items that are normally included as part of an annual fire extinguisher maintenance inspection: ensuring that adequate levels (volumes) of extinguishing agent are present in the extinguisher, ensuring that all of the extinguisher's external components are in serviceable condition, and verifying the adequacy of extinguisher pressure levels

Which of the following is usually NOT designated as a key aspect/factor when designing an optimal ergonomic environment for older/aging workers? a. enhanced lighting/illumination b. accommodating posture changes/deterioration c. providing power grips d. use of large computer display terminals

D: There are several key aspects/factors that are normally considered when designing an optimal ergonomic environment for older/aging workers; these typically include enhanced lighting/illumination in subject work areas, accommodating posture changes/deterioration by providing state-of-the-art ergonomic seating/chairs, and providing hand tools that have power grips to compensate for lost strength and dexterity.

Which of the following mitigation technologies is NOT known to effectively eradicate water contaminants? a. ultraviolet light b. cuno filters c. ozonation d. enzymatic reduction

D: There are several mitigation technologies used in industry that effectively eradicate water contaminants such as bacteria, unwanted minerals, and toxic chemicals; such technologies include the use of ultraviolet light, cuno filters, ozone, and chlorination.

Which of the following is NOT true with regard to the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA)? a. CERCLA establishes prohibitions and requirements concerning closed and abandoned hazardous waste sites. b. CERCLA provides for liability of persons responsible for releases of hazardous material at closed and abandoned hazardous waste sites. c. CERCLA has an established trust fund to provide for cleanup when no responsible party can be identified. d. CERCLA was amended by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) in 2004.

D: There are several pertinent facets supporting the promulgation and execution of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA), the primary of which include the Act establishes prohibitions and requirements concerning closed and abandoned hazardous waste sites; provides for liability of persons responsible for releases of hazardous material at closed and abandoned hazardous waste sites; and has an established trust fund to provide for cleanup when no responsible party can be identified (commonly known as the Superfund).

Which of the following is typically NOT utilized as an established ergonomic work practice control? a. work hardening b. job rotations c. work conditioning d. task tiering

D: There are several tactics that are regularly employed in industry as ergonomic work-practice controls; these include such strategies as work hardening (a rehabilitation oriented work mode intended to gradually restore an injured worker's functionality), work conditioning (use of specific conditioning and strengthening tasks to help restore an injured worker's functionality), and job rotations.

Which of the following classifications is NOT typically utilized for categorizing deficiencies noted during an environmental management system internal audit? a. Opportunities for improvement (observations) b. Conditions adverse to quality (nonconformances) c. Corrective actions (areas for concern) d. Violations (breaches of protocol)

D: There are usually three separate classification levels utilized for categorizing deficiencies noted during an environmental management system internal audit. These are (in order of severity) conditions adverse to quality (non-conformances), corrective actions (areas for concern), and opportunities for improvement (observations). In addition, noteworthy practices can also be highlighted as a benchmark or guide for helping implement potential improvements in needed areas.

Which is a form of non-ionizing radiation? A. Alpha B. X-ray C. Gamma D. Ultraviolet

D: Ultraviolet

Which of the following is NOT a typical benefit associated with the use of ventilation systems? a. they help reduce the buildup of CO2 b. they help reduce levels of dust c. they help keep flammable vapor concentrations below hazardous thresholds d. they help reduce localized noble gas levels (e.g., argon)

D: Ventilation systems are designed to provide a number of benefits to indoor working environments; namely, they help reduce the buildup of CO2, help reduce levels of dust, help keep air temperatures at comfortable levels, reduce unpleasant ambient odors, and help maintain flammable vapor concentrations, as well as contaminant levels, below hazardous thresholds.

Which of the following is generally NOT true with regard to worksite safety inspections? a. Inspectors are typically independent entities that do not have a direct affiliation with the organization or entity undergoing inspection. b. Inspections are usually conducted by personnel who have robust knowledge, training, and/or experience within the subject area undergoing inspection. c. Inspections can either be scheduled or unscheduled. d. Inspections, by design, should always be detail oriented in nature.

D: Worksite safety inspections are usually conducted by inspectors who are independent entities that do not have a direct affiliation with the organization or entity being inspected, and are likewise typically conducted by personnel who have robust knowledge, training, and/or experience within the subject area undergoing inspection. Moreover, inspections can be either scheduled or unscheduled, and can be either detail-oriented OR generalized in nature.

Per trenching-safety program protocols, if a six-foot-deep trench is dug in a gravelsand environment, what angle must the trench wall(s) not exceed? a. 46 degrees b. 40 degrees c. 34 degrees d. 28 degrees

Per trenching-safety program protocols, if a six-feet deep trench is dug in type-C materials (e.g., gravel and/or sand), the trench wall(s) must not exceed an angle of 34 degrees

The battery pack of a pocket calculator has a voltage of 3.0V and delivers a current of 0.17mA. How much charge flows through through the circuit in one hour of operation? a. 0.61 C b 0.17 C c. 0.51 C d. 0.51 C e. 4.7 x 10^-5 C

a. 0.61 C Charge = Current x Time 1 A x s = 1 C

Wire strain gauges are based on the fact that: a. The resistance of a wire is proportional to its length. b. If you apply strain to a wire, stress will result and the resistance of the wire will quadruple. c. The resistance of a wire is inversely proportional to its length. d. The resistance of a wire is proportional to its diameter. e. The resistance of a wire is inversely proportional to its diameter.

a. The resistance of a wire is proportional to its length.

_____________________ is an increase in the intra-pericardial pressure due to excessive fluid buildup in the pericardial space. a. tension pneumothorax b. decompression sickness c. cardiac tamponade d. shock e. cardiogenic shock

c. cardiac tamponade

Consider two aluminum wires. Wire #1 has a length L and a cross-sectional area A. Wire #2 has a length 2L and a cross-sectional area A/3. Determine the ratio of the resistivity of wire #1 to the resistivity of wire #2. a. 1/6 b. 1/18 c. 6 d. 1 e. 3/2

d. 1 Resistance is proportional to Length Resistance is inversely proportional to Cross Sectional Area RESISTIVITY is a property that is solely material dependent