Board Review Final, Capstone Test 7, AnHlt126 Spring 2018 VTNE, Surgical Nursing- Q&A Textbook, Surgical Instruments Pictures- Surgical Nursing I, NAVLE/VTNE Surgical Nursing, Surgical Nursing, Surgical Nursing, Small Animal Nursing quizzes 5-7, VTNE...

Signs of impending cardiopulmonary arrest include all of the following except Alertness Dilated pupils Dilated pupils No femoral pulse

Alertness

What instrument is not a self-retaining tissue re-tractor Finochietto Army-Navy Balfour Gelpi

Army-navy

165) The order is for 500 mg of amoxicillin, and tablets on hand are 250 mg. How many tablets will be administered? a. 1 tablet b. 2 tablets c. 5 tablets d. 6 tablets

B

192) Four hundred pounds is how many kilograms? A) 880 C) 600 B) 182 D) 18

B

220) Lyme disease is caused by a: A) Bacteria B) Virus C) Parasite D) Fungus

B

222) Nebulized is defined as: A) Turned into a liquid B) Turned into a fine mist C) Turned into molecules D) Turned into oxygen

B

241) Whipworm eggs look like a/an _________________ under a microscope. A) Circle B) Oval C) Rectangle D) Cone

B

265) The doctor's order reads: "Amoxicillin 225 mg, p.o. q12hrs." The bottle from pharmacy is labeled: "250 mg=5 ml" How many milliliters would you give per dose? A) 0.45 ml C) 45 ml B) 4.5 ml D) 450 ml

B

294) When a patient is having an ovariohysterectomy performed, the patient is placed in ____________ recumbency. a. Lateral b. Dorsal c. Ventral d. Sternal

B

77) This tool is used to help place an endotracheal tube: A) Gag mouth speculum C) Ambubag B) Laryngoscope D) Cannula

B

Which of the following suffixes is used to describe the surgical alteration of a shape or form? a. -pexy b. -plasty c. -ostomy d. -rrhapy

B. -plasty

Ruger, a 10 month old black labrador, weighs 25 kilograms. Approximately how many pounds does he weigh? A. 40 pounds B. 55 pounds C. 60 pounds D. 70 pounds

B. 55 pounds

Which of the following is not a bacterial infection in animals? A. Pneumonia B. Canine Parvovirus C. Strangles D. Anthrax

B. Canine Parvovirus

Bile is produced in the: A. Spleen B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Omasum

B. Liver

Which type of aggression rarely poses a risk to veterinary hospital personnel during their workday? A. Pain-induced B. Predatory C. Territorial D. Dominance

B. Predatory

The identifying information for every veterinary patient presented for evaluation is called: A. History B. Signalment C. Chief compliant D. Vital signs

B. Signalment

Nitrous oxide cylinders are painted what color? -Green -Gray -Blue -Brown

Blue

197) When you view a specimen under a compound microscope using the 40x objective and a 10x ocular, the total magnification of the specimen being viewed is A) 4x C) 400x B) 40x D) 4000x

C

63) What is the tool that is not used to trim the hooves of an animal? A) Hoof trimmer C) Hoof rasp B) Hoof nippers D) Hoof knife

C

An enucleation may be required to correct a/an: a. Third eyelid prolapse b. Penile prolapse c. Proptosis of the eye d. Aural hematoma

C

Which of the following forceps should not be used to hold the edges of the incision open a. Rat-tooth b. Brown-Adson c. Crile d. Allis tissue

C

Which of the following suture sizes is most appropriate for eye surgeries? a. 0 b. 3-0 c. 6-0 d. 10-0

C

How many ml will you draw up to administer 25 units of epoetin (2000 units/ml) 2.5 mL 0.25 mL 0.01 mL 0.1 mL

0.01 mL

How long after birth does gut closure typically occur in calves and foals? (When protective maternal antibodies can no longer be absorbed from the gut to the bloodstream) 1-3 hours 3-6 hours 9-12 hours 18-24 hours

