Audit ch 10

10.37 All corporate capital stock transactions should ultimately be traced to the a. Minutes of the meetings of the board of directors. b. Cash receipts journal. c. Cash disbursements journal. d. Numbered stock certificates.

a. Correct Capital stock transactions are important by definition, and the directors should have approved all of them. b. Incorrect Sales of stock should be traced to cash receipts, but not necessarily other transactions. c. Incorrect Purchases of treasury stock should be traced to cash disbursements, but not sales. d. Incorrect If shares are sold, the numbered certificates will not be available.

10.35 When independent stock transfer agents are not employed and the corporation issues its own stock and maintains stock records, canceled stock certificates should a. Be defaced to prevent reissuance and attached to their corresponding stubs. b. Not be defaced but be segregated from other stock certificates and retained in a canceled certificates file. c. Be destroyed to prevent fraudulent reissuance. d. Be defaced and sent to the secretary of state.

a. Correct Stock certificates should be defaced but retained so the auditors can actually see the canceled certificate. b. Incorrect See (a). c. Incorrect The defaced certificates should be retained so the auditors can see that they have not been issued. d. Incorrect See (c).

10.24 Loan covenants are used for which of the following reasons? a. To protect the lender from the borrower's substantially weakening of the latter's financial position. b. To protect the borrower from the lender's calling the loan early. c. To protect the auditors from false information by the borrower. d. To protect shareholders from management taking on too much debt

a. Correct This is the purpose of covenants. b. Incorrect The covenants are to protect the lender. c. Incorrect Auditors are not involved in structuring client transactions. d. Incorrect The board of directors should protect the shareholders from too much debt.

10.39 When an entity uses a trust company as custodian of its marketable securities, the possibility of concealing fraud most likely would be reduced if the a. Trust company has no direct contact with the entity employees responsible for maintaining investment accounting records. b. Securities are registered in the name of the trust company rather than the entity itself. c. Interest and dividend checks are mailed directly to an entity employee who is authorized to sell securities. d. The trust company places the securities in a bank safe deposit vault under the custodian's exclusive control.

a. Correct To conceal fraud related to marketable securities, collusion between those responsible for record keeping and custody would be required. The possibility of collusion is reduced if no direct contact between responsible parties exists. b. Incorrect Securities must be registered in the name of the company. c. Incorrect Custody and authorization are incompatible duties. d. Incorrect How the trust company secures the assets has nothing to do with preventing fraud at the company.

10.31 Which of the following is the most important audit consideration when examining the stockholders' equity section of a client's balance sheet? a. Changes in the capital stock account are verified by an independent stock transfer agent. b. Stock dividends and stock splits during the year under audit were approved by the stockholders. c. Stock dividends are capitalized at par or stated value on the dividend declaration date. d. Entries in the capital stock account can be traced to resolutions in the minutes of meetings of the board of directors.

a. Incorrect A company does not necessarily need to use a transfer agent. b. Incorrect These are usually approved by directors. c. Incorrect Stock dividends are recorded at fair market value. d. Correct Capital stock transactions are important by definition, and the directors should have approved all of them.

10.41 A client has a large and active investment portfolio that is kept in a bank safe deposit box. If the auditors are unable to count securities at the balance sheet date, they most likely will a. Request the bank to confirm to the auditors the contents of the safe deposit box at the balance-sheet date. b. Examine supporting evidence for transactions occurring during the year. c. Count the securities at a subsequent date and confirm with the bank whether securities were added or removed since the balance-sheet date. d. Request the client to have the bank seal the safe deposit box until the auditors can count the securities at a subsequent date.

a. Incorrect Banks do not open safe deposit boxes. b. Incorrect Auditors normally do not rely on tests of transactions for securities. The auditor normally needs to count the certificates. c. Incorrect Banks do not know what is added to or removed from safety deposit boxes. d. Correct Securities should be inspected simultaneously with the verification of cash and the count of other liquid assets to prevent transfers among asset categories for the purpose of concealing a shortage. If this procedure is not possible but the securities are kept by a custodian in a bank safe deposit box, the client may instruct the custodian that no one is to have access to the securities unless in the presence of the auditor. Thus, when finally inspecting the securities, the auditor may conclude that they represent what was on hand at the balance-sheet date.

10.23 Which of the following approaches is most suitable for auditing the finance and investment cycle? a. Perform extensive tests of controls and limit substantive procedures to analytical procedures. b. Ignore internal controls and perform extensive substantive procedures. c. Gain an understanding of internal controls and perform extensive substantive procedures. d. Ignore internal controls and limit substantive procedures to analytical procedures.

a. Incorrect Because of the large amounts of the items, a substantive approach is preferred. b. Incorrect Auditors can never ignore internal controls. c. Correct Controls must be reviewed (and tested for public companies); however, a substantive approach is preferred. d. Incorrect This would be the least effective approach.

