Blood Bank Final Exam Review
a heterozygote
A person whose red cells type as M+N+ with antisera would be: a homozygote. linked. unable to be determined without family studies. a heterozygote.
O
Anti-A,B antisera comes from an individual who is group: A B AB O
compount antigen.
If a D-positive person appears to have anti-D in their serum, the most likely explanation is: partial D antigen. D-deletion phenotype. compount antigen. transposition effect
A1
If a group A individual reacts 3+ with A1 lectin, this person is a (an): A2 A1 Bombay AB
female
In a pedigree, an open circle is the standard symbol for: male female carrier of a trait twins
84%
In a random population, 16% of the population is homozygous for a particular trait. What percentage of the same population is heterozygous for that particular trait? 32% 64% 84% 48%
antibody excess.
In a serologic test, the term prozone is also known as: equivalence. serum-to-cell ratio. antigen excess. antibody excess.
False
In the IAT test for confirmation of a negative Rh test, the specimen is incubated at 25 degrees C. True False
all of the above are correct.
Lewis system antibodies have not been implicated in hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn because: the antigens are not fully developed at birth. the antibodies are not clinically significant. Lewis system antibodies do not cross the placenta. all of the above are correct.
1. exactness of fit
Lock and Key 1.exactness of fit 2.bonds 3.surface charge 4.optimum concentration of antigens and antibodies 5.environmental condition
2 and 4 are correct
Of the following choices, the individual with a potential for a reduced amount of ABO antibody are a (an): 1. blood donor 2. elderly patient 3. recently immunized adult 4. newborn 5. post-surgical patient 1 and 3 are correct 1 and 5 are correct 2 and 3 are correct 2 and 4 are correct 1 and 2 are correct
polyclonal in specificity.
Reagent antibodies prepared from human sources are: -too low in potency to be effective. -unsafe. -preferred because of their lower cost. -polyclonal in specificity.
5.Lectins
Reagent derived from plants used to distinguish group A1 from group A2 red cells 1.Panel cells 2.Screening cells 3.A1 and B cells 4.ABO antisera 5.Lectins
Lectins
Reagent derived from plants used to distinguish group A1 from group A2 red cells 1.Panel cells 2.Screening cells 3.A1 and B cells 4.ABO antisera 5.Lectins
saline suspended
Red cells that are used for reverse grouping are: lectins saline suspended suspended in gel enzyme treated
saline suspended
Red cells that are used for reverse grouping are: saline suspended enzyme treated lectins suspended in gel
U-negative
Red cells that phenotype as S-s- are also: Tja-negative. M-negative. U-negative. N-negative.
B lymphocytes
Select the cell involved in humoral immunity. B lymphocytes Monocytes Neutrophils T lymphocytes
4.Probe
Short sergment of DNA with a known sequence that can be labeled with a marker 1.Primer 2.Polymerase chain reaction 3.Hybridization 4.Probe 5.Amplicon DNA sequence
Kell
The blood group antigens that are destroyed by DTT are: Duffy Rh Kell ABO
O
The children of an AB mother and a B father could phenotype as all of the following except: AB O B A
2 and 4 only
The methods that would be used for removal of antibodies from the surface of red cells include: 1. enzyme pre-treatment 2. freeze-thaw 3. adsorption 4. acid 5. LISS enhancement 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, and 5 3 and 4 only
Real-Time polymerase chain reaction
The molecular technology test method that utilizes a fluorescent probe is: single nucleotide polymorphism polymerase chain reaction Taq Polymerase Real-Time polymerase chain reaction
repeat the direct antiglobulin test using monospecific anti-IgG and anti-C3 reagents.
The next step in investigating a positive direct antiglobulin test using polyspecific antihuman globulin reagent should be to: repeat the direct antiglobulin test using warm saline. add IgG-sensitized red cells to verify positive reaction. perform an eluate. repeat the direct antiglobulin test using monospecific anti-IgG and anti-C3 reagents.
genotype
The notation of AO represents a (an): Bombay phenotype genotype phenotype transferase
c
The numeric Rh4 nomenclature refers to which antigen in the Rosenfield notation? C c E e
heterozygous
The term that would describe the genotype AO is: codominant zygosity heterozygous homozygous
reverse transcriptase PCR Multiplex PCR- the generation of copies from
The test methodology that employs generation of DNA from an RNA template is: PCR reverse transcriptase PCR Multiplex PCR- the generation of copies from Real-Time PCR - allows for DNA detection during the reaction gene chip technology
ABO reverse grouping.
The test procedure that combines patient's serum with commercial A1 and B reagent red cells is called: ABO reverse grouping. ABO forward grouping. antibody panel. antibody screen.
forward typing
The test that mixes unknown patient cells with known anti-sera is: reverse typing direct antiglobulin test forward typing indirect antiglobulin test
True
The test to confirm a negative Rh test is called the Weak-D test. True False
IgG
This antibody is frequently seen in warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia. IgM IgG IgA IgE
IgM
What immunoglobulin class reacts best at room temperature at immediate spin? IgM IgA IgE IgG
IgM
What immunoglobulin class reacts best at room temperature at immediate spin? IgE IgG IgM IgA
IgG
What immunoglobulin class reacts best by antiglobulin testing? IgE IgM IgA IgG
LU
What is the designation for the Lutheran blood group system? LN LU LT LR
Fc fragment
What portion of the antibody molecule binds to receptors on macrophages and assists in the removal of antibody bound to red cells? Fab fragment Hinge region Fc fragment J chain
phenotype.
When an individual is said to be group A, it refers to the individual's: genotype. alleles. phenotype. haplotype.
All of the above are true.
When using the Hardy-Weinberg equation to calculate genetic frequencies, which of the following must be true? -The population statistics must be large. -Mutations cannot occur. -Mating must be random. -All of the above are true.
RBCs
Where are the Duffy antigens found? RBCs platelets lymphocytes all of the above
RBCs
Where are the Kell blood group antigens found? RBCs platelets lymphocytes all of the above
Fy(a-b-)
Which of the following Duffy phenotypes is prevalent in blacks but virtually nonexistent in whites? Fy(a-b+) Fy(a+b+) Fy(a-b-) Fy(a+b-)
Kidd
Which of the following blood group systems is known for showing dosage? I Lutheran Kidd P
Fy(a+b+)
Which of the following is heterozygous? Jk(a+b-) Le(a+b-) Fy(a-b+) Fy(a+b+)
Antibody bound to antigen
Which of the following is responsible for the activation of the classic pathway of complement? -Antibody bound to antigen -Bacteria -Foreign proteins -Virus
To resolve a discrepancy between the forward and reverse typing
Why is it sometimes necessary to distinguish A1 and A2 blood types? To prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn To determine the secretor status of group A individuals To prevent A1 recipients from receiving A2 blood To resolve a discrepancy between the forward and reverse typing
A D-negative mother should be given Rh immune globulin to prevent potential formation of anti-D during delivery of a D-positive infant.
Why is the determination of the D antigen important for women during pregnancy? A D-negative mother should be given Rh immune globulin to prevent potential formation of anti-D during delivery of a D-positive infant. A D-positive mother may pass her red cells to the D-negative fetus and cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn. A D-positive mother can form anti-D during pregnancy that may destroy the D-positive red cells of the fetus. A D-negative mother may form anti-D if the father of the child is also D-negative.
A D-negative mother should be given Rh immune globulin to prevent potential formation of anti-D during delivery of a D-positive infant.
Why is the determination of the D antigen important for women during pregnancy? A D-positive mother may pass her red cells to the D-negative fetus and cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn. A D-negative mother should be given Rh immune globulin to prevent potential formation of anti-D during delivery of a D-positive infant. A D-positive mother can form anti-D during pregnancy that may destroy the D-positive red cells of the fetus. A D-negative mother may form anti-D if the father of the child is also D-negative.
True
You are born with innate immunity systems such as mechanical barriers. True or False
3. surface charge
Zeta potential 1.exactness of fit 2.bonds 3.surface charge 4.optimum concentration of antigens and antibodies 5.environmental condition
4.optimum concentration of antigens and antibodies
Zone of equivalence 1.exactness of fit 2.bonds 3.surface charge 4.optimum concentration of antigens and antibodies 5.environmental condition
temporary deferral
A 16-year-old athlete with a pulse of 45 beats per minute. accept donor temporary deferral indefinite deferral
A, D negative
A 29-year-old female was admitted to the emergency room with severe bleeding. The blood type was tested and determined to be AB, D negative. Six units of RBCs are ordered STAT. Of the following types available in the blood bank, which would be the most preferable for crossmatch? AB, D positive A, D positive A, D negative O, D negative
indefinite deferral
A 30-year-old male with a hematocrit of 49% who admits to intravenous drug use in his teenage years. accept donor temporary deferral indefinite deferral
temporary deferral
A 35-year-old male who was released from prison one month ago. accept donor temporary deferral indefinite deferral
accept donor
A 75-year-old retiree with a screening and physical exam all within normal limits. He is taking no medication. accept donor temporary deferral indefinite deferral
multiple possible alleles for antigen production
A blood group that is polymorphic has: multiple possible alleles for antigen production more than one locus for antigen production one allele at each locus required for antigen production multiple antigenic products produced
colon cancer
A clinical condition where one may see an acquired B antigen is: colon cancer hypogammaglobulinemia hemolytic disease of the newborn Staph aureus pyelonephritis
Rh-negative
A complete Rh typing for antigens C, c, D, E, and e revealed negative results for C, D, and E. How is the individual designated? Rh-positive Rh-negative positive for c and e Impossible to determine
I
A patient with an M. pneumoniae infection will most likely develop a cold autoantibody with specificity to which antigen? i I P p1
k in the Kell system.
A patient's antibody history listed an anti-cellano. This antigen is also known as: c in the Rh system. SC in the Scianna system. k in the Kell system. Cs in the Cost system.
True
A purple or pink top EDTA tube may be used for Blood Bank testing. True or False
protein
A substance is most antigenic when its biochemical composition is: carbohydrate protein lipoprotein polysaccharide
gently shaking and tilting the tube and watching the button
A technologist has centrifuged a tube and wishes to observe the button for agglutination. This observation should be done by: gently shaking and tilting the tube and watching the button inverting the tube and watching for swirling cells agitating and looking for hemolysis tapping the tubes on the magnifying mirror
sex-linked dominant
A trait that is passed from father to daughter is: -autosomal dominant -autosomal recessive -sex-linked dominant -sex-linked recessive
Request a recollection of the specimen.
A tube was received in the blood bank for crossmatching. The label was torn and the only information that was visible was the patient's last name and the medical record number. Which of the following in an acceptable procedure? Reprint a label using the MRI as the identifier. Use the tube since the MRI is visible. Call the phlebotomist back to relabel the tube. Request a recollection of the specimen.
True
ABO antibodies are capable of causing hemolytic transfusion reactions. True or False
B
Anti-A antisera comes from an individual who is group: A B AB None of the above
80%
Approximately what is the percentage of individuals who demonstrate H in their saliva? 98% 15% 80% 50%
True
Because group O individuals have all of the ABO antibodies in their plasma, they may receive plasma of any ABO phenotype. True or False
meiosis
Crossing over occurs during zygote formation meiosis somatic cell division mitosis
Factor VII
Cryoprecipitate may be used to correct a deficiency of all the following except: Factor I Factor VII Factor VIII VonWillebrand's factor
4
Cryoprecipitate that has been pooled must be transfused within __________ hours. 8 6 24 4
Rh system antigens are coded by two closely linked genes.
Current theory regarding the genetics of the Rh system suggests that: each Rh system antigen is coded by its own gene locus. one gene locus with multiple alleles codes for the protein antigens. the Rh system genes are a haplotype that codes for three sets of alleles. Rh system antigens are coded by two closely linked genes.