18-24 hours

What is the maximum number of focal points that are recommended for use in ultrasound? 2 3 4 5

2

A canine blood donor should weight no less than: 10kg 15kg 20kg 25kg

25kg

181) Kennel cough is found in A) Dogs C) Dogs and Cats B) Cats D) All species

A

224) When in the heart, heartworms congregate in the: A) Right ventricle B) Right atrium C) Left ventricle D) Left atrium

A

273) If an animal has problems in the right side of the heart, what other problem will likely occur? A) Ascites B) Lung congestion C) Nerve Degeneration D) Osteoporosis

A

282) Which of these is the scientific name for hookworm? A) Ancylostoma caninum B) Dipylidium caninum C) Toxocara canis D) None of the above

A

5) Horses display aggression by: A) Biting C) Nickering B) Head butting D) Snorting

A

A sponge count should be done: a. At the beginning of the surgery and before closure b. Several times during the surgery c. Before surgery only d. Before closure only

A

The chemical or mechanical destruction of pathogens is known as: a. Disinfection b. Decontamination c. Barrier d. Aseptic technique

A

What factor will not influence how rapidly the body absorbs suture materials? a. Age of the patient b. Presence of infection c. The location of the suture d. The composition of the suture material

A

Which of the following is not completely removed in an ovariohysterectomy? a. Broad ligament b. Ovaries c. Uterine horns d. Oviducts

A

Which of the following is not considered a contaminated surgery and would be considered the cleanest? a. Cruciate repair b. Dental extractions c. Intestinal anastomosis d. Gastrotomy

A

Which of the following suffixes is used to describe the removal of an organ? a. -ectomy b. -otomy c. -ostomy d. -rrhapy

A

Horses display aggression by: A. Biting B. Head butting C. Nickering D. Snorting

A. Biting

The term that means of, or relating to cats: A. Feline B. Bovine C. Canine D. Galline

A. Feline

Which is not a tool that removes dead hair? A. Flea comb B. Curry comb C. Shedding blade D. Scotch comb

A. Flea comb

What is spermatogenesis? A. Process by which sperm are produced by the male B. Condition in which one or both testicles remain in the body cavity C. Process by which ova are produced by the female D. Causes destruction of the cotyledons of the uterus

A. Process by which sperm are produced by the male

A kitten is suffering from FCV. Feline calicivirus is caused by: A. RNA virus B. Fungus C. Bacteria D. Does not exist

A. RNA virus

When in the heart, heartworms congregate in the: A. Right ventricle B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Left atrium

A. Right ventricle

Drugs that have the greatest potential for being abused or addictive are classified by the DEA as: A. Schedule I B. Schedule II C. Schedule III D. Schedule IV

A. Schedule I

What type of connective tissue connects muscles to bones? A. Tendon B. Ligament C. Cartilage D. Blood

A. Tendon

Metzenbaum scissors are used only for: a. Cutting suture b. Cutting paper drape c. Ophthalmic surgery d. Cutting tissue

d.

What size scalpel blade fits on a No. 4 scalpel handle? a. No. 10 b. No. 12 c. No. 15 d. No. 20

d.

What type of needle is reusable? a. Swaged-on b. Taper point c. Trocar tip d. Eyed

d.

Which of the following is the agent for autoclave sterilization? a. Chemical disinfectant solution b. Dry heat c. Ethylene oxide gas d. Steam

d.

Why is a recent surgical wound usually slightly warmer than surrounding normal tissues? a. Contamination d. Debridement c. Infection d. Inflammation

d.

which of the following is the agent for autoclave sterilization a. chemical disinfectant sol b. dry heat c. ethylene oxide gas d. steam

d. steam

A semipermanent feeding tube may be placed in all of the following ways, except: a. through a pharyngostomy site b. through the nose c. through a gastrotomy site d. through the mouth

d. through the mouth

Which of the following is a technique used to increase blood flow to improve drainage and healing to an area? a. cold compress b. coupage c. passive range of motion d. warm compress

d. warm compress

Which of the following does not need to be included when labeling a surgical pack

date the pack must be used by

When feeding a patient through a tube, the technician should

flush the tube with water

the term pruritis refers to what?