10.44 An audit plan to examine long-term debt most likely would include steps that require a. Comparing the carrying amount of held-to-maturity securities with their year-end market values. b. Correlating interest expense recorded for the period with outstanding debt. c. Verifying the existence of the holders of the debt by direct confirmation. d. Inspecting the accounts payable subsidiary ledger for unrecorded long-term debt.

a. Incorrect Held-to-maturity debt is recorded at cost. b. Correct By reconciling interest expense with interest-bearing obligations, the auditor verifies the amount of outstanding liabilities. If interest expense is excessive in relation to the long-term debt, unrecorded interest-bearing obligations may be outstanding. c. Incorrect The auditor is usually less concerned about existence than completeness. d. Incorrect If the bond is unrecorded, it will not be in the ledger.

10.43 In auditing for unrecorded long-term bonds payable, an audit team most likely will a. Perform analytical procedures on the bond premium and discount accounts. b. Examine documentation of assets purchased with bond proceeds for liens. c. Compare interest expense with the bond payable amount for reasonableness. d. Confirm the existence of individual bondholders at year-end

a. Incorrect If bonds are unrecorded, nothing will show up in bond premium or discount. b. Incorrect This has nothing to do with completeness of bonds payable. c. Correct The recorded interest expense should reconcile with the outstanding bonds payable. If interest expense appears excessive relative to the recorded bonds payable, unrecorded long-term liabilities may exist. d. Incorrect If the payable account is incomplete, the bond will not be on the listing the auditor uses to select confirmations.

10.28 Which of the following internal control activities would most likely justify reducing the assessment of risks of material misstatement for long term payable? A. The use of prenumbered purchase orders to prevent unrecorded notes B. all direct borrowings on notes payable are authorized by the board of directors C. any use of assets for collateral on long term notes payable are analyzed for critically to operations. D. proceeds from long term notes payable are included in regular review of budgets to ensure adequacy of cash flow availability

a. Incorrect Long-term notes payable are not recorded with normal purchases. b. Correct Authorization by the board of directors is the most important control procedure for long-term notes payable. c. Incorrect This control is more closely related to presentation and disclosure, but is not closely related to material misstatements of long-term notes payable. d.IncorrectThis control procedure is more closely related to efficiency and effectiveness of

10.36 When a client company does not maintain its own capital stock records, the auditors should obtain written confirmation from the transfer agent and registrar concerning a. Restrictions on the payment of dividends. b. The number of shares issued and outstanding. c. Guarantees of preferred stock liquidation value. d. The number of shares subject to agreements to repurchase.

a. Incorrect Registrar/transfer agent has no record of restrictions on the payment of dividends. b. Correct The number of shares issued and outstanding is the record kept by the registrar/transfer agent. c. Incorrect Registrar/transfer agent has no record of guarantees of preferred stock liquidation value. d. Incorrect Registrar/transfer agent has no record of the number of shares subject to agreements to repurchase.

10.30 In connection with the audit of an issue of long-term bonds payable, the audit team should a. Determine whether bondholders are persons other than owners, directors, or officers of the company issuing the bond. b. Calculate the effective interest rate to see whether it is substantially the same as the rates charged for similar issues. c. Decide whether the bond issue was made without violating state or local laws or regulations. d. Ascertain that the client has obtained the opinion of counsel on the legality of the issue.

a. Incorrect Related parties can own the bonds, but their ownership must be disclosed. b. Incorrect This is not the responsibility of external auditors. c. Incorrect This is not a primary responsibility of external auditors. d. Correct Among the choices available, obtaining an opinion from legal counsel is the best response. The legality of a bond issue is important although not the only important thing.

10.47 Which of the following audit procedures would not likely be performed for audits of investments? a. Read board of directors' minutes for authorization of investment strategies. b. Confirm investments with registrar. c. Confirm investments with broker or trustee. d. Compare valuation to published market prices.

a. Incorrect Review of minutes for authorization is an important audit procedure. b. Correct The registrar would not have information related to the investor or market information. c. Incorrect The broker in particular would have information on the sale of investments to the client. d. Incorrect Determining market value is an important audit procedure.