Anti-Kpb
DTT (dithiothreitol) would be useful in the identification of which of the following antibodies? Anti-Jsa Anti-K Anti-Vel Anti-Kpb
Kell
DTT is useful when an antibody to the _________ antigen is suspected. Duffy Lewis Kidd Kell
3.Both the direct and indirect antiglobulin test
Detects IgG or complement-coated red cells 1.Indirect antiglobulin test 2.Direct antiglobulin test 3.Both the direct and indirect antiglobulin test
Codominant alleles
How are Rh antigens inherited? Codominant alleles Sex-linked genes X-linked Autosomal recessive alleles
ABO group
Immediate spin crossmatch detects incompatibility with: IgG antibodies AHG reactive atypical antibodies ABO group warm antiibodies
3.Hinge region
Imparts flexibility to the immunoglobulin molecule 1.Kappa 2.Epitope 3.Hinge region 4.Isotype 5.Idiotype
cDe
In Rosenfield notation, the phenotype of a donor may be written as Rh:1, -2, -3, 4, 5. What is the correct phenotype in Fisher-Race (CDE) notation? CDEe CcDe cDe CcDE
CcDe
In Rosenfield notation, the phenotype of a donor may be written as Rh:1, 2, -3, 4, 5. What is the correct phenotype in Fisher-Race (CDE) notation? CcDe CDEe CcDE cDe
CDEe
In Rosenfield notation, the phenotype of a donor may be written as Rh:1, 2, 3, -4, 5. What is the correct phenotype in Fisher-Race (CDE) notation? CcDe CcDE cDe CDEe
IgM
Lewis antibodies are of what immunoglobulin class? IgM IgG IgA IgE
IgM
Lewis antibodies are of what immunoglobulin class? IgM IgG IgA IgE
NEG
No visible agglutination. 1+ 2+ 3+ 4+ NEG
1.Kappa
One of the two types of light chains 1.Kappa 2.Epitope 3.Hinge region 4.Isotype 5.Idiotype
RzRo
The Rh genotype CDE/cDe is written in Weiner notation as: ROR1 RzRo RzR2 R2R1
O
The blood group with the most H antigen is: O A1 A2B B
A 28-year-old man who had plateletpheresis on August 24
The following whole blood donors regularly give blood. Which donor may donate on September 10? A 40-year-old woman who last donated on July 23 A 28-year-old man who had plateletpheresis on August 24 A 52-year-old man who made an autologous donation 2 days ago A 23-year-old woman who donated blood for her aunt on August 14
15%
The frequency of the D-negative phenotype in the population is: 35%. 50%. 15%. 85%.
15%
The frequency of the D-negative phenotype in the population is: 85% 35%. 15%. 50%.
lower than tube techniques.
The gel technology method uses a concentration of red cells that is: higher than tube techniques. -lower than tube techniques. -the same as the 3% to 5% requirement for tube testing. -Variable accounting to the test performed.
has no prior or existing clinically significant antibodies.
The immediate spin or abbreviated crossmatch is an acceptable procedure if the recipient: is using blood from a directed donation. needs blood before a sample can be obtained. has never been pregnant or transfused. has no prior or existing clinically significant antibodies.
37 °C
The indirect antihuman globulin test is incubated at what temperature? 37 °C 4 °C 22 °C 56 °C
codominant.
The inheritance of the Rh antigens are: X-linked dominant. codominant. autosomal recessive. X-linked recessive.
False
The possible ABO phenotypes of offspring with parents with genotypes A1A2 and BO would include phenotype O. True or False
creating a target sequence
The process of annealing is: breaking the hydrogen bonds of the DNA creating a target sequence replicating the DNA creating additional strands of DNA
check that the wash procedure was sufficient to remove unbound antibodies.
The purpose of adding antibody-sensitized red cells following the antiglobulin test is to:` -confirm positive reactions. -make sure a weak antibody reaction was not missed. -check the sufficient incubation took place. -check that the wash procedure was sufficient to remove unbound antibodies.
donor with a positive DAT
The recipient has a positive compatibility test at the AHG phase with a negatice antibody screen. The most likely cause for this incompatibility is: ABO incompatibility antibody to a high frequency antigen donor with a positive DAT positive DAT in recipient
Ael.
The subgroup of A with the least amount of A antigen is: A2. Ael. A3. Ax.
Ael.
The subgroup of A with the least amount of A antigen is: A3. Ael. Ax. A2.
1HLA antigens
This is a protein produced in response against one's own cells. anticoagulant antibody autoantibody antigen
5.Idiotype
Variable region of an immunoglobulin 1.Kappa 2.Epitope 3.Hinge region 4.Isotype 5.Idiotype
Duffy
Which blood group system is associated with resistance to P. vivax malaria? Kell P Kidd Duffy
LeLe, sese, HH
Which of the following combinations will not allow Leb antigen to be produced: Lele, Sese, HH LeLe, sese, HH LeLe, SeSe, HH Lele, Sese, Hh
Jka
Which of the following is not involved in the Kell blood group system? JSa K Kpb Jka
Anti-K
Which of the following is the most common antibody seen in the blood bank after ABO and Rh antibodies? Anti-Jsa Anti-K Anti-k Anti-Fyb
Antigens Fya and Fyb in the Duffy system
Which of the following red cell antigens do proteolytic enzymes destroy? -Lewis system antigens -Rh system antigens -Antigens in the Kidd system -Antigens Fya and Fyb in the Duffy system
Prozone
Which of the following refers to the presence of an excess amount of antibody present in a test system? Postzone Zone of equivalence Endzone Prozone
Direct antiglobulin test
Which of the following tests is not included in routine compatibility testing? D typing Direct antiglobulin test Antibody screen ABO phenotyping
anticoagulant
his is a chemical substance that prevents the coagulation of blood. autoantibody antibody anticoagulant antigen
temporary deferral
A 25-year-old female experienced a miscarriage three weeks previously. accept donor temporary deferral indefinite deferral
O Rh0 (D)-negative RBCs
A 26-year-old B Rh0 (D)-negative female patient requires a transfusion. No B Rh0 (D)-negative donor units are available. Which should be chosen for transfusion? AB Rh0 (D)-negative RBCs O Rh0 (D)-negative RBCs B Rh0 (D)-negative RBCs A Rh0 (D)-negative RBCs
anti-c3
A DAT result is as follows: Polyspecific AHG = 1+ Anti-IgG = negative (Check Cells = 3+) The mist etiology of this positive DAT is: anti- IgG anti-C3 anti-I anti-A1 in an A1 individual
genotype frequencies total 1.0 when added
A blood group system conforms to the Hardy-Weinberg Law. This statement can be interpreted as: -phenotype frequencies are incremental -phenotype frequencies total 1.0 when added -genotype frequencies total 1.0 when added -genotype frequencies equal 100%
multiple possible alleles for antigen production
A blood group that is polymorphic has: -multiple possible alleles for antigen production -more than one locus for antigen production -one allele at each locus required for antigen production -multiple antigenic products produced
that patient has low-titer isoagglutinins.
A blood sample from a 90-year-old man was submitted to the blood bank for a type and screen before surgery. The forward type demonstrates as a group A, whereas the reverse type appears to be group AB. The most likely cause of the discrepancy is: that the patient has autoantibodies. rouleaux formation. contaminated reagent antisera. that patient has low-titer isoagglutinins.
negative at AHG phase; positive with Coombs control cells
A compatible crossmatch is: mixed field reaction at AHG phase with positive reaction with Coombs control cells negative at immediate spin; 1+ at AHG negative at AHG phase; negative with Coombs control cells negative at AHG phase; positive with Coombs control cells
Anti- C3
A direct antiglobulin test is performed with polyspecific and anti-IgG antisera. The results are as follows: Polyspecific: 3+ Anti-IgG: negative The most likely substance coating the red cells is: Anti-D Anti-A,B Anti-IgG Anti- C3
discontinue donation
A donor begins to experience dizziness before the donation is complete. The phlebotomist should: discontinue donation finish collecting the unit regardless of the donor's condition continue with the donation unless the donor loses consciousness call a colleague for assistance
accept donor
A donor documented using a needle to administer a medication for relief of migraine headaches. Her physician prescribed the medication. accept donor temporary deferral indefinite deferral
unacceptable for donation due to blood pressure and temperature
A donor presented with the following vital sings: Blood pressure 150/102 Temperature: 37.7°C Pulse: 77 beats/minute The donor's donation status is: acceptable for donation unacceptable for donation due to blood pressure and temperature unacceptable for donation due to blood pressure and pulse unacceptable for donation due to temperature and pulse
June 12
A donor unit is collected on May 1 in CPDA anticoagulant. AS1 is added to the red cells. The last day that this unit may be transfused is: June 12 May 29 June 26 June 5
X-linked dominant
A father carries the Xga blood group trait and passes it on to all of his daughters but to none of his sons. What type of inheritance pattern does this demonstrate? Autosomal dominant Autosomal recessive X-linked dominant X-linked recessive
3.Amorphic genes
A gene that does not express a detectable product 1.Haplotypes 2.Recessive 3.Amorphic genes 4.Codominant genes 5.Polymorphic
Amorphic genes
A gene that does not express a detectable product 1.Haplotypes 2.Recessive 3.Amorphic genes 4.Codominant genes 5.Polymorphic
Immediate spin
A group O patient was crossmatched with group B red blood cells. What phase of the crossmatch will first detect this incompatibility? Immediate spin 37° C low-ionic strength solution None of them; unit is compatible Indirect antiglobulin
Immediate spin
A group O patient was crossmatched with group B red blood cells. What phase of the crossmatch will first detect this incompatibility? Indirect antiglobulin 37° C low-ionic strength solution Immediate spin None of them; unit is compatible
temporary deferral
A health care worker who had a needle stick and hepatitis prophylaxis seven months before. accept donor temporary deferral indefinite deferral
rr blood could be used without causing a problem
A patient developed a combination of Rh antibodies: anti-C, anti-E, and anti-D. Can compatible blood be found for this patient? It is almost impossible to find blood lacking the C, E, and D antigens rr blood could be used without causing a problem R0R0 may be used because it lacks all three of these antigens Although rare, ryr blood may be obtained from close relatives of the patient
R1R1
A patient phenotypes as D+C+E-c-e+. The most likely genotype is: R1R. R1R0. R1r". R1R1.
R1R1.
A patient phenotypes as D+C+E-c-e+. The most likely genotype is: R1R. R1r". R1R1. R1R0.
True
A patient should not have Anti-A antibodies if their blood type is AB. True or False
antihuman globulin washing procedure was adequate.
A patient was admitted to the hospital with acute bleeding. Anti-E was detected in the patient's serum. Four E-negative units of blood were crossmatched for the patient. The units were compatible at immediate spin and following the antiglobulin test. After the antiglobulin test was performed, IgG-sensitized red cells gave a 2+ agglutination reaction. The proper interpretation of this 2+ agglutination reaction is the: patient's anti-E reacted with the IgG-sensitized red cells. crossmatch was incompatible. antihuman globulin washing procedure was adequate. IgG-sensitized red cells spontaneously agglutinated.
allogeneic adsorption
A patient was transfused two weeks before his current testing. He is exhibiting a positive DAT and a positive antibody screen in both cells at the AHG phase. The autoantibody may be removed from the serum using: heat elution enzyme treated cells autoadsorption allogeneic adsorption
Anti-Ch
A patient's serum reacted weakly with all panel cells tested at the antiglobulin phase using LISS and were not enhanced using PEG. The autocontrol was negative. Ficin-treated panel cells were nonreactive. What is the most likely specificity of the antibody? Anti-Ch Anti-U Anti-Jsb Anti-I
Le(a-b+)
A person who inherits the Le, Se, and H genes will have red cells that phenotype: Le(a+b+). Le(a-b-). Le(a+b-). Le(a-b+).
accept donor
A platlet pheresis donor who consumed aspirin one week ago for a toothache. accept donor temporary deferral indefinite deferral
refractoriness.