itching

Which of the following does not describe a type of surgical scissors?

mayo hegar

A California mastitis test Measures leukocytes in the milk of each quarter Measures trypsin-like factor in milk of each quarter Measures bacterial cells in the whole milk of the udder Measure cellular nuclear protein in the whole milk of the udder

measures leukocytes in the milk of each quarter

Which of the following does not describe a characteristic of ethylene oxide

mitogenic

which of the following suffixes is used to describe the surgical creation of an artificial opening? -ectomy -otomy -ostomy -rrhapy

ostomy

Precision vaporizers, such as those used for Isoflurane, work correctly when placed -In the circle -Out of the circle -Either in or out of the circle -In the high pressure portion of the anesthetic system

out of the circle

Nephrectomy refers to

removal of a kidney

A semipermanent feeding tube may be placed in all of the following ways except

through the mouth

What is the minimum number of throws required when making a surgical knot?

two

0.2 L = ____ml A. 2 B. 20 C. 200 D. 2000

C. 200

The vet informs you that the patient has a bite wound and will require antibiotics. A common antibiotic Cefrazolin, is administered to help fight infection. Cefazolin is administered at a dosage of 22 mg/kg. The patient weighs 44 pounds. What is the dosage of Cefazolin for this animal? A. 0.44 mg B. 4.4 ml C. 440 mg D. 968 mg

C. 440 mg

Dystocia is: a. Difficulty in breathing b. A side effect of opioid drugs c. A difficult or abnormal birth d. Difficulty in urinating

C. A difficult or abnormal birth

The first cervical vertebrae, C1, is referred to as the: A. Axis B. Arch C. Atlas D. Auricle

C. Atlas

Which of the following acronyms is used when administering medication twice a day? A. TID B. QID C. BID D. SID

C. BID

Which of the following is not a disease that affects dogs? A. Rabies B. Distemper C. Black leg D. Hepatitis

C. Black leg

You are instructed to give a medication SQ. This abbreviation means you give the medication via: A. Intraperitoneal injection B. Intramuscular injection C. Subcutaneous injection D. Intravenous injection

C. Subcutaneous injection

A vet diagnosed Bill's lamb with dyspnea. What does this mean? A. The lamb has normal breathing B. The lamb has abnormal heart sounds C. The lamb has difficulty breathing D. The lamb has bluish discoloring of its skin

C. The lamb has difficulty breathing

A patient is to be prepared for an ovariohysterectomy. What part of the body is prepped? a. Paw b. Ventral chest wall c. Ventral abdomen d. Ear

C. Ventral abdomen

Proptosis of the globe

Can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal

Staples and other metal clips

Can be used in infected wounds

What are three body systems that are evaluated first in a patient represented as a emergency

Cardiovascular, Respiratory, Neurologic

243) What is the vector for heartworms? A) Tick B) Lice C) Flea D) Mosquito

D

246) Annie is helping to examine a patient. She is instructed to take the temperature, pulse and respiration, which is a crucial part of a physical exam. Which of the following factors does not affect TPR? A) Age B) Size C) Environmental temperature D) Breed

D

99) Where would you expect to find DNA within the cell? A) In the cell membrane C) In the ribosomes B) In the cytoplasm D) In the nucleus

D

What is the minimum number of throws reuired when making a surgical knot? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

D

Which of the following instruments is the only one appropriate for handling tissues during surgery? a. Dressing forceps b. Standard surgical scissors c. Sponge forceps d. Rat tooth forceps

D

You are directed to take a weight on a client's dog. The English Mastiff named Sophia weighs 85.90 kg. How much does Sophia weigh in pounds? A. 8.59 lbs B. 18.9 lbs C. 85.90 lbs D. 188.9 lbs

D. 188.9 lbs

Lauren is bandaging Bruce, a four year old horse. Leg bandages on horses are started on the ______ part of the leg and wrapped toward the back. A. Vertical B. Horizontal C. Lateral D. Proximal

D. Proximal

Which of the following breeds of sheep is considered a fine wool breed? A. Southdown B. Suffolk C. Hampshire D. Rambouillet

D. Rambouillet

Hypoventilation that occurs in the anesthetized patient is characterized by -Decreased oxygen levels and increased carbon dioxide levels -Decreased CO2 levels and decreased O2 levels -Increased O2 levels and decreased CO2 levels -Increased O2 levels and increased CO2 levels

Decreased oxygen levels and increased carbon dioxide levels

A CRT that is over 2 seconds indicates -Congestive heart failure -Decreased peripheral blood perfusion -Decreased ventilation -Hypertension

Decreased peripheral blood perfusion

Griseofulvin acts on Gram-positive bacteria Gram-negative bacteria Gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria Dermatophytes

Dermatophytes

This inhalant agent requires a special, electrically heated vaporizer -Halothane -Isoflurane -Sevoflurane -Desflurane

Desflurane

Which drug is the most potent sedative? -Xylazine -Detomidine -Acepromazine -Diazepam

Detomidine

___ is a concern when recovering a patient from anesthesia if nitrous oxide has been used. -Solubility -Diffusion hypoxia -Biotransformation -Inflammation

Diffusion hypoxia

Which choice is often used in combination with ketamine or thiopental to induce anesthesia in horses? Halothane Phenobarbital Naloxone Guaifenesin

Guaifenesin

Which inhalant drug is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias in dogs? -Isoflurane -Halothane -Sevoflurane -Nitrous oxide

Halothane

Which inhalant is associated with the longest induction and recovery time? -Nitrous oxide -Isoflurane -Halothane -Sevoflurane

Halothane

which of the following is a needle driver that is also able to cut sutures?

Hegar-Olsen

During an allergic response, what do sensitized cells produce in abnormal quantities when an allergen reappears after an initial exposure? -Antihistamines -Histamines -Toxins -Lysins

Histamines

Which animal cannot normally regurgitate or vomit? Cow Horse Cat Ferret

Horse

Which of the following is not an effective aseptic surgical techinique?

If the sterility of an item is in doubt, consider it sterile

The only antibody that can enter tissue spaces and cross the placental barrier in some species is -IgG -IgA -IgD -IgM

IgG

Never use nitrous oxide -In a closed anesthesia circuit -In cats -With rubber tubes on the anesthesia machine -With isoflurane

In a closed anesthesia circuit

What is the ideal route of drug administration during CPCR in advanced life support?

Intravenous route with a jugular cutdown

What occurs in an animal with pregnancy toxemia? Hyperglycemia Ketosis Hyperadrenocorticism Pyometra

Ketosis

What canine bacterial disease can be transmitted through the air by aerosolization of urine? Infectious Hepatitis Leptospirosis Parvovirus infection Salmonellosis

Leptospirosis

Flowmeters on newer machines have -Numbers in imperial and metric -A pop-off valve attached to the flowmeter -Low and high flowmeters for greater accuracy -Alarms for hypoxia

Low and high flowmeters for greater accuracy

Hypoxemia is defined as: A decreased circulating blood volume Low blood oxygen levels Low tissue oxygen levels An increase in circulating fluid in the body

Low blood oxygen levels

Acepromazine is contraindicated in epileptics because it can -Cause hypotension -Lower the seizure threshold -Not be combined with anticonvulsants -Cause catatonia

Lower the seizure threshold

An instrument suitable for cutting a paper drape is a/an Mayo scissors Metzenbaum scissors Scalpel blade Iris scissors

Mayo scissors

Epidural techniques are used in many species, but the primary disadvantage in animals is -High cost -Difficulty of administration -Poor analgesia -Movement of patient

Movement of patient

All of the following cross the placental barrier in significant amounts except -Acepromazine -Diazepam -Isoflurane -Neuromuscular blocking agents

Neuromuscular blocking agents

what is the size of a scalpel blade used for making an abdominal skin incision in a dog?

No. 10

A needle holder combined with a scissors is called -Mathieu -Rochester-Pean -Mayo-Hegar -Olsen-Hegar

Olsen-Hegar

Visceral pain is common among companion animals. Which of the following is not an example of visceral pain? Pancreatitis Gastroenteritis Bowel ischemia Osteosarcoma

Osteosarcoma

Which of the following ticks is considered a single host tick? Boophilus annulatus Otobius megnini Ixodid sp. Argasidae sp.

Otobius megnini

What side effect is often seen in horses tranquilized with acepromazine? Hives Penile protrusion collapse vomiting

Penile protrusion

Surgical instruments should be

Placed on surfaces, never dropped or thrown

The condition in which air becomes trapped between the body wall and the lung is called:

Pneumothorax

At normal doses, what effect does atropine have on the heart rat? -Decreases -No effect -Increases -Prevents a decrease

Prevents a decrease

If propofol is given to a patient too rapidly, it may cause Profound transient apnea Irritation of the vein A long lasting excitement phase Seziures

Profound transient apnea

an abnormal P wave likey indicates

Right ot left atrial enlargement

An example of nonsynthetic absorbable suture material is -Surgical gut -PDS -Silk -Nylon

Surgical gut

Which choice best describes the process of repairing a clean wound within a few hours of injury by first intention? Suture the wound closed Delayed primary closure Allow wound to contract and epithelialize Allow wound to granulate closed

Suture the wound closed

Which of the following is not a type of needle point? -Reverse cutting -Taper -Side cutting -Swaged

Swaged

What is a common side effect seen in the horse to opioid administration? Increased Appetite Nystagmus Sweating Aggression

Sweating

Acute glaucoma would be best diagnosed with: Schirmer tear test Tonometer Fluorescein stain Ophthalmoscope

Tonometer

A complication that may result when subgingival plaque is improperly removed using a hand scaler is: Etched tooth enamel Torn epithelial attachment Overheated tooth Fractured crown

Torn epithelial attachment

Which of the following vitamins is/are water soluble? Vitamins A and D Vitamins E and K Vitamins B12 and C Vitamins A and E

Vitamins B12 and C

Which statement concerning ELISA testing is true? -The test specificity is very low -Washing is a critical step in methodology -It may be used to detect only antibodies in the serum -It is not available in kit form

Washing is a critical step in methodology

A cow is accidentally dosed with an equine dose of Xylazine. What drug(s) should be immediately administered? None, cow can't survive that Epinephrine followed by Naloxone Yohimbine None, the cow will not be adversely affected

Yohimbine

What type of instrument is a Mayo-Hegar? a. Needle holder b. Scissors c. Towel clamp d. Hemostatic forceps

a.

A normal growth rate for puppies (per kilogram of anticipated adult weight) is: a. 2-4 g/day b. 4-5 g/day c. 1-2 g/day d. 3-6 g/day

a. 2-4 g/day

Lack of any urine flow is described as: a. anuria b. dysuria c. oliguria d. polyuria

a. anuria

Anterior drawer movement detects a problem with the: a. Elbow b. Stifle c. Hip d. Hock

b.

How often should the surgery-room floor be cleaned? a. Only as needed b. Daily c. Morning and Evening d. Weekly

b.

Instruments wrapped in a single linen wrap can become contaminated with microbes within 2 to 3 days. How long does double wrapping an instrument extend the sterility period? a. 6 months b. 4 weeks c. 4 to 6 days d. 1 year

b.

Nephrectomy refers to: a. An incision into the kidney b. The removal of a kidney c. The removal of a tumor from the kidney d. The biopsy of a kidney

b.

Perineal urethrotomies are performed only on: a. Pregnant cats b. Male cats with urethral obstruction c. Large-breed dogs with gastric torsion d. Small dogs with pyometra

b.

Which of the following toxic plants would have an effect on the kidneys of cats? a. apricot seeds b. easter lilly c. onion d. mistletoe

b. easter lilly

How often does estrus occur in normal, nonpregnant cows? a. every 10-15 days b. every 19-23 days c. every 30-35 days d. every 285-290 days

b. every 19-23 days

A caslick operation is done in horses to: a. stop roaring b. improve fertility c. treat navicular disease d. clean out the guttural pouches

b. improve fertility

The heart is an organ that is commonly affected by age. Chronic valvular disease (CVD) results form thickening of the heart valves, and it affects many: a. young dogs b. older dogs, especially smaller c. large breed dogs d. cats

b. older dogs, especially smaller

How can pain negatively impact the patient? a. treatment costs money so the client will refuse it b. pain promotes inflammation, which delays wound healing c. pain can induce viral diseases d. pain can cause cataracts to form

b. pain promotes inflammation, which delays wound healing

What is meant by the term pathogenic bacteria?

bacteria that cause disease

when assisting the surgeon the tech should?

blot the surgical site with a gauze square to clear the site of blood

For suturing a uterine incision in a cow, the proper suture size is: a. 2-0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3-0

c.

For what bovine surgical procedure are obstetric (OB) chains used? a. Rumenotomy b. Abomasopexy c. Cesarean section d. Uterine torsion correction

c.

If the testicles are not palpable, and a cryptochidectomy is performed, the incision would most likely be: a. Prescrotal b. Inguinal c. Ventral midline d. Perineal

c.

Perioperative refers to: a. The day before surgery b. The day after surgery c. Immediately before and after surgery d. During surgery

c.

Postoperative complications: a. Do not occur if the surgeon is skilled b. Should never be discussed with a client c. Can occur even if the surgery went well d. Are almost always attributable to poor assistance in surgery

c.

What is the pressure that must be reached in a steam autoclave for the temperature to reach 121.5 C? a. 1 psi b. 10 psi c. 15 psi d. 45 psi

c.

What piece of equipment delivers saturated steam under pressure? a. Oven b. Crematorium c. Autoclave d. Plasma sterilizer

c.

What structure is commonly emptied before abdominal surgery? a. Stomach b. Anal sac c. Urinary bladder d. Gallbladder

c.

When suturing skin, the needle of choice is: a. Blunt b. Reverse cutting c. Cutting d. Taper

c.

Which of the following is not the formal name of a retractor? a. Finochietto b. Gelpi c. Lembert d. Balfour

c.

Which of the following suffixes is used to describe the surgical creation of an artificial opening? a. -ectomy b. -otomy c. -ostomy d. -rrhapy

c.

Wound contraction is produced by: a. Reproduction of the dermis b. Movement of the epidermis only c. Movement of the whole thickness of skin d. Reproduction of epidermal cells

c.

When a dog is presented for castration, and both testicles are descended, the veterinary technician will prepare the surgical site. In which area is the incision most commonly made? a. Flank b. Scrotum c. Prescrotal prepuce d. Midabdomen

c. Prescrotal prepuce

The vet tech can use both subjective and objective observations to determine the patient's state. All of the following are examples of objective observations, except: a. body temp b. CRT c. demeanor d. heart rate

c. demeanor

The term sleeping sickness in horses refers to: a. strangles b. distemper c. encephalitis d. tetanus

c. encephalitis

First degree AV block occurs when

conduction though the AV node is delayed

Before starting the surgical procedure, the tech who has scrubbed in with the surgeon should do all the following except

count the gauze sponges in the pack

Which of the following forceps should not be used to hold the edges of the incision open?

crile

Glycopyrrolate is an anticholinergic with all of the following advantages over atropine except -Longer duration of action -Crosses placental barrier -Less likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias -Smaller dose volume

Crosses placental barrier

Which choice indicates tha tthe soda lime granules in a CO2 absorbent canister have become exhausted? Color stays pink, regardless of CO2 exposure Color changes to brown and liquid accumulates at the base of the canister Color change from purple to pink, crystals become powder Crystals become hard and turn off-white to pale purple

Crystals become hard and turn off-white to pale purple

The zoonotic SKIN disease caused by Ancylostoma caninum is : Visceral larval migrans Scabies Lyme disease Cutaneous larval migrans

Cutaