ATI
Contraindication for sumatriptan
(Vasocontrictor) Angina pectoris, uncontrolled HTN, CAD, ischemic heart disease
Intradermal injection guidelines
- 0.5-5/8 in. length of needle - 25-27 gauge - 5 to 15 degree angle of needle - inner surface of forearm (hairless) - skin taut, look for wheal, no rubbing, no aspirating - 0.01 to 0.1 mL
Intramuscular injection guidelines
- 1-1.5 in. length of needle (1/2 inch for child, 2-3 inch for obese pt) - 20-25 gauge - 90 degree - Deltoid, ventrogluteal, vastus lateralis, rectus femoris (pediatrics), dorsogluteal - skin taut (unless limited muscle mass, then pinch), aspirate, remove needle and start over if blood appears in syringe -2-3 mL
Subcutaneous injection guidelines
- 3/8 to 5/8 in. length of needle (may need 1 inch for large patient) - 25-27 gauge - 45 to 90 degree - upper arm, thigh, abdomen, gluteal, scapula - pinch up tissue, no aspirating, no rubbing - Maximum 1.5 mL
Raloxifene
- Can lower the risk off breast cancer in menopausal pts - Should not take prior to periods of immobility
Findings from combining anesthetic agents with opioids
- Decrease RR - Low O2
Furosemide education
- Eat foods high in potassium - Report indications of hearing loss - Educate to rise slowly - Should be taken early in day - Check wt daily
Amiodarone Education
- Get liver enzyme tests periodically - Report development of jaundice - Side effects include optic neuropathy and optic neuritis - Can cause loss of appetite/constipation - Can cause CNS manifestations including confusion, hallucinations, dizziness, and insomnia
Hydrochlorothiazide side effect
- Hyperglycemia and other electrolyte imbalances
DKA symptoms
- Kussmaul breathing, increased serum potassium, decreased pH, hyperglycemia (>300 mg/dL)
Tamoxifen education
- Monitor calcium level for hypercalcemia (elevated BP and pulse) - Monitor for pulmonary embolus - Advise for potential of menstrual irregularities and hot flashes
Education about Warfarin
- Monitor intake of foods high in vitamin K ex. green leafy veggies, cabbage, broccoli, mayo, and canola - Oral contraceptives will decrease anticoagulant effects - Concurrent use of glucocorticoids should be avoided
Indications of fluid imbalance
- Oliguria - Cap refill > 5 seconds - Sunken eyes
Ketorolac side effects
- Oliguria (renal insufficiency, renal toxicity) - Dry mouth - Altered taste
Ciprofloxacin (and other fluoroquinolone) side effects
- Phototoxicity - Muscle weakness - N/V/D - Hepatotoxicity
Esomeprazole education
- Take 30 mins before meal - Side effects include headache, constipation, dry mouth, diarrhea
Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
- Treats hyperkalemia by excreting serum potassium
Corticosteroids Side Effects
- Truncal obesity (Cushing's syndrome - fluid retention, HTN, wt gain, fat redistribution - moon face, buffalo hump, susceptible to infection, hyperglycemia, osteoporosis, menstrual irregularities, thin fragile skin, hirsutism) - Osteoporosis - Susceptibility to infection
Digoxin Education
- Will cause heart to beat slower, contact provider if experiencing visual changes or excessive nausea
Normal specific gravity
1.010-1.030
How much should overweight women (BMI 26-29) gain during pregnancy?
15-25 pounds
How much weight should women with a normal BMI (19.8-26) gain during pregnancy?
25-35 pounds
How much should women who are below optimal weight (BMI < 19.8) gain during pregnancy?
28-40 pounds
How many additional calories should a pregnant patient consume?
300 calories a day more than pre-pregnancy 2,200 calories daily for most active women and teens 1,600 for sedentary women Protein: 60-80 g/day Iron: 18-30 g/day Folate: 400-600 g/day
How much weight should women carrying twins gain during pregnancy?
35-45 pounds
Normal HgA1C for diabetic
4-6%
Normal range for albumin
4.5-5.0 g/100mL
How much weight should women carrying triplets gain?
50 pounds
Normal fasting glucose range for diabetic
90-130 mg/dL
Normal HgA1C
<7%
Meds for Diabetes Insipidus
ADH Replacement Demopressin Acetate, ADH Stimulant Carbamazepine, Vasopressin
Atropine
Accelerates the HR by interfering with vagal impulses
Medications to treat glaucoma
Acetazolamide, Timolol maleate
What value should be monitored with TPN?
Albumin
Metformin is contraindicated with
Alcohol use disorder
Most important side effect to monitor with TCAs
Arrhythmias
Acyclovir nursing action
Assess for increase in creatinine
Where does the extra weight go during pregnancy?
Baby: 7-8 lbs Placenta: 1-2 lbs Amniotic fluid: 2 lbs Uterus: 2 lbs Maternal breast tissue: 2 lbs Maternal blood: 4 lbs Fluids in maternal tissue: 4 lbs Maternal fat and nutrient stores: 7 lbs
Syphilis medication
Benzathine penicillin G
Education for pt with rheumatoid arthritis receiving methotrexate
CBC should be monitored
What med should be given when a pt has Trousseau's sign?