A poor response to platelet transfusion that can be caused by antibodies to human leukocyte antigens is known as: -refractoriness. -nonresponders. -responders. -immune activation.
sepsis resulting in acquired antigen
A presurgical patient has been tested to determine the blood group in case a transfusion is necessary during surgery. The results of the ABO grouping is as follows: Anti-A: 4+ Anti-B: 1+ A cells: 0 B cells: 4+ What is the cause of this "discrepancy"? hypogammaglobulinemia B(A) phenomenon Anti-A1 in A2 individual sepsis resulting in acquired antigen
A negative
A recipient is AB negative, the supply of type specific blood has been exhausted. The best choice for substitution is: O negative A negative A positive AB positive
Anti-c
A recipient phenotypes as group O with the following Rh phenotype: D+C+c-E+e+. If this recipient is transfused with red blood cells from six random group O D-positive donors, what Rh alloantibody could this patient produce as a result of transfusion? Anti-D Anti-c Anti-C Anti-E
Anti-c
A recipient phenotypes as group O with the following Rh phenotype: D+C+c-E+e+. If this recipient is transfused with red blood cells from six random group O D-positive donors, what Rh alloantibody could this patient produce as a result of transfusion? Anti-c Anti-C Anti-D Anti-E
AB and A
A recipient with a group A phenotype requires a transfusion of 2 units of frozen plasma. Which of the following types are appropriate to select for transfusion? B and A AB and A AB and B O and A
AB and A
A recipient with a group A phenotype requires a transfusion of 2 units of frozen plasma. Which of the following types are appropriate to select for transfusion? B and A AB and B AB and A O and A
Neutralize the serum with saliva
A technologiest is having great difficulty resolving an antibody mixture. One of the antibodies is anti-Lea. This antibody is not clinically significant in this situation, but it needs to be removed to reveal the possible presence of an underlying antibody of clinical significance. What can be done? Perform an enzyme panel Neutralize the serum with saliva Neutralize the serum with hydatid cyst fluid Use DTT (dithiothreitol) to treat the panel cells
Anti-A should be blue, anti-B is correct and anti-A,B should be clear
A technologist encounters a set of typing sera that are hand labeled and visually appear as follows: Anti-A: clear Anti-B: yellow Anti-A,B: blue Do these correspond to what one would expect to see? If not, what is expected? all are correct Anti-A is correct, anti-B should be blue and anti-A,B should be yellow Anti-A should be blue, anti-B is correct and anti-A,B should be clear Anti-A is correct, anti-B should be yellow, and anti-A,B should be blue none are correct
discarded
A unit of blood is collected. Upon inspection, the unit has dark purple areas. The unit should be: discarded returned to storage until quarantine period is over transfused to a recipient converted to washed red cells
IgA
ABO antibodies display all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: 4 degrees C reactive IgM IgA Complement Binding
1, 3, and 4 are correct
ABO antibodies display which of the following characteristics: 1. IgM 2. IgA 3. Complement Binding 4. 4°C reactive 5. 37°C reactive 1, 3, and 4 are correct 2, 3, and 5 are correct 1 and 4 are correct 2 and 5 are correct
IgG
Able to cross the placenta 1.IgA 2.IgM 3.IgG 4.IgE
Anti-A and Anti-B
According to Landsteiner's Law, if an individual's red cells have negative reactions with anti-A and anti-B, what antibodies will one find in his/her serum: Anti-A only Anti-B only Anti-A and Anti-B Neither Anti-A nor Anti-B
Anti-B
According to Landsteiner's rule, what ABO antibody will be detected in a group A individual's serum? Anti-A,B Anti-B None Anti-A
There are multiple alleles at a single complex locus that determine each Rh antigen
According to the Wiener nomenclature and/or genetic theory of Rh inheritance: There are three closely linked loci, each with a primary set of allelic genes The alleles are named R1, R2, R0, r, r', r", Rz, and ry There are multiple alleles at a single complex locus that determine each Rh antigen The antigens are named D, C, E, c and e
Group A persons
Acquired B antigens have been found in: Bombay individuals Group O persons All blood groups Group A persons
4+
After adding antigen and antibody to a test tube, one large agglutinate was observed. How should this reaction be graded? 3+ 0 2+ 4+
clumps at the top layer of the gel
Agglutination as seen in gel tubes is seen as: cells scattered throughout the gel clumps at the top layer of the gel a button in the bottom of the tube a coating along the tube
naturally occurring
All of the following are characteristics of Kidd ABs except: IgG immunoglobulins ability to bind complement naturally occurring exhibit dosage
M and N
All of the following are considered clinically significant antibodies EXCEPT... P M and N Kidd S and s
P
All of the following are destroyed by the use of enzymes EXCEPT... Duffy N P M
inheriting the G gene.
All of the following can cause the D antigen expression to be weaker except: partial D expression. inheriting the C antigen in trans to the D antigen. inheriting the G gene. an RHD gene that is genetically weaker.
paternal serum
All of the following may be used to perform an antibody screen for an infant less than 4 months old except: maternal serum. infant serum. paternal serum. infant eluate.
paternal serum.
All of the following may be used to perform an antibody screen for an infant less than 4 months old except: paternal serum. infant eluate. maternal serum. infant serum.
FFP must be prepared within 24 hours of collection
All of the following statements regarding fresh frozen plasma (FFP) are true, except: Storage temperature for FFP with a 1-year shelf life is ≤ 18°C After thawing, FFP must be transfused within 24 hours FFP must be prepared within 24 hours of collection When thawed, FFP must be stored between 1°-6°C
antibodies do not react following enzyme treatment of cells.
All the following statements are true regarding Lewis system antibodies except: antibodies may be observed at the immediate spin, 37° C, and the antihuman globulin phases. antibodies may cause hemolysis in vitro. antibodies do not react following enzyme treatment of cells. antibodies can be neutralized by Lewis substance.
5.Amplicon DNA sequenc
Amplified target sequences of DNA produced by polymerase chain reaction 1.Primer 2.Polymerase chain reaction 3.Hybridization 4.Probe 5.Amplicon DNA sequence
immediate spin or electronic crossmatch
An 8-year-old child was injured in a car accident and requires a splenectomy. The type and screen shows no atypical antibodies in the AHG phase and there are no historical records for this patient. immediate spin or electronic crossmatch AHG crossmatch
Anti-c
An anti-E was identified in a patient who recently received a transfusion. What other Rh system antibody should be investigated? Anti-c Anti-f Anti-G Anti-D
investigate a recent transfusion history.
An anti-Fya was identified in a patient's serum. The patient's red cells phenotyped as Fya positive using commercial antisera. The next step is to: report the antibody because this result is normal. wash the cells and use monoclonal anti-Fya antibodies. investigate a recent transfusion history. repeat the panel to confirm the antibody.
25°C and lower
An anti-P1 is suspected when an immediate spin antibody screen is positive in one cell line. The ideal temperature for identification is: 47°C and higher 37°C 25°C and lower 42°C and lower
25°C or less
An anti-P1 is suspected when an immediate spin antibody screen is positive in one cell. The ideal temperature for identification is: 57°C 25°C or less 37°C 42°C
Anti-M
An antibody identification is performed using ficin. Which of the following antibodies will not be detected? Anti-Lea Anti-Kell Anti-M Anti-P
1 and 3 are correct
An antibody is reacting with five panel cells in the AHG phase. Two of the cells react one degree less in agglutination. Possible causes for this difference in degree of afflutination may be: 1. multiple antibodies 2. cold reacting antibody 3. dosage effect 4. enzyme sensitivity 5. DTT effect 1, 3, and 5 are correct 2, 3, and 4 are correct 1 and 3 are correct 1 and 4 are correct 2 and 5 are correct
perform a direct antiglobulin test on the incompatible unit.
An antibody screen on a patient with a prior history of transfusion was negative. The crossmatch was incompatible with 1 unit selected at AHG phase. The next step in the investigation would be to: crossmatch a new unit and discard the incompatible unit. redraw the patient and begin a new crossmatch. perform a prewarm procedure for crossmatching perform a direct antiglobulin test on the incompatible unit.
d) A and B are correct.
An antibody to Jsb was identified in a patient scheduled for elective surgery at a later date. What is the best approach to finding compatible blood? a) Contact the rate donor registry since Jsb negative units are rare. b) Request that family members be tested to determine if they share the same phenotype. c) Screen donors from the black population since being Jsb negative is common in blacks. d) A and B are correct.
d)A and B are correct.
An antibody to Jsb was identified in a patient scheduled for elective surgery at a later date. What is the best approach to finding compatible blood? a)Contact the rate donor registry since Jsb negative units are rare. b)Request that family members be tested to determine if they share the same phenotype. c)Screen donors from the black population since being Jsb negative is common in blacks. d)A and B are correct.
anti-N
An antibody was detected in the screen at 37C and did not react at the AHG phase. Which of the following should be suspected? anti-JKa anti-s anti-e anti-N
autologous
An antigen that originates from the individual is termed: -hapten -immunogen -allogeneic -autologous
proceed with antibody screen and crossmatch
An electronic crossmatch was performed. The check of the patient's history indicates that an anti-Jka was found in the serum three years previously. The technologist who initiated the testing should: administer type specific units if the ABO confirmation matches collect another sample and retype the patient proceed with antibody screen and crossmatch perform an immediate spin crossmatch and administer compatible units
anti-S
An enzyme treated panel was used with an AHG reactive antibody. Some reactions were eliminated after this testing. The antibody that was most likely eliminated was: anti-E anti-S anti-Lea anti-K
B
An individual presents with the following ABO grouping results: Anti-A: 0 Anti-B: 4+ Anti-A,B: 4+ A1 cells: 4+ B cells: 0 This individial is blood group: A B AB O
B
An individual presents with the following ABO grouping results: Anti-A: 0 Anti-B: 4+ Anti-A,B: 4+ A1 cells: 4+ B cells: 0 This individial is blood group: A O B AB
group A2 with anti-A1
An individual presents with the following typing results: Anti-A: 4+ Anti-B: 0 A1 Cells: 1+ B cells: 4+ This individual is: -group AB -group A2 with anti-A1 -group A1 with anti-A -unable to determine
group A2 with anti-A1
An individual presents with the following typing results: Anti-A: 4+ Anti-B: 0 Anti-A,B: 4+ A1 Cells: 1+ B cells: 4+ This individual is: group AB group A2 with anti-A1 group A1 with anti-A unable to determine
group A and H
An individual who is genetically AO/Sese will have which soluble antigens in their saliva: none group A only group H only group A and H group A, B, and H
Le (a+ b-)
An individual with a Bombay phenotype, who is Le+ and Se+ will have a Lewis phenotype of: Le (a-b-) Le (a+ b-) Le (a-b+) Le (a+b+)
R1r
An individual's blood cells gave the following reactions with antisera: Anti-D Anti-C Anti-E Anti-c Anti-e Rh control 4+ 3+ 0 3+ 3+ 0 The most probable genotype is: R1R2 R1r R2r R0r"
displaying dosage
An individual's genotype is homozygous for a trait while the sibling is heterosygous for the trait. The homozygous individual exhibits a stong expression of the trait while the expression is weakened in the herterozygous sibling. This trait is: -codominant -expressing linkage -displaying dosage -exhibiting position effect
displaying dosage
An individual's genotype is homozygous for a trait while the sibling is heterozygous for the trait. The homozygous individual exhibits a strong expression of the trait while the expression is weakened in the heterozygous sibling. This trait is: displaying dosage expressing linkage exhibiting position effects codominant
ABO and D typing and antibody screen initially only; units released without additional testing if the screen is negative
An infant less than 4 months old requires which procedures for compatibility testing? Antibody screen with each unit released in a 48-hour period Group O, D-negative unit; no testing is necessary ABO and D typing and antibody screen initially only; units released without additional testing if the screen is negative Immediate spin crossmatch with each unit released
B
Anti-A antisera comes from an individual who is group: A B AB O
Unable to interpret without further testing
Anti-D reagent and the Rh control were tested with red cells. Both tests were 2+ agglutination reactions. What is the interpretation of the results? D-positive Unable to interpret without further testing D-positive if the sample is from a patient D-negative
K+, D-, Jk(a-)
Anti-D, anti-K, and anti-Jka are the antibodies that are tentatively identified on a panel after initially ruling out on negative cells. What selected cell from another panel should be chosen to confirm the presence of anti-K? K+, D-, Jk(a+) K+, D-, Jk(a-) K+, D+, Jk(a+) K-, D+, Jk(a+)
Oh
Anti-H is found in the sera of individuals of group: Oh A B O
Oh
Anti-H is found in the sera of individuals of group: A B O Oh
room temperature
Anti-Lua reacts at what temperature? room temperature 37C AHG all of the above
room temperature
Anti-Lua reacts at what temperature? room temperature 37C AHG all of the above
Anti-M may not allow detection of a clinically significant antibody
Anti-M is sometimes found with reactivity detected at the immediate spin (IS) phase that persists in strength to the 37 phase. What is the main testing problem with a strong anti-M? Anti-M may not allow detection of a clinically significant antibody Compatible blood may not be found for the patient with a strongly reacting anti-M The anti-M cannot be removed from the serum The anti-M may react with the patient's own cells, causing a positive autocontrol
Antibodies show dosage
Antibodies are ruled out using cells that are homozygous for the corresponding antigen because: All of the above Antibodies show dosage It results in a P value of .05 for proper identification of the antibody Multiple antibodies may be present
Chido/Rodgers
Antibodies are sensitive to enzymes and have high-titer low-avidity characteristics 1.Cartwright 2.MNSs 3.Kidd 4.Vel 5.Xga 6.Sda antigen 7.Chido/Rodgers 8.Kell 9.Duffy
Kidd
Antibodies in this system often fall below detectable levels and are associated with delayed transfusion reactions 1.Cartwright 2.MNSs 3.Kidd 4.Vel 5.Xga 6.Sda antigen 7.Chido/Rodgers 8.Kell 9.Duffy
enhanced with enzyme treatment.
Antibodies to Kidd, Kell, and Duffy blood group antigens share all the following characteristics except: usually detected only by the indirect antiglobulin test. can cause transfusion reactions. enhanced with enzyme treatment. can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
enhanced with enzyme treatment.
Antibodies to Kidd, Kell, and Duffy blood group antigens share all the following characteristics except: enhanced with enzyme treatment. can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn. can cause transfusion reactions. usually detected only by the indirect antiglobulin test.
enhanced with enzyme treatment.
Antibodies to Kidd, Kell, and Duffy blood group antigens share all the following characteristics except: usually detected only by the indirect antiglobulin test. can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn. enhanced with enzyme treatment. can cause transfusion reactions.
Lub antigen is of high incidence.
Antibodies to Lub antigen are not commonly detected because: Lub antigen is not present on screening cells Lub antigen is of high incidence. the antibodies do not cause transfusion reactions. the antibodies react best at 4° C.
Duffy
Antibodies to which of the following blood group system show dosage (i.e., are stronger with homozygous expression of the antigen)? Kell Duffy P Lutheran
O only
Antibody screen and antibody identification cells made from which blood antigen group? A and O AB only O only A1 and B
2, 3, 4, and 5 are correct
Antibody screen cells will detect the following antibodies: 1. Anti-A1 2. Anti-D 3. Anti-C 4. Anti Fya 5. Anti-M 1, 2, and 4 are correct 2, 3, and 5 are correct 1, 2, 4, and 5 are correct 2, 3, 4, and 5 are correct
Anti-M
Antibody screen cells will detect which of the following antibodies? Anti-O Anti-A Anti-B Anti-M
red cell alloantibodies
Antibody screening of the recipient is performed as a component of compatibility testing to detect: human leukocyte antigen antibodies. red cell alloantibodies irregular antigens on the recipient's red cells. incompatibilities with the donor's red cells.
red cell alloantibodies
Antibody screening of the recipient is performed as a component of compatibility testing to detect: human leukocyte antigen antibodies. red cell alloantibodies incompatibilities with the donor's red cells. irregular antigens on the recipient's red cells.
Sda antigen
Antibody to this antigen demonstrates weak mixed field reaction 1.Cartwright 2.MNSs 3.Kidd 4.Vel 5.Xga 6.Sda antigen 7.Chido/Rodgers 8.Kell 9.Duffy
Xga
Antigen has a higher frequency in females 1.Cartwright 2.MNSs 3.Kidd 4.Vel 5.Xga 6.Sda antigen 7.Chido/Rodgers 8.Kell 9.Duffy
Vel
Antigen of high incidence; antibody to it can cause hemolytic transfusion reactions 1.Cartwright 2.MNSs 3.Kidd 4.Vel 5.Xga 6.Sda antigen 7.Chido/Rodgers 8.Kell 9.Duffy
2, 4, and 5 are correct
Antigen systems that are associated with HDFN include: 1. Lewis 2. Kell 3. P 4. Kidd 5. Duffy 1, 2, and 5 are correct 1, 3, and 4 are correct 2, 4, and 5 are correct 2, 3, and 5 are correct
Cartwright
Antigens Yta and Ytb are in this system 1.Cartwright 2.MNSs 3.Kidd 4.Vel 5.Xga 6.Sda antigen 7.Chido/Rodgers 8.Kell 9.Duffy
ABH
Antigens of the P system are structurally related to which of the following blood group systems? MNS ABH Kell Duffy
Kell
Antigens that are intergral to the red cell membrane belong to the ________ blood group. Kell Lewis I,i Secretor
IgE
Associated with allergic reactions and mast cell activation 1.IgA 2.IgM 3.IgG 4.IgE
IgM
Associated with immediate-spin in vitro reactions 1.IgA 2.IgM 3.IgG 4.IgE
IgM
Associated with intravascular cell destruction 1.IgA 2.IgM 3.IgG 4.IgE
Cells were not washed thoroughly.
At the end of an antiglobulin test, IgG-coated control cells are added to the negative tests and centrifuged. What does it mean if no agglutination occurs? Test is valid. Antiglobulin reagent was working properly. Cells were not washed thoroughly. Control cells are contaminated.
all of the above
At which phase(s) can Lewis antibodies be detected? immediate spin AHG 37 degrees C all of the above
4+
Button breaks into 2 or 3 clumps after being dislodged. Background is clear. 1+ 2+ 3+ 4+ NEG
3+
Button breaks into 4 - 6 large clumps. Background is clear. 1+ 2+ 3+ 4+ NEG
3+
Button breaks into many small clumps. Background remains clear. 1+ 2+ 3+ 4+ NEG
1+
Button breaks into numerous tiny clumps. Background becomes cloudy. 1+ 2+ 3+ 4+ NEG
Yes, a new sample would not be needed
Can crossmatching be performed on October 14 using a patient sample drawn on October 12? Yes, a new sample would not be needed Yes, but only if the previous sample has no alloantibodies No, a new sample is needed because the 2-day limit has expired No, a new sample is needed for each testing
Indirect antiglobulin test
Cells carrying a weak-D antigen require the use of what test to demonstrate its presence? Indirect antiglobulin test Direct antiglobulin test Microplate test Warm auto-absorption test
Indirect antiglobulin test
Cells carrying a weak-D antigen require the use of what test to demonstrate its presence? Microplate test Indirect antiglobulin test Warm auto-absorption test Direct antiglobulin test
anti-C
Choose the antibody that would not be present as a cold alloantibody: anti-H anti-C anti-M anti-I
newborns have fewer ABO antigens than adults
Choose the correct statement regarding ABO antigens: newborns have only the ABO antigens that they ahve acquired from the maternal serum adults have fewer ABO antigens than newborns newborns have the same number of ABO antigens as adults newborns have fewer ABO antigens than adults
always react with Anti-H lectin
Choose the correct statement regarding the subgroups of A: always exhibit anti-A1 in the serum always react with Anti-A in the forward group always react with Anti-H lectin never react with any forward grouping sera
1 and 4 are correct
Choose the correct statements regarding the weak D test: 1. donors must always have a weak D test performed 2. recipients must always have a weak D test performed 3. donors do not require a weak D test performed 4. recipients do not require a weak D test performed 1 and 2 are correct 1 and 4 are correct 2 and 3 are correct 3 and 4 are correct
r"ry
Choose the genotype that is homozygous for E antigen: rr r"ry R1R2 rRz
ABO antigens
Commercial antisera is used for detection of: atypical antibodies ABO antigens BO antibodies compatibility test
crossmatch
Commercial red blood cells comprise the "known" component of all of the following tests EXCEPT: crossmatch antibody identification antibody screen ABO reverse typing
prevent formation of all red cell antibodies.
Compatibility procedures will address all of the following except to: maximize in vivo survival rate of red cells. check ABO compatibility. prevent life-threatening transfusion reactions. prevent formation of all red cell antibodies.
Detects most errors in the ABO groupings
Compatibility testing: Detects most errors in the ABO groupings Detects most irregular antibodies on the donor's RBCs that are reactive with patient's serum Proves that the donor's plasma is free of all irregular antibodies Ensures complete safety of the transfusion
False
Contaminated antisera is a cause of reverse typing ABO discrepancies. True or False
CDe/cDE
Convert the following from Wiener to Fisher-Race Terminology. R1R2 -CDe/cDE -CDE/cDE -cde/cde -CdE/cdE
CDe/CDE
Convert the following from Wiener to Fisher-Race Terminology. R1Rz cde/cde CDE/cDE CdE/cdE CDe/CDE
cde/cdE
Convert the following from Wiener to Fisher-Race Terminology. r/r" cde/cdE Cde/CdE CdE/cdE CdE/cdE
cde/cdE
Convert the following from Wiener to Fisher-Race Terminology. r/r" cde/cdE Cde/CdE CdE/cdE CdE/cdE
after washing the cells in the AHG test
Coombs control cells are added: after washing the cells in the AHG test before addition of AHG sera before centrifugation with AHG sera after addition of AHG sera
after washing the cells in the AHG test
Coombs control cells are added: before addition of AHG sera after washing the cells in the AHG test before centrifugation with AHG sera after addition of AHG sera
O positive cells with coating of Anti-D
Coombs control cells or check cells are: O negative O positive cells with coating of Anti-D Rh null cells coated with Anti-D Rh positive cells of any ABO group and with ABO blood group specific antibody coating the cells
ABO and Rh
Donor blood is received from a source outside of the hospital. Testing that must be performed on this donor blood is: antibody screen infectious disease testing direct antiglobulin test ABO and Rh
is 17 years old
Donors for whole blood are being recruited from a local high school. Parental approval may be needed if the student: weighs 120 lb has previously experienced syncope is 17 years old was immunized to rubella at age 15
R0r'.
Each of the following genotypes is possible for an individual whose red cells reach as indicated below except: ANTISERA REACTIONS anti-C + anti-D + anti-E + anti-c + anti-e + R0r'. Rzr. R1R2. R1r".
IgM
Efficient in activation of the complement cascade 1.IgA 2.IgM 3.IgG 4.IgE
4.Codominant genes
Equal expression of two different inherited genes as in most blood group systems 1.Haplotypes 2.Recessive 3.Amorphic genes 4.Codominant genes 5.Polymorphic
Codominant genes
Equal expression of two different inherited genes as in most blood group systems 1.Haplotypes 2.Recessive 3.Amorphic genes 4.Codominant genes 5.Polymorphic
spleen
Extravascular destruction of blood cells occurs in the: spleen lymph nodes thymus blood vessels
three separate closely linked loci
Fisher-Race describes the inheritance of the Rh antigens as resulting from: one locus with three subloci a single complete unit three separate closely linked loci linkage to the ABO genes
Antibody screen
For autologus units transfused within the collection facility, which part of the compatibility procedure is not required? Antibody screen D phenotyping Transfusion history check ABO phenotyping
Antibody screen
For autologus units transfused within the collection facility, which part of the compatibility procedure is not required? Antibody screen D phenotyping ABO phenotyping Transfusion history check
transfusions
Formation of Rh antibodies may be stimulated by: transfusions proteins ABO antibodies environmental substances
True
Forward Grouping ABO discrepancies can be be caused by clinical conditions such as leukemia where there are weak or missing antigens. True or False
IgA
Found in secretions, such as breast milk 1.IgA 2.IgM 3.IgG 4.IgE
HTLA antibody
From the following examples choose the condition that would not exhibit a positive DAT: HDFN HTR HTLA antibody WAIHA
linked
Genes located close to each other on the same chromosome are likely to be: an amorph linked subject to crossing over suppressed
Anti-K
Given the following red cell antigen frequencies: K 10% E 30% k 90% P1 80% Which of the following red cell alloantibodies would be responsible for incomplete crossmatches with one 1 of 10 random donor units? Anti-E Anti-k Anti-P1 Anti-K
HLA antigen
Graft vs. host disease may occur from a mismatch of: ABO compatible plasma red cell hemoglobin proteins Rh antigens HLA antigens
only 3 is correct
Group A red cells may be transfused to which of the following blood groups: 1. group O 2. group B 3. group AB 1, 2, and 3 are correct only 1 is correct only 2 is correct only 3 is correct none of the above
only 3 is correct
Group A red cells may be transfused to which of the following blood groups: 1. group O 2. group B 3. group AB only 1 is correct only 2 is correct 1, 2, and 3 are correct only 3 is correct
A and B
HLA matching between the donor and recipient is important for progenitor cell transplantation to avoid: -graft versus host disease (GVHD). -graft rejection. -transfusion reactions. -A and B.
IgM
Has the highest number of antigen binding sites 1.IgA 2.IgM 3.IgG 4.IgE
IgG
Has the highest serum concentration 1.IgA 2.IgM 3.IgG 4.IgE
5.Polymorphic
Having two or more alleles at a given gene locus 1.Haplotypes 2.Recessive 3.Amorphic genes 4.Codominant genes 5.Polymorphic
Polymorphic
Having two or more alleles at a given gene locus 1.Haplotypes 2.Recessive 3.Amorphic genes 4.Codominant genes 5.Polymorphic
the clumping of red blood cells and is used to visualize Ag-AB reactions
Hemagglutination is... when soluble antigen and antibody combine to "fall out" of solution in flakes the formation of an insouble compound that settles out as a solid the clumping of red blood cells and is used to visualize Ag-AB reactions a testing method where one component of testing is adhered to a solid phase such as a microtiter plate
Complement activation was inhibited by calcium in the plasma sample.
