Blood Bank Quiz 1&2 JB

Which immunoglobulin is found in greatest concentration in serum? a. IgM b. IgG c. IgE d. IgA

b (IgG)

What do "check cells" contain? a. Rh(D)+ red blood cells coated with anti-D b. Rh(D)- red blood cells coated with anti-D c. B+ red blood cells coated with anti-D d. A+ red blood cell coated with anti-D

a (Rh(D)+ red blood cells coated with anti-D)

What is the purpose of washing cells in the AHG test? a. To remove all unbound protein b. To remove all bound protein c. To exclude a low-affinity antibody d. To dilute serum

a (To remove all unbound protein)

An immunogenic substance that reacts with an antibody is: a. antigen. b. immunoglobulin. c. chromogen. d. agglutinin.

a (antigen)

All of the following are characteristics of monoclonal reagents except: a. undetectable subgroups of A. b. monoclonal antibodies with high affinities. c. an absence of batch variation. d. antibodies directed against a single epitope.

a (undetectable subgroups of A)

At what temperature is the incubation phase of the AHG test? Answers: a. 22°C b. 4°C c. 56°C d. 37°C

d (37°C)

What class of immunoglobulin is capable of crossing the placenta? a. IgD b. IgM c. IgE d. IgG

d (IgG)

In an immune response, what is the time called during which no antibody is detected in the test serum? a. Primary response time b. Amnestic response time c. Secondary response time d. Latency period

d (Latency period)

Opsonization is: a. the coating of pathogens with factors that facilitate phagocytosis. b. a major role of complement in immunity. c. the binding of an opsonin, such as an antibody, to a receptor on the pathogen's cell membrane. d. all of the above.

d (all of the above)

When antigen and antibody combine, they are held together by noncovalent forces. With the absence of a visible lattice, this stage is called ___________. a. inhibition b. adhesion c. agglutination d. sensitization

d (sensitization)

All of the following areas of red blood cell biology are crucial for normal erythrocyte survival except: a. RBC membrane. b. hemoglobin structure. c. cellular metabolism. d. site of the ABO antigen attachment.

d (site of the ABO antigen attachment)

What is the normal life span of an RBC? a. 120 days b. 2 days c. 120 hours d. 100 days

a (120 days)

At what temperature do IgM antibodies react? a. 37°C b. 56°C c. 22°C d. 42°C

c (22°C)

Which immunoglobulin exists in a pentameric configuration? a. IgA b. IgG c. IgE d. IgM

d (IgM)

False-negative results in antihuman globulin testing can be caused by: a. over-centrifugation. b. under-centrifugation. c. cell suspensions that are too weak or too heavy. d. all of the above.

d (all of the above)

What is the normal platelet count range per cubic millimeter? a. 150,000 to 350,000 b. 50,000 to 200,000 c. 350,000 to 500,000 d. 100 to 350

a (150,000 to 350,000)

One of the most important controls of hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen is: a. 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG). b. Ca++. c. glucose. d. K+.

a (2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG).)

At what temperature do IgG antibodies react optimally? a. 37°C b. 4°C c. 22°C d. 56°C

a (37°C)

The diploid chromosome number in humans is: a. 46 b. 12 c. 23 d. 92

a (46)

Which blood group antibodies are known to activate complement, leading to intravascular hemolysis? a. ABO b. Rh c. Duffy d. Lewis

a (ABO)

What does the term autologous transfusion refer to? a. An individual donating blood for his or her own transfusion b. An individual donating blood for a relative c. An individual donating blood for a friend d. A parent donating blood for his or her child

a (An individual donating blood for his or her own transfusion)

All of the following techniques are used in the laboratory to detect blood group antigens or antibodies except: a. ELISA. b. hemolysis. c. precipitation. d. agglutination.

a (ELISA)

All of the following are true regarding IgM antibodies except: a. IgM antibodies form against Kell. b. IgM can bind to up to 10 antigens on a red cell. c. IgM is a pentamer. d. IgM is 160 Å larger than IgG.

a (IgM antibodies form against Kell)

What is the purpose of the antihuman globulin (AHG) test in blood banking? a. It detects red blood cells coated with antibody by bridging the gap between red blood cells. b. It detects white blood cells coated with antibody by bridging the gap between red blood cells. c. It detects red blood cells coated with antigen. d. All of the above

a (It detects red blood cells coated with antibody by bridging the gap between red blood cells)

In the MN blood group system, a person who inherits an "M" allele and an "N" allele expresses both M and N antigens on the RBCs. Which of the following is true? a. M an N are codominant alleles. b. M is dominant to N. c. N is dominant to M. d. M and N are located on the same chromosome.

a (M an N are codominant alleles)

A unit of blood was returned to the blood bank before it was spiked. Apparently the patient's IV failed. The unit of blood was outside the blood bank for 35 minutes. Which of the statements below is most accurate? a. The unit of blood must be transfused within 4 hours or be discarded at the end of that time. b. The unit of blood should be discarded immediately. c. The unit of blood must be transfused with 24 hours. d. The unit of blood can be returned to inventory.

a (The unit of blood must be transfused within 4 hours or be discarded at the end of that time)

What is meant by the term autosomal? a. Trait is not carried on the sex chromosomes b. Trait is carried on sex chromosomes c. Organism possesses different alleles for a given characteristic d. Trait is not expressed in the parents

a (Trait is not carried on the sex chromosomes)

What is responsible for recognition of the antibody-binding site to homologous antigen? a. Variable region of light/heavy chain b. Phenotype c. Solubility of antigen d. Complementarity

a (Variable region of light/heavy chain)

All of the following are functions performed by the complement system except: a. decreased vascular permeability. b. direct lysis of bacteria. c. smooth muscle contraction. d. promotion of phagocytosis.

a (decreased vascular permeability)

All of the following conditions may produce a positive DAT except: a. lymphoma. b. hemolytic disease of the newborn. c. hemolytic transfusion reaction. d. drug-induced hemolytic anemia.

a (lymphoma)

An advantage of polyclonal anti-IgG over monoclonal anti-IgG is: a. polyclonal anti-IgG will recognize IgG variants. b. polyclonal anti-IgG recognizes only one IgG epitope. c. polyclonal anti-IgG also has anticomplement activity. d. AHG produced in rabbits is more specific than AHG produced in mice.

a (polyclonal anti-IgG will recognize IgG variants.)

All of the following are important in evaluating a positive DAT except: a. donation history. b. patient diagnosis. c. transfusion history. d. drug therapy.

a. donation history.

Which of the following events does not occur while RBCs are stored? a. Potassium levels increase. b. 2,3-DPG levels increase. c. 2,3-DPG and potassium levels increase. d. Hgb has a decreased affinity for oxygen carrying capacity.

b (2,3-DPG levels increase)

At what age do infants begin to produce their own antibodies? a. 1 year b. 6 months c. 1 week d. 2 months

b (6 months)

What does hemolysis represent in an antigen-antibody reaction? a. A negative result b. A positive result c. An inconclusive result d. None of the above

b (A positive result)

A woman with blood group A marries a man with blood group O. Their firstborn child has blood group O. The mother's most probable genotype is: a. OO b. AO c. AA d. AB

b (AO)

What test is used to remove autoantibodies from test serum? Selected Answer: a. Elution b. Adsorption c. Indirect Coombs' d. Direct Coombs'

b (Adsorption)

How is it genetically possible for a child to type Rh-negative? a. Both parents are DD. b. Both parents are Dd. c. Mom is DD and Dad is Dd. d. Sibling is Rh-positive.

b (Both parents are Dd)

How is the classical pathway of complement activated? a. By lipopolysaccharides on surface of red blood cells b. By binding of antigen with antibody c. By polysaccharides on the surface of bacteria d. By enzyme catalysis

b (By binding of antigen with antibody)

Only 5% of Kell-negative individuals will develop antibodies to Kell if exposed to the Kell antigen, whereas 50% to 70% of Rh(D)-negative individuals would produce antibodies to D upon exposure. What is the reason for this? a. Difference in ABO type b. Difference in immunogenicity c. Phenotype d. All of the above

b (Difference in immunogenicity)

Anti-IgG is specific for what part of the IgG molecule? a. Kappa light chain b. FC fragment c. Hypervariable region of Fab fragment d. Constant region of Fab fragment

b (FC fragment)

HDN is most often associated with what class of antibody? Selected Answer: Correct a. IgE b. IgG1 c. IgM d. IgG4

b (IgG1)

The indirect antiglobulin test detects which antigen-antibody reactions? a. In vivo b. In vitro c. Both in vivo and in vitro d. None of the above

b (In vitro)

What blood group is the best example of codominantly inherited blood group genes? a. Rh b. MN c. Lewis d. ABO

b (MN)

Extravascular hemolysis occurs when red blood cells are coated with antibody; what organ sequesters these cells? a. Thymus b. Reticuloendothelial system c. Bone marrow d. All of the above

b (Reticuloendothelial)

Which of the following is not a major factor that influences platelet shape and activation while the platelet is in storage? a. pH b. Volume c. Agitation d. Temperature

b (Volume)

Polyspecific AHG contains: a. anti-C3b-C3d. b. anti-IgG and anti- C3d. c. anti-IgG and anti-IgM. d. anti-IgG.

b (anti-IgG and anti- C3d.)

Regarding loss of RBC membrane deformability, all of the following are true except: a. decrease in spectrin phosphorylation level. b. increase in ATP level. c. increase in calcium level. d. decrease in ATP level.

b (increase in ATP level)

All of the following biochemical changes are associated with loss of red blood cell viability upon storage except: a. decreased pH. b. increased ATP level. c. loss of red blood cell function. d. decreased glucose consumption.

b (increased ATP level)

How is a 40:1 ratio of serum to cells prepared for the AHG test? a. 1 drop of serum + 5 drops of a 5% v/v RBC suspension b. 1 drop of serum + 1 drop of a 5% v/v RBC suspension c. 2 drops of serum + 1 drop of a 5% v/v RBC suspension d. 5 drops of serum + 1 drop of a 5% v/v RBC suspension

c (2 drops of serum + 1 drop of a 5% v/v RBC suspension)

What is the optimal temperature for complement activation? a. 22°C b. 58°C c. 37°C d. 4°C

c (37°C)

What is the definition of an immunoglobulin? Selected Answer: a. A substance that aids in the primary immune response b. A substance that aids in the growth and proliferation of leukocytes c. A protein molecule produced in response to an antigen d. A protein molecule produced in response to an antibody

c (A protein molecule produced in response to an antigen)

Which red blood cell preservative has a storage time of 35 days? a. AS-1 b. ACD c. CPDA-1 d. CPD

c (CPDA-1)

Most antigens in the various blood group systems follow what kind of inheritance patterns? a. Dominant b. Autosomal c. Codominant d. Homozygous

c (Codominant)

What cryoprotective agent is added to red blood cells upon freezing? a. Dextrose b. Adsol c. Glycerol d. All of the above

c (Glycerol)

Why is incubation omitted in the direct AHG test? a. Incubation will cause lysis of red blood cells. b. Incubation elutes complement components from red blood cells. c. In vivo antigen antibody complex is already formed. d. Polyspecific AHG contains a higher dose of anti-IgG.

c (In vivo antigen antibody complex is already formed.)

Which of the following antibodies is least likely to bind complement? a. ABO b. Jka c. Kell d. P

c (Kell)

Which of the following red blood cell morphologies may be present on the peripheral blood smear as a result of loss of RBC membrane? a. Schistocytes b. Burr cells c. Spherocytes d. Target cells

c (Spherocytes)

What does the term zeta potential mean? a. The attraction of positive charges on the red blood cell surface to negative charges in an ionic cloud b. The ability of antigen to react with antibody c. The attraction of negative charges on the surface of red blood cells to positive charges in an ionic cloud d. The repulsion between red blood cells caused by noncovalent forces

c (The attraction of negative charges on the surface of red blood cells to positive charges in an ionic cloud)

A father carries the Xga trait and passes it on to all of his daughters but none of his sons. What type of inheritance does this represent? a. Autosomal dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. X-linked dominant d. X-linked recessive

c (X-linked dominant)

A gene, such as the O gene, that produces no detectable product is called: a. recessive. b. a trait. c. an amorph. d. an allele.

c (an amorph)

All of the following statements regarding the AHG test are true except: a. when washing cells, all saline should be removed completely. b. centrifugation should provide a firm pellet. c. incubation time with LISS should be a minimum of 30 minutes. d. Coombs' control cells should be added to all negative tubes.

c (incubation time with LISS should be a minimum of 30 minutes)

When an individual is said to have blood group A, it refers to the individual's: a. alleles on the chromosome. b. genotype. c. phenotype. d. haplotype.

c (phenotype)

"Complete" agglutinins that agglutinate red blood cells in saline are of which immunoglobulin class? a. IgA b. IgE c. IgM d. IgG

c. IgM

An advantage of monoclonal anti-C3 over polyclonal anti-C3 is: a. contamination with anti-IgG is avoided with anti-C3. b. false-positives caused by cold agglutinins are avoided with anti-C3. c. with monoclonal anti-C3, the antibody potency can be controlled. d. with monoclonal anti-C3, antibody to immunoglobulin light chains are eliminated.

c. with monoclonal anti-C3, the antibody potency can be controlled.

What does polyspecific AHG contain? a. anti-IgG b. anti-C3b c. anti-C3d d. All of the above

d (All of the above)

What role do platelets play in hemostasis? a. Maintenance of vascular integrity b. Initial arrest of bleeding by platelet plug formation c. Stabilization of the hemostatic plug d. All of the above

d (All of the above)

What type of globulin does the antiglobulin test detect? a. IgG alloantibodies b. IgG autoantibodies c. C3b complement components d. All of the above

d (All of the above)

Which of the following is NOT a clinical application for a direct antiglobulin test? a. HDN b. HTR c. AIHA d. Heterophile detection

d (Heterophile detection)

How is polyclonal antiglobulin serum made? a. Murine serum is injected into rabbits, and an immune response triggers the production of an antibody. b. Serum from one human is injected into another human, and an antibody is produced. c. Murine serum is injected into mice, and an immune response triggers the production of an antibody. d. Human serum is injected into rabbits, and an immune response triggers the production of an antibody.

d (Human serum is injected into rabbits, and an immune response triggers the production of an antibody.)