ATI: Med-Surg: Exam 2 Prep Us

The nurse is preparing to perform chest physiotherapy (CPT) on a client. Which statement by the client tells the nurse that the procedure is contraindicated.

"I just finished eating my lunch, I'm ready for my CPT now." Why? When performing CPT, the nurse ensures that the client is comfortable, is not wearing restrictive clothing, and has not just eaten. The nurse gives medication for pain, as prescribed, before percussion and vibration, splints any incision, and provides pillows for support, as needed. A goal of CPT is for the client to be able to mobilize secretions; the client who has an unproductive cough is a candidate for CPT.

The nurse is caring for a client who is being discharged after insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Which question by the client indicates a need for clarification?

"I should ask for a handheld device search when I go through airport security." Explanation: At security gates at airports, government buildings, or other secured areas, the client with a permanent pacemaker should show a pacemaker ID card and request a hand (not handheld device) search. The client should obtain and carry a physician's letter about this requirement.

A patient taking isoniazid (INH) therapy for tuberculosis demonstrates understanding when making which statement?

"It is all right if I have a grilled cheese sandwich with American cheese." Explanation: Patients taking INH should avoid foods that contain tyramine and histamine (tuna, aged cheese, red wine, soy sauce, yeast extracts), because eating them while taking INH may result in headache, flushing, hypotension, lightheadedness, palpitations, and diaphoresis. Patients should also avoid alcohol because of the high potential for hepatotoxic effects.

The nurse receives a telephone call from a client with an implanted pacemaker who reports a pulse of 68 beats per minute, but the pacemaker rate is set at 72 beats per minute. What is the nurse's best response?

"Please come to the clinic right away so that we may interrogate the pacemaker to see if it is malfunctioning." Explanation: A client experiencing pacemaker malfunctioning may develop bradycardia as well as signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output. The client should check the pulse daily and report immediately any sudden slowing or increasing of the pulse rate. This may indicate pacemaker malfunction. The client needs to be evaluated so do not worry or saying it is ok are not correct to avoid cardiac output problems. Walking will not keep the heart rate at a safe level.

A client is unconscious on arrival to the emergency department. The nurse in the emergency department identifies that the client has a permanent pacemaker due to which characteristic?

"Spike" on the rhythm strip Explanation: Confirmation that the client has a permanent pacemaker is the characteristic "spike" identified by a thin, straight stroke on the rhythm strip. The scar on the chest is suggestive of pacer implantation but not definitive. There should be no change in pulse quality, and no vibration under the skin.

Which statement would indicate that the parents of child with cystic fibrosis understand the disorder?

"The mucus-secreting glands are abnormal." Explanation: Cystic fibrosis is caused by dysfunction of the exocrine glands with no cystic lesions present in the lungs. Early treatment can improve symptoms and extend the life of clients, but a cure for this disorder is presently not available. Allergens are responsible for allergic asthma and not associated with cystic fibrosis.

The client asks the nurse to explain the reason for a chest tube insertion in treating a pneumothorax. Which is the best response by the nurse?

"The tube will drain air from the space around the lung." Explanation: Negative pressure must be maintained in the pleural cavity for the lungs to be inflated. An injury that allows air into the pleural space will result in a collapse of the lung. The chest tube can be used to drain fluid and blood from the pleural cavity and to instill medication, such as talc, to the cavity.

The nurse is caring for a 32-year-old client admitted with a medical diagnosis of atrial fibrillation, related to "holiday heart" syndrome. A nursing student working with the nurse asks for information about "holiday heart" syndrome. The best response by the nurse is which of the following

"This is the association of heart dysrhythmias, especially atrial fibrillation, with binge drinking." Explanation: Atrial fibrillation may be found in people with acute moderate to heavy ingestion of alco

A client at risk for pneumonia has been ordered an influenza vaccine. Which statement from the nurse best explains the rationale for this vaccine?

"Viruses like influenza are the most common cause of pneumonia." Explanation: Influenza type A is the most common cause of pneumonia. Therefore, preventing influenza lowers the risk of pneumonia. Viral URIs can make the client more susceptible to secondary infections, but getting the flu is not a preventable action. Bacterial pneumonia is a typical pneumonia and cannot be prevented with a vaccine that is used to prevent a viral infection. Influenza is not the major cause of death in the United States. Combined influenza with pneumonia is the major cause of death in the United States.

The nurse is preparing to assist the health care provider to remove a client's chest tube. Which instruction will the nurse correctly give to the client?

"When the tube is being removed, take a deep breath, exhale, and bear down." Explanation: When assisting in removal of a chest tube, instruct the client to perform a gentle Valsalva maneuver or to breathe quietly. The chest tube is then clamped and quickly removed. Simultaneously, a small bandage is applied and made airtight with petrolatum gauze covered by a 4 × 4-inch gauze pad and thoroughly covered and sealed with nonporous tape. The other options are incorrect instructions for the client.

The nurse is educating the patient in the use of a mini-nebulizer. What should the nurse encourage the patient to do? (Select all that apply.)

-Hold the breath at the end of inspiration for a few seconds. -Cough frequently. -Frequently evaluate progress.

A client who must begin oxygen therapy asks the nurse why this treatment is necessary? What would the nurse identify as the goals of oxygen therapy? Select all that apply.

-To provide adequate transport of oxygen in the blood -To decrease the work of breathing -To reduce stress on the myocardium Explanation: Oxygen therapy is designed to provide adequate transport of oxygen in the blood while decreasing the work of breathing and reducing stress on the myocardium. Incentive spirometry is a respiratory modality that provides visual feedback to encourage the client to inhale slowly and deeply to maximize lung inflation and prevent or reduce atelectasis. A mini-nebulizer is used to help clear secretions.-

Which range of water pressure within the endotracheal tube cuff is believed to prevent both injury and aspiration?

15 to 20 mm Hg Explanation: Usually the pressure is maintained at <25 mmHG water pressure to prevent injury and at >20 mm HG water pressure to prevent aspiration. High cuff pressure can cause tracheal bleeding, ischemia, and pressure necrosis, whereas low cuff pressure can increase the risk of aspiration pneumonia. A water pressure of 0-5 or 10-15 mm Hg would indicate that the cuff is underinflated. A water pressure of 30-35 mm Hg would indicate that the cuff is overinflated.

A nurse is assessing the injection site of a client who has received a purified protein derivative test. Which finding indicates a need for further evaluation?

15-mm induration Explanation: A 10-mm induration strongly suggests a positive response in this tuberculosis screening test; a 15-mm induration clearly requires further evaluation. A reddened area, 5-mm induration, and a blister aren't positive reactions to the test and require no further evaluation.

A 73-year-old client is admitted to the pulmonology unit of the hospital. She was admitted with a pleural effusion and was "tapped" to drain the fluid to reduce her mediastinal pressure. How much fluid is typically present between the pleurae, which surround the lungs, to prevent friction rub

5 - 15 ml Explanation: Under normal conditions, approximately 5 to 15 mL of fluid between the pleurae prevent friction during pleural surface movement.

A client with a respiratory condition is receiving oxygen therapy. While assessing the client's PaO2, the nurse knows that the therapy has been effective based on which of the following readings?

84 mm Hg Explanation: In general, clients with respiratory conditions are given oxygen therapy only to increase the arterial oxygen pressure (PaO2) back to the client's normal baseline, which may vary from 60 to 95 mm Hg.

A nurse is caring for a group of clients on a medical-surgical floor. Which client is at greatest risk for developing pneumonia?

A client with a nasogastric tube Explanation: Nasogastric, orogastric, and endotracheal tubes increase the risk of pneumonia because of the risk of aspiration from improperly placed tubes. Frequent oral hygiene and checking tube placement help prevent aspiration and pneumonia. Although a client who smokes is at increased risk for pneumonia, the risk decreases if the client has stopped smoking. Ambulation helps prevent pneumonia. A client who receives opioids, not acetaminophen, has a risk of developing pneumonia because respiratory depression may occur.

A physician determines that a client has been exposed to someone with tuberculosis. The nurse expects the physician to order which treatment?

A physician determines that a client has been exposed to someone with tuberculosis. The nurse expects the physician to order which treatment?

A nurse is caring for a client with left-sided heart failure. During the nurse's assessment, the client is wheezing, restless, tachycardic, and has severe apprehension. The nurse knows that these are symptoms of what?

Acute pulmonary edema Explanation: Clients with acute pulmonary edema exhibit sudden dyspnea, wheezing, orthopnea, restlessness, cough (often productive of pink, frothy sputum), cyanosis, tachycardia, and severe apprehension. These symptoms do not indicate progressive heart failure, pulmonary hypertension, or cardiogenic shock.

The ICU nurse caring for a 2-year-old near drowning victim monitors for what possible complication?

Acute respiratory distress syndrome Explanation: Factors associated with the development of ARDS include aspiration related to near drowning or vomiting; drug ingestion/overdose; hematologic disorders such as disseminated intravascular coagulation or massive transfusions; direct damage to the lungs through prolonged smoke inhalation or other corrosive substances; localized lung infection; metabolic disorders such as pancreatitis or uremia; shock; trauma such as chest contusions, multiple fractures, or head injury; any major surgery; embolism; and septicemia. Options A, C and D are incorrect.

A client is scheduled for an elective electrical cardioversion for a sustained dysrhythmia lasting for 24 hours. Which intervention is necessary for the nurse to implement prior to the procedure?

Administer moderate sedation IV and analgesic medication as prescribed Explanation: Before an elective cardioversion, the client should receive moderate sedation IV as well as an analgesic medication or anesthesia. In contrast, in emergent situations, the client may not be premedicated. Digoxin is usually withheld for 48 hours before cardioversion to ensure the resumption of sinus rhythm with normal conduction. If the cardioversion is elective and the dysrhythmia has lasted longer than 48 hours, anticoagulation performed for a few weeks before cardioversion may be indicated. The client is instructed not to eat or drink for at least 4 hours before the procedure.

A client with severe shortness of breath comes to the emergency department. He tells the emergency department staff that he recently traveled to China for business. Based on his travel history and presentation, the staff suspects severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS). Which isolation precautions should the staff institute?

Airborne and contact precautions Explanation: SARS, a highly contagious viral respiratory illness, is spread by close person-to-person contact. The client should be placed on airborne and contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Droplet precautions don't require a negative air pressure room and wouldn't protect the nurse who touches contaminated items in the client's room. Contact precautions alone don't provide adequate protection from airborne particles.

What is the drug of choice for a stable client with ventricular tachycardia?

Amiodarone Explanation: Amiodarone administered IV is the antidysrhythmic medication of choice for a stable patient with ventricular tachycardia. Atropine is used for bradycardia. Procainamide is used to treat and prevent atrial and ventricular dysrhythmias. Lidocaine is used for treating ventricular dysrhythmias.

A client has a sucking stab wound to the chest. Which action should the nurse take first?

Apply a dressing over the wound and tape it on three sides. Explanation: The nurse should immediately apply a dressing over the stab wound and tape it on three sides to allow air to escape and to prevent tension pneumothorax (which is more life-threatening than an open chest wound). Only after covering and taping the wound should the nurse draw blood for laboratory tests, assist with chest tube insertion, and start an I.V. line.

Which is a potential complication of a low pressure in the endotracheal tube cuff?

Aspiration pneumonia Explanation: Low pressure in the cuff can increase the risk for aspiration pneumonia. High pressure in the cuff can cause tracheal bleeding, ischemia, and pressure necrosis.

The nurse received a client from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) who has a chest tube to a closed drainage system. Report from the PACU nurse included drainage in the chest tube at 80 mL of bloody fluid. Fifteen minutes after transfer from the PACU, the chest tube indicates drainage as pictured. The client is reporting pain at "8" on a scale of 0 to 10. The first action of the nurse is to:

Assess pulse and blood pressure. Explanation: The client has bled 120 mL of bloody drainage in the chest drainage system within 15 minutes. It is most important for the nurse to assess for signs and symptoms of hemorrhage, which may be indicated by a rapid pulse and decreasing blood pressure. The nurse may then lay the client in a flat position and notify the physician.

A patient has been scheduled for cardioversion in the treatment of a tachyarrhythmia but is unclear about the particulars of the procedure after signing the necessary informed consent. How can the nurse best explain this procedure to the patient?

"Cardioversion will essentially 'reset' the cells in your heart that control the electrical activity." Explanation: Cardioversion is used to treat tachyarrhythmias by delivering an electrical current that depolarizes a critical mass of myocardial cells. When the cells repolarize, the sinus node is usually able to recapture its role as the heart's pacemaker. The procedure does not destroy malfunctioning cells or "boost" the heart's electrical activity. As well, it does not replace any of the misfiring cells.

A client presents to the emergency department via ambulance with a heart rate of 210 beats/minute and a sawtooth waveform pattern per cardiac monitor. The nurse is most correct to alert the medical team of the presence of a client with which disorder?

Atrial flutter Explanation: Atrial flutter is a disorder in which a single atrial impulse outside the SA node causes the atria to contract at an exceedingly rapid rate. The atrioventricular (AV) node conducts only some impulses to the ventricle, resulting in a ventricular rate slower than the atrial rate, thus forming a sawtooth pattern on the heart monitor. Asystole is the absence of cardiac function and can indicate death. Premature ventricular contraction indicates an early electric impulse and does not necessarily produce an exceedingly rapid heart rate. Ventricular fibrillation is the inefficient quivering of the ventricles and indicative of a dying heart.

Which dysrhythmia has an atrial rate between 250 and 400, with saw-toothed P waves?

Atrial flutter Explanation: Atrial flutter occurs in the atrium and creates impulses at a regular atrial rate between 250 and 400 times per minute. The P waves are saw-toothed in shape. Atrial fibrillation causes a rapid, disorganized, and uncoordinated twitching of atrial musculature. Ventricular fibrillation is a rapid, disorganized ventricular rhythm that causes ineffective quivering of the ventricles. Ventricular tachycardia is defined as three or more PVCs in a row, occurring at a rate exceeding 100 beats per minute.

A new ICU nurse is observed by her preceptor entering a patient's room to suction the tracheostomy after performing the task 15 minutes before. What should the preceptor educate the new nurse to do to ensure that the patient needs to be suctioned?

Auscultate the lung for adventitious sounds. Why? When a tracheostomy or endotracheal tube is in place, it is usually necessary to suction the patient's secretions because of the decreased effectiveness of the cough mechanism. Tracheal suctioning is performed when adventitious breath sounds are detected or whenever secretions are obviously present. Unnecessary suctioning can initiate bronchospasm and cause mechanical trauma to the tracheal mucosa.

For a client with an endotracheal (ET) tube, which nursing action is the most important?

Auscultating the lungs for bilateral breath sounds Why? For the client with an ET tube, the most important nursing action is auscultating the lungs regularly for bilateral breath sounds to ensure proper tube placement and effective oxygen delivery. Although turning the client from side to side every 2 hours, monitoring serial blood gas values every 4 hours, and providing frequent oral hygiene are appropriate actions for this client, they're secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation.

A nurse prepares to perform postural drainage. How should the nurse ascertain the best position to facilitate clearing the lungs?

Auscultation Explanation: The nurse should assess breath sounds before doing postural drainage to determine the areas that need draining. Inspection, chest X-rays, and ABG levels are all assessment parameters that give good information about respiratory function but aren't necessary to determine lung areas requiring postural drainage.

A nurse prepares to perform postural drainage. How should the nurse ascertain the best position to facilitate clearing the lungs?

Auscultation Why? The nurse should assess breath sounds before doing postural drainage to determine the areas that need draining. Inspection, chest X-rays, and ABG levels are all assessment parameters that give good information about respiratory function but aren't necessary to determine lung areas requiring postural drainage.

Which postimplantation instruction must a nurse provide to a client with a permanent pacemaker?

Avoid sources of electrical interference Explanation: The nurse must instruct the client with a permanent pacemaker to avoid sources of electrical interference. The nurse should also instruct the client to avoid strenuous movement (especially of the arm on the side where the pacemaker is inserted), to keep the arm on the side of the pacemaker lower than the head except for brief moments when dressing or performing hygiene, and to delay for at least 8 weeks activities such as swimming, bowling, tennis, vacuum cleaning, carrying heavy objects, chopping wood, mowing, raking, and shoveling snow.

Before weaning a client from a ventilator, which assessment parameter is the most important for the nurse to obtain?

Baseline arterial blood gas (ABG) levels Explanation: Before weaning the client from mechanical ventilation, it's most important to have baseline ABG levels. During the weaning process, ABG levels will be checked to assess how the client is tolerating the procedure. Other assessment parameters are less critical. Measuring fluid volume intake and output is always important when a client is being mechanically ventilated. Prior attempts at weaning and ECG results are documented on the client's record, and the nurse can refer to them before the weaning process begins.

A nurse is teaching a client about using an incentive spirometer. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

Before you do the exercise, I'll give you pain medication if you need it." Explanation: The nurse should assess the client's pain level before the client does incentive spirometry exercises and administer pain medication as needed. Doing so helps the client take deeper breaths and help prevents atelectasis. The client should breathe in slowly and steadily, and hold his breath for 3 seconds after inhalation. The client should start doing incentive spirometry immediately after surgery and aim to do 10 incentive spirometry breaths every hour.

The licensed practical nurse is monitoring the waveform pattern on the cardiac monitor ofthe client admitted following a myocardial infarction. The nurse notes that every other beat includes a premature ventricular contraction (PVC). The nurse notes which of the following in the permanent record?

Bigeminy Explanation: The nurse is correct to note bigeminy on the permanent record when every other beat is a PVC. Couplets are two PVCs in a row. Multifocal PVCs originate from more than one location. R-on-T phenomenon occurs when the R wave falls on the T wave.

Which is an adverse reaction that would require the process of weaning from a ventilator to be terminated?

Blood pressure increase of 20 mm Hg Explanation: Criteria for terminating the weaning process include heart rate increase of 20 beats/min and systolic blood pressure increase of 20 mm Hg. A normal vital capacity is 10 to 15 mL/kg.

A nurse should include what instruction for the client during postural drainage?

Change positions frequently and cough up secretions. Explanation: Clients who lie supine will have secretions accumulate in the posterior lung sections, whereas upright patients will pool secretions in their lower lobes. By changing positions, secretions can drain from the affected bronchioles into the bronchi and trachea and then be removed by coughing or suctioning.

You are a clinic nurse caring for a client with acute tracheobronchitis. The client asks what may have caused the infection. Which of the following responses from the nurse would be most accurate?

Chemical irritation Explanation: Chemical irritation from noxious fumes, gases, and air contaminants can induce acute tracheobronchitis. Aspiration related to near drowning or vomiting, drug ingestion or overdose, and direct damage to the lungs are factors associated with the development of acute respiratory distress syndrome.

The clinic nurse is caring for a client with acute bronchitis. The client asks what may have caused the infection. What may induce acute bronchitis?

Chemical irritation Explanation: Chemical irritation from noxious fumes, gases, and air contaminants induces acute bronchitis. Aspiration related to near drowning or vomiting, drug ingestion or overdose, and direct damage to the lungs are factors associated with the development of acute respiratory distress syndrome.

The nurse is caring for a client following a thoracotomy. Which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Chest tube drainage, 190 mL/hr Explanation: The nurse should monitor and document the amount and character of drainage every 2 hours. The nurse must notify the primary provider if drainage is ≥150 mL/hr. The other findings are normal following a thoracotomy and no intervention would be required.

The nurse assesses a patient with a heart rate of 42 and a blood pressure of 70/46. What type of hypoxia does the nurse determine this patient is displaying?

Circulatory hypoxia Explanation: Given this patient's vital signs, he appears to be in shock. Circulatory hypoxia is hypoxia resulting from inadequate capillary circulation. It may be caused by decreased cardiac output, local vascular obstruction, low-flow states such as shock, or cardiac arrest. Although tissue partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) is reduced, arterial oxygen (PaO2) remains normal. Circulatory hypoxia is corrected by identifying and treating the underlying cause.

The nurse is caring for a client in the hospital with chronic heart failure that has marked limitations in his physical activity. The client is comfortable when resting in the bed or chair, but when ambulating in the room or hall, he becomes short of breath and fatigued easily. What type of heart failure is this considered according to the New York Heart Association (NYHA)?

Class III (Moderate) Explanation: Class III (Moderate) is when there is marked limitation of physical activity. The client is comfortable at rest, but less than ordinary activity causes fatigue, heart palpitations, or dyspnea. Class I is ordinary physical activity does not cause undue fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea. The client does not experience any limitation of activity. Class II (Mild) is when the client is comfortable at rest, but ordinary physical activity results in fatigue, heart palpitations, or dyspnea. Class IV (Severe), the client is unable to carry out any physical activity without discomfort. Symptoms of cardiac insufficiency occur at rest. Discomfort is increased if any physical activity is undertaken.

A nurse is caring for a client who has been admitted to have a cardioverter defibrillator implanted. The nurse knows that implanted cardioverter defibrillators are used in which clients?

Clients with recurrent life-threatening tachydysrhythmias Explanation: The automatic implanted cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) is an internal electrical device used for selected clients with recurrent life-threatening tachydysrhythmias. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect.