Hemolysis was observed at room temperature when testing a patient's serum with reagent red cells used for screening. When this test repeated using the patient's plasma, no hemolysis was observed. What was the most likely explanation for the different reactions? -The serum sample was fresher. -The serum sample was contaminated. -The plasma sample was collected incorrectly. -Complement activation was inhibited by calcium in the plasma sample.
react with antigens of high frequency in the population.
High-titer, low-avidity antibodies typically: react best at colder temperatures. react with antigens of low frequency in the population. react with antigens of high frequency in the population. are clinically significant.
Both parents are heterozygous D-positive.
How it is genetically possible for a child to phenotype as D-negative? Both parents are homozygous D-positive. The sibling is D-positive. Both parents are heterozygous D-positive. Mom is homozygous D-positive, and Dad is heterozygous D-positive.
7 days
How long following transfusion must the recipient's sample be stored? 10 days 14 days 5 days 7 days
7 days
How long must a recipient sample be kept in the blood bank following compatibility testing? 3 days 5 days 7 days 10 days
2
How many units of red blood cells are required to raise the hematocrit of a 70-kg nonbleeding adult man from 24% to 30%? 2 4 3 1
D-positive
How would a donor who tested negative with anti-D reagent in the immediate spin test but tested positive at antihuman globulin with anti-D reagent be labeled? D-positive D-negative
ABO, Rh, antibody screen, and crossmatch may show abnormal results
How would autoantibodies affect compatibility testing? No effect The DAT would be positive ABO, Rh, antibody screen, and crossmatch may show abnormal results Results would depend on the specificity of autoantibody
Unable to determine without further testing
How would you interpret the results if both the anti-D reagent and the Rh control were 2+ agglutination reactions? -Unable to determine without further testing -Depends on whether the sample was from a patient or a blood donor -D-positive -D-negative
breast milk
I and i antgens are found in plasma, serum, and what other possible source? breast milk urine salive all of the above
Anti-c
If D-negative red cells are given to an R1Rz individual what is the most likely antibody that could develop? Anti-d Anti-c Anti-D Anti-E
Anti-c
If D-negative red cells are given to an R1Rz individual what is the most likely antibody that could develop? Anti-c Anti-D Anti-E Anti-d
all Group A
If a mother is genetically AO and the father is genetically AA, the frequencies of phenotypes for potential offspring are: all Group A 50 Group A; 50% Group O 75% Group A; 25% Group O 25% Group A; 75% Group O
3
If a potential recipient was transfused two months ago, the sample should be collected within _______ day(s) of the intended upcoming transfusion. 1 3 7 14
True
If a red cell suspension greater than 5% is used in a tube agglutination test, you may potentially have false negative results. True or False
Anti-I
If all red cells tested at room temperature are positive with a patient's serum except for cord cells, the probable antibody identity is: anti-I. anti-Lu. anti-M. anti-Lea.
Release group O, D-negative red blood cells.
If an emergency exists and there is not enough time to perform a crossmatch for red cells, what is the correct procedure? Release group AB fresh frozen plasma until the blood type is performed. Release ABO-compatible blood based on the patient's prior record in the computer. Release group O, D-negative whole blood. Release group O, D-negative red blood cells.
Weaker
If anti-M was reacted with red cells that are M+N+, how would they compare with red cells that are M+N-? The same Weaker Varies with the method Stronger
3 days
If the recipient was transfused within the last 3 months, how long from the time of collection can a sample be used for the crossmatch? 10 days 5 days 3 days 7 days
the genes are close together on the same chromosome.
If two traits were found to occur higher in a population together than each occurs separately, they may be linked. This would suggest that: they are inherited on different chromosomes. crossover has occurred. they are found far apart on the same chromosome. the genes are close together on the same chromosome.
anti-I
In a cold panel, the cord cell is negative at all phases of testing while all panel cells are positive at immediate spin and non-reactive at all other phases. The most likely etiology of this antibody is: anti-i anti-I anti-e HTLA antibody
AO AND BO
In a family study, it was determined that all four siblings in the family had a different blood type: A, B, O, and AB. The parents were most likely __________. AO AND BO AA AND BB AO AND BB OO AND AB
AO AND BO
In a family study, it was determined that all four siblings in the family had a different blood type: A, B, O, and AB. The parents were most likely __________. OO AND AB AO AND BO AA AND BB AO AND BB
are recognized by a specific antibody.
In a lymphocytotoxicity test, cells that take on the dye: -are not affected by complement. -do not recognize a human leukocyte antigen. -recognize a red cell antibody. -are recognized by a specific antibody.
antibody excess.
In a serologic test, the term prozone is also known as: -antigen excess. -equivalence. -antibody excess. -serum-to-cell ratio.
Two more k-negative cells should be tested so that the rule of three can be satisfied.
In an antibody identification panel, only one red cell line was negative at the antihuman globulin phase. On ruling out and matching the pattern, an anti-k was identified. What further testing is necessary to confirm the antibody? Perform an adsorption using "k"-positive cells. Two more k-negative cells should be tested so that the rule of three can be satisfied. Treat the panel cells with enzymes and perform the panel again. Two more K-negative cells should be tested to satisfy the rule of three.
True
In genetics, the dominant trait is written as a capital letter and the recessive trait is written as a small letter. True False
All of the above
In order for an individual to express Leb antigen on their red blood cells, they must have inherited which gene? Le Se H All of the above
Increase the incubation time in the incubator
In order to enhance the reaction of an antibody in vitro, it may be necessary to adjust which of the following? -Speed of the centrifuge above the calibrated settings -Increase the incubation time in the incubator -Temperature above 37°C -Increase the concentration of red cells in the test syst
The homozygous population of one allele
In the Hardy-Weinberg formula, p2 represents: -The heterozygous population of one allele -The homozygous population of one allele -The recessive allele -The dominant allele
True
In the IAT test for confirmation of a negative Rh test, the specimen is incubated for 15 minutes. True False
anti-Lea.
In the process of identifying an antibody, the technologist observed 2+ reactions with 3 of the 10 cells in a panel at the immediate spin phase. These reactions disappeared following incubation at 37° C and the antihuman globulin phase of testing. The antibody most likely to be responsible is: anti-I. anti-Lea. anti-E. anti-D.
a button of cells on the bottom of the well.
In the solid-phase red cell adherence test, a negative test would appear as: -a button of cells on the bottom of the well. -hemolysis of red cells. -adherence of cells along the sides and bottom of the wells. -a line of cells along the top of the well.
In a patient who has received a massive transfusion within a 24-hour period
In which of the following situations can be crossmatch test be omitted? In a patient who is pregnant In a bone marrow transplant recipient In a patient who is receiving a directed donation In a patient who has received a massive transfusion within a 24-hour period
37° C
In which phase of reactivity would rouleaux typically be detected in the screen? 15° C 4° C Antihuman globulin 37° C
2.Direct antiglobulin test
Incubation step is not necessary 1.Indirect antiglobulin test 2.Direct antiglobulin test 3.Both the direct and indirect antiglobulin test
compatibility testing between recipient and donors
Indirect antiglobulin testing is used for: detection of in vivo antibody coating of red cells compatibility testing between recipient and donors reverse ABO grouping of donors typing Rh positive cells prior to transfusion
immediate spin crossmatch
Individuals with no history of atypical antibodies require which of the following compatibility tests: no additional testing required major crossmatch in AHG minor crossmatch in saline only immediate spin crossmatch
all of the above.
It was observed that an antibody identified in the transfusion service appeared to be reacting stronger following the second exposure to an antigen from a transfusion. The most likely explanation of this is: -affinity maturation of the immunoglobulin molecule. -anamnestic response. -isotype switching. -all of the above.
IgG, donor's
K1-positive donor red cells were mistakenly transfused to a recipient with anti-K. The patient's posttransfusion blood sample has a positive direct antiglobulin test with polyspecific antihuman globulin. The direct antiglobulin test is positive because of anti-K is an __________ antibody that has sensitized the __________ cells in vivo. IgM, donor's IgG, donor's IgM, recipient's IgG, recipient's
ABO group
Labeling of recipient's blood sample for pre-transfusion testing does not need to include the following: patient's name identification number ABO group collection date
antigens and antibodies
Lattice formation is the establishment of cross links between: antigens and antibodies antibodies and complement white blood cells and MHC antigens B lymphocytes and antibodies
1. Primer
Marks the sequence to be amplified during PCR 1.Primer 2.Polymerase chain reaction 3.Hybridization 4.Probe 5.Amplicon DNA sequence
4.Dce
Match the Fisher-Race notation with the correct Weiner notation for the following: R0 1.Ce 2.CE 3.DCE 4.Dce
3.DCE
Match the Fisher-Race notation with the correct Weiner notation for the following: Rz 1.Ce 2.CE 3.DCE 4.Dce
1.Ce
Match the Fisher-Race notation with the correct Weiner notation for the following: r' 1.Ce 2.CE 3.DCE 4.Dce
2.CE
Match the Fisher-Race notation with the correct Weiner notation for the following: ry 1.Ce 2.CE 3.DCE 4.Dce
1.R1r
Match the following phenotypes with the most probable genotype in the Weiner nomenclature. DCce 1.R1r 2.R1R1 3.R2R2 4.rr
2.R1R1
Match the following phenotypes with the most probable genotype in the Weiner nomenclature. DCe 1.R1r 2.R1R1 3.R2R2 4.rr
3.R2R2
Match the following phenotypes with the most probable genotype in the Weiner nomenclature. DcE 1.R1r 2.R1R1 3.R2R2 4.rr
4.rr
Match the following phenotypes with the most probable genotype in the Weiner nomenclature. ce 1.R1r 2.R1R1 3.R2R2 4.rr
4.None of the above
Match the immunodominant sugar that corresponds to the ABO system group or antigen. Bombay 1.D-galactose 2.L-fucose 3.N-acetylgalactosamine 4.None of the above
3.N-acetylgalactosamine
Match the immunodominant sugar that corresponds to the ABO system group or antigen. Group A 1.D-galactose 2.L-fucose 3.N-acetylgalactosamine 4.None of the above
1.D-galactose
Match the immunodominant sugar that corresponds to the ABO system group or antigen. Group B 1.D-galactose 2.L-fucose 3.N-acetylgalactosamine 4.None of the above
2.L-fucose
Match the immunodominant sugar that corresponds to the ABO system group or antigen. Group O 1.D-galactose 2.L-fucose 3.N-acetylgalactosamine 4.None of the above
2.L-fucose
Match the immunodominant sugar that corresponds to the ABO system group or antigen. H-antigen 1.D-galactose 2.L-fucose 3.N-acetylgalactosamine 4.None of the above
4.Autoantibody or transfusion reaction, IgG
Match the tentative interpretation of antibody screen and direct antiglobulin test (DAT) with the results given below. 1.Alloantibody, IgG 2. Alloantibody, IgM 3.Autoantibody, IgM 4.Autoantibody or transfusion reaction, IgG All screening cells 2+ at antihuman globulin phase, DAT positive, IgG 2+
3.Autoantibody, IgM
Match the tentative interpretation of antibody screen and direct antiglobulin test (DAT) with the results given below. 1.Alloantibody, IgG 2. Alloantibody, IgM 3.Autoantibody, IgM 4.Autoantibody or transfusion reaction, IgG All screening cells positive 1+ at IS, DAT positive, C3 1+
2. Alloantibody, IgM
Match the tentative interpretation of antibody screen and direct antiglobulin test (DAT) with the results given below. 1.Alloantibody, IgG 2. Alloantibody, IgM 3.Autoantibody, IgM 4.Autoantibody or transfusion reaction, IgG All screening cells positive 1+ is IS, DAT negative
1.Alloantibody, IgG
Match the tentative interpretation of antibody screen and direct antiglobulin test (DAT) with the results given below. 1.Alloantibody, IgG 2. Alloantibody, IgM 3.Autoantibody, IgM 4.Autoantibody or transfusion reaction, IgG One screening cell 1+ at antihuman globulin phase, DAT negative
two cells with the same number of
Mitosis results in __________ chromosomes as the original. four cells with half as many two cells with the same number of four cells with the same number of two cells with half as many
fewer weak D tests
Monoclonal an anti-D serum is being used in the blood bank of the local hospital. This blood bank also performs weak D testing on all donors and recipients. Choose the correct statement regarding the frequency that this lab will have to perform the weak D test compared to a lab that uses antisera that are not monoclonal. This lab will perform: more weak D tests fewer weak D tests the same number of weak D tests unable to determine
False
Monoclonal antibodies are prepared in vivo. True or False
vitro
Monoclonal antibodies are prepared in: vivo vitro humans laboratory animals
IgM
Most "naturally occurring" ABO system antibodies fall into which class? IgM IgA IgE IgG
IgG
Most Rh system antibodies are of which immunoglobulin class? IgE IgA IgG IgM
autosomal codominant.
