ATI: Cardiovascular and Hematology

A nurse is providing teaching about lifestyle changes to a client who had a myocardial infarction and has a new prescription for a beta blocker. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

"Before taking my medication, I will count my radial pulse rate." A beta blocker will induce bradycardia. The client should take her pulse rate for 1 min before self-administration.

A nurse is caring for a client who is in hypovolemic shock. While waiting for a unit of blood, the nurse should administer which of the following IV solutions?

0.9% sodium chloride Solutions of 0.9% sodium chloride, as well as Lactated Ringer's solution, are used for fluid volume replacement. Sodium chloride, a crystalloid, is a physiologic isotonic solution that replaces lost volume in the blood stream and is the only solution to use when infusing blood products.

A nurse is preparing to transfuse 250 mL of packed red blood cells (RBCs) to a client over 4 hr. Available is a blood administration set that delivers 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual blood transfusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

10 gtt/min Dimensional Analysis STEP 1: What is the unit of measurement the nurse should calculate? gtt/min STEP 2: What is the quantity of the drop factor that is available? 10 gtt/mL STEP 3: What is the total infusion time? 4 hr STEP 4: What is the volume the nurse should infuse? 250 mL STEP 5: Should the nurse convert the units of measurement? Yes (hr does not equal min) 1 hr/60 min STEP 6: Set up an equation and solve for X. X gtt/min = Quantity/1 mL x Conversion (hr)/Conversion (min) x Volume (mL)/Time (min) X gtt/min = 10 gtt/1 mL x 1 hr/60 min x 250 mL/240 min X = 10.4 gtt/min STEP 7: Round if necessary. 10.4 gtt/min = 10 gtt/min STEP 8: Reassess to determine whether the amount to administer makes sense. If the prescription reads packed RBCs (250 mL) X 10 gtt/mL to infuse over 240 min, it makes sense to administer 10 gtt/min. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver packed cells (250 mL) to infuse at 10 gtt/min.

A nurse is caring for a client who has an abdominal aortic aneurysm and is scheduled for surgery. The client's vital signs are blood pressure 160/98 mm Hg, heart rate 102/min, respirations 22/min, and SpO2 95%. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Administer antihypertensive medication for blood pressure. The nurse should administer antihypertensive medication for the elevated blood pressure because hypertension can cause a sudden rupture of the aneurysm due to pressure on the arterial wall.

A nurse is preparing an automated external defibrillator (AED) for a client receiving CPR after a cardiac arrest. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?

Apply the defibrillator pads to the client's chest

A nurse on a telemetry unit is caring for a client who has an irregular pulse. Which of the following ECG abnormalities should the nurse recognize as atrial flutter?

Atrial rate of 300/min with QRS complex of 80/min The nurse should interpret this finding as atrial flutter, which indicates a lack of conduction between the atria and ventricles. The additional atrial beats are not conducting.

A nurse is assessing for cardiac tamponade on a client who had coronary artery bypass grafts. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Auscultation blood pressure for pulses paradoxus. The client who has cardiac tamponade will have pulsus paradoxus when the systolic blood pressure is at least 10 mm Hg higher on expiration than on inspiration. This occurs because of the sudden decrease in cardiac output from the fluid compressing the atria and ventricles.

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

BNP of 200 pg/mL

A nurse is completing an assessment for a client who has a history of unstable angina. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Chest pain lasts longer than 15 min. The client who has unstable angina will have chest pain lasting longer than 15 min. This is due to the reduced blood flow in a coronary artery due to atherosclerotic plaque and thrombus formation causing partial arterial obstruction, or from an artery spasm.

A nurse is caring for a client who had a myocardial infarction 5 days ago. The client has a sudden onset of shortness of breath and begins coughing frothy, pink sputum. The nurse auscultates loud, bubbly sounds on inspiration. Which of the following adventitious breath sounds should the nurse document?

Coarse crackles A client who had a recent myocardial infarction is at risk for left-sided heart failure. Crackles are breath sounds caused by movement of air through airways partially or intermittently occluded with fluid and are associated with heart failure and frothy sputum. Crackling sounds are heard at the end of inspiration and are not cleared by coughing.

A nurse us assessing a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Dependent edema Blood return from the venous system to the right atrium is impaired by a weakened right heart. The subsequent systemic venous backup leads to development of dependent edema.

A nurse in a clinic is assessing the lower extremities and ankles of a client who has a history of peripheral artery disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Dry, pale skin with minimal body hair A client who has peripheral arterial disease can display dry, scaly, pale, or mottled skin with minimal body hair because of narrowing of the arteries in the legs and feet. This causes a decrease in blood flow to the distal extremities, which can lead to tissue damage. Common manifestations are intermittent claudication (leg pain with exercise), cold or numb feet at rest, loss of hair on the lower legs, and weakened pulses.

A nurse is assessing a client who has pericarditis. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Dyspnea with hiccups The client who has pericarditis will experience dyspnea, hiccups, and a nonproductive cough. These manifestations can indicate heart failure from pericardial compression due to constrictive pericarditis or cardiac tamponade.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has anemia and a new prescription for epoetin alfa. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Hypertension is a common adverse effect of this medication. The nurse should teach that a common adverse effect of epoetin alfa is hypertension because of the rise in the production of erythrocytes and other blood cell types. Epoetin alfa is a synthetic version of human erythropoietin. Epoetin alfa is used to treat anemia associated with kidney disease or medication therapy. It increases and maintains the red blood cell level.

A nurse is monitoring a client who has heart failure related to mitral stenosis. The client reports shortness of breath on exertion. Which of the following conditions should the nurse expect?

Increased pulmonary congestion Pulmonary congestion occurs due to right-sided heart failure. Because of the defect in the mitral valve, the left atrial pressure rises, the left atrium dilates, there is an increase in pulmonary artery pressure, and hypertrophy of the right ventricle occurs. In this case, dyspnea is an indication of pulmonary congestion and right-sided heart failure.

A nurse is planning care for a client who has pernicious anemia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Initiate weekly injections of vitamin B12. The nurse should initiate weekly injections of vitamin B12 for a client who has pernicious anemia, and then decrease to monthly. Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor needed to absorb vitamin B12 from the gastrointestinal tract.

A nurse is reviewing laboratory values for an adult client who has sickle cell anemia and a history of receiving blood transfusions. For which of the following complications should the nurse monitor?

Iron toxicity The client who has received several blood transfusions is at risk for development of hemosiderosis, which is excess storage of iron in the body. The excessive iron can come from overuse of supplements or from receiving frequent blood transfusions, as in sickle cell anemia.

A nurse is assessing a client who has fluid volume overload from a cardiovascular disorder. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)

Jugular vein distension, moist crackles, and increased heart rate Jugular vein distension is correct. The increase in venous pressure due to excessive circulating blood volume results in neck vein distension. Moist crackles is correct. This is an indicator of pulmonary edema that can quickly lead to death. Postural hypotension is incorrect. Fluid volume excess, or hypervolemia, is an expansion of fluid volume in the extracellular fluid compartment. This results in hypertension and tachycardia.Increased heart rate is correct. Fluid volume excess, or hypervolemia, is an expansion of fluid volume in the extracellular fluid compartment. This results in increased heart rate and bounding pulses.

A nurse is assessing a client who has an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Lower back discomfort Abdominal aortic aneurysm involves a widening, stretching, or ballooning of the aorta. Back and abdominal pain indicate that the aneurysm is extending downward and pressing on lumbar spinal nerve roots, causing pain.

A nurse is planning care for a client who is having a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) with stent placement. Which of the following actions should the nurse anticipate in the postprocedure plan of care?

Monitor for bleeding. Bleeding is a post-procedure complication of PTCA because of the administration of heparin during the procedure and the removal of the femoral (or brachial) sheath. Manual pressure or a closure device is used to obtain hemostasis to the site. The client remains on bed rest until hemostasis is assured.

A nurse is examining the ECGs of a client who has frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). Which of the following QRS changes should the nurse expect to see on the client's ECG?

Much greater amplitude than the usual QRS complexes

A nurse is completing a medication history for a client who reports using fish oil as a dietary supplement. Which of the following substances in fish oil should the nurse recognize as a health benefit to the client?