A client is on a positive-pressure ventilator with a synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) setting. The ventilator is set for 8 breaths per minute. The client is taking 6 breaths per minute independently. The nurse:

Continues assessing the client's respiratory status frequently Explanation: The SIMV setting on a ventilator allows the client to breathe spontaneously with no assistance from the ventilator for those extra breaths. Data in the stem suggest that the ventilator is working correctly. The nurse would continue making frequent respiratory assessments of the client. There are not sufficient data to suggest the client could be removed from the ventilator. There is no reason to increase the ventilator's setting to 14 breaths per minute or to contact respiratory therapy to report the machine is not working properly.

A patient is diagnosed with mild obstructive sleep apnea after having a sleep study performed. What treatment modality will be the most effective for this patient?

Continuous positive airway pressure Explanation: Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) provides positive pressure to the airways throughout the respiratory cycle. Although it can be used as an adjunct to mechanical ventilation with a cuffed endotracheal tube or tracheostomy tube to open the alveoli, it is also used with a leak-proof mask to keep alveoli open, thereby preventing respiratory failure. CPAP is the most effective treatment for obstructive sleep apnea because the positive pressure acts as a splint, keeping the upper airway and trachea open during sleep. To use CPAP, the patient must be breathing independently.

You are taking a pre-nursing pharmacology class. Today you are learning about anti-dysrhythmic drugs. What drug is a potassium channel blocker?

Cordarone Explanation: Potassium channel blockers include Cordarone and Bretylol. Lidocaine and Tambocor are sodium channel blockers. Isoprel is a beta blocker.

Which of the following body system responses correlates with systolic heart failure (HF)?

Decrease in renal perfusion Explanation: A decrease in renal perfusion due to low cardiac output (CO) and vasoconstriction causes the release of renin by the kidney. Systolic HF results in decreased blood volume being ejected from the ventricle. Sympathetic stimulation causes vasoconstriction of the skin, gastrointestinal tract, and kidneys. Dehydration does not correlate with systolic heart failure.

The nurse recognizes which as being true of cardioversion?

Defibrillator should be set to deliver a shock during the QRS complex. Explanation: Cardioversion involves the delivery of a "timed" electrical current. The defibrillator is set to synchronize with the ECG and deliver the impulse during the QRS complex. The synchronization prevents the discharge from occurring during the vulnerable period of repolarization (T wave), which could result in VT or ventricular fibrillation.

The nurse hears the patient's ventilator alarm sound and attempts to find the cause. What is the priority action of the nurse when the cause of the alarm is not able to be determined?

Disconnect the patient from the ventilator and manually ventilate the patient with a manual resuscitation bag until the problem is resolved.

Which is a cerebrovascular manifestation of heart failure?

Dizziness Explanation: Cerebrovascular manifestations of heart failure include dizziness, lightheadedness, confusion, restlessness, and anxiety. Tachycardia is a cardiovascular manifestation. Ascites is a gastrointestinal manifestation. Nocturia is a renal manifestation.

What is the reason for chest tubes after thoracic surgery?

Draining secretions, air, and blood from the thoracic cavity is necessary. Explanation: After thoracic surgery, draining secretions, air, and blood from the thoracic cavity is necessary to allow the lungs to expand.

A nurse is caring for a client with atrial fibrillation. What procedure would the nurse educate the patient about for termination of the dysrhythmia?

Elective cardioversion Explanation: Atrial fibrillation also is treated with elective cardioversion or digitalis if the ventricular rate is not too slow. Defibrillation is used for a ventricular problem. A Mace procedure is only a distractor for this question. Pacemakers are implanted for bradycardia.

A patient is being educated in the use of incentive spirometry prior to having a surgical procedure. What should the nurse be sure to include in the education?

Encourage the patient to take approximately 10 breaths per hour, while awake. Explanation: The patient should be instructed to perform the procedure approximately 10 times in succession, repeating the 10 breaths with the spirometer each hour during waking hours. The patient should assume a semi-Fowler's position or an upright position before initiating therapy, not be supine. Coughing during and after each session is encouraged, not discouraged. The patient should Splint the incision when coughing postoperatively. The patient should still use the spirometer when in pain.

A patient is being educated in the use of incentive spirometry prior to having a surgical procedure. What should the nurse be sure to include in the education?

Encourage the patient to take approximately 10 breaths per hour, while awake. Why? The patient should be instructed to perform the procedure approximately 10 times in succession, repeating the 10 breaths with the spirometer each hour during waking hours. The patient should assume a semi-Fowler's position or an upright position before initiating therapy, not be supine. Coughing during and after each session is encouraged, not discouraged. The patient should Splint the incision when coughing postoperatively. The patient should still use the spirometer when in pain.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a tracheostomy and temperature of 103° F (39.4° C). Which intervention will most likely lower the client's arterial blood oxygen saturation?

Endotracheal suctioning Explanation: Endotracheal suctioning removes secretions as well as gases from the airway and lowers the arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) level. Coughing and using an incentive spirometer improve oxygenation and should raise or maintain oxygen saturation. Because of superficial vasoconstriction, using a cooling blanket can lower peripheral oxygen saturation readings, but SaO2 levels wouldn't be affected.

Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect to find as an early symptom of chronic heart failure?

Fatigue Explanation: Fatigue is commonly the earliest symptom of chronic heart failure; it is caused by decreased cardiac output and tissue oxygenation. Pedal edema and nocturia are symptoms of heart failure, but they occur later in the course of the condition. An irregular pulse can be a complication of heart failure, but it is not necessarily an early indication of the condition.

A patient arrives in the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. The nurse observes paradoxical chest movement when removing the patient's shirt. What does the nurse know that this finding indicates?

Flail chest Explanation: During inspiration, as the chest expands, the detached part of the rib segment (flail segment) moves in a paradoxical manner (pendelluft movement) in that it is pulled inward during inspiration, reducing the amount of air that can be drawn into the lungs. On expiration, because the intrathoracic pressure exceeds atmospheric pressure, the flail segment bulges outward, impairing the patient's ability to exhale. The mediastinum then shifts back to the affected side (Fig. 23-8). This paradoxical action results in increased dead space, a reduction in alveolar ventilation, and decreased compliance.

A nurse is attempting to wean a client after 2 days on the mechanical ventilator. The client has an endotracheal tube present with the cuff inflated to 15 mm Hg. The nurse has suctioned the client with return of small amounts of thin white mucus. Lung sounds are clear. Oxygen saturation levels are 91%. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client?

Impaired gas exchange related to ventilator setting adjustments Explanation: All the nursing diagnoses are appropriate for this client. Per Maslow's hierarchy of needs, airway, breathing, and circulation are the highest priorities within physiological needs. The client has an oxygen saturation of 91%, which is below normal. This places impaired gas exchange as the highest prioritized nursing diagnosis.

The nurse has instructed a client on how to perform pursed-lip breathing. The nurse recognizes the purpose of this type of breathing is to accomplish which result?

Improve oxygen transport; induce a slow, deep breathing pattern; and assist the client to control breathing Explanation: Pursed-lip breathing, which improves oxygen transport, helps induce a slow, deep breathing pattern and assists the client to control breathing, even during periods of stress. This type of breathing helps prevent airway collapse secondary to loss of lung elasticity in emphysema.

Which finding would indicate a decrease in pressure with mechanical ventilation?

Increase in compliance Explanation: A decrease in pressure in the mechanical ventilator may be caused by an increase in compliance. Kinked tubing, decreased lung compliance, and a plugged airway tube cause an increase in peak airway pressure.

In a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) and respiratory distress, which finding is the earliest sign of reduced oxygenation?

Increased restlessness Explanation: In ALS, an early sign of respiratory distress is increased restlessness, which results from inadequate oxygen flow to the brain. As the body tries to compensate for inadequate oxygenation, the heart rate increases and blood pressure drops. A decreased LOC is a later sign of poor tissue oxygenation in a client with respiratory distress.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle accident. The patient has been diagnosed with pleurisy. What is the preferred treatment for pain caused by pleurisy?

Indomethacin Explanation: Prescribed analgesics and topical applications of heat or cold provide symptomatic relief of the pain associated with pleurisy. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents such as indomethacin may provide pain relief while allowing the patient to take deep breaths and cough more effectively. Acetaminophen may not provide enough relief for the pain.

A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted with pneumonia, has a history of falls, and has skin lesions resulting from scratching. The priority nursing diagnosis for this client should be:

Ineffective airway clearance. Explanation: Ineffective airway clearance is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client. Pneumonia involves excess secretions in the respiratory tract and inhibits air flow to the capillary bed. A client with pneumonia may not have an Ineffective breathing pattern, such as tachypnea, bradypnea, or Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Risk for falls and Impaired tissue integrity aren't priority diagnoses for this client.

The nurse is assisting a client with postural drainage. Which of the following demonstrates correct implementation of this technique?

Instruct the client to remain in each position of the postural drainage sequence for 10 to 15 minutes. Explanation: Postural drainage is usually performed two to four times daily, before meals (to prevent nausea, vomiting, and aspiration) and at bedtime. Prescribed bronchodilators, water, or saline may be nebulized and inhaled before postural drainage to dilate the bronchioles, reduce bronchospasm, decrease the thickness of mucus and sputum, and combat edema of the bronchial walls. The nurse instructs the client to remain in each position for 10 to 15 minutes and to breathe in slowly through the nose and out slowly through pursed lips to help keep the airways open so that secretions can drain while in each position. If the sputum is foul-smelling, it is important to perform postural drainage in a room away from other patients or family members. (Deodorizers may be used to counteract the odor. Because aerosol sprays can cause bronchospasm and irritation, they should be used sparingly and with caution.)

Which nursing intervention is required to prepare a client with cardiac dysrhythmia for an elective electrical cardioversion?

Instruct the client to restrict food and oral intake Explanation: The nurse should instruct the client to restrict food and oral intake before the cardioversion procedure. Digitalis and diuretics are withheld for 24 to 72 hours before cardioversion. The presence of digitalis and diuretics in myocardial cells decreases the ability to restore normal conduction and increases the chances of a fatal dysrhythmia developing after cardioversion. When the client is in cardiopulmonary arrest, the nurse should facilitate CPR until the client is prepared for defibrillation and not for cardioversion. Monitoring blood pressure every 4 hours is not required to prepare a client with cardiac dysrhythmia.

The nurse is educating a patient with COPD about the technique for performing pursed-lip breathing. What does the nurse inform the patient is the importance of using this technique?

It prolongs exhalation. Explanation: The goal of pursed-lip breathing is to prolong exhalation and increase airway pressure during expiration, thus reducing the amount of trapped air and the amount of airway resistance.

A client suffers acute respiratory distress syndrome as a consequence of shock. The client's condition deteriorates rapidly, and endotracheal (ET) intubation and mechanical ventilation are initiated. When the high-pressure alarm on the mechanical ventilator sounds, the nurse starts to check for the cause. Which condition triggers the high-pressure alarm?

Kinking of the ventilator tubing Explanation: Conditions that trigger the high-pressure alarm include kinking of the ventilator tubing, bronchospasm, pulmonary embolus, mucus plugging, water in the tube, and coughing or biting on the ET tube. The alarm may also be triggered when the client's breathing is out of rhythm with the ventilator. A disconnected ventilator circuit or an ET cuff leak would trigger the low-pressure alarm. Changing the oxygen concentration without resetting the oxygen level alarm would trigger the oxygen alarm, not the high-pressure alarm.

A patient is 2 days postoperative after having a permanent pacemaker inserted. The nurse observes that the patient is having continuous hiccups as the patient states, "I thought this was normal." What does the nurse understand is occurring with this patient?

Lead wire dislodgement Explanation: Phrenic nerve, diaphragmatic (hiccuping may be a sign), or skeletal muscle stimulation may occur if the lead is dislocated or if the delivered energy (mA) is set high. The occurrence of this complication is avoided by testing during device implantation.

Which is the hallmark of heart failure?

Low ejection fraction (EF) Explanation: Although a low EF is a hallmark of heart failure (HF), the severity of HF is frequently classified according to the client's symptoms. Pulmonary congestion, limitation of ADLs, and basilar crackles are all symptoms of HF.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is intubated and placed on continuous mechanical ventilation. Which equipment is most important for the nurse to keep at this client's bedside?

Manual resuscitation bag Why? The client with COPD depends on mechanical ventilation for adequate tissue oxygenation. The nurse must keep a manual resuscitation bag at the bedside to ventilate and oxygenate the client in case the mechanical ventilator malfunctions. Because the client doesn't have chest tubes or a tracheostomy, keeping a water-seal chest drainage set-up or a tracheostomy cleaning kit at the bedside isn't necessary. Although the nurse may keep an oxygen analyzer (pulse oximeter) on hand to evaluate the effectiveness of ventilation, this equipment is less important than the manual resuscitation bag.

Which nursing intervention must a nurse perform when administering prescribed vasopressors to a client with a cardiac dysrhythmia?

Monitor vital signs and cardiac rhythm Explanation: The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and cardiac rhythm for effectiveness of the medication and for side effects and should always have emergency life support equipment available when caring for an acutely ill client. The side effects of vasopressor drugs are hypertension, dysrhythmias, pallor, and oliguria. It is not necessary to place a client flat during or after vasopressor administration. When administering cholinergic antagonists, documentation of the heart rate is necessary.

The emergency department nurse is caring for a patient who has gone into cardiac arrest. The nurse is performing external defibrillation. Which of the following is a vital step in the procedure?

No one is to be touching the patient at the time shock is delivered. Explanation: In external defibrillation, both paddles may be placed on the front of the chest, which is the standard paddle placement. Whether using pads or paddles, the nurse must observe two safety measures. First, maintain good contact between the pads or paddles and the patient's skin to prevent leaking. Second, ensure that no one is in contact with the patient or with anything that is touching the patient when the defibrillator is discharged, to minimize the chance that electrical current will be conducted to anyone other than the patient. Ventilation should be stopped during defibrillation.

Which oxygen administration device has the advantage of providing a high oxygen concentration?

Nonrebreathing mask Explanation: The nonrebreathing mask provides high oxygen concentration, but it usually fits poorly. However, if the nonrebreathing mask fits the client snugly and both side exhalation ports have one-way valves, it is possible for the client to receive 100% oxygen, making the nonrebreathing mask a high-flow oxygen system. The Venturi mask provides low levels of supplemental oxygen. The catheter is an inexpensive device that provides a variable fraction of inspired oxygen and may cause gastric distention. A face tent provides a fairly accurate fraction of inspired oxygen but is bulky and uncomfortable. It would not be the device of choice to provide a high oxygen concentration.

The nurse is assessing a patient with chest tubes connected to a drainage system. What should the first action be when the nurse observes excessive bubbling in the water seal chamber?

Notify the physician. Explanation: Observe for air leaks in the drainage system; they are indicated by constant bubbling in the water seal chamber, or by the air leak indicator in dry systems with a one-way valve. In addition, assess the chest tube system for correctable external leaks. Notify the primary provider immediately of excessive bubbling in the water seal chamber not due to external leaks.

A client has been receiving 100% oxygen therapy by way of a nonrebreather mask for several days. Now the client complains of tingling in the fingers and shortness of breath, is extremely restless, and describes a pain beneath the breastbone. What should the nurse suspect?

Oxygen toxicity Explanation: Oxygen toxicity may occur when too high a concentration of oxygen (greater than 50%) is administered for an extended period (longer than 48 hours) (Urden, Stacy, & Lough, 2014). Signs and symptoms of oxygen toxicity include substernal discomfort, paresthesias, dyspnea, restlessness, fatigue, malaise, progressive respiratory difficulty, refractory hypoxemia, alveolar atelectasis, and alveolar infiltrates evident on chest x-rays.

To evaluate a client's atrial depolarization, the nurse observes which part of the electrocardiogram waveform?

P wave Explanation: The P wave depicts atrial depolarization, or spread of the electrical impulse from the sinoatrial node through the atria. The PR interval represents spread of the impulse through the interatrial and internodal fibers, atrioventricular node, bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The T wave depicts the relative refractory period, representing ventricular repolarization.

A nursing instructor is reviewing the parts of an EKG strip with a group of students. One student asks about the names of all the EKG cardiac complex parts. Which of the following items are considered a part of the cardiac complex on an EKG strip? Choose all that apply.

P wave P-R interval T wave

The nurse is admitting a patient with COPD. The decrease of what substance in the blood gas analysis would indicate to the nurse that the patient is experiencing hypoxemia?

PaO2 Explanation: Hypoxemic hypoxia, or hypoxemia, is a decreased oxygen level in the blood (PaO2) resulting in decreased oxygen diffusion into the tissues.

Which is a key characteristic of pleurisy?

Pain Explanation: The key characteristic of pleuritic pain is its relationship to respiratory movement. Taking a deep breath, coughing, or sneezing worsens the pain.

A client admitted to the telemetry unit has a serum potassium level of 6.6 mEq/L. Which electrocardiographic (ECG) characteristic is commonly associated with this laboratory finding?

Peaked T waves Explanation: The client's serum potassium level is high. The T wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting repolarization of the ventricles. It may become tall or "peaked" if a client's serum potassium level is high. The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a client's serum potassium level is low. The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria and is not affected by a client's serum potassium level. The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization, and is not affected by a client's serum potassium level.

A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. If the chest drainage system is accidentally disconnected, what should the nurse plan to do?

Place the end of the chest tube in a container of sterile saline. Explanation: If a chest drainage system is disconnected, the nurse may place the end of the chest tube in a container of sterile saline or water to prevent air from entering the chest tube, thereby preventing negative respiratory pressure. The nurse should apply an occlusive dressing if the chest tube is pulled out — not if the system is disconnected. The nurse shouldn't clamp the chest tube because clamping increases the risk of tension pneumothorax. The nurse should tape the chest tube securely to prevent it from being disconnected, rather than taping it after it has been disconnected.

A client is admitted to the facility with a productive cough, night sweats, and a fever. Which action is most important in the initial care plan?

Placing the client in respiratory isolation Explanation: Because the client's signs and symptoms suggest a respiratory infection (possibly tuberculosis), respiratory isolation is indicated. Every 8 hours isn't frequent enough to assess the temperature of a client with a fever. Monitoring fluid intake and output may be required, but the client should first be placed in isolation. The nurse should wear gloves only for contact with mucous membranes, broken skin, blood, and other body fluids and substances.

In general, chest drainage tubes are not indicated for a client undergoing which procedure?

Pneumonectomy Explanation: Usually no drains are used in pneumonectomy because the accumulation of fluid in the empty hemothorax prevents mediastinal shift. With lobectomy, two chest tubes are usually inserted for drainage, the upper tube for air and the lower tube for fluid. With wedge resection, the pleural cavity usually is drained because of the possibility of an air or blood leak. With segmentectomy, drains are usually used because of the possibility of an air or blood leak.

A healthy adult client is seeing a health care provider for an annual physical examination. While the nurse is taking the client's vital signs, the client states, "Occasionally, my heart skips a beat. Is this normal?" What is the nurse's best response?

Premature atrial complex Explanation: A premature atrial complex (PAC) is a single ECG complex that occurs when an electrical impulse starts in the atrium before the next normal impulse of the sinus node.

When the nurse observes an electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing on a cardiac monitor with a pattern in lead II and observes a bizarre, abnormal shape to the QRS complex, the nurse has likely observed which of the following ventricular dysrhythmias?

Premature ventricular contraction (PVC) Explanation: A PVC is an impulse that starts in a ventricle before the next normal sinus impulse. Ventricular bigeminy is a rhythm in which every other complex is a PVC. Ventricular tachycardia is defined as three or more PVCs in a row, occurring at a rate exceeding 100 beats per minute. Ventricular fibrillation is a rapid but disorganized ventricular rhythm that causes ineffective quivering of the ventricles.

Which ECG waveform characterizes conduction of an electrical impulse through the left ventricle

QRS complex Explanation: The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria. The PR interval is a component of an ECG tracing reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the AV node. The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Which ECG waveform characterizes conduction of an electrical impulse through the left ventricle?

QRS complex Explanation: The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria. The PR interval is a component of an ECG tracing reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the AV node. The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

A 28-year-old client presents to the emergency department, stating severe restlessness and anxiety. Upon assessment, the client's heart rate is 118 bpm and regular, the client's pupils are dilated, and the client appears excitable. Which action should the nurse take next?

Question the client about alcohol and illicit drug use. Explanation: The client is experiencing sinus tachycardia. Since the client's findings of tachycardia, dilated pupils, restlessness, anxiety, and excitability can indicate illicit drug use (cocaine), the nurse should question the client about alcohol and illicit drug use. This information will direct the client's plan of care. Causes of tachycardia include medications that stimulate the sympathetic response, stimulants, and illicit drugs. The treatment goals for sinus tachycardia is usually determined by the severity of symptoms and directed at identifying and abolishing its cause. The other interventions may be implemented, but determining the cause of the tachycardia is essential.

The nurse is placing electrodes for a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). The nurse would be correct in placing an electrode on which area for V1?

Right side of sternum, fourth intercostal space Explanation: view V1, the electrodes would be placed on the right side of the sternum, fourth intercostal space. V2 is the left side of the sternum, fourth intercostal space. V3 is midway between V2 and V4. V4 is at the mid-clavicular line, fifth intercostal space.

The nurse is caring for a client with an endotracheal tube (ET). Which nursing intervention is contraindicated?

Routinely deflating the cuff Explanation: Routine cuff deflation is not recommended because of the increased risk for aspiration and hypoxia. The cuff is deflated before the ET is removed. Cuff pressures should be checked every 6 to 8 hours. Humidified oxygen should always be introduced through the tube.

A nurse is weaning a client from mechanical ventilation. Which assessment finding indicates the weaning process should be stopped?

Runs of ventricular tachycardia Explanation: Ventricular tachycardia indicates that the client isn't tolerating the weaning process. The weaning process should be stopped before lethal ventricular arrhythmias occur. A respiratory rate of 16 breaths/minute and an oxygen saturation of 93% are normal findings. Although the client's blood pressure has increased, it hasn't increased more than 20% over baseline, which would indicate that the client isn't tolerating the weaning process.

The nurse is caring for a patient with pleurisy. What symptoms does the nurse recognize are significant for this patient's diagnosis?

Stabbing pain during respiratory movement Explanation: When the inflamed pleural membranes rub together during respiration (intensified on inspiration), the result is severe, sharp, knifelike pain. The key characteristic of pleuritic pain is its relationship to respiratory movement. Taking a deep breath, coughing, or sneezing worsens the pain. Pleuritic pain is limited in distribution rather than diffuse; it usually occurs only on one side. The pain may become minimal or absent when the breath is held. It may be localized or radiate to the shoulder or abdomen. Later, as pleural fluid develops, the pain decreases. Reference:

A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving continuous mechanical ventilation. When the high-pressure alarm on the ventilator sounds, what should the nurse do?

Suction the client's artificial airway. Explanation: A high-pressure alarm on a continuous mechanical ventilator indicates an obstruction in the flow of gas from the machine to the client. The nurse should suction the client's artificial airway to remove respiratory secretions that could be causing the obstruction. The sounding of a ventilator alarm has no relationship to the apical pulse. Increasing the oxygen percentage and ventilating with a handheld mechanical ventilator wouldn't correct the airflow blockage.

The new client on the unit was admitted with acute respiratory failure. What are the signs and symptoms of acute respiratory failure?

Sudden onset in client who had normal lung function

The nurse assesses a patient for a possible pulmonary embolism. What frequent sign of pulmonary embolus does the nurse anticipate finding on assessment?

Tachypnea Explanation: Symptoms of PE depend on the size of the thrombus and the area of the pulmonary artery occluded by the thrombus; they may be nonspecific. Dyspnea is the most frequent symptom; the duration and intensity of the dyspnea depend on the extent of embolization. Chest pain is common and is usually sudden and pleuritic in origin. It may be substernal and may mimic angina pectoris or a myocardial infarction. Other symptoms include anxiety, fever, tachycardia, apprehension, cough, diaphoresis, hemoptysis, and syncope. The most frequent sign is tachypnea (very rapid respiratory rate).

A mediastinal shift occurs in which type of chest disorder?

Tension pneumothorax Explanation: A tension pneumothorax causes the lung to collapse and the heart, the great vessels, and the trachea to shift toward the unaffected side of the chest (mediastinal shift). A traumatic pneumothorax occurs when air escapes from a laceration in the lung itself and enters the pleural space or enters the pleural space through a wound in the chest wall. A simple pneumothorax most commonly occurs as air enters the pleural space through the rupture of a bleb or a bronchopleural fistula. Cardiac tamponade is compression of the heart resulting from fluid or blood within the pericardial sac.

The nurse suctions a patient through the endotracheal tube for 20 seconds and observes dysrhythmias on the monitor. What does the nurse determine is occurring with the patient?

The patient is hypoxic from suctioning. Explanation: Apply suction while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees (no longer than 10-15 seconds). Prolonged suctioning may result in hypoxia and dysrhythmias, leading to cardiac arrest.

A nurse observes constant bubbling in the water-seal chamber of a closed chest drainage system. What should the nurse conclude?

The system has an air leak. Explanation: Constant bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak and requires immediate intervention. The client with a pneumothorax will have intermittent bubbling in the water-seal chamber. Clients without a pneumothorax should have no evidence of bubbling in the chamber. If the tube is obstructed, the fluid would stop fluctuating in the water-seal chamber.

A water seal system for chest drainage has been inserted into a patient who suffered chest trauma during a motor vehicle accident. At the beginning of the night shift, the nurse has entered the patient's room to assess the system and the patient's condition. Which of the following assessment findings suggests that the system is operating correctly and the patient is maintaining oxygenation?

The water level in the water seal chamber increases when the patient inhales. Explanation: The water seal chamber has a one-way valve or water seal that prevents air from moving back into the chest when the patient inhales. There is an increase in the water level with inspiration and a return to the baseline level during exhalation; this is referred to as tidaling. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is normal, but continuous bubbling can indicate an air leak. Water levels should at no time reach the top of the water seal chamber.

Which is a classic sign of cardiogenic shock?

Tissue hypoperfusion Explanation: Tissue hypoperfusion is manifested as cerebral hypoxia (restlessness, confusion, agitation). Low blood pressure is a classic sign of cardiogenic shock. Hypoactive bowel sounds are classic signs of cardiogenic shock. Decreased urinary output is a classic sign of cardiogenic shock.

A client is being mechanically ventilated in the ICU. The ventilator alarms begin to sound. The nurse should complete which action first?

Troubleshoot to identify the malfunction. Explanation: The nurse should first immediately attempt to identify and correct the problem; if the problem cannot be identified and/or corrected, the client must be manually ventilated with an Ambu bag. The respiratory therapist may be notified, but this is not the first action by the nurse. The nurse should not reposition the endotracheal tube as a first response to an alarm.

The nurse participates in the care of a client requiring emergent defibrillation. The nurse determines the steps should be completed in which order?

Turn on the defibrillator and place it in "not sync" mode. Charge the defibrillator to the prescribed voltage. Apply the multifunction conductor pads to the client's chest. Call "clear" three times ensuring client and environmental safety. Deliver the prescribed electrical charge.

Which electrocardiogram (ECG) characteristic is usually seen when a client's serum potassium level is low?

U wave Explanation: The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a client's serum potassium level is low. The T wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting repolarization of the ventricles. It may become tall or "peaked" if a client's serum potassium level is high. The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria. The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

A nurse is aware that the diagnostic feature of ARDS is sudden:

Unresponsive arterial hypoxemia.

A nurse is caring for a client who is at high risk for developing pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse include on the client's care plan?

Using strict hand hygiene Explanation: The nurse should use strict hand hygiene to help minimize the client's exposure to infection, which could lead to pneumonia. The head of the bed should be kept at a minimum of 30 degrees. The client should be turned and repositioned at least every 2 hours to help promote secretion drainage. Oral hygiene should be performed every 4 hours to help decrease the number of organisms in the client's mouth that could lead to pneumonia.

A patient who had a myocardial infarction is experiencing severe chest pain and alerts the nurse. The nurse begins the assessment but suddenly the patient becomes unresponsive, no pulse, with the monitor showing a rapid, disorganized ventricular rhythm. What does the nurse interpret this rhythm to be?

Ventricular fibrillation Explanation: The most common dysrhythmia in patients with cardiac arrest is ventricular fibrillation, which is a rapid, disorganized ventricular rhythm that causes ineffective quivering of the ventricles. No atrial activity is seen on the ECG. The most common cause of ventricular fibrillation is coronary artery disease and resulting acute myocardial infarction. Ventricular fibrillation is always characterized by the absence of an audible heartbeat, a palpable pulse, and respirations.

Which is the most reliable and accurate method for delivering precise concentrations of oxygen through noninvasive means?

Venturi mask Explanation: The Venturi mask is the most reliable and accurate method for delivering a precise concentration of oxygen through noninvasive means. The mask is constructed in a way that allows a constant flow of room air blended with a fixed flow of oxygen. Nasal cannula, T-piece, and partial-rebreathing masks are not the most reliable and accurate methods of oxygen administration.

Which type of ventilator has a preset volume of air to be delivered with each inspiration?

Volume cycled Explanation: With volume-cycled ventilation, the volume of air to be delivered with each inspiration is preset. Negative-pressure ventilators exert a negative pressure on the external chest. Time-cycled ventilators terminate or control inspiration after a preset time. When the pressure-cycled ventilator cycles on, it delivers a flow of air (inspiration) until it reaches a preset pressure, and then cycles off, and expiration occurs passively.

After lobectomy for lung cancer, a client receives a chest tube connected to a disposable chest drainage system. The nurse observes that the drainage system is functioning correctly when she notes tidal movements or fluctuations in which compartment of the system as the client breathes?

Water-seal chamber Explanation: Fluctuations in the water-seal compartment are called tidal movements and indicate normal function of the system as the pressure in the tubing changes with the client's respirations. The air-leak meter — not chamber — detects air leaking from the pleural space. The collection chamber connects the chest tube from the client to the system. Drainage from the tube drains into and collects in a series of calibrated columns in this chamber. The suction control chamber provides the suction, which can be controlled to provide negative pressure to the chest.

Hyperbaric oxygen therapy increases the blood's capacity to carry and deliver oxygen to compromised tissues. This therapy may be used for a client with:

a compromised skin graft. Explanation: A client with a compromised skin graft could benefit from hyperbaric oxygen therapy because increasing oxygenation at the wound site promotes wound healing. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy isn't indicated for malignant tumors, pneumonia, or hyperthermia.

A client has been diagnosed with congestive heart failure. This client's cardiac function has been compromised since the client suffered a myocardial infarction 3 years ago. Heart failure is classified by:

amount of activity restriction the failure imposes. Explanation: Chronic heart failure is classified based on the amount of activity restriction it imposes. Although organizations that develop the classifications may have varying stages, they are all based on the level of activity restriction.

Which is not a likely origination point for cardiac dysrhythmias?

bundle of His Explanation: Cardiac dysrhythmias may originate in the atria, atrioventricular node, or ventricles. They do not originate in the Bundle of His.

After evaluating a client for hypertension, a health care provider orders atenolol, 50 mg P.O. daily. Which therapeutic effect should atenolol have in treating hypertension?

decreased cardiac output and decreased systolic and diastolic blood pressure Explanation: As a long-acting, selective beta1-adrenergic blocker, atenolol decreases cardiac output and systolic and diastolic blood pressure; however, like other beta-adrenergic blockers, it increases peripheral vascular resistance at rest and with exercise. Atenolol may cause bradycardia, not tachycardia.

A client has been diagnosed with right-sided heart failure based on symptomology. The cardiologist will confirm this suspicion through diagnostics. Which diagnostics are used to reveal right ventricular enlargement? Select all that apply.

electrocardiogram chest radiograph echocardiography

After undergoing a left thoracotomy, a client has a chest tube in place. When caring for this client, the nurse must:

encourage coughing and deep breathing.

Class 1 with regard to TB indicates

exposure and no evidence of infection. Explanation: Class 1 is exposure but no evidence of infection. Class 0 is no exposure and no infection. Class 2 is a latent infection with no disease. Class 4 is disease, but not clinically active.

A nurse assesses arterial blood gas results for a patient in acute respiratory failure (ARF). Which results are consistent with this disorder?

pH 7.28, PaO2 50 mm Hg Explanation: ARF is defined as a decrease in arterial oxygen tension (PaO2) to less than 60 mm Hg (hypoxemia) and an increase in arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO2) to >50 mm Hg (hypercapnia), with an arterial pH less than 7.35.

A client is receiving captopril for heart failure. During the nurse's assessment, what sign indicates that the medication therapy is ineffective?

peripheral edema Explanation: Peripheral edema is a sign of fluid volume excess and worsening heart failure. A skin rash, dry cough, and postural hypotension are adverse reactions to captopril, but they don't indicate that therapy is ineffective.

What does a positive Mantoux test indicate?

production of an immune response Explanation: The Mantoux test is based on the antigen/antibody response and will show a positive reaction after an individual has been exposed to tuberculosis and has formed antibodies to the tuberculosis bacteria. Thus, a positive Mantoux test indicates the production of an immune response. Exposure doesn't confer immunity. A positive test doesn't confirm that a person has (or will develop) tuberculosis.

A client with a history of an anterior wall myocardial infarction is being transferred from the coronary care unit (CCU) to the cardiac step-down unit (CSU). While giving a report to the CSU nurse, the CCU nurse says, "His pulmonary artery wedge pressures have been in the high normal range." What additional assessment information would be important for the CSU nurse to obtain?

pulmonary crackles Explanation: High pulmonary artery wedge pressures are diagnostic for left-sided heart failure. With left-sided heart failure, pulmonary edema can develop causing pulmonary crackles. In left-sided heart failure, hypotension may result and urine output will decline. Dry mucous membranes aren't directly associated with elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressures.

The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a lobectomy. Following the procedure, the nurse will plan care based on the client

returning to the nursing unit with two chest tubes. Explanation: The nurse should plan for the client to return to the nursing unit with two chest tubes intact. During a lobectomy, the lobe is removed, and the remaining lobes of the lung are re-expanded. Usually, two chest catheters are inserted for drainage. The upper tube is for air removal; the lower one is for fluid drainage. Sometimes only one catheter is needed. The chest tube is connected to a chest drainage apparatus for several days.

When the nurse observes that the client's heart rate increases during inspiration and decreases during expiration, the nurse reports that the client is demonstrating

sinus dysrhythmia. Explanation: Sinus dysrhythmia occurs when the sinus node creates an impulse at an irregular rhythm. Normal sinus rhythm occurs when the electrical impulse starts at a regular rate and rhythm in the SA node and travels through the normal conduction pathway. Sinus bradycardia occurs when the sinus node regularly creates an impulse at a slower-than-normal rate. Sinus tachycardia occurs when the sinus node regularly creates an impulse at a faster-than-normal rate.

A nurse is caring for a client who was intubated because of respiratory failure. The client is now receiving mechanical ventilation with a preset tidal volume and number of breaths each minute. The client has the ability to breathe spontaneously between the ventilator breaths with no ventilator assistance. The nurse should document the ventilator setting as:

synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV). Explanation: In SIMV mode, the ventilator delivers a preset number of breaths at a preset tidal volume. The client can breathe on his own in between the breaths delivered by the ventilator. In PSV, a pressure plateau is added to the ventilator to prevent the airway pressure from falling beneath a preset level. In AC ventilation, the ventilator delivers a preset number of breaths at a preset tidal volume and any breaths that the client takes on his own are assisted by the ventilator so they reach the preset tidal volume. In CPAP, the ventilator provides only positive airway pressure; it doesn't provide any breaths to the client.