BIOL 315

36. True or false: genome size of an organism is reliably predicted by the protein-coding DNA of the organism across the tree of life. a. True b. False

a. False

180. Refer to the figure. The snow goose (Chen caerulescens) has both a blue and a white morph. Inheritance is Mendeilian: BB and BB individuals are blue, while bb individuals are white. If 23 geese in a population of 142 are white, and 119 are blue, what is the predicted genotype frequency of BB? a. 1.36 b. 1.09 c. 0.45 d. 0.36

0.36

23. Refer to the life table above. What is the per-capita population growth rate of this population? a. 1 b. 0 c. 0.5 d. 2

1

11. Refer to the life table above. What is the average lifetime reproductive success of this population? a. 3 b. 1 c. 2 d. 0.5

a. 1

2. Refer to the life table above. What is the age of first reproduction for this species? a. 2 b. 3d c. 1 d. 4

a. 2

26. Which two observations serve as the proposed sources of selection for mitonuclear coevolution in mammals? a. 2 and 4 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 3 and 4

a. 3 and 4

85. According to modern estimates, Earth formed about _______ and life emerged around ________. a. 4.6 billion years ago; 4 billion years ago b. 10 billion years ago; 4 billion years ago c. 13.5 years before present; 4.5 years before present d. 6,000 years ago; 6,000 years ago.

a. 4.6 billion years ago; 4 billion years ago

49. Evolution can be constrained by several factors. Which of the following describes a developmental constraint? a. A bias in the production of phenotypes b. Properties of biological material that prevent c. A constraint preventing certain evolutionary d. Limitations set by genome

a. A bias in the production of phenotypes

63. Evolution can be constrained by several factors a. A constraint preventing certain evolutionary trajectories b. A bias in the production of phenotypes c. Properties of biological material d. Limitations set by the genome and genetic variation

a. A bias in the production of phenotypes

166. A point mutation in the 1st position of a codon typically results in a. A change in the encoded amino acid b. A chromosomal inversion c. No change in the encoded amino acid d. A synonymous mutation

a. A change in the encoded amino acid

47. A population of whales has recovered from near extinction after more laws and regulations a. A dN:dS ratio near zero because b. A dN:dS ratio near 1 because c. Strong signatures of purifying d. Strong signatures of positive selection

a. A dN:dS ratio near 1 because

57. HOX genes are ______ a. The only type of gene that influence b. A family of transcription factors that determine c. Are conserved across all known d. Cis-regulatory elements that turn on

a. A family of transcription factors that determine

159. A mutation in DNA found in which type of cell would be found in descendants as well as the individual in which the mutation occurred? a. A somatic cell like the xylem cell of a tree b. A germ-line cell in an elephant's reproductive tract c. An epithelial cell such as the skin of humans d. A muscle-cell in a mouse's heart e. A lung cell of a bird, which is critical for respiration

a. A germ-line cell in an elephant's reproductive tract

75. What event corresponds with the radiation of mammal species that live today? a. The evolution of dinosaurs during the Triassic period. b. The mass extinction during the Permian. c. A huge asteroid that struck the Mexican Yucatan peninsula during the Cretaceous or Paleogene (k:Pg) periods. d. The Pleistocene glaciation events in North America.

a. A huge asteroid that struck the Mexican Yucatan peninsula during the Cretaceous or Paleogene (k:Pg) periods.

79. The Cambrian explosion that gave rise to a huge diversity of larger animal morphologies coincides with what other characteristic of Earth? a. Human caused increases in atmospheric carbon dioxide. b. A large increase in oxygen content of the atmosphere and water. c. A large increase in sulfide content of the atmosphere and water. d. The evolution of land plants

a. A large increase in oxygen content of the atmosphere and water.

76. The evolution of insects characterized by six legs on the thorax, from other arthropods with multiple legs on their abdomen coincides with what change? a. The evolution of a new set of HOX genes that have a novel function. b. A transcription factor gene duplication event. c. A mutation in a HOX gene that now prevents legs from forming on the abdomen. d. Large deletions in the HOX genes that control abdomen leg development.

a. A mutation in a HOX gene that now prevents legs from forming on the abdomen.

45. In which location in the genome are a. Noncoding region that experiences b. An exon of a protein c. A noncoding area of the genome that experiences little recombination d. A protein coding gene's intron e. Between a gene's promoter

a. A noncoding area of the genome that experiences little recombination

55. Which type of mutation is more likely to be under positive selection and go to fixation in a population with a large effective population size? a. There will be a random chance of either a synonymous or nonsynonymous mutation going to fixation. b. No mutation would go to fixation in this scenario. c. A nonsynonymous mutation because it can lead to new protein forms and or functions. d. A synonymous mutation because it does not change the amino acid called for by the codon.

a. A nonsynonymous mutation because it can lead to new protein forms and or functions.

176. The Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium is considered to be a. A default status of all genes in a population when evolution is occurring b. An idealized state that tests whether an individual will survive to the next generation c. A change in allele frequencies over time d. A null model of evolution

a. A null model of evolution

56. Which of these would be considered a cis-regulatory element for a gene? a. A region of DNA sequence upstream b. Methylation of DNA preventing c. A protein that binds to a an enhancer d. A ribosome that translates e. A DNA binding protein

a. A region of DNA sequence upstream

60. Which of the following scenarios would likely have the largest impact on the evolution of a particular transposable element in a population? a. Many transposable elements that accumulated loss of function mutations after they inserted into intergenic regions. b. DNA transposon that is in linkage disequilibrium with a pseudogene. c. A DNA transposon inserted into the middle of an exon. d. A retrotransposon that inserts copies of itself in a region just upstream of a gene transcribed, but does not affect gene function.

a. A retrotransposon that inserts copies of itself in a region just upstream of a gene transcribed, but does not affect gene function.

6. In which scenario is parent-offspring conflict most likely to arise? a. A species that has one offspring per reproductive event, but is iteroparous b. A species whose inclusive fitness is mostly from indirect fitness c. A species that has a single large clutch of offspring then dies d. A species that is monogamous

a. A species that has one offspring per reproductive event, but is iteroparous

175. Using this codon table, a point mutation of CGT and CGC is called a. A nonsynonymous mutation b. A synonymous mutation c. A deletion d. An insertion

a. A synonymous mutation

67. What mechanism would not result in the blocking of transcription of some target gene? a. A mutation in the sequence of a trans-regulatory element of that gene. b. A nonsynonymous mutation in transcription factor upstream of this gene in a developmental pathway. c. A deletion in the sequence of a cis-regulatory element of that gene. d. A synonymous mutation in the exon of the target gene.

a. A synonymous mutation in the exon of the target gene.

138. Which scenario depicts adaptations incorrectly? a. A trait evolves that serves a valuable purpose in the environment of those that possess it b. A trait evolves in anticipation of a future environmental change c. A trait in an organism increases in frequency because of non-random differences in survival and reproduction d. As a trait became modified, its function was also altered e. A modified trait in an organism helps it leave behind more descendants

a. A trait evolves in anticipation of a future environmental change

69. If selection for hairlessness in dogs also results in malformed jaws and teeth, then the section of the genome under selection is likely _____. a. A pseudogene with many mutations b. A transcription factor that binds to only one enhancer region. c. A cis-regulatory element of a single copy gene. d. A trans-regulatory element that acts pleiotropically.

a. A trans-regulatory element that acts pleiotropically.

126. Refer to the figure showing a phylogeny of the cypresses. The phylogeny in the figure suggests that the distribution of cypress species is best explained as a. Dispersal to Africa, followed by several vicariance events b. Vicariance only c. Cycles of dispersal, followed by vicariance, then dispersal again d. Dispersal only e. A vicariant event, followed by several dispersal events to Africa

a. A vicariant event, followed by several dispersal events to Africa

202. Which is true about the evolution of bipedalism? a. Bipedalism evolved before relatively large brains evolved b. evidence of bipedalism first shows up in the fossil record during times which most of Africa contain open savanna habitat c. evidence of bipedalism first shows up in the fossil record during times which most of Africa contain forested woodland habitat d. A&C e. A&B

a. A&C

110. Insectivorous bats and fruit-eating bats, which hunt at night, occupy two ______ that differ from those of diurnal insect- and fruit-eating birds. a. Adaptive zones b. Adaptive radiations c. Competitive displacements d. Geographic distributions e. Key adaptations

a. Adaptive zones

146. Not all traits are adaptations. Which statement may also explain the evolution of a particular trait? a. It may be necessary consequence of physics or chemistry b. It may be a consequence of phylogenetic history. c. All of the above d. It may have evolved by genetic drift, rather than by natural selection e. It may have evolved because it was correlated with another trait that conferred an adaptive advantage.

a. All of the above

77. Which feature is universal among organisms, thus implying that all living things derive from a common ancestor? a. Genetic code b. All of these answers c. Basic metabolic reactions d. The machinery of replication

a. All of these answers

29. The nuclear genome of eukaryotes contains which of the following a. Exons b. Genes c. Transposable elements d. All of these answers are correct e. Introns

a. All of these answers are correct

35. Mutations at the third position of the codon are more likely to a. Result in gene product with the similar b. By synonymous c. Be fixed by genetic drift d. All of these answers are correct e. Be selectively neutral

a. All of these answers are correct

80. How did fluctuations in Pleistocene glaciation affect the distribution of organisms? a. Frequent shifts in the distribution of species moved populations around and prevented isolation through genetic mixing. b. Isolated populations diverged and became separate species. c. All of these answers are correct. d. Populations spread rapidly over large areas from one or more local refugia.

a. All of these answers are correct.