10.48 Which of the following audit procedures would not likely be performed for audits of shareholders' equity? a. Read board of directors' minutes for authorization of equity transactions. b. Confirm outstanding common and preferred stock with stock registrar. c. Compare valuation of stock to published market prices. d. Obtain management representation about number of shares issued and outstanding.

a. Incorrect Review of minutes for authorization is an important audit procedure. b. Incorrect The registrar would have record of stock sold. c. Correct Market price is not important in valuing shareholder's equity. d. Incorrect Obtaining management representation is an important procedure.

10.38 An audit plan for the examination of the retained earnings account should include a step that requires verification of the (choose two steps) a. Market value used to charge retained earnings to account for a 2-for-1 stock split. b. Approval of the adjustment to the beginning balance as a result of a write-down of account receivables. c. Authorization for both cash and stock dividends declared and paid. d. Gain or loss resulting from disposition of treasury shares.

a. Incorrect Stock splits have no effect on retained earnings. b. Incorrect This would not go to beginning balance of retained earnings. c. Correct These should be authorized by the board of directors. d. Correct Gain or loss on treasury stock transactions should be audited.

10.32 If the auditors discover that the carrying amount of a client's investments is overstated because of a loss in value that is other than a temporary decline in market value, they should insist that a. The approximate market value of the investments be shown in parentheses on the face of the balance sheet. b. The investments be classified as long term for balance-sheet purposes with full disclosure in the footnotes. c. The loss in value be recognized in the financial statements. d. The equity section of the balance sheet separately show a charge equal to the amount of the loss.

a. Incorrect The approximate market value should be shown as the account balance on the balance sheet, not in parentheses. b. Incorrect The classification of the investment is determined by the maturity or intent, not by the profitability of the investment. c. Correct Losses on investment should be recorded in the accounts and shown in the financial statements. (Losses on trading securities in the income statement; loss on available-for-sale securities in the equity section.) d. Incorrect The loss would not be shown separately in the equity section of the balance sheet.

10.29 Which of the following assertions is most likely to have the highest risk of material misstatement for the goodwill account? A. Existence B. Completeness C. Valuation D. rights and obligations

a. Incorrect The existence of goodwill is determined based on an excess of purchase price over fair value of identifiable assets in a purchase transaction. b. Incorrect Goodwill is unlikely to be understated in a purchase transaction. c. Correct Because goodwill is not a separately identifiable asset, valuation is a level 3 fair value estimate and is generally considered a substantial risk in an audit. d. Incorrect Rights & Obligations is not a relevant assertion in the audit of goodwill.

10.49 ABC Company has 100 shares of IBM stock that it holds as an investment. The stock was purchased three years ago and has been in the client's safe deposit box along with other investment securities. During an inspection of securities held by the client, the auditor noted the 100 shares of IBM stock had a different CUSIP number than the number listed when purchased and the number verified during the previous audit. Which of the following would be the auditor's main concern about this discovery? a. The certificates in the safe deposit box were forgeries. b. There had been unauthorized buying and selling of investment securities. c. The securities may be misclassified on the balance sheet. d. ABC Company no longer owns the securities.

a. Incorrect There is no evidence that the certificates are forgeries. b. Correct The main concern is that someone sold the IBM securities (in order to use the cash) and repurchased the securities at a later date. This may have been done for personal use or for the company. c. Incorrect There is no evidence that the securities are not properly presented on the balance sheet. d. Incorrect The fact that there is a certificate for IBM stock indicates that the company still owns 100 shares of IBM.

10.40 An audit team would most likely verify the interest earned on bond investments by a. Vouching the receipt and deposit of interest checks. b. Confirming the bond interest rate with the issuer of the bonds. c. Recomputing the interest earned on the basis of face amount, interest rate, and period held. d. Testing internal controls relevant to cash receipts.

a. Incorrect This ignores accruals. b. Incorrect The interest earned depends on the effective rate, not the face rate. c. Correct The audit program for long-term investments includes making an independent computation of revenue (such as dividends and interest). For example, bond certificates contain information about interest rates, payment dates, issue date, and face amount that the auditor can use to recalculate bond interest earned, including amounts accrued but not collected, during the period the auditee has held the investment. d. Incorrect See (a).

10.26 Jones was engaged to examine the financial statements of Gamma Corporation for the year ended June 30. Having completed an examination of the investment securities, which of the following is the best method of verifying the accuracy of recorded dividend income? a. Tracing recorded dividend income to cash receipts records and validated deposit slips. b. Performing analytical procedures and statistical sampling. c. Comparing recorded dividends with amounts appearing on federal information Form 1099. d. Comparing recorded dividends with a standard financial reporting service's record of dividends.

a. Incorrect This ignores accruals. b. Incorrect This procedure does not lend itself to statistical sampling because of the low volume of transactions. c. Incorrect This also ignores dividends receivable. d. Correct Independent evidence from an outside dividend reporting service is the best evidence for existence, completeness, and valuation.