Most blood group systems are inherited as: sex-linked recessive. autosomal recessive. autosomal dominant. autosomal codominant.
autosomal codominant.
Most blood group systems are inherited as: sex-linked recessive. autosomal recessive. autosomal codominant. autosomal dominant
Binding to cells or antigens
Opsonozation is a term to describe what process? -Ingestion of cells -Binding to cells or antigens -Lysis of cells -Phagocytosis
O
Parents of group A and AB can not produce offspring of group: B A AB O
All of the above
Parents of group A and B could produce offspring of group: AB B A All of the above
False
Parents who are both phenotyped as group A cannot have a group O child.
25%
Parents who are herterozygous for D antigen will have what likelihood of producing an Rh negative child? 25% 50% 75% no Rh negative children be produced
2.Epitope
Part of the antigen that the immunoglobulin binds to 1.Kappa 2.Epitope 3.Hinge region 4.Isotype 5.Idiotype
False
People who are Rh positive will have anti-D ABs in their blood. True False
malaria
Persons who are negative for Duffy antigens are less likely to contract which of the following diseases? chicken pox influenza malaria polio
cryoprecipitate
Pheresis may be used to collect all of the following except: cryoprecipitate plasma leukocytes platlets
increase the avidity of IgG antibodies.
Polyethylene glycol is a reagent that can be added to the screen or panel in order to: -eliminate the reactivity of certain antigen. -eliminate the need for washing in the indirect antiglobulin test. -increase the avidity of IgG antibodies. -enhance detection of IgM antibodies.
anti-IgG and anti-C3d.
Polyspecific antihuman globulin contains: anti-IgG anti-C3b and anti-C3d. anti-IgG and anti-IgM. anti-IgG and anti-C3d.
75% survival 24 hours post-transfusion
Post-transfusion red blood cell survival requirements are: 50% survival 12 hours post-transfusion 75% survival 24 hours post-transfusion 90% survival 24 hours post-transfusion 80% survival 12 hours post transfusion
enhance the Ag-AB reaction
Potentiator reagents... are never used in the lab test for multiple antigens enhance the Ag-AB reaction test for one specific Ag
product insert.
Product limitations and technical considerations for each reagent can be found in the: -AABB standards. -product insert. -standard operating procedure. -Food and Drug Administration code of regulations.
reducing zeta potential surrounding red cells
Proteolytic enzymes work by: removing negatively charged molecules from red cells reducing zeta potential surrounding red cells destroying red blood cells coating red blood cells during the incubation process
U-negative.
Question 5 1 / 1 point Red cells that phenotype as S-s- are also: N-negative. M-negative. U-negative. Tja-negative.
2.Screening cells
Reagent to detect the presence of red cell antibodies and B cells 1.Panel cells 2.Screening cells 3.A1 and B cells 4.ABO antisera 5.Lectins
Screening cells
Reagent to detect the presence of red cell antibodies and B cells 1.Panel cells 2.Screening cells 3.A1 and B cells 4.ABO antisera 5.Lectins
1.Panel cells
Reagent to identify the specificity of a red cell antibody antisera 1.Panel cells 2.Screening cells 3.A1 and B cells 4.ABO antisera 5.Lectins
Panel cells
Reagent to identify the specificity of a red cell antibody antisera 1.Panel cells 2.Screening cells 3.A1 and B cells 4.ABO antisera 5.Lectins
3.A1 and B cells
Reagent used in the identification of ABO antibodies 1.Panel cells 2.Screening cells 3.A1 and B cells 4.ABO antisera 5.Lectins
A1 and B cells
Reagent used in the identification of ABO antibodies 1.Panel cells 2.Screening cells 3.A1 and B cells 4.ABO antisera 5.Lectins
4.ABO antisera
Reagent used to determine the ABO antigenic composition of a patient's red cells 1.Panel cells 2.Screening cells 3.A1 and B cells 4.ABO antisera 5.Lectins
ABO antisera
Reagent used to determine the ABO antigenic composition of a patient's red cells 1.Panel cells 2.Screening cells 3.A1 and B cells 4.ABO antisera 5.Lectins
there is no genetic material inherited from the RHD gene from both parents.
Red cells that phenotype as D-negative indicate that: reagents currently in use are not detecting the D antigen. there is no genetic material inherited from the RHD gene from both parents. they inherited two D genes. a suppressor gene was inherited that is turning off the D gene expression.
3.Both the direct and indirect antiglobulin test
Requires washing the cells several times before the addition of antihuman globulin reagent 1.Indirect antiglobulin test 2.Direct antiglobulin test 3.Both the direct and indirect antiglobulin test
A and B
Reverse typing cells that are used to confirm the ABs in a patient's serum are made from groups: AB and O A and O B and O A and B
only red cell Rh antigens
Rh Ag is associated with: only red cell Rh antigens organs such as brain and liver ion transport across the red cell membrane the production of RhC antigen``
1, 4, and 6 are correct
Rh antibodies are: 1. IgG 2. IgM 3. complement binding 4. non-complement binding 5. cold-reaction 6. warm-reacting 1, 3, and 5 are correct 1, 4, and 6 are correct 2, 3, and 6 are correct 2, 4, and 5 are correct
37
Rh antibodies react best at what temperature (°C)? 15 22 18 37
37
Rh antibodies react best at what temperature (°C)? 15 37 22 18
Weak D test
Rouleaux is a false-positive reaction that would not likely be observed during which of the following tests? ABO forward typing Reverse typing in the ABO test Immediate spin antibody screen Weak D test
Weak D test
Rouleaux is a false-positive reaction that would not likely be observed during which of the following tests? -Immediate spin antibody screen -Weak D test -ABO forward typing -Reverse typing in the ABO test
coin like stacking of red cells
Rouleaux is... the difference in charge density between the inner and outer ion cloud surrounding the surface of the red blood cells Liquid portion of a blood sample collected with an anticoagulant situation resulting in excess antibody concentration coin like stacking of red cells
Cold alloantibody
Screening cells and major crossmatch are positive on immediate spin (IS) only, and the autocontrol is negative. Identify the problem. Cold alloantibody Cold autoantibody Abnormal protein Antibody mixture
The sample must be labeled at the bedside.
Select the correct statement regarding the collection of a blood sample for compatibility testing. The sample does not require a means to identify the phlebotomist. The sample requires a new numeric identifier for the patient for each admittance. The sample may be labeled at any time in an emergency. The sample must be labeled at the bedside.
Gel technology
Select the method that uses a dextran-acrylamide matrix. -Tube techniques -Microplate -Gel technology -Solid-phase red cell adherence
Constant region of the heavy chain.
Select the portion of the antibody molecule that imparts the antibody's unique class function. -Constant region of the light chain -Constant region of the heavy chain. -Variable region of the light chain -Variable region of the heavy chain
Variable region
Select the region of the antibody molecule responsible for imparting unique antibody specificity. Variable region Hinge region Fc fragment Constant region
Cytokines
Select the substance that regulates the activity of other cells by binding to specific receptors. -Immunoglobulins -Cytokines -Anaphylatoxin -Complement
Humoral immunity
Select the term that is associated with the B-cell response to antigens. -Humoral immunity -Nonspecific immunity -Innate immunity -Cellular immunity
Antiglobulin test
Select the test that uses IgG-sensitized red cells (check cells). -B-antigen detection -Antiglobulin test -D-antigen typing -Rh-antigen typing
innate immunity
Skin, mucus membranes, and normal bacterial flora are part of: innate immunity acquired immunity passive immunity active immunity
adherance of the complexes on the sides of the wells.
Solid phase testing demonstrates positive reactions with... adherance of the complexes on the sides of the wells. a button in the bottom of the well clumps at the top layer of the well
the endpoint is more clearly defined.
Solid-phase red cell adherence used for antibody detection has an advantage over tube testing because: -there is no washing involved. -incubation time is not necessary. -indicator cells (IgG-coated cells) are not necessary. -the endpoint is more clearly defined.
missing part of the D antigen
Some forms of weak D antigen may be: identical to the D antigen missing part of the D antigen an Rh negative antigen not at all related to the D antigen
Kell
System associated with McLeod phenotype 1.Cartwright 2.MNSs 3.Kidd 4.Vel 5.Xga 6.Sda antigen 7.Chido/Rodgers 8.Kell 9.Duffy
Kell
System associated with chronic granulomatous disease 1.Cartwright 2.MNSs 3.Kidd 4.Vel 5.Xga 6.Sda antigen 7.Chido/Rodgers 8.Kell 9.Duffy
MNSs
System associated with glycophorin A and B 1.Cartwright 2.MNSs 3.Kidd 4.Vel 5.Xga 6.Sda antigen 7.Chido/Rodgers 8.Kell 9.Duffy
Duffy
System associated with resistance to malaria 1.Cartwright 2.MNSs 3.Kidd 4.Vel 5.Xga 6.Sda antigen 7.Chido/Rodgers 8.Kell 9.Duffy
2.Polymerase chain reaction
Technique used to replicate a specific targeted 1.Primer 2.Polymerase chain reaction 3.Hybridization 4.Probe 5.Amplicon DNA sequence
5. environmental condition
Temperature 1.exactness of fit 2.bonds 3.surface charge 4.optimum concentration of antigens and antibodies 5.environmental condition
performing the indirect antiglobulin test with anti-D.
Testing for the weak D expression is performed by: performing the direct antiglobulin test with anti-D. using monoclonal anti-D. performing the indirect antiglobulin test with anti-D. using anti-Du antisera with an extended incubation.
2.Direct antiglobulin test
Tests for certain clinical conditions such as hemolytic disease of the newborn and autoimmune hemolytic anemia 1.Indirect antiglobulin test 2.Direct antiglobulin test 3.Both the direct and indirect antiglobulin test
forward typing
The Anti-D test is considered part of which test (think about what you are using from the patient...cells or plasma)? direct antiglobulin test indirect antiglobulin test reverse typing forward typing
hh
The Bombay phenotype is compromised of a genetic combination of: Oh HH Hh hh
hh
The Bombay phenotype is compromised of a genetic combination of: hh HH Hh Oh
an IgG auto anti-P.
The Donath-Landsteiner antibody is: anti-IH that reacts at cold temperatures. IgG anti-pk. an IgG auto anti-P. an IgM auto anti-I.
True
The Fisher/Race designation of cDE/cDE would correlate to a Rosenfield designation of Rh: 1, −2, 3, 4, −5. True or False
P
The Globoside group is associated with which antigen system: Lewis Kell I P
D-positive red
The LW antigen expression is typically stronger on __________ cells. Rh null D-variant D-positive red D-negative red
stronger
The M and N antigens exhibit dosage. Therefore, if a person inherits the homozygous genotype MM, their RBCs will react ___________ with anti-M than/as those of a person with a heterozygous genotype of MN. stronger weaker the same none of the above
independent segregation
The Mendelian law that refers to the transmission of a trait from one generation to the next in a predictable fashion is: genetic crossing over independent assortment independent segregation linkage disequilibriu
False
The Mendelian law that refers to the trasmission of a trait from one generation to the next in a predictable fashion is called independent assortment. True False
high protein polyclonal
The Rh antisera that requires a parallel control is: monoclonal/polyclonal blend chemically modified high protein polyclonal monoclonal
RzR2
The Rh genotype CDE/cDE is written in Weiner notation as: RzRo R2R1 ROR1 RzR2
r'r
The Rh genotype Ce/ce is written in Weiner notation as: r'r R2ry r"r' r R1
R2R1
The Rh genotype cDE/CDe is written in Weiner notation as: RzRo RzR2 ROR1 R2R1
R2ry
The Rh genotype cDE/CE is written in Weiner notation as: r R1 r"r' R2ry r'r
R2ry
The Rh genotype cDE/CdE is written in Weiner notation as: r"r' R2ry r'r r R1
ROR1
The Rh genotype cDe/CDe is written in Weiner notation as: R2R1 RzRo RzR2 ROR1
v
The Rh genotype cDe/CDe is written in Weiner notation as: RzRo ROR1 RzR2 R2R1
r"r'
The Rh genotype cE/Ce is written in Weiner notation as: r R1 r'r R2ry r"r'
r R1
The Rh genotype ce/CDe is written in Weiner notation as: R2ry r R1 r"r' r'r
cDe/cDE
The Weiner notation R0R2 translates to Fisher-Race as: CDe/CDE CDE/cDE cDe/cDE CDe/cDe
CDe/cDE
The Weiner notation R1R2 translates to Fisher-Race as: CDe/cDE CDe/CDE CDE/cDE CDe/cDe
cDE/CDE
The Weiner notation R2Rz translates to Fisher-Race as: cDE/CDE cDe/cDE CDe/cDe CDe/CDE
rh' '
The Wiener nomenclature for the E antigen is: hr' hr' ' rh' ' Rh0
rh' '
The Wiener nomenclature for the E antigen is: hr' hr' ' rh' ' Rh0
O negative
The administration of blood to a 25-year-old woman who is hemorrhaging is necessary on an emergency basis. The best choice for initial transfusion is: type specific O positive O negative no blood should be transfused without pretransfusion testing
Indirect/secondary/second order
The alledged father of a child in a disputed case of paternity is blood group AB. The mother is group O and the child is group O. What type of exclusion is this? -Direct/primary/first order -Probability -Rando -Indirect/secondary/second order
detects most clinically significant antibodies
The antibody screen: detects all low-frequency antibodies helps to distinguish between an alloantibody and autoantibody detects most clinically significant antibodies can be omitted if the patient has no history of antibodies
Anti-Jka
The antibody that is enhanced by enzymes is: Anti-Fya Anti-Jka Anti-K Anti-M
Anti-Jka
The antibody that is enhanced by enzymes is: Anti-Jka Anti-K Anti-M Anti-Fya
Anti-Kell
The antibody that is not ever a cold-reacting antibody is: Anti-Kell Anti-P Anti-Lua Anti-M
Anti-Kell
The antibody that is not ever a cold-reacting antibody is: Anti-P Anti-M Anti-Kell Anti-Lua
D
The antigen missing in the Rh negative individual is: C c D d
Duffy
The antigen systems that are carbohydrate do not include: P I Lewis Duffy
negative reaction.