162. The Hardy-Weinberg Principle makes assumptions about the population in question. What are they? a. The population is small and who gets to reproduce is not random b. Allele frequencies remain constant over generations when natural selection, migration, genetic drift, and mutation are absent from a population c. Allele frequencies change over generations when natural selection, migration, genetic drift, and mutation are absent from a population d. Mutation, natural selection, gene flow, and genetic drift are present in the population

a. Allele frequencies remain constant over generations when natural selection, migration, genetic drift, and mutation are absent from a population

171. Linkage disequilibrium occurs when a. Alleles at different loci are present in an individual at a frequency greater than expected by chance b. When random mating occurs c. When recombination between loci is very high d. When mutation rates are high

a. Alleles at different loci are present in an individual at a frequency greater than expected by chance

128. After the breakup of Gondwana, new species evolved in South America, Africa, and Australia. Which speciation model best fits this vicariance event? a. Sympatric speciation b. Peripatric speciation c. Hybrid speciation d. Allopatric speciation e. Parapatric speciation

a. Allopatric speciation

21. Which organism is most likely to be an r-selected species? a. An organism that lives to great age b. An organism of huge body size c. An organism that is part of stable population near its carrying capacity d. An agricultural pest with many small offspring that receive no parental care e. An organism with high parental care and protection of offspring

a. An agricultural pest with many small offspring that receive no parental care

5. Ritualized fighting, where competitors suffer only superficial injuries, if any, is an example of a. Antagonistic pleiotropy b. An evolutionarily stable strategy c. An altruistic trait d. Kin selection

a. An evolutionarily stable strategy

31. Gene duplication where both copies retain a. A paralog b. An ortholog c. An increase in gene copy number d. A pseudogene

a. An increase in gene copy number

205. Many traits of anatomically modern humans enhanced our tool-use, running, and other abilities. Which of these skills was likely reduced in modern humans (compared to our ancestors) as a result of those changes? a. Anatomically modern humans have smaller teeth, reducing the rate we can ingest food, thus limiting reproductive reate b. Anatomically modern humans are poorer tree climbers than other apes because of our straightened toes and short, straight fingers c. Anatomically modern humans are poorer runners than other apes because of the rigid arch of our foot d. Anatomically modern humans are less sufficient at thermogregulation because of our lack of body hair e. The shorter arms of anatomically modern humans are less well-suited for holding our babies

a. Anatomically modern humans are poorer tree climbers than other apes because of our straightened toes and short, straight fingers

116. If a clade of organisms approaches the diversity equilibrium, K, which of the following might occur? a. Diversification will approach zero b. Any of these could occur near diversity equilibrium c. Speciation rate will decline d. Extinction rate will increase e. The number of taxa will stabilize

a. Any of these could occur near diversity equilibrium

201. which fossil hominin provided the most insight into the evolution of habitual bipedalism? a. Turkana boy- homo ergaster b. Lucy- Australopithecus afarensis c. Ardi- Ardipithecus ramidus d. Toumai- Sahelanthropus tchadensis

a. Ardi- Ardipithecus ramidus

165. The allele and genotype frequencies of a locus in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium a. Can never change after equilibrium is reached b. Are expected to change because no evolution takes place c. Are expected to remain constant if no evolutionary forces are in play d. Are expect to change in proportion to the fraction of females in the population

a. Are expected to remain constant if no evolutionary forces are in play

132. Homologous genes or characters are those that... a. Independently evolved b. Were selected against in distantly related taxa c. Arose from a gene duplication event d. Are shared among taxa that descended from a common ancestor

a. Are shared among taxa that descended from a common ancestor

90. Many types of antiobiotics that were highly effective a few decades ago are not nearly as effective in the present. Why might this be the case? a. The initial successes were statistical anomalies and the result of random chance. b. Bacteria inherit higher levels of resistance when it is needed. c. The use of penicillin declined when populations of the bread mold that produce it declined. d. Bacteria have evolved resistance to antibiotics, driven by natural selection. e. Cheaper generic drugs entered the marketplace.

a. Bacteria have evolved resistance to antibiotics, driven by natural selection.

123. The rate of change of diversity depends on the a. Mutation rate b. Rate at which taxa originate c. Rate at which taxa become extinct d. Both b and c e. Both a and c

a. Both b and c

87. The phylogeny above shows the radiation of Buchnera aphidicola lineages (left side, red lines) exactly matches the species of aphid which serve as their endosymbiotic host (right side, green lines and species names). What can we conclude from this phylogeny? a. Escheridchia coli is an endosymbiont of aphids. b. Buchnera and Aphids have been coevolving for at least 170 million years. c. The symbiotic relationship is transient and evolved many times. d. There is evidence of horizontal gene transfer of Buchnera among aphid species.

a. Buchnera and Aphids have been coevolving for at least 170 million years.

43. What can we conclude from this phylogeny? a. Buchnera and aphiods have been coevolving b. There is evidence of horizontal gene transfer c. The symbiotic relationship d. Eschericia coli is an endosymbiont of aphids

a. Buchnera and aphiods have been coevolving

41. Which complex is not expected to show patterns of mitonuclear coevolution? a. CIII b. CI c. CIV d. CII

a. CII

86. The figure above shows the 5 Complexes of the mitochondrial electron transport system. CI, CII, CIII, CIV, and CV. The colored circles indicate the genomic source of the subunits of each complex. Darker, green colored circles are nuclear-encoded proteins. Lighter, orange colored circles are mitochondrial-encoded proteins. Which complex is not expected to show patterns of mitonuclear coevolution? a. CI b. CII c. CIII d. CIV

a. CII

98. Which of the following is not one of Darwin's theories? a. Common descent b. Population change c. Natural selection d. Evolution (change over time) e. Change via saltations (extreme, sudden changes in an organism's traits)

a. Change via saltations (extreme, sudden changes in an organism's traits)

72. The closest known relatives of animals are a group of unicellular eukaryotes called a. Poriferas b. Ctenophores c. Choanoflagellates d. Drosophila melanogaster

a. Choanoflagellates

54. Transposable elements contain large chunks of repeated nucleotides. a. DNA methylation is a common method for silencing b. Apis melifera does not have transposable elements c. Chromosomal regions with transposons d. Regions with transposons

a. Chromosomal regions with transposons

66. How can a fixed set of developmental genes result in the diversity of morphologies and cell types within organisms? a. Some alleles are on sex chromosomes and differ in expression among sexes. b. Combinations of cis and transregulatory elements turn on or off genes in different places and times. c. The external environment shapes the phenotype from the genotype. d. Mutations in enzymes create new protein functions that creates diversity.

a. Combinations of cis and transregulatory elements turn on or off genes in different places and times.

109. Silvestre and colleagues found that diversity of the now extinct Canid subfamily Hesperocyoninae decreased as the diversity of the Caninae subfamily and Felidae family increased in North America. This is an example of a. Competitive displacement b. Character displacement c. Incumbent replacement d. Ecological divergence e. Niche partitioning

a. Competitive displacement

139. Which method would be the best way to test whether larger body size in amphipods is an adaptation to risk of predation? a. Correlate body size with predation risk across a number of closely related species, taking into account phylogenetic relationships b. Correlate body size with other possible antipredator traits, such as armor or swimming speed c. Expose all of the closely related species to predators and compare their survivorship d. Correlate body size with predation risk across a number of closely related species, independent of phylogenetic relationships e. Expose two species that differ in body size to predators, and compare their survivorship

a. Correlate body size with predation risk across a number of closely related species, taking into account phylogenetic relationships

133. Based on the phylogeny below, which of the following is true.... a. Hippos are more closely related to cows than whales b. Porpoise are the closest living relative of Dolphins on this phylogeny c. Cow and deer form a monophyletic clade d. Pigs are the least evolved taxa in this phylogeny

a. Cow and deer form a monophyletic clade

151. Which of the following is an example of homologous characters? a. Snails and turtles both have strong, hard shells for protection b. Crocodiles and humans both have forelimbs with five digits c. Some flies have bright yellow coloring like that of wasps. Which provides a false warning d. The aquatic larval stage was lost in a lineage of salamanders but was later regained. e. Parrotfish and parrots (like birds) both have beaklike mouths.

a. Crocodiles and humans both have forelimbs with five digits

82. What was necessary for human hands and feet to become specialized for functions very different from each other, compared to apes and other primates? a. An increase in pleiotropy of the genes responsible for limb development. b. An alteration in anterior-posterior patterning by changes in Hox expression. c. Decoupling the pleiotropic genes that pattern the hands and feet. d. Duplications of Hox genes to allow for more specialized body plans.

a. Decoupling the pleiotropic genes that pattern the hands and feet.a. One trait on an organism is growing at a faster rate than another trait./

118. Paleobiologists have suggested that competition among species for resources may limit the possible number of species to some maximum number. The pattern that would best provide evidence for such diversity dependence would be higher diversity correlated with a(n) _____ in _______ rate. a. Increase; extinction b. Increase; origination c. Decrease; extinction d. Decrease; origination e. None of the above; there is no correlation between higher diversity and extinction or origination rate

a. Decrease; origination

196. Which statement best explains why modern Europeans Asians or Africans lack Denisovan DNA in their genome? a. Denisovans are an offshoot of hominins that are unrelated to modern humans b. Denisovans interbred only with the population whose ancestors are Melanesians c. Denisovans DNA was eliminated from those populations by a strong purifying selection d. Denisovans never interbred with any population of Homo sapiens e. Neanderthal genes and Denisovan genes are incompatible so modern populations have one or the other

a. Denisovans interbred only with the population whose ancestors are Melanesians

101. The two major themes of On the Origin of Species are a. Essentialism and a transformational theory of change b. Descent with modification and a variational theory of change c. Descent with modification and a transformational theory of change d. Descent with modification and essentialism e. Essentialism and a variational theory of change.

a. Descent with modification and a variational theory of change

94. Microevolution consists of all of the following phenomena, except a. Divergence b. Mutation c. Natural selection d. Genetic drift

a. Divergence

34. The figure above maps the phenotype of bill depth a. Positive selection for adaptation b. Divergent selection due to character c. Genetic drift d. Sexual selection via a runaway process

a. Divergent selection due to character

38. Which is an example of subfunctionalization a. Retrotransposition b. Duplication of hemoglobin c. Gene duplication leads to new d. A gene is duplicated to a new position e. A duplicate of a metabolic

a. Duplication of hemoglobin

122. You examine four forested Caribbean islands Each has four species of Anolis lizard that use four ecological niches (for a total of 16 species). On each island, one species exclusively occupies either the ground, tree trucks, limbs and branches, or the smallest twigs and leaves. Phylogenetic analysis shows that the species on each island form their own monophyletic groups. Which is the best species on each island for their own monophyletic groups. Which is the best explanation for this pattern? a. All 16 species were historically present on all islands, but resource competition only allows four to survive on each island b. Each island was founded by a colonizer, perhaps from a mainland and divided up ecological niche space as they diversified into the four species present. c. One lizard species evolved a broad fundamental niche on each island, then dispersed to the other islands, where they were restricted to narrowed realized niches. d. The lizards diversified into four species on one island, then subsequently, some of those dispersed and diversified on the other islands e. Four lizard species colonized each island, and they maintained the ecological niche that they had in their ancestral home

a. Each island was founded by a colonizer, perhaps from a mainland and divided up ecological niche space as they diversified into the four species present.

3. Which environmental condition is least likely to select for an iteroparous life-history strategy? a. Low rates of population increase b. High adult survival rates c. Young htat require parental care d. Early reproduction e. Very long life spans

a. Early reproduction

112. Wallace's line is a deep-water boundary that separates islands that differ greatly in their fauna, despite their close proximity and similar climate. Accordingly, these islands are assigned to two different biogeographic realms, each of which has a large number of species that are restricted to that location and found nowhere else in the world. These species are considered a. Ancestral b. Cosmopolitan c. Native d. Endemic e. Indigenous

a. Endemic

99. What is meant by "the theory of evolution"? a. Evolution is a proven fact b. Scientists guess that evolution has occurred, but that idea is not yet supported by evidence c. There is not enough evidence of evolution to consider it a fact, but it is compelling d. Nonevolutionary explanations for organic diversity are just as plausible as explanations provided by evolutionary biology. e. Evolution is well-supported by evidence and has survived repeated testing.

a. Evolution is well-supported by evidence and has survived repeated testing.

182. Refer to the figures showing the evolutionary morphology of two different taxa. a. Evolution of morphological differences between species by gradualism b. that morphology can evolve via saltations c. the common ancestor of two different forms need not have morphology that is precisely intermediate d. all of these are correct

a. Evolution of morphological differences between species by gradualism

48. Which genomic component is most likely to experience evolution via natural selection a. Intergenic regions b. Non-coding regions c. Exons d. Introns

a. Exons

130. Which pattern best characterizes the history of extinctions on earth? a. Five major mass extinctions and several lesser episode of heightened extinction rates b. An increase in the number of mass extinctions over time c. Three major extinctions and several lesser episodes of heightened extinction rates d. An increasing per capita background extinction rate e. Three major mass extinctions and a low background extinction rate

a. Five major mass extinctions and several lesser episode of heightened extinction rates

150. Which condition cannot cause the evolution of an adaptation? a. None of the above can cause the evolution of an adaptation b. Future extinction of a population c. The superiority of new mutations to any preexisting genetic variations in an unchanging environment d. Environmental change that does not threaten extinction e. Environmental change that reduces population size

a. Future extinction of a population

183. Almost all of the genes affecting the development of feathers are found in crocodilians. What can we conclude from this observation? a. Genes responsible for feather development were used for other functions in crocodilians, but were Co opted for further development later b. Feathers evolved only once in the lineages leading to birds but before complete reproductive isolation feather genes introgressed into crocodilians c. crocodilians belong in the aves taxonomic group d. we have not yet identified all the genes responsible for feathers e. ancient crocodilians had feathers

a. Genes responsible for feather development were used for other functions in crocodilians, but were Co opted for further development later

10. Which of these describes antagonistic pleiotropy? a. Steep reduction in fetility and fecundity later in life b. The later in life that a mutation affects fitness, the weaker the selection against the mutation c. Intrinsic changes that lower survival and reproduction with age d. Mating only once in life, then dying e. Genes that increase reproduction may decrease survival later in life

a. Genes that increase reproduction may decrease survival later in life

168. Which source of variation is most important to evolution? a. Environmental variance b. Genetic change c. Developmental noise d. DNA methylation e. Maternal effect

a. Genetic change

12. The life table above shows two genotypes within a population of asexual lizards. The genotype on the left is "brown" the genotype on the right is "green." Which genotype has the highest relative fitness and why? a. Brown, because individuals reproduce in the first ands second year, green only reproduce in the first year b. Green, because within 2 years that genotype will produce twice as many offspring as the brown genotype c. Neither, they both have the same lifetime reproductive success (R=2) d. Green, because green lizards blend in better with their environment than brown lizards

a. Green, because within 2 years that genotype will produce twice as many offspring as the brown genotype

18. Eusociality occurs in multiple species of insects. What is the characteristic of wasps, bees, and ants that facilitate the presence of sterile workers? a. Haplodiploidy b. High mutation rates c. Polyandry d. Promiscuous mating e. Diapause (a period of suspended development)

a. Haplodiploidy

7. Ultimately, any "altruistic" behavior such as foregoing reproduction and assisting with parental care will evolve in a population when altruistic individuals_____. a. Experience a great cost to foregoing reproduction and a very small benefit from helping with parental care of a related individual. b. The altruistic behavior is made to unrelated individuals at a higher degree than to related individuals c. Are unrelated to the recipient of the altruistic behavior and population density is at the carrying capacity d. Have a cost of not reproducing that is less than the product of the fitness benefit of the altruism and the degree of genetic relatedness of the recipient of the altruistic behavior

a. Have a cost of not reproducing that is less than the product of the fitness benefit of the altruism and the degree of genetic relatedness of the recipient of the altruistic behavior

9. What is the most likely explanation for the very low fecundity of species such as whales, humans, and elephants? a. Low probability of offspring survival b. High investment in parental care c. Density-dependence d. High mobility

a. High investment in parental care

143. Which statement is TRUE regarding the phylogeny shown? a. Porpoise are the closest living relative of Dolphins on this phylogeny. b. Pigs are the least evolved taxa in this phylogeny. c. Hippos and Whales are more closely related than Hippos and Cows d. Dolphins are the most evolved species on this phylogeny

a. Hippos and Whales are more closely related than Hippos and Cows

136. Convergent evolution is a form of a. Homozygosity b. Homeopathy c. Homoplasy d. Natural selection

a. Homoplasy

37. Which mechanism for the appearance of a new gene in a species' genome could also explain different phylogenetic tree topologies when using different genes? a. Neofunctionalization after gene duplication b. Horizontal gene transfer c. Retrotransposition d. Exon shuffling e. Mutations in noncoding DNA leading to de novo genes.

a. Horizontal gene transfer

52. Referring to the figure above, which of the following is a reasonable conclusion about Hox genes? a. The human hox gene family has not increased in size compared to the hox genes in drosophila. b. Hox genes are present in arthropods and vertebrates but they encode proteins that are involved in different developmental processes. c. Hox gene homologs are conserved across arthropods to vertebrates and are involved in anterior-posterior body plan development. d. Hox genes arose independently many times in the evolution of animals via convergent evolution.

a. Hox gene homologs are conserved across arthropods to vertebrates and are involved in anterior-posterior body plan development.

114. Which observation does not provide evidence that modern humans dispersed from Africa to the rest of the world (according to the "out of Africa" theory)? a. Human populations in regions outside of Africa usually show evidence of descent from a relatively small group of founders. b. Human mitochondrial haplotype diversity is greatest in Africa and declines as distance from Africa increases c. Fossils that represent modern humans' immediate ancestors are found only in Africa. d. Humans in specific regions have distinct adaptations to the environment in those regions. e. All of the above provide evidence for the "out of Africa" theory.

a. Humans in specific regions have distinct adaptations to the environment in those regions.