Calcium glutinate
Nursing intervention when performing trach care
Change tracheostomy ties when soiled
Education for pts receiving ondansetron for chemo
Combinations of antiemetics are usually more effective than single-med therapy - serotonin antagonist (ondansetron) with corticosteroid (dexamethasone)
Therapeutic response to digoxin for MI
Decrease in pulmonary crackles
Water Deprivation Test
Dehydration is induced by withholding fluid. Urine output is measured and tested hourly. Test positive if kidneys are unable to concentrate urine
Education for patient with gout starting allopurinol
Drink 2-3 L of water to prevent kidney injury
Side effects of Acetazolamide
Electrolyte imbalance, respiratory acidosis, diarrhea, black tarry stools, nephrolithiasis, myopia, tinnitus, paresthesias, photosensitivity, anorexia, drowsiness
If a patient doesn't accept blood products what can be given
Epoetin Alfa
Med for maintenance of BP and sodium imbalance for pts with adrenocortical insufficiency
Fludrocortisone
What med should be given to counteract benzodiazepines?
Flumazenil
Foods appropriate for Chron's disease
Foods that are appropriate for clients with Crohn's Disease include: Tender, ground, well-cooked meat, eggs, fish, poultry, refined pasta and cereal, white rice and bread, canned or cooked vegetables without skin or seeds and juices without pulp.
Hypocalcemia signs
Fractures, seizures, Trousseau's sign (Hand finger spasms with sustained BP cuff inflation
Patient is in DKA what is most appropriate to administer?
Glucagon
Medication to help prevent N/V for chemo pts
Granisetron
What is didanosine used for?
HIV
When do you hold atenolol?
HR <50
Med that causes gingival hyperplasia
Haloperidol
Patient with digoxin sees objects with a yellowish tint and is nauseated
Hold the med and call provider
Important to monitor before giving lisinopril (side effect)
Hyperkalemia
Ginkgo with warfarin
Increases the effects - don't take ginkgo with warfarin
Potential adverse effect of glucocorticoids
Infection - watch for temperature of 100.5 degrees Fahrenheit
Vasopressin Test
Is positive when a SQ injection of vasopressin produces urine output with an increased specific gravity
Somatropin
Monitor child's height monthly, hypo/hyperglycemia
Anti-infective that inhibits bacteria growth
Moxifloxacin
Side effect of spironalactone
Muscle weakness - indications of hyperkalemia including dysrhymias
Medications associated with gastric irritation and peptic ulcers
NSAIDs such as naproxen - gastric irritation Corticosteroids - such as prednisone
PT & INR
PT: 11-12.5 seconds INR: 2-3 (norm: 0.8-1.1)
Antidote for Heparin
Protamine sulfate
Diabetes Insipidus
Results from a deficiency of ADH, secreted by the posterior pituitary gland that leads to a large quantity of diluted urine
First action when administering a medication that wasn't prescribed
Review possible side effects
How often should cromolyn be taken?
Routinely, usually 3-4 times per day, within 1 hr prior to physical activity (ideally 10-15 mins before)
Medications to avoid taking with glaucoma
Scopolamine, Methylphenidate, Diphenhydramine
What should be reported immediately when a patient is taking buproprion?
Seizures
What med should be given to tx metabolic acidosis?
Sodium bicarbonate
Monitor with Lithium
Sodium loss - diuretics should be questioned
How is mannitol administered?
Syringe, filter needle, IV filter tubing
What side effect should be monitored for with use of oral albuterol?
Tachycardia and dysrhythmias
Aluminum Hydroxide Gel
To bind phosphate in food and stop phosphate absorption
Patient with preterm labor is prescribed nifedipine. Why?
To relax muscles of uterus
Advice to pt when giving nitroglycerin to tx angina
To sit or lie down
Side effect that would indicate adverse reaction to gentamicin sulfate
Urinary output of 185 mL in 8 hr shift
Labs for Diabetes Insipidus
Urine - DILUTE - specific gravity: <1.005, decreased urine pH, Na, K Serum Chemistry - CONCENTRATED >300 Osm/L, increased Na and K Decreased ADH
Best site for 10 mg IM injection of morphine sulfate
Ventrogluteal
Antidote for Warfarin
Vitamin K
Side effects from Ipratropium
Xerostomia (anticholinergic effects)
A nurse is teaching parents how care for their newborn. Which of the following statements indicates a good understanding of how to use a bulb syringe to suction excess mucous from the infant's airway? Select one: a. "I should suction my baby's mouth before the nose." b. "I should compress the bulb syringe after I place it in my baby's mouth." c. "The bulb syringe should be sterilized after each use." d. "The bulb syringe should reach to the back of my baby's throat."
a. "I should suction my baby's mouth before the nose."