The antiglobulin test was performed using gel technology. A button of cells was observed at the bottom of the microtube following centrifugation. This result indicates a: problem with the card. failure to wash correctly. strong positive reaction. negative reaction.
negative reaction
The antiglobulin test was performed using gel technology. A button of cells was observed at the bottom of the microtube following centrifugation. This result indicates a: -strong positive reaction. -problem with the card. -failure to wash correctly. -negative reaction.
15
The approximate percentage of persons in the Caucasian population who are Rh negative is: 15 25 50 85
Protection of the host
The basic function of the immune system is: Protection of the host Cell production phagocytosis of parasites Protein production
3.Hybridization
The binding of two complementary pairs of DNA 1.Primer 2.Polymerase chain reaction 3.Hybridization 4.Probe 5.Amplicon DNA sequence
Chagas Disease
The clinical condition that is not transmitted sexually and parenterally is: Chagas Disease Hepatitis B Hepatitis C Syphilis
primer
The component of PCR that marks the reaction initiation location and the sequence to be amplified is the: primer probe Taq Polymerase gene chip
phagocytic cells
The components involved innate immunity include all of the following EXCEPT: phagocytic cells lysozyme acidic stomach secretions bacterial flora
freeze-thaw
The elution method that is most effective for ABO antibodies is: acid cholorform freeze-thaw ether
BSA
The enhancement media that affects the second stage of agglutination is: PEG Ficin LISS BSA
LISS
The enhancement media that may be used to suspend the red cells is: PEG LISS BSA Ficin
All of the above
The evidence for reagent red cell deterioration may include which of the following? -Loss of agglutination strength over time -Spontaneous agglutination -Significant hemolysis -All of the above
anti-P1 will not react with enzyme-treated P1 positive red cells.
The following statements regarding anti-P1 are true except: P2 individuals can make anti-P1. anti-P1 will not react with enzyme-treated P1 positive red cells. anti-P1 is clinically not significant. anti-P1 reacts best at room temperature.
r'r
The following test results are obtained: Anti-D: 0 Anti-C: + Anti-c: + Anti-E: 0 Anti-e: + The most probably genotype is: R1r R0r r'r rr
25% b; 75% B
The genotype of parents of a newborn for characteristic B: Mother Bb and Father Bb. B is dominant and b is recessive. The probability of traits B and b in this newborn is: 100% B 25% b; 75% B 50% b; 50% B 75% b; 25% B
AO
The genotype of parents of a newborn with a phenotype of A is as follows: Mother AO and Father BO. The genotype of the newborn is: OO AO BO AA
hemolysis.
The major histocompatibility complex is located on chromosome 6 and is important in all the following immune functions except: -graft rejection. -coordination of cellular and humoral immunity. -recognition on nonself. -hemolysis
HBsAg
The marker that is determined using a neutralization assay is: HBsAg HBc Anti-HCV HCV
N-acetylgalactosamine
The oligosaccharide molecule that creates the active A antigen is: N-acetylgalactosamine galactose fucose paragloboside
indicates the class of the antibody.
The phase of the agglutination reaction is important in the interpretation of the antibody screen or antibody identification panel because it: determines whether an autoantibody is present. indicates the class of the antibody. determines whether there is a delayed transfusion reaction. provides clues on antibody dosage.
1 and 4 are correct
The phenotype of any newborn will include which of the following: 1. Le(a-b-) 2. Le(a+b-) 3. Le(a-b+) 4. I-, i+ 5. I+, i- 1 and 4 are correct 1 and 5 are correct 2 and 4 are correct 2 and 5 are correct 3 and 4 are correct 3 and 5 are correct
determine ABO compatibility between donor and recipient
The purpose of the immediate spin crossmatch is to: meet computer crossmatch requirements determine ABO compatibility between donor and recipient detect cold-reacting unexpected antibodies ensure survival of transfused RBCs
provide a solid phase surface
The purpose of the solid phase in a microarray is to: provide a source of fluorescence denature the sample DNA provide a solid phase surface label the DNA
number of points of attachment
The strength of an antigen-antibody complex is directly proportional to the: titer of antibody in plasma number of points of attachment amount of cryptic antigen present on cells number of antigen binding sites on the immunoglobulin molecule
zygosity
The term that describes similarity or dissimilarity of genes at an allelic position is called... heterozygous zygosity homozygous codominant
codominant
The term that would describe the genotype AB where both antigens are expressed equally is: codominant heterozygous homozygous zygosity
homozygous
The term that would describe the genotype BB is: codominant zygosity heterozygous homozygous
indirect antiglobulin test
The test that is used to confirm a negative Anti-D test is: indirect antiglobulin test forward typing reverse typing direct antiglobulin test
reverse typing
The test that mixes unknown patient plasma with known cells is: indirect antiglobulin test forward typing direct antiglobulin test reverse typing
compatibility test
The test that mixes unknown serum with unknown cells is: antibody screen direct antiglobulin test compatibility test antibody identification
6 years
The true Lewis phenotype will normally be detected at what age? birth 10 days 6 years not necessarily ever, as circumstances such as pregnancy may alter or mask an individual's true Lewis phenotype
4.Isotype
The type of immunoglobulins determined by the heavy chain 1.Kappa 2.Epitope 3.Hinge region 4.Isotype 5.Idiotype
do not have a clinically significant antibody.
The use of the electronic (computer) crossmatch is restricted to recipients who: have transfusion history that has been documented in the computer. are group O. have had successful transfusions in the past. do not have a clinically significant antibody.
in the trans position to the C gene
The weak D may be created when the D antigen is: inherited from only one parent received in an Rh positive transfusion in the trans position to the C gene absent on both chromosomes
a weak D antigen.
The weak D test detects: the missing D mosaic. a weak D antibody. a weak D antigen. the Du antigen
naturally occurring
There are Individuals who are Le (a-b-) that can develop Lewis antibodies without exposure to Lewis antigens. These antibodies are considered to be... biphasic naturally occurring immune mediated autoantibodies
naturally occurring
There are Individuals who are Le (a-b-) that can develop Lewis antibodies without exposure to Lewis antigens. These antibodies are considered to be... naturally occurring autoantibodies immune mediated biphasic
All of the above are correct.
To increase the sensitivity of the antibody screen in a compatibility test, what can be done? All of the above are correct. Extend the incubation time. Use an enhancement such as polyethylene glycol. Increase the serum-to-cell ratio.
Maximum blood order schedule
To what does the abbreviation "MSBOS" refer? Monthly surgical blood order schedule Minimum surgical blood order staffing Minimum safe blood order schedule Maximum blood order schedule
haplotype
Two genes are close to each other and are inherited together as a unit. The combination of the two genes that are inherited together is known as a: genotype haplotype phenotype amorph
2.bonds
Van Der Wahls 1.exactness of fit 2.bonds 3.surface charge 4.optimum concentration of antigens and antibodies 5.environmental condition
A and B
What ABO phenotype would agglutinate in the presence of anti-A1B produced by group O individuals? B only O only A and B A only
A and B
What ABO phenotype would agglutinate in the presence of anti-A1B produced by group O individuals? A only A and B B only O only
O-negative
What ABO type(s) may donate to any other ABO type? A-negative, B-negative, AB-negative, or O-negative O-negative AB-negative AB-negative, A-negative, B-negative
K-k+
What Kell phenotype is found in highest frequency in the white population? K+k+ K+k- K-k+ K0
Rh positive or negative
What Rh type could a weak D patient receive? Rh positive Rh negative Rh positive or negative
LW
What antigen system is closely associated phenotypically with Rh? Lutheran Duffy McCoy LW
All of the above
What are the antibody characteristics of Fy3, Fy4, and Fy5? immunogenic IgG Reactive at IAT All of the above
Donor red cells and recipient serum
What are the two components of the major crossmatch? Recipient red cells and donor serum Reverse ABO cells and recipient serum Screening cells and donor serum Donor red cells and recipient serum
All are possible
What blood type is not possible for an offspring of AO and BO mating? AB A or B O All are possible
universal
What does the "U" in U antigen stand for? unusual universal uniform unique
Anti-A,B
What forward typing reagent can be used to confirm group O units before placing them in inventory? Anti-A,B Anti-A Anti-H Anti-B
IgG
What immunoglobulin class is capable of crossing the placenta? IgG IgM IgA IgE
IgG
What immunoglobulin class is capable of crossing the placenta? IgG IgM IgE IgA
A trait that is not carried on the sex chromosomes
What is meant by the term autosomal? -A gene that does not express a characteristic -A trait that is carried on the sex chromosome -A trait that is expressed only in the parents -A trait that is not carried on the sex chromosomes
Jk (a+b-)
What is the most common Kidd phenotype in the black population? Jk (a+b-) Jk(a+b+) Jk(a-b+) Jk(a-b-)
False negatives
What is the potential effect in a tube agglutination test if a red cell suspension with a concentration greater than 5% is used? -False positives -Hemolysis -False negatives -No effect
Polyclonal-based
What reagent contains antibodies to multiple antigenic epitopes? -Polyclonal-based -Heterophile antibody-based -Monoclonal-based -Alloantibody-based
A, H
What substances are found in the saliva of a group A person who also inherited the secretor gene? A, B, H A, H A, Se H
A, H
What substances are found in the saliva of a group A person who also inherited the secretor gene? A, H A, B, H A, Se H
O-negative
What type(s) of red cells is (are) acceptable to transfuse to an O-negative patient? A-negative, B-negative, AB-negative, or O-negative O-negative AB-negative AB-negative, A-negative, B-negative
Negative
What would be the agglutination reaction of red cells from a Bombay phenotype with anti-H lectin? Mixed field Negative Strong 4+ Weak 1+
Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction
What would be the result of group A blood given to a group O patient? Nonimmune transfusion reaction Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction
X-linked recessive.
When a female possesses a phenotypic trait that she passes to all of her sons and none of her daughters, the trait is said to be: X-linked recessive. X-linked dominant. Autosomal dominant. Autosomal recessive.
2.Recessive
When a gene product is expressed only when it is inherited by both parents 1.Haplotypes 2.Recessive 3.Amorphic genes 4.Codominant genes 5.Polymorphic
Recessive
When a gene product is expressed only when it is inherited by both parents 1.Haplotypes 2.Recessive 3.Amorphic genes 4.Codominant genes 5.Polymorphic
phenotype
When an individual is said to be group A, it refers to the individual's: alleles. phenotype. genotype. haplotype.
phenotype.
When an individual is said to be group A, it refers to the individual's: phenotype. haplotype. genotype. alleles.
When there is no history of antibodies and the current antibody screen is negative
When may an IS crossmatch be performed? When a patient is being massively transfused When there is no history of antibodies and the current antibody screen is negative When a single unit of red cells is ordered When a patient has not been transfused in the past 3 months
True
When one allele is expressed over another gene, that allele is called dominant. Ture False
True
When one allele is expressed over another, that allele is called dominant. True or False
1.Haplotypes
When two genes are close together on the same chromosome and are inherited as a group or bundle, they are inherited as this 1.Haplotypes 2.Recessive 3.Amorphic genes 4.Codominant genes 5.Polymorphic
Haplotypes
When two genes are close together on the same chromosome and are inherited as a group or bundle, they are inherited as this 1.Haplotypes 2.Recessive 3.Amorphic genes 4.Codominant genes 5.Polymorphic
none
When type O blood is not available for transfusion for a type O recipient, what is the next alternative? Group A red blood cells Washed group B red blood cells None Group AB red blood cells
O, A1B
Which ABO phenotype selection contains the most H antigen and the least H antigen, respectively, on the red cell's surface? A2, A1B A1B, O O, A1B B, A
Anti-P1
Which antibody does NOT fit with the others with respect to optimum phase of reactivity? Anti-Jkb Anti-P1 Anti-Fya Anti-S
Anti-P1
Which antibody does NOT fit with the others with respect to optimum phase of reactivity? Anti-Jkb Anti-Fya Anti-S Anti-P1
Anti-Jka
Which antibody is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions? Anti-s Anti-k Anti-Lua Anti-Jka
Fya
Which antigen is routinely destroyed by enzymes? Fya Jsa P1 Jka
P
Which autoantibody specificity is found in patients with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria? i P I P1
Duffy
Which blood group system is associated with resistance to P. vivax malaria? Kell Kidd Duffy P
Detected at the AGH phase; may cause hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) and transfusion reactions
Which characteristics are true to all three of the following antibodies: anti-Fya, anti-Jka, anti-K? Detected at the AGH phase; may cause hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) and transfusion reactions Not detected with enzyme-treated cell; may cause delayed transfusion reactions Requires the IAT technique for detection; usually not responsible for causing HDN Enhanced reactivity with enzyme-treated cells; may cause severe hemolytic transfusion reactions
Class I only
Which class of HLA antigens would be typed when matching patient and donors for platelet transfusion? Class II only Classes I, II, III Class I and II Class I only
Mycoplasma pneumonia infection
Which condition is often associated with the presence of anti-I? Infectious mononucleosis Colon cancer Mycoplasma pneumonia infection Pregnancy
D__/D__
Which genotype usually shows the strongest reaction with anti-D? DCE/DCE Dce/dCe D__/D__ -CE/-ce
Anti-M, Anti-N
Which group of antibodies are commonly found as cold agglutinins? Anti-K, Anti-k, Anti-Jsb Anti-D, Anti-e, Anti-C Anti-M, Anti-N Anti-Fya, Anti-Fyb
Maternal serum cannot be used for antibody detection.
Which is true regarding compatibility testing for the infant younger than 4 months old? To determine the infant's ABO group, RBCs must be tested with reagent anti-A, anti-B, and anti-A,B. A crossmatch is not needed with the infant's blood when unexpected antibodies are present. A DAT is required. Maternal serum cannot be used for antibody detection.
Fy(a-b-)
Which of the following Duffy phenotypes is prevalent in blacks but virtually nonexistent in whites? Fy(a-b+) Fy(a+b-) Fy(a-b-) Fy(a+b+)
Anti-U
Which of the following antibodies would you have to go to a rare donor file to find compatible blood? Anti-K Anti-s Anti-p Anti-U
Well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally saline-reactive
Which of the following best describes MN antigens and antibodies? Not well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally saline-reactive Well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally saline-reactive Well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally antiglobulin-reactive Well developed at birth, not susceptible to enzymes, generally saline-reactive
Kidd
Which of the following blood group systems is known for showing dosage? I Kidd P Lutheran
Granulocyte concentrates that have more than 2 mL of red blood cells
Which of the following blood products requires a crossmatch to be performed before issuing? Granulocyte concentrates that have more than 2 mL of red blood cells Human leukocyte antigen-matched platelets Cryoprecipitated AHF Group AB fresh frozen plasma that is transfused to a group O
IgM, naturally occurring, do not cause HDN
Which of the following characteristics best describes Lewis antibodies? IgM, naturally occurring, cause HDN IgG, in vitro hemolysis, cause hemolytic transfusion reactions IgG, in vitro hemolysis, do not cause hemolytic transfusion reacions IgM, naturally occurring, do not cause HDN
2 and 3 are correct
Which of the following contain one or more labile coagulation factors: 1. stored plasma 2. FFP 3. Cryoprecipitate 4. platelet concentrate 1 and 3 are correct 1 and 4 are correct 2 and 3 are correct 2 and 4 are correct 1, 2, and 3 are correct 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct
Codominant
Which of the following describes the expression of most blood group antigens (think about the ABO system)? Dominant Corecessive Recessive Codominant
Codominant
Which of the following describes the expression of most blood group antigens? Dominant Recessive Codominant Corecessive
Lose reactivity with proteolytic enzyme reagents
Which of the following facts is not a characteristic of Kell system antibodies? Usually clinically significant IgG antibodies Lose reactivity with proteolytic enzyme reagents Do not bind complement proteins Best detected in indirect antiglobulin test phases
Lose reactivity with proteolytic enzyme reagents
Which of the following facts is not a characteristic of Kell system antibodies? Best detected in indirect antiglobulin test phases Lose reactivity with proteolytic enzyme reagents Do not bind complement proteins Usually clinically significant IgG antibodies
All of the above
Which of the following is associated with the Rhnull phenotype? Mutation of the RhAG regulator gene All of the above Immunized Rhnull individuals may produce anti-Rh29 Membrane abnormalities
All of the above
Which of the following is associated with the Rhnull phenotype? All of the above Mutation of the RhAG regulator gene Membrane abnormalities Immunized Rhnull individuals may produce anti-Rh29
Fy(a+b+)
Which of the following is heterozygous? Fy(a-b+) Fy(a+b+) Le(a+b-) Jk(a+b-)
All variations of the antigen can be detected.
Which of the following is not an advantage of using a monoclonal antibody over a polyclonal antibody? -Direct agglutination is usually faster. -There are no contaminating antibodies. -All variations of the antigen can be detected. -There are very few variations between lots.
Anti-K
Which of the following is the most common antibody seen in the blood bank after ABO and Rh antibodies? Anti-Jsa Anti-k Anti-Fyb Anti-K
rr
Which of the following phenotypes will react with anti-f? rr R2R2 R1R1 R1R2
One determination of the recipient's ABO type is required
Which of the following statements about requirements for an electronic cross-match is NOT correct? The computer system contains logic to prevent assignment and release of ABO incompatible blood There are concordant results of at least two determinations of the recipient's ABO type on record, one of which is from the current sample Critical elements of the system have been validated on-site One determination of the recipient's ABO type is required
They must be used to confirm a negative antiglobulin tube test.
Which of the following statements is true regarding IgG-sensitized red cells? -They must be used to confirm a negative antiglobulin tube test. -The must be used to confirm a positive antiglobulin test. -They must be used to confirm a direct antiglobulin test was negative with anti-C3d. -They should be used only with the indirect antiglobulin test.
All of the above are true.
Which of the following statements is true regarding high-protein anti-D reagents? -They have been largely replaced with low-protein monoclonal reagents -The contain approximately 20% bovine albumin. -They may increase the possibility of a false-positive reaction, requiring the use of a control. -All of the above are true.
Size greater than 10,000 daltons
Which of the following will cause an antigen to elicit a greater immune response? -Size greater than 10,000 daltons -Small antigen size -Similarity to the host -Composed largely of carbohydrates
Hematocrit level of 37%
Which of the following would be cause for deferral? Temperature of 99.2°F None of the above Pulse of 90 beats per minute Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg Hematocrit level of 37%
Weight of 95 lb
Which physical examination result is cause for rejecting a whole blood donor? Pulse of 75 beats per min Diastolic pressure of 70 mm Hg Weight of 95 lb Temperature of 99.3°F
Run an enzyme panel
Which procedure would help to distinguish between an anti-e and anti-Fya in an antibody mixture? Lower pH of test serum Run an enzyme panel Use a thiol reagent Run a regular panel
Pooled screening cells
Which red cells are used to screen for antibodies in donor samples? -Screening cells (three vials) -Screening cells (two vials) -Pooled screening cells -Panel cells
2 and 4 are correct
Whole blood is shipped: 1. 1 to 6°C 2. 1 to 10°C 3. unrefriderated 4. with wet ice 5. with dry ice only 3 is correct 1 and 4 are correct 1 and 5 are correct 2 and 4 are correct 2 and 5 are correct
Lewis ABs are IgM and cannot cross the placenta
Why are Lewis antibodies not generally implicated in hemolytic disease of the newborn? Lewis Ags are well developed at birth Lewis ABs are IgM and cannot cross the placenta Lewis Ags can readily dissociate from the red blood cell upon transfusion of Lewis-positive cells Lewis ABs do not bind complement
The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo.
Why is incubation omitted in the direct antihuman globulin test? -IgM antibodies are detected in the direct antiglobulin test. -The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo. -Incubation will cause hemolysis -The direct antiglobulin test can be used in an emergency to replace the indirect test.
To resolve a discrepancy between the forward and reverse typing
Why is it sometimes necessary to distinguish A1 and A2 blood types? To prevent A1 recipients from receiving A2 blood To resolve a discrepancy between the forward and reverse typing To determine the secretor status of group A individuals To prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn
ABO reactions are primarily due to IgM antibodies and usually occur at room temperature; Rh antibodies are IgG, and agglutination usually requires a 37°C incubation and enhancement media
Why is testing for Rh antigens and antibodies different from ABO testing? ABO reactions are primarily due to IgM antibodies and usually occur at room temperature; Rh antibodies are IgG, and agglutination usually requires a 37°C incubation and enhancement media ABO antigens are attached to receptors on the outside of the red cell and do not require any special enhancement for testing; Rh antigens are loosely attached to the red cell membrane and require enhancement for detection Both ABO and Rh antigens and antibodies have similar structures, but Rh antibodies are configured so that special techniques are needed to facilitate binding to Rh antigens There is no difference in ABO and Rh testing; both may be conducted at room temperature with no special enhancement needed for reaction
ABO reactions are primarily due to IgM antibodies and usually occur at room temperature; Rh antibodies are IgG, and agglutination usually requires a 37°C incubation and enhancement media
Why is testing for Rh antigens and antibodies different from ABO testing? ABO reactions are primarily due to IgM antibodies and usually occur at room temperature; Rh antibodies are IgG, and agglutination usually requires a 37°C incubation and enhancement media ABO antigens are attached to receptors on the outside of the red cell and do not require any special enhancement for testing; Rh antigens are loosely attached to the red cell membrane and require enhancement for detection Both ABO and Rh antigens and antibodies have similar structures, but Rh antibodies are configured so that special techniques are needed to facilitate binding to Rh antigens There is no difference in ABO and Rh testing; both may be conducted at room temperature with no special enhancement needed for reaction
"cis" is when two genes are on the same chromosome; "trans" is when two genes are on different chromosomes
With regard to inheritance, the relationship of "cis" and "trans" is: "cis" is when the same allelic gene is present on both chromosomes in a pair; "trans" is when the different allelic genes are present on the two chromosomes in a pair "cis" is when the different allelic genes are present on the two chromosomes in a pair; "trans" is when the same allelic gene is present on both chromosomes in a pair "cis" is when two genes are on the same chromosome; "trans" is when two genes are on different chromosomes "cis" is when two genes are on different chromosomes; "trans" is when two genes are on the same chromosome
compatible at immediate spin.
Your blood bank mistakenly released a D-positive red blood cell unit that subsequently transfused to a patient who was typed as D-negative. The patient had no history of a previous transfusion or pregnancy. Antibody detection testing was negative in pretransfusion testing. The crossmatch in this case was: compatible at immediate spin. incompatible at immeditate spin only. not necessary to perform. incompatible at antihuman globulin only.
the difference in charge density between the inner and outer ion cloud surrounding the surface of the red blood cells
Zeta Potential is... coin like stacking of red cells situation resulting in excess antibody concentration Liquid portion of a blood sample collected with an anticoagulant the difference in charge density between the inner and outer ion cloud surrounding the surface of the red blood cells
CDe/cDE
he Weiner notation R1R2 translates to Fisher-Race as: CDe/cDE CDe/CDE CDE/cDE CDe/cDe