167. When a population's observed genotype frequencies for homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive = p^2, 2pq , and q^2, respectively then that locus is said to be a. A single nucleotide polymorphism b. In Hardy-Weinberg disequilibrium c. In linkage disequilibrium d. In Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

a. In Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

145. Which of the following is not an example of natural selection? a. Differences in fitness among individuals due to phenotypic differences that are inherited b. Increased survival of a population of songbirds because of people putting up bird feeders c. An increase in the frequency of a heritable trait that increases survival and reproduction over those that do not have that trait d. An increase in the density and length of hairs on bees to allow for pollen feeding.

a. Increased survival of a population of songbirds because of people putting up bird feeders

14. In which situation would you expect the interacting parties no to cooperate? a. The individuals have a history of repeated social interactions b. The individuals are closely related c. Individuals are unlikely to encounter each other again in the future d. An individual that provides assistance in the present will in turn be assisted in the future e. Individuals are part of a social group in which noncooperating individuals are punished

a. Individuals are unlikely to encounter each other again in the future

100. Darwin's key contributions to our understanding of biological evolution include all of the following except a. Change occurs gradually and over time can lead to big difference b. Natural selection is the dominant way in which evolution occurs c. Individuals evolve traits with the goal to solve problems in their environment d. Common descent via shared ancestry.

a. Individuals evolve traits with the goal to solve problems in their environment

17. When referring to the capacity of a population to grow, r equals the a. Population equilibrium b. Survival to reproductive age c. Number of individuals in the population d. Dispersal of the population e. Intrinsic rate of increase

a. Intrinsic rate of increase

61. Which explanation is the least likely reason for why a chromosome inversion a. The inversion could alter gene expression in a beneficial b. Inversions can proliferate by catalyzing c. Inversions can increase in frequency d. Inversions can prevent recombination, keeping together favorable combinations

a. Inversions can proliferate by catalyzing

32. Referencing the figure above, the RNASE1B gene ____ a. Likely evolved via drift b. Is an ortholog of RNAS1 in rhesus monkey c. Most likely evolved in root species of this tree and was subsequently lost in human and Rhesus monkey. d. Is a paralog of RNASE1 that resulted in neofunctionalization.

a. Is a paralog of RNASE1 that resulted in neofunctionalization.

102. Lamarck's idea that evolution occurs when traits acquired during an individual's lifetime are inherited by the next generation has mostly been rejected because a. It is unsupported by evidence; parent mice with tails cut off have pups with tails. b. It emphasizes that traits change randomly c. Inherited traits have nothing to do with evolution d. Not applicable. Lamarck's idea is the currently accepted model of evolution.

a. It is unsupported by evidence; parent mice with tails cut off have pups with tails.

89. Which of the following is not a benefit of Linnaeus's classification system? a. It provides biologists with a common set of names for different organisms. b. It makes use of colloquial (common) species names. c. It is well suited for describing patterns of relatedness among different taxa. d. It is hierarchical. e. It provides names for species according to an ordered scheme.

a. It makes use of colloquial (common) species names.

140. What is not true about Natural Selection? a. It occurs in order to maintain balance in nature b. It is consistent difference in fitness among phenotypically different biological entities c. It requires that traits under selection show heritable variation among individuals d. It can occur and multiple levels of biological organization: genes, organelles, individuals, groups, species

a. It occurs in order to maintain balance in nature

59. In what way was the modern synthesis short-sighted in its approach? a. It ignored important roles of epigenetic factors b. It emphasized developmental over the importance c. It considered natural selection and adaptation as primary d. It was thought diversity arose simply by the sum of microevolutionary processes

a. It was thought diversity arose simply by the sum of microevolutionary processes

127. Some groups of butterflies diversified rapidly after developing a tolerance to toxic alkaloids and the mechanical defenses of host plants. Such features represent a(n) a. Key adaptation b. Adaptive zone c. Competitive displacement d. Convergence e. Ecological opportunity

a. Key adaptation

93. Which of these had the least influence of Darwin's work and writing? a. The writing of Thomas Malthus on human populations and resources b. Knowledge of inheritance, as discovered by Gregor Mendel. c. Correspondence with Alfred Russel Wallace and other naturalists of his time d. His experience with medicine as a student and as the son of physician.

a. Knowledge of inheritance, as discovered by Gregor Mendel.

170. The Hardy-Weinberg Principle assumes all of the following, except a. Random mating b. Large population c. Large gene flow d. No mutations occur

a. Large gene flow

106. The red queen hypothesis proposes that the relationship between taxon age and extinction rate is a. Convex b. Linear c. Concave d. Exponential e. Sigmoidal

a. Linear

157. A point mutation can occur by all of the following except a. An error during DNA replication that Is not repaired b. Linkage disequilibrium c. Exposure to cigarette smoke d. UV radiation

a. Linkage disequilibrium

164. Recombination rates have what relationship with linkage disequilibrium? a. Higher recombination rates are associated with more linkage disequilibrium b. They do not strongly affect each other c. Lower recombination rates are associated with more linkage disequilibrium d. Lower recombination rates are associated with less linkage disequilibrium

a. Lower recombination rates are associated with more linkage disequilibrium

108. Which factors that may increase extinction rates is most likely to be influenced by the activities of humans? a. The effects of predators and pathogens b. Major changes in the distribution or conditions of global climate c. Competitive interactions among taxa with similar niches d. Incumbent replacement e. The movement of land masses

a. Major changes in the distribution or conditions of global climate

16. The mother's curse hypothesis suggests that if mitochondria are maternally inheritied,but present in both sexes then _______. a. Male-harming mtDNA mutations that benefit females will be positively selected and increase in frequency b. Female-harming mtDNA may persist in population because they are not subject to natural selection c. Natural selection will filter out any mtDNA mutation that decreases survival of males and females d. mtDNA mutations that improve either male or female fitness are equally likely to evolve

a. Male-harming mtDNA mutations that benefit females will be positively selected and increase in frequency

8. The mother's curse hypothesis suggests that if mitochondria are maternally inherited, but present in both sexes then ______. a. Natural selection will filter out any mtDNA mutation that decreases survival of males and females b. Female-harming mtDNA mutations may persist in population because they are not subject to natural selection c. Male-harming mtDNA mutations that benefit females will be positively selected and increase in frequency d. mtDNA mutations that improve either male of female fitness are equally likely to evolve.

a. Male-harming mtDNA mutations that benefit females will be positively selected and increase in frequency

19. Cytoplasmic male sterility (CMS) arises out of conflict between _____ and _______. a. The golgi; the endoplasmic reticulum b. X chromosomes; y chromosomes c. Ribosomes; chloroplasts d. Mitochondria; nuclear genes e. Mitochondria; the golgi

a. Mitochondria; nuclear genes

27. If two species evolve in allopatry, then individuals from each genetically divergent spcies come in to secondary contact mate, and produce an offspring, what is the most likely source of breakdown in the hybrid offspring (both male and female offspring)? a. Sexual selection against hydrids will lead to low fitness b. Mitochondrial dysfunction c. Trick question d. Mothers curse

a. Mitochondrial dysfunction

58. Which cellular process forms the basis for the conclusion that gene regulation must be responsible for the majority of novel traits between species? a. After cell division, the new cells are now different types than the original cell. b. Meiosis results in recombined novel genotypes of gametes. c. Mitosis creates identical copies of genomes in each cell. d. DNA replication requires a DNA polymerase.

a. Mitosis creates identical copies of genomes in each cell.

46. After calculating the ratio of the nonsynonymous substitution rate and synonymous substituation rate of a gene, you find that the dN:dS ratio = 1.9. What can you conclude from these data? a. More synonymous substitutions have accumulated over time than nonsynonymous. b. More nonsynonymous substitutions have accumulated over time than synonymous. c. Mutation rates were very low for this gene. d. The gene likely was under strong positive selection.

a. More nonsynonymous substitutions have accumulated over time than synonymous.

73. The Cambrian explosion resulted in a. Morphological diversity of ocean and land-dwelling animals b. Morphological diversity of ocean-dwelling animals c. The origin of eukaryotes d. Morphological diversity of land-dwelling animals

a. Morphological diversity of ocean-dwelling animals

135. Results from evolutionary research reinforces the principle that species do not evolve as a unit, but instead its traits tend to evolve independently. This scenario describes a. Convergence b. Evolutionary reversal c. Conservative characters d. Mosaic evolution e. Phenotypic integration

a. Mosaic evolution

115. Which statement offers the best explanation for why the only native land mammal to Hawaii is the Hawaiian hoary bat? a. Most mammals were unable to successfully disperse long distances over oceans and colonize Hawaii b. Volcanic activity drove the other mammals to extinction on Hawaii c. Other mammals were competitively excluded by the birds and reptiles that are native to Hawaii. d. Hawaii formed and was isolated before the evolution of mammals in the Mesozoic era e. Because of phylogenetic niche conservatism, other mammals could not adapt to use any of the open niche space in Hawaii.

a. Most mammals were unable to successfully disperse long distances over oceans and colonize Hawaii

178. Refer to the graph showing fitness effects of mutations in the yeast, Saccharcomyces cerevisiae. What can we conclude from looking at the frequency of nonsynonymous mutations? a. Nonsynonymous mutations are rare b. Nonsynonymous mutations can only increase fitness c. Nonsynonymous mutations can only strongly decrease fitness d. Most nonsynonymous mutations typically have little effect on fitness e. Nonsynonymous mutation always increase fitness

a. Most nonsynonymous mutations typically have little effect on fitness

105. The virus that causes COVID-19 now has several variants. What evolutionary process likely explains how these variants arose? a. Mutation b. Gene flow c. Random matting with other viruses d. Genetic drift

a. Mutation

104. Which statement is true? a. Species are simply those organisms that share similar phenotypes. b. Evolutionary change occurs at the level of the individual. c. Developmental change is a population-level process. d. Natural selection acts on populations, not on individuals e. Mutations are the raw material for natural selection.

a. Mutations are the raw material for natural selection.