10.45 Which of the following questions would auditors most likely include on an internal control questionnaire for notes payable? a. Are assets that collateralize notes payable critically needed for the entity's continued existence? b. Are two or more authorized signatures required on checks that repay notes payable? c. Are the proceeds from notes payable used to purchase noncurrent assets? d. Are direct borrowings on notes payable authorized by the board of directors?

a. Incorrect This is a management decision. b. Incorrect This might be a good cash disbursements control, but (d) is more important. c. Incorrect This is a management decision. d. Correct Control is enhanced when different persons or departments authorize, record, and maintain custody of assets for a class of transactions. Authorization of notes payable transactions is best done by the board of directors.

10.25 A related party is a person or entity that a. Has a family tie to a management member. b. Does business with the company. c. Can exert significant influence over or be influenced by the company. d. Is a member of the company's management team or board of directors.

a. Incorrect This is a related party, but the definition is incomplete. b. Incorrect This is a related party, but the definition is incomplete. c. Correct This is the complete definition. d. Incorrect This is a related party, but the definition is incomplete.

10.33 The primary reason for preparing a reconciliation between interest-bearing obligations outstanding during the year and interest expense in the financial statements is to a. Evaluate internal control over securities. b. Determine the validity of prepaid interest expense. c. Ascertain the reasonableness of imputed interest. d. Detect unrecorded liabilities.

a. Incorrect This is a substantive test that has little to do with controls. b. Incorrect Prepaid expense would have to be calculated based on the payment date. c. Incorrect This might provide evidence regarding imputed interest expense, but only if all liabilities are recorded. Imputed interest generally requires a detailed test considering the specific terms of the debt. d. Correct "Detect unrecorded liabilities" is the best response, but remember that the procedure might be ineffective if the interest expense on an unrecorded liability is also unrecorded.

10.42 An audit team testing long-term investments would ordinarily use analytical procedures to ascertain the reasonableness of the a. Existence of unrealized gains or losses. b. Completeness of recorded investment income. c. Classification as available-for-sale or trading securities. d. Valuation of trading securities.

a. Incorrect This is not a suitable objective for analytical procedures because gains and losses can result from unique circumstances. b. Correct The auditor may develop expectations regarding the completeness assertion for unrecorded investment income from stocks by using dividend records published by standard investment advisory services to recompute dividends received. Interest income from bond investments can be calculated from interest rates and payment dates noted on the certificates. Income from equity-based investments can be estimated from audited financial statements of the investees. Thus, applying an expected rate of return to the net investment amount may be an effective means of estimating total investment income. c. Incorrect The auditor must evaluate management's plans for the securities. d. Incorrect This is not a suitable objective for analytical procedures because market prices are volatile and difficult to predict.

10.34 The auditors should insist that a representative of the client be present during the inspection and count of securities to a. Lend authority to the auditors' directives. b. Detect forged securities. c. Coordinate the return of all securities to proper locations. d. Acknowledge the receipt of securities returned.

a. Incorrect This is somewhat true because the bank won't let the auditor in without permission. However, (d) is more important. b. Incorrect It is unlikely that either would be able to detect forged securities. c. Incorrect The auditor could do this without the client. d. Correct A client representative should be present to acknowledge return so the auditor will not be accused of theft.

10.27 When the client holds a large amount of negotiable securities, auditors need to plan to guard against a. Unauthorized negotiation of the securities before they are counted. b. Unrecorded sales of securities after they are counted. c. Substitution of securities already counted for other securities that should be on hand but are not. d. Substitution of authentic securities with counterfeit securities.

a. Incorrect This should be prevented by controls, not the audit. b. Incorrect See answer (a). c. Correct The danger is that someone might move securities so the auditor counts them twice. d. Incorrect This is a danger, but audits cannot be relied upon to detect counterfeit securities.

10.46 An audit team's purpose in reviewing the documentation concerning the renewal of a note payable shortly after the balance-sheet date most likely is to obtain evidence concerning management's assertions about a. Existence. b. Valuation. c. Completeness. d. Classification.

d. Correct Events such as the renewal of the note payable do not require adjustment of the financial statements but may require disclosure. Accordingly, the auditor should determine that the renewal had essentially the same terms and conditions as the recorded debt at year-end. A significant change may affect the presentation of notes payable such as a reclassification from short term to long term.