Omega-3 fatty acids Fish oil contains omega-3 fatty acids, which can help lower the risk of cardiovascular disease and stroke by decreasing triglyceride levels.

A nurse is assessing a client for manifestations of aplastic anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Petechiae and ecchymosis The client who has aplastic anemia will have manifestations of petechiae and ecchymosis. Dyspnea on exertion also can be present. In aplastic anemia, all three major blood components (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) are reduced or absent, which is known as pancytopenia. Manifestations usually develop gradually.

A client who has thrombocytopenia asks the nurse why platelets are so important. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Platelets plug breaks in blood vessels.

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following vein ligation and stripping for varicose veins. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Position the client supine with his legs elevated when in bed. The nurse should elevate the client's legs above his heart to promote venous return by gravity. During discharge teaching, the nurse should reinforce the importance of periodic positioning of the legs above the heart.

A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and whose telemetry reading displays a flattening of the T wave. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse anticipate as the cause of this ECG change?

Potassium 2.8 mEq/L A flattened T wave or the development of U waves is indicative of a low potassium level.

A nurse is caring for a client who has hemophilia. The client reports pain and swelling in a joint following an injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Prepare for replacement of the missing clotting factor. Hemophilia is a hereditary bleeding disorder in which blood clots slowly and abnormal bleeding occurs. It is caused by a deficiency in the most common clotting factor, factor VIII (hemophilia A). Aggressive factor replacement is initiated to prevent hemarthrosis that can result in long-term loss of range of motion in repeatedly affected joints.

A nurse is reviewing a client's repeat laboratory results 4 hr after administering fresh frozen plasma (FFP). Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse review?

Prothrombin time (PT) The nurse should review the client's prothrombin time after the administration of FFP, which is plasma rich in clotting factors. FFP is administered to treat acute clotting disorders. The desired effect is a decrease in the prothrombin time.

A nurse is transfusing a unit of B-positive fresh frozen plasma to a client whose blood type is O-negative. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Remove the unit of plasma immediately and start an IV infusion of normal saline solution. A client who receives FFP that is not compatible can experience a hemolytic transfusion reaction. The nurse should stop the transfusion and infuse 0.9% sodium chloride solution with new tubing.

A nurse is administering a unit of packed red blood cells (RBCs) to a client who is postoperative. The client reports itching and has hives 30 min after the infusion begins. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Stop the infusion of blood. The nurse should apply the urgent vs. nonurgent priority-setting framework. Using this framework, the nurse should consider urgent needs the priority because they pose more of a threat to the client. The nurse might also need to use Maslow's hierarchy of needs, the ABC priority-setting framework, or nursing knowledge to identify which finding is the most urgent. The nurse should stop the infusion of blood because the client has manifestations of an allergic reaction.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a demand pacemaker inserted with the rate set at 72/min. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Telemetry monitoring shows QRS complexes occurring at a rate of 74/min with no pacing spikes. The nurse should not expect pacer spikes when the client's pulse is greater than the set rate of 72/min, because the client's intrinsic rate overrides the set rate of the pacemaker.

A nurse is monitoring a client who had a myocardial infarction. For which of the following complications should the nurse monitor in the first 24 hr?

Ventricular dysrhythmias After a myocardial infarction, the electrical conduction system of the heart can be irritable and prone to dysrhythmias. Ischemic tissue caused by the infarction can also interfere with the normal conduction patterns of the heart's electrical system.

A nurse is assessing a client who has late-stage heart failure and is experiencing fluid volume overload. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Weight gain 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 1 day A weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 1 day alerts the nurse that the client is retaining fluid and is at risk of fluid volume overload. This is an indication that the client's heart failure is worsening.

A nurse is preparing to transfuse a unit of packed red blood cells (RBCs) to a client who has anemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse make first?

Witness the informed consent. The nurse should apply the least invasive priority-setting framework. This framework assigns priority to nursing interventions that are least invasive to the client, as long as those interventions do not jeopardize client safety. The nurse should take interventions that are not invasive to the client before interventions that are invasive; therefore, as witnessing the informed consent is the least invasive, it is the action that should be performed first. Unless it is an emergency, informed consent should be obtained prior to initiating a blood transfusion to a client.