A nurse is reviewing a client's lab results. Which finding would lead the nurse to suspect the client is experiencing dehydration? Select one: a. Hematocrit 55% b. Serum sodium 130 mEq/L An increased serum sodium level (> 145 MEq/L) is anticipated in a client who is dehydrated. c. Urine specific gravity of 1.025 d. BUN 20mg/100mL
a. Hematocrit 55%
A client is admitted to the surgical unit after sustaining a compound fracture of the left femur. The client is alert and oriented with the following vital signs: T 99.4 F, P 88, R 20, B/P 94/58. The nurse notes a 4 cm. area of bright red blood on the pressure dressing on the left lower extremity. The client is receiving intravenous fluids of normal saline at 150 ml/hr. One hour after being admitted to the unit, the nurse finds the client confused and combative. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the change in the client's condition? Select one: a. Hypoxia related to fat embolism from the fractured bone. b. Fluid overload related to aggressive isotonic volume replacement c. Hypovolemic shock related to hemorrhage from the open wound d. Infectious process related to contamination of the open wound. Feedback
a. Hypoxia related to fat embolism from the fractured bone.
A nurse is orienting a newly licensed nurse to the operating room. Which of the following actions by the new nurse indicates a need for further education about surgical aseptic hand hygiene? Select one: a. Rinsing hands and arms while keeping them lower than elbows. b. Lathering hand and arms with soap to 5 cm (2 inches) above the elbows c. Cleaning under nails of both hands with a nail pick while under running water. d. Drying with a sterile towel moving from the hands to the elbows.
a. Rinsing hands and arms while keeping them lower than elbows.
A nurse has administered the first DTaP (diphtheria toxoid, tetanus and pertussis) immunization to a two-month-old infant. For which of the following symptoms should the nurse teach the parents to seek immediate medical attention? Select one: a. The baby is crying inconsolably for more than three hours b. The baby develops swelling or redness at the injection site c. The baby develops a localized or generalized rash d. The baby has an axillary temperature of 100.4o F. (38o C)
a. The baby is crying inconsolably for more than three hours
aPTT PTT
aPTT: 60-80 seconds (1.5-2.5x the normal value of 30-40 seconds) PTT: 60-70 seconds
A nurse is caring for a client when the IV infusion pump malfunctions and delivers 1 Liter of IV fluid over 2 hours. Which intervention is the priority? Select one: a. Monitor urine output. b. Fill out an incident report. c. Report the defective equipment. d. Document the amount of fluid infused.
b. Fill out an incident report
A nurse is teaching lifestyle modifications to a client diagnosed with hypertension. Which of the following statements made by the client indicates a need for further teaching? Select one: a. "We have a glass of wine a couple of times a week with dinner." b. "Losing weight is so hard, but so far I am losing 2 pounds a week." c. "I will substitute mushrooms for the bacon in my daily omelets." d. "I don't like to walk, but I do aerobics and work out at the gym during the week."
c. "I will substitute mushrooms for the bacon in my daily omelets."
A nurse is caring for a client following a right below the knee amputation. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care to prevent infection? Select one: a. Encourage the client to lie prone for 20-30 minutes several times a day. b. Encourage the client to lie supine for 20-30 minutes several times a day. c. Position the affected limb in a dependent position. d. Position the affected limb elevated on a pillow.
c. Position the affected limb in a dependent position.
A newly-licensed nurse is preparing the surgical suite for a client who has a latex allergy. Which action demonstrates a need for further education? Select one: a. Placing monitoring devices in stockinet. b. Using glass syringes. c. Scheduling the case late in the day. d. Covering IV tubing ports with tape.
c. Scheduling the case late in the day
A nurse is caring for a client with Addison's disease. Which of the following diets should the nurse teach the client to follow? Select one: a. Low Sodium, high potassium and decreased fluids. b. High Sodium, low calcium and increased fluids. c. Low Sodium, high calcium and decreased fluids. d. High Sodium, low potassium and increased fluids.
d. High Sodium, low potassium and increased fluids.
A client has just returned to the surgical unit after an open cholestectomy. A nurse notes the abdominal dressing is saturated with sanguineous drainage. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention? Select one: a. Remove the dressing to assess the incision. b. Document the assessment findings. c. Outline the drainage size with a marker. d. Reinforce the dressing with additional gauze.
d. Reinforce the dressing with additional gauze.
A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of sepsis with a temperature of 40.8 C (105.5 F). The provider has ordered a cooling blanket. Which intervention is appropriate to delegate to an Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP)? a. Obtain a fan for the client's use b. Assess the client's skin for any reddened c. Bathe the client to keep the skin damp d. Report shivering by the client
d. Report shivering by the client
When the nurse takes morning medications to a client, the client states "I've never seen that one before." Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take? Select one: a. Recheck the medication with the medication administration record (MAR). b. Tell the client that the medication must be new and to go ahead and take it. c. Administer the rest of the medications and recheck the one that was questioned. d. Return to the nurse's station and check all medications against provider orders
d. Return to the nurse's station and check all medications against provider orders
A nurse correctly understands which of the following characteristics is a possible developmental delay for a 3-month-old client? Select one: a. The infant is unable to point to objects b. The infant is unable to sit with support c. The infant demonstrates stranger anxiety d. The infant does not raise his head when placed on his abdomen
d. The infant does not raise his head when placed on his abdomen