160. Wild-type E.coli bacteria are easily killed by a virus called T-1. A researcher made exact copies (replicates) of colonies of E. coli derived from a single cell. After adding T-1 virus, the location of the surviving colonies on each replicate plate was exactly the same. The results of the replicate plate experiment shown below provides evidence that.... a. Resistance mutations occurred in response to adding the virus b. Mutations randomly appear in a population and they are selected for after the virus was added c. Virus resistance cannot evolve in E. coli bacteria d. Mutations arise to meet the needs of the population.

a. Mutations randomly appear in a population and they are selected for after the virus was added

134. The phylogeny below shows that... a. Epicrates and vipera are sister species b. Thamnophis and natrix are more closely related to each other than Naja and Micrurus are to each other c. Epicrates and vipera are more closely related than vipera and natrix d. Naja and Natrix are in a monophyletic clade called Colubroidea

a. Naja and Natrix are in a monophyletic clade called Colubroidea

97. The virus that causes COVID-19 now has several variants. What evolutionary process likely explains the increased frequency of the Delta variant? a. Gene flow b. Genetic drift c. Mutation d. Natural selection

a. Natural selection

40. What is the ultimate* basis for the mitonuclear coevolution hypothesis? *ultimate in the evolutionary sense, opposed to proximate. a. Mitochondria are prone to accumulate mutations via Muller's ratchet. b. Genetic drift leading to random fixation of mutations. c. Election transfer through the ETS requires coordination of mitochondrial and nuclear gene products. d. Natural selection for functional mitochondria.

a. Natural selection for functional mitochondria.

214. which mode of selection preserves genetic variation at the locus under selection? a. underdominance b. Negative-frequency dependent c. positive selection d. positive-frequency dependence

a. Negative-frequency dependent

70. Some salamander species retain gills and other larval characteristics throughout adult life. This is an example of a. Heterozygosity b. Allometry c. Canalization d. Neoteny

a. Neoteny

28. Ecological character displacement will tend to reduce a. Niche overlap between competing species. b. The intrinsic rate of population growth of a species. c. The rate of escape and radiate coevolution. d. Disease virulence. e. Prey vulnerability to predators.

a. Niche overlap between competing species.

173. Consider a population of grasshoppers with a single locus that determines color. AA=yellow, Aa= green, aa= blue. There are 400 yellow, 200 green, and 200 blue grasshoppers in the population. Is this locus in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium? a. Yes, the expected genotype frequencies are equal to the observed frequencies b. No, because the frequency of Aa is higher than expected c. No, because the frequency of AA is higher than expected d. Yes, because there are all three colors present in the population

a. No, because the frequency of AA is higher than expected

147. Which of the following is the best example of the evolution of an adaptation? a. A predator eats snails with a striped shell at a higher rate than other snails. By chance the pink snails in the population have a low rate of striping. In the next generation, more pink-shelled snails are present. b. All of the above are examples of adaptive evolution. c. A population of sticklebacks in a lake have low levels of armor. Migrants from the ocean introduce genes for increased armor to the population. d. Female bowerbirds choose to mate with males that have the bowers most elaborately decorated with blue objects. Overtime the bowers become increasingly complex. e. Non-random survival and reproduction favors finches with broader beaks, increasing the bill size in the next generation.

a. Non-random survival and reproduction favors finches with broader beaks, increasing the bill size in the next generation.

107. Charles Mitter and colleagues found evidence that herbivory promotes high diversification rates by comparing the diversity of groups of herbivorous insects with the diversity of a. The plants that the herbivourous insects used as a food source b. Unrelated insect groups whose clades were the same age c. Nonherbivorous sister groups d. Herbivorous mollusks e. The same insect group in the fossil record

a. Nonherbivorous sister groups

4. Suppose five boats are adrift at sea, each one containing a number of your relatives, and you have the power to save one boat from a dire fate. According to kin selection theory, it would be in the best interest of your genome to save a boat that contains a. Both your parents b. Seven of your cousins c. Two of your brothers d. Four half-siblings e. One sister, one half-brother, and three cousins

a. One sister, one half-brother, and three cousins

83. Positive allometry describes a scenario where a. Organisms retain juvenile-typical features into adulthood. b. Human heads grow slower than the rest of the body from infant to adult. c. Two traits of an organism are determined by a pleiotropic transcription factor d. One trait on an organism is growing at a faster rate than another trait.

a. One trait on an organism is growing at a faster rate than another trait./

153. Which statement is true regarding the phylogeny below.... a. The closest living relative oh Human is Gorilla b. Orangutans are more closely related to Gorillas than Chimps c. Humans are more closely related to Bonobos than Chimps d. Orangutans are equally related to Chimps and Gorillas

a. Orangutans are equally related to Chimps and Gorillas

218. All of the following modes of selection eventually eliminate genetic variation at a locus under selection except a. Overdominance b. positive selection c. underdominance d. positive frequency dependent

a. Overdominance

68. If pel is located just upstream of a target gene Pitx1 which is associated with the development of a pelvic spine. Pitx1 is present in spineless and spined fish. If the experimental insertion of Pel upstream of Pitx1 results in the development of a pelvic spine in fish that normally does not develop a pelvic spine, which of the following statements is true? a. Only pel is required for pelvic spine development f b. Pitx1 is likely mutated in the spineless fish c. Pel is a trans-regulatory element that 'turns on' transcription of Pitx1. d. Pel is a cis regulatory element that 'turns on' transcription of Pitx1.

a. Pel is a cis regulatory element that 'turns on' transcription of Pitx1.

84. The most massive extinction event in the history of Earth, in which 96 percent of all species became extinct over the course of a few thousand years, occurred during the a. Silurian b. Cretaceous c. Devonian d. Permian e. Orodovician

a. Permian

129. Many temperate plant taxa have not adapted to tropical environments, and many animal species shifted their ranges during the Pleistocene rather than adapting to climate change. These observations are consistent with a. Phylogenetic signal b. Local adaptation c. Physiological tolerance d. Community convergence e. Phylogenetic niche conservatism

a. Phylogenetic niche conservatism

88. Uniformitarianism allows evolutionary biology to be an experimental science. Which of the following is an example of uniformitarianism? a. Members of a natural population of finches that deviate from the norm are identified as monstrosities. b. The presence of a canyon is explained as having been generated from Noah's flood. c. When choosing between competing hypotheses without other evidence, the simplest explanation is usually the most likely. d. The development of a fish embryo shows how vertebrates evolved from simpler invertebrates. e. Present observations of erosion on a streambank demonstrate how a canyon was formed.

a. Present observations of erosion on a streambank demonstrate how a canyon was formed./

50. In which example are the proximate cause and ultimate cause of morphological evolution correctly matched? a. Proximate: natural selection causes morphology to differ among species; ultimate: natural selection prevents morphological variation within a species. b. Proximate: cis-regulatory elements are found upstream of a gene; ultimate: cis-regulation is required to activate a gene. c. Proximate: changes in gene regulation lead to changes in morphology; ultimate: natural selection favors morphologies that work best in their environment d. Proximate: natural selection favors gene combinations that have high fitness in their environment; ultimate: genetic changes alter morphology and fitness e. Proximate: point mutations in protein coding genes affect protein function and structure; ultimate: chemical and physical configuration of a protein affect its function.

a. Proximate: changes in gene regulation lead to changes in morphology; ultimate: natural selection favors morphologies that work best in their environment

95. Which scenario describes an ultimate cause of a bird species having red feathers instead of a typical brown color like it's closest sister species? a. Red coloration has been selected for because it confers some fitness advantage over brown. b. The bird species acquired a mutation that changed the biochemical pathway of pigment production, resulting in red pigments. c. The bird eats a new type of food that provides red pigments for use as colorants. d. Birds aren't real.

a. Red coloration has been selected for because it confers some fitness advantage over brown.

39. Gene duplication doesn't always result in two functional copies or variants of a gene. What mechanism leads to the pseudogenization of an extra copy of a gene? a. Duplicated genes always persist in the genome. b. Relaxed purifying selection leads to the accumulation of mutations and degredation of the gene product. c. Positive selection for nonsynonymous mutations that confer novel functions. d. Genomic conflict from competition for polymerases.

a. Relaxed purifying selection leads to the accumulation of mutations and degradation of the gene product.

204. Why do populations farther from Africa have more deleterious mutations in their genome? a. Repeated bottlenecks and founder effects made genetic drift more intense more often b. Populations farther from Africa have been exposed to more mutagens in the environment c. The populations are younger, so purifying selection has not had time to purge deleterious mutations from the populations d. Those populations have experienced more intense natural selection, so more deleterious alleles increased in frequency by genetic hitchhiking e. As people migrated over the globe they interbred with Neanderthals and Denisovans

a. Repeated bottlenecks and founder effects made genetic drift more intense more often

62. Many genes were located on the X chromosome, now are located on the autosomal chromosomes in fruit flies. What mechanism is likely behind the movement of these genes? a. Gene flow b. Crossing over c. Retrotransposition d. Genetic drift

a. Retrotransposition

44. Retrotrasnposons move about the genome by a mechanism a. DNA transposons b. Retrotransposons c. Both a equally abundant d. Transposable elements are not present

a. Retrotransposons

141. Which term is defined as any consistent difference in fitness among phenotypically different classes of biological entities as a consequence of competition for mates? a. Meiotic drive b. Sexual selection c. Natural selection d. Reproductive success e. Individual selection

a. Sexual selection

30. What is the best explanation for the observation that eukaryotes that seem superficially simple can have much larger genomes (in terms of mass or number of base pairs) than organism that have complex anatomy, structure, or behavior? a. Some organisms have a tremendous amount of noncoding DNA, like repetitive sequences. b. Animals with simple body plans are adapted for rapid DNA replication. c. Alternative splicing overlapping genes are rampant among eukaryotes. d. Simpler organisms require more chemical defenses against enemies. e. DNA in the mitochondria and chloroplasts are not counted in these measurements of genome size.

a. Some organisms have a tremendous amount of noncoding DNA, like repetitive sequences.

119. Observations of the biogeographic distributions of organisms provided both Darwin and Wallace with evidence for the occurrence of evolution. Which of the following was not part of the evidence used by Darwin to support his theory of descent with modification? a. Organisms inhabiting similar climates are not necessarily related b. Animals from different habitats on the same continent are more closely related to each other than they are to animals from similar habitats on different continents c. Species distributions are closely aligned with the movement of continents d. Physical bariers to dispersal often separate regions with very different groups of animals e. Inhabitants of isalnds are clearly related to species on the nearest mainland, suggesting a continental origin followed by dispersal to the island.

a. Species distributions are closely aligned with the movement of continents

42. Which of the following is true regarding symbiotic relationships? a. Symbiosis occurs when two dissimilar organisms living closely together engage in a sustained interaction. b. Symbionts are required to be smaller in size than the other interacting participant. c. Symbioses require a net benefit to the host and the symbiont. d. Symbiotic relationships only exist between bacteria and animals.

a. Symbiosis occurs when two dissimilar organisms living closely together engage in a sustained interaction.

169. Which of the follow is not considered a structural mutation? a. Synonymous mutation b. Insertion c. Fusion d. Deletion

a. Synonymous mutation

174. From this figure, we can conclude... a. Taxa with larger genomes tend to have higher mutation rates than taxa with smaller genomes b. Mutation rates are constant across diverse taxa c. Mutation rates tend to be lower in organisms with small genomes d. Genome size does not vary across taxa

a. Taxa with larger genomes tend to have higher mutation rates than taxa with smaller genomes

137. Natural selection requires all of the following except a. Those with selected trait have consistent differences in fitness from those without the trait under selection b. Heritability of the trait in question c. That a trait under natural selection will increase in complexity after selection d. Variation in fitness among beares of a trait under consideration

a. That a trait under natural selection will increase in complexity after selection

25. The phylogeny above shows the radiation of Buchnera aphidicola lineages (left side, red lines) exactly matches the species of aphid which serve as their endosymbiotic host (right side, green lines and species names). What can we conclude from this phylogeny? a. The ancestor of all aphids on this tree contained a Buchnera endosymbiont b. Each aphid species evolved its own unique lineage of Bucnera independently c. There is no evidence of coevolution between Buchnera and Aphids d. Buchnera became an endosymbiont of aphids around 80 to 160 million years ago

a. The ancestor of all aphids on this tree contained a Buchnera endosymbiont

149. Which of the following scenarios is an example of an evolutionary reversal? a. The ancestral trait of having an aquatic life stage in salamanders was lost in one lineage. However, a subset of species from that lineage re-evolved an aquatic life stage. b. The wings of birds and bats evolved independently c. Penguins use their wings to swim rather than to fly d. When unrelated organisms evolve similar traits e. Humans evolved larger brains that allowed for complex language.

a. The ancestral trait of having an aquatic life stage in salamanders was lost in one lineage. However, a subset of species from that lineage re-evolved an aquatic life stage.

154. Which of the following scenarios is an example of an evolutionary reversal? a. The wings of birds and bats evolved independently b. Humans evolved larger brains that allowed for complex language c. When unrelated organisms evolve similia traits d. Penguins use their wings to swim rather than to fly e. The ancestral trait of having an aquatic life stage in salamanders was lost in one lineage. However, a subset of species from that lineage re-evolved an aquatic life stage.

a. The ancestral trait of having an aquatic life stage in salamanders was lost in one lineage. However, a subset of species from that lineage re-evolved an aquatic life stage.

200. Which of these is not a uniquely human feature? a. The capacity to walk on two legs b. the presence of a chin c. advanced tool design and use d. large brain size

a. The capacity to walk on two legs

92. One outcome of the Modern Synthesis was.... a. The connection of microevolutionary processes with macroevolutionary patterns b. Making clear that evolution of novel traits was mostly goal oriented c. The rejection of natural selection as a driver of evolution d. The rejection of genetics as an important contribution to the mechanisms of evolution.

a. The connection of microevolutionary processes with macroevolutionary patterns

117. Evolutionary biologists and geologists recognize the "big five" mass extinctions and are actively studying a potential sixth. Which of these describes that potential sixth mass extinction? a. The current extinctions, caused primarily by human activities b. The great flood of Noah c. The extinction that included dinosaurs d. The end-Carboniferous mass extinction, which affected plants, not animals e. The mass extinction that occurred in the Proterozoic, before animal life

a. The current extinctions, caused primarily by human activities

96. What is wrong with the following claim? "Lichens involve a symbiotic association between a fungus and alga. The purpose of algae is to provide nutrients to fungi." a. The relationship between fungi and algae is not symbiotic b. The explanation is reductionistic. c. The explanation is purpose-driven, as opposed to functional d. Lichens are not composed of fungi and algae e. The explanation is materialistic.

a. The explanation is purpose-driven, as opposed to functional

74. Tiktaalik a genus of extinct lobe-finned fish is proposed to be the transitional form of what a. The first vertebrate life on land b. The origin of animals c. Giant arthropods that ruled sirulian d. Modern-day sharks

a. The first vertebrate life on land

91. In the 1930's and 1940's the modern evolutionary synthesis occurred. Which of these was not a major outcome of the evolutionary synthesis? a. Rejection of anti-Darwinian ideas like neo-Lamarckism, orthogenesis and mutuationism b. The integration of genetics, systematics, and paleontology (connecting microevolution with macroevolution) c. The development of a mathematical theory of population genetics d. The integration of genomics with evolutionary biology e. Recognition of natural selection as the primary driver of evolution, along with important roles for genetic drift, gene flow, and sexual selection

a. The integration of genomics with evolutionary biology

161. When a locus is said to be in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium, that means that c. The population's allele frequency at that locus will change over generations d. The locus is under strong selection

a. The locus is not evolving

111. The Isthmus of Panama formed about 3 million years ago, isolating the Caribbean Sea from the Pacific Ocean. Which observation would provide evidence that sister species of angelfish found on either side are the result of a vicariance event caused by the formation of the landmass, rather than the dispersal of a founder population across the Isthmus? a. The molecular clock shows that one species is much younger than the other b. The molecular clock dates the divergence time between the species to be 3 million years or greater c. The molecular clock dates the species' divergence time to be less than 3 million years. d. The Caribbean angelfish have only a fraction of the parasites and diseases of the Pacific angelfish. e. The phylogeny shows that the Pacific angelfish are monophyletic and nested within the Caribbean angelfish clade.

a. The molecular clock dates the divergence time between the species to be 3 million years or greater

152. The star on the phylogeny below indicates... a. The most recent common ancestor if Hippo and Whales b. A living species not shown on the tree c. A paraphyletic group that includes Whales and Dolphins d. The most recent common ancestor of Dolphin and Whales

a. The most recent common ancestor of Dolphin and Whales

13. If a new mutant strategy appears in a population that has adopted an evolutionarily stable strategy (ESS), which of the following will result? a. Natural selection will maintain the mutant strategy because the variation in strategy may be useful in future environments b. The mutant strategy will not be able to increase in numbers in the population under the influence of natural selection c. The members of the population using the original strategy will act with aggression toward those exhibiting the mutant strategy d. Antagonistic pleiotropy will allow an equilibrium in which both strategies are maintained in the population e. The evolutionarily stable strategy will be displaced because of natural selection in favor of the mutant strategy.

a. The mutant strategy will not be able to increase in numbers in the population under the influence of natural selection

103. A good definition of phenotype is.... a. The amino acids that make up a protein b. The observed traits of an organism c. RNA d. DNA

a. The observed traits of an organism

124. If a population of kangaroos (known as a dominant mammal in Australia) was discovered on island northwest of Wallace's line, which of these would be the most likely explanation? a. The population was isolated by a recent vicariant event. b. This population is a relict form the time when marsupial mammals had a worldwide distribution c. Kangaroos are superior competitors to the mammals from the oriental biogeographic realm d. Wallace's line is an inaccurate representation for the faunal break in this particular region e. The population was recently founded by kangaroos that dispersed there from Australia

a. The population was recently founded by kangaroos that dispersed there from Australia

142. Which of these are paralogous genes? a. Genes that have changed within a species as a result of adaptive evolution, such as improvements in the defensins proteins of the human immune system over time b. Genes that have independently evolved the same function in distantly related organisms, like the hearing gene, Prestin, which allows echolocation in both dolphins and bats c. The result of a speciation event; each derived species has evolved a different versionof the gene, like the difference between hemoglobin a in humans and chimps d. The result of a gene duplication within a species; for example, a copy of the original hemoglobin gene has become adapted for slightly different functions within a mammal species as hemoglobin a and b e. Genes located on the same chromosome and that are genetically linked, like freckles and hair color in humans

a. The result of a gene duplication within a species; for example, a copy of the original hemoglobin gene has become adapted for slightly different functions within a mammal species as hemoglobin a and b

64. A mutation in antennapedia causes this Hox gene to be expressed a. The second thoracic segment of the fly would not develop b. The fly would develop normally c. The fly would also grow legs where the antennae normally develop

a. The second thoracic segment of the fly would not develop

20. The two most accepted hypotheses for the evolution of senescence, mutation accumulation and antagonistic pleiotropy, are based on the principle that a. The selective advantage of reproduction declines with age b. The selective advantage of high probability of survival decline with age c. Senescence provides a group-level selective advantage d. Senescence provides an individual-level selective advantage e. Senescence is an evolutionarily stable strategy

a. The selective advantage of high probability of survival decline with age

1. The most accepted hypotheses for the evolution of senescence, mutation accumulation and antagonistic pleiotropy, are based on the principle that a. Senescence provides an individual-level selective advantage b. The selective advantage of high probability of survival declines with age c. The selective advantage of reproduction declines with age d. Senescence is an evolutionarily stable strategy e. Senescence provides a group-level selective advantage

a. The selective advantage of high probability of survival declines with age

155. A monophyletic group (also called a clade) is defined as a. Having shared derived character states b. A branch point in a phylogenetic tree c. The set of species derived from one common ancestor d. Having an ancestral characteristic e. Having shared ancestral character states.

a. The set of species derived from one common ancestor

148. The v on the phylogeny below shows that.... a. The snakes in this group are monophyletic b. The snakes in this group are more closely related to each other than to Colubridae snakes c. The snakes in this group have evolved more than iguanas d. The snakes in this group are paraphyletic

a. The snakes in this group are paraphyletic

120. You discover patterns of genetic divergence that are very similar among multiple unrelated species that share a region. This suggests that a. The genes of these organisms are under strong selection, and thus these species are not useful for biogeographic analysis b. The organisms are probably more closely related to one another than was previously thought c. The organisms have an ecological relationship and are tracking one another d. By random chance the organisms have colonized new areas following the same dispersal routes e. The species experienced a similar history of subdivision, owing to geological and climatic processes

a. The species experienced a similar history of subdivision, owing to geological and climatic processes

15. Which statement is the least likely explanation for the evolution of behaviors in which subordinate male animals assist dominant males defending mating territories or in mating displays? a. Dominant males occasionally allow subordinate males to mate with females b. Subordinate males succeed dominant males, inheriting their territory when they die c. Subordinate males occasionally have successful "sneak" copulations with females d. Subordinate males are related to dominant males and benefit indirectly by inclusive fitness e. The subordinate males mistake the dominant males for females

a. The subordinate males mistake the dominant males for females

53. A hox gene mutation changes the halteres (balancing organs) of fruit flies into wings by modification of the third thoracic segment into a repeat of the second. What other morphological effects might you expect to see in flies carrying this mutation? a. The third pair of legs more closely resemble the second pair than they do in nonmutatnt flies. b. Antennae are replaced with small versions of the legs. c. The first pair of wings are replaced with halters. d. The position of the first thoracic segment has been changed. e. The third thoracic segment has ectopic eyes.

a. The third pair of legs more closely resemble the second pair than they do in nonmutatnt flies.

51. Why do some trans-regulatory elements lead to very different morphology in different species of organisms? a. Different species have genetic codes that use different codons b. The trans-regulatory elements in different lineages c. Morphological change depends ion sequence d. The transcription factor activates

a. The transcription factor activates

65. Why do the same trans-regulatory elements lead to very different morphology in different species of organisms? a. Different species have genetic codes that use different codons, leading to different amino acid sequences. b. The trans-regulatory elements in different lineages have independently evolved the same sequence, by convergent evolution. c. Morphological change depends on sequence mutations in enhancers. d. The transcription factor activates different combinations of enhancers and downstream genes.

a. The transcription factor activates different combinations of enhancers and downstream genes.

22. Because increased fecundity means increased fitness, we might expect to observe the evolution of ever-increasing fecundity, but this is not the case. Which reason for lower-than-expected fecundity is plausible? a. There are allocation trade-offs between fecundity and other traits b. While beneficial to the population of species, selection for increased fecundity is harmful to the individual c. All of the above are plausible reasons d. Increased fecundity leads to overpopulation and mass starvation, due to increases in individual fitness e. Fecundity evolves only until it balances mortality

a. There are allocation trade-offs between fecundity and other traits

131. Refer to the graph showing a lineage-through-time plot for a clade. What does the exponential growth tell us about the diversification of the clade in question? a. Diversification rates are greater near the tips of the tree than near the base b. The clade has reached its diversity equilibrium c. The clade is becoming less diverse over time d. Diversification rates are increasing exponentially e. There is a constant diversification rate for the clade

a. There is a constant diversification rate for the clade

78. Which metazoan phylum is truly the sister group of all other animal phyla a. There is a debate between ctenophora and porifera. b. Porifera c. Cnidaria d. Ctenophora

a. There is a debate between ctenophora and porifera.

177. Which of the following is an assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg Principle? a. The population is small enough to count all individuals b. Mutations arise in predictable ways c. Variation in fitness due to divergent phenotypes d. There is no gene flow between populations

a. There is no gene flow between populations

24. fdBacteria from the genus Wolbachia are common endosymbionts of arthropods where they act as a reproductive parasite. How are Wolbachia and mitochondria similar? a. They are both mostly paternally-inherited b. They are both obligate endosymbionts c. They are both typically maternally-inherited and therefore can lead to male-harming outcomes d. They both produce energy in the form of ATP for their host

a. They are both typically maternally-inherited and therefore can lead to male-harming outcomes

33. Why do pseudogenes evolve so much more quickly than other genes? a. Directional selection causes rapid change in their sequence. b. Pseudogenes are processed more quickly because there are no enzymes present to check for replication errors. c. Transposable elements target pseudogenes as a site of insertion. d. High rates of recombination in pseudogenes are often subject to unequal crossing over. e. They are not subject to purifying selection because mutations have no functional consequence.

a. They are not subject to purifying selection because mutations have no functional consequence.

113. Different models for species accumulation have been proposed to account for the difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions. Which model best describes the greater diversity of treefrogs (Hylidae) in the tropics compared to the temperate zone? a. Ecological hypotheses based on carrying capacity b. Diversification rate hypothesis c. Replacement hypothesis d. Time and area hypothesis e. Vicariance hypothesis

a. Time and area hypothesis

81. The similarity in appearance of different species of vertebrates during the embryonic stage has been used as evidence _____. a. Gene flow and drift cause separate populations to accumulate genetic differences. b. To support the idea of species descending from a common ancestor and being modified during development. c. Different molecular mechanisms are at play from fertilization onward. d. Against evolution by natural selection.

a. To support the idea of species descending from a common ancestor and being modified during development.

158. If a mutant gamete underwent a whole genome duplication fused with a wild type gamete that is haploid, the resulting zygote would be a. Haploid b. An inversion c. Triploid d. Diploid

a. Triploid

172. There are several lines of evidence that support the claim that mutations are random. Which of the following is true regarding randomness of mutations? a. Transition and transversion mutations are equally as likely to occur b. Mutations arise to solve random challenges an organism might face c. Mutations arise in random individuals in response to strong selection d. Whether a mutation will increase or decrease fitness is random

a. Whether a mutation will increase or decrease fitness is random

163. Consider a population of grasshoppers with a single locus that determines color. AA= yellow, Aa= green, aa= blue. There are 312 yellow, 375 green, and 113 blue grasshoppers in the population. Is this locus in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium? a. Yes because there are all three colors present in the population b. Yes, the expected genotype frequencies are closely match to the observed frequencies c. No, because the frequency of AA is higher than expected d. No because the frequency of Aa is higher than expected

a. Yes, the expected genotype frequencies are closely match to the observed frequencies

209. Genetic recombination of alleles at different loci result in a. those alleles being more likely to be inherited together than if there was no recombination b. a decrease in the likelihood that those alleles will be inherited c. an increase in linkage disequilibrium d. a decrease in linkage equilibrium

a. a decrease in the likelihood that those alleles will be inherited

222. The total number of offspring an individual produces over its lifetime is one way to define a. Kin selection b. relative fitness c. absolute fitness d. inbreeding depression

a. absolute fitness

199. which statement provides an incorrect view of the evolutionary history of humans? a. our species evolved 200,000 years ago in Africa after diverging from an ancestral hominin lineage then subsequently dispersed to other regions starting 60,000 years ago b. because humans evolved from champions ease we can use apes as an example of what our last common ancestor looked like c. humans are the only living species of the lineages that split from a common ancestors shared with modern day chimpanzees d. modern day humans just as modern chimpanzees are mosaics of both ancestral and lineage specific derived traits

a. because humans evolved from champions ease we can use apes as an example of what our last common ancestor looked like

220. What will happen to DNA sequence variation in the regions of the genome immediately adjacent to an allele undergoing a selective sweep or strong positive selection? a. decreased variation and high levels of linkage disequilibrium at nearby sites b. increased variation and high levels of linkage disequilibrium at nearby sites c. increased variation and the absence of linkage disequilibrium at nearby sites d. decreased variation and the absence of linkage disequilibrium at nearby sites e. no change in local genetic variation

a. decreased variation and high levels of linkage disequilibrium at nearby sites

211. underdominance will eventually result in which pattern of selection? a. positive selection b. disruptive selection c. stabilizing selection d. sexual selection

a. disruptive selection

217. Underdominance will eventually result in which pattern of selection a. positive selection b. disruptive selection c. stabilizing selection d. sexual selection

a. disruptive selection

208. consider a population undergoing positive selection for one allele at a diploid locus. the fitness advantage of this allele is moderate (s=0.07). after many generations what outcome is most likely? a. genetic diversity at the locus under selection will decrease b. the allele with the lower fitness will mutate in response to selection for the other allele c. genetic variation will increase proportional to the population size d. both alleles will persist in the population because selection can change frequencies but not eliminate alleles

a. genetic diversity at the locus under selection will decrease

223. Seawall writes metaphor of an adaptive landscape that includes peaks and valleys as used widely in evolutionary biology. natural selection will always move populations mean fitness up the peaks. which influence is most likely to cause a population to move away from a fitness peak towards a valley? a. purifying selection b. large population size c. overdominant selection d. positive selection e. genetic drift

a. genetic drift

193. Why might a species' "optimal phenotype" remain unchanged for long periods of time, resulting in apparent evolutionary stasis? a. habitat tracking b. directional selection c. passive trends d. gradual environmental change e. saltational evolution

a. habitat tracking

191. Stephen Jay Gould suggested that if we were to replay the "tape of life," the course of events that we know as "history" might play themselves out very differently. which statement supports this idea? a. organisms such as cows parrots and dolphins show intelligence so it is likely that even in the absence of humans complex cognition would have evolved in other lineages b. many organisms have evolved similar phenotypes through the process of convergent evolution c. there are finite numbers of solutions to certain engineering problems d. organisms all experience the same physical constraints (e.g., gravity) and respond to them similarly e. historical contingency suggests that small differences in random events can result in large downstream differences

a. historical contingency suggests that small differences in random events can result in large downstream differences

197. Which statement is not a good explanation for the relatively low genetic variability among modern human populations? a. Human population size has increased drastically in a short period of time b. humans have global geographic distribution c. Ancestral human population sizes were very small d. the level of inbreeding within human populations have been high at times e. there is greater variability within populations than among them

a. humans have global geographic distribution

189. Why is this phylogeny consistent with a pattern of punctuated equilibria mode of evolution? a. Trick question this phylogeny provides support for phyletic gradualism b. most of the speciation events took place in the late Miocene c. large morphological changes only occur during speciation events d. different species occupy different morphological space

a. large morphological changes only occur during speciation events

198. according to the social brain hypothesis we should expect primates living in larger social groups to have a. larger brains specifically a neocortex of relatively larger size b. smaller brains because many individuals can work together to solve problems c. brains that are more metabolically efficient to account for less food per group member d. larger incisors and canines to defend against more social competitors e. great variation in brain and neocortex size with the dominant individuals having the largest

a. larger brains specifically a neocortex of relatively larger size

213. In a scenario where a population is evolving only in response to natural selection allele frequencies will change at a rate proportional to the selection coefficient and the a. size of the population b. populations growth rate c. level of genetic variation at the locus d. means fitness of the population e. degree of the allele penetrance

a. level of genetic variation at the locus

219. Fruit fly larvae in the wild are polymorphic for a gene that controls foraging behavior. larvae that roam around looking for food (roamers, forR) and larvae move much less (sitters, forS). either allele confers a fitness benefit when it is rare compared to the other allele. the maintenance of this polymorphism is an example of a. Overdominance or heterozygote advantage b. negative frequency dependent selection c. positive selection d. under dominance or heterozygote disadvantage e. positive frequency dependent selection

a. negative frequency dependent selection

184. How do evolutionary biologists view the notion of biological "progress"? a. progress can be measured by how much a given species resembles homo sapiens b. lasting evolutionary progress does not occur because of cyclical phenomena such as iterative mass extinctions c. evolution proceeds toward goal (teleology) d. progress can be measured by levels of hierarchical organization among individuals of the same species e. objective definitions of progress are fraught with difficulty as the processes that drive evolution have no mechanism for foresight

a. objective definitions of progress are fraught with difficulty as the processes that drive evolution have no mechanism for foresight

207. which mode of selection preserves genetic variation at the locus under selection? a. underdominance b. overdominance c. positive selection d. positive-frequency dependence

a. overdominance

181. Cycadophyta it's a group of plants with a small number of extinct species, but are well known for from fossils from the mesozoic era. Living "cyads" are nearly identical to fossils. What best explains these "living fossils"? a. passive trends b. phylogenetic niche conservatism c. hopeful monsters d. biological homology e. punctuated equilibria

a. phylogenetic niche conservatism

192. Microevolution involves ________, whereas macroevolution involves ____________. a. Organisms; ecosystems b. Molecules; organisms c. genetic changes; phenotypic changes d. processes that occur within species; evolution above the species level e. evolution above the species level; processes that occur within species

a. processes that occur within species; evolution above the species level

185. How can speciation enhance the rate of adaptive evolution? a. high speciation rates lead to high diversity and this progress of the goal of natural selection b. speciation "punctuates" the "equilibrium" of evolutionary stasis c. speciation can occur only when there is a very high mutation rate increasing the likelihood of a new beneficial mutation d. reproductive isolation allows new beneficial mutations to become fixed before they can be swamped by the gene flow from the larger population e. without speciation organisms that evolve new adaptations would go extinct

a. reproductive isolation allows new beneficial mutations to become fixed before they can be swamped by the gene flow from the larger population

212. selective sweeps on standing genetic variation differs from a sweep on a newly mutated allele in which way? a. sweeps on standing variation does not lead to hitchhiking of other alleles but a sweep on a new allele does b. sweeps on a new allele does not lead to hitchhiking of other alleles but a sleep on the existing variation does c. select the sweep sunsetting variation results in more fixation of alleles at loci nearby the locust under selection d. selective sweeps on standing variation results in more polymorphic loci nearby the locus under selection

a. selective sweeps on standing variation results in more polymorphic loci nearby the locus under selection

187. Which microevolutionary processes could produce a pattern of stasis in morphology within a species? a. Sexual selection for an extreme phenotype b. strong positive selection after an adaptive peak shift c. a small effective population size d. stabilizing selection

a. stabilizing selection

186. The phenotypes of the hypothetical species at time points one and three are in what we call _____ and go through ________at time point two a. phyletic gradualism, random walk b. stasis, punctuation c. cladogenesis, anagenesis d. stasis, gradualism

a. stasis, punctuation

221. Consider a population undergoing positive selection for one allele at a diploid locus. the fitness advantage of this allele is small (s=0.001). after many many generations what outcome is most likely? a. the beneficial allele will increase in frequency and eventually will be fixed by natural selection b. both alleles will remain in the population at a ratio proportional to the fitness difference c. the population size will increase d. the population size will decrease e. the allele at a disadvantage will mutate to improve to the fitness level of the other allele

a. the beneficial allele will increase in frequency and eventually will be fixed by natural selection

125. The two main hypotheses for a taxon's distribution are dispersal and vicariance. Which of the following would be the poorest source of data for testing these hypotheses? a. the current geographic distribution of the organism b. paleontological data, including the presence or absence of fossils in a region c. phylogenetic data, in which geographic distributions are treated analogously to character states d. "unbalanced" biota e. Geological patterns, like mountain formation or continental drift

a. the current geographic distribution of the organism

194. The hypothesis of punctuated equilibrium is controversial because a. it relies on data from the fossil record b. different characters evolve at different rates c. a combination of directional and balancing selection may be required for punctuated equilibrium to occur d. the hypothesis requires that morphological evolution be accompanied by speciation e. evolutionary stasis is rarely observed.

a. the hypothesis requires that morphological evolution be accompanied by speciation

203. what statement below is consistent with the information present in the phylogeny above built with mitochondrial DNA? a. the short length of many of the living human branches suggests that although there are many mtDNA haplogroups that are fairly genetically similar to one another b. chimpanzees are unrelated to living humans c. all of these are correct d. Neanderthal hybridized with Homo sapiens at some point in the past

a. the short length of many of the living human branches suggests that although there are many mtDNA haplogroups that are fairly genetically similar to one another

206. The rate of evolution of an allele under positive selection is a function of all the following except a. the strength of selection b. the amount of genetic variation in the population c. the mode of inheritance of the alleles d. the size of the population

a. the size of the population

188. Which component of the fossil record caused Darwin the most worry about the acceptance of the idea of evolution by natural selection? a. The stepwise morphological changes in intermediate fossils between two major morphological types b. the low resolution of accurate dating of certain strata of rocks c. the sudden emergence of new species without intermediate forms d. the paucity of plant fossils

a. the sudden emergence of new species without intermediate forms

216. An allele that is not directly under positive selection can increase in frequency in the population over generations if a. there is strong linkage disequilibrium between this allele and the allele that is under positive selection b. recombination is high enough to break up linked alleles c. that allele is fixed in the population d. only if that allele has also recently been positively selected

a. there is strong linkage disequilibrium between this allele and the allele that is under positive selection

215. The rate of evolution at a single locus that goes to fixation for an allele Py is a. maximized when genetic diversity is 0.5 b. zero because genetic diversity is 0 c. minimal because genetic diversity is high d. maximized because selection acts on fixed alleles only

a. zero because genetic diversity is 0

190. True or false: the dominant mode of evolution has been shown to be consistent with a pattern of phyletic gradualism just as Darwin emphasized. a. true b. false

false

210. Completely plated fish diagram with red, green, and blue lines a. Underdominance b. overdominance c. heterozygote disadvantage d. positive-frequency dependence

overdominance

195. What would be the best clue that a fossil skull was left behind by an ape that walked more or less upright? a. incisors and canine teeth are reduced compared to most primates b. it has a flat not projecting face compared to most apes c. the surface upon which jaw muscles anchor is relatively small d. the hole in the skull that connects to the spine (foramen magnum) is located centrally instead of near the back of the skull e. the mass of the brain is extremely large relative to other mammals

the hole in the skull that connects to the spine (foramen magnum) is located centrally instead

179. Refer to the figure. The snow goose (Chen caerulescens) has both a blue and a white morph. Inheritance is Mendeilian: BB and BB individuals are blue, while bb individuals are white. If 140 geese in a population of 350 are white, and 210 are blue, how many of the blue geese would you expect to be carriers of the b allele (i.e., Bb heterozygotes)? a. 71 b. 200 c. 140 d. 163 e. 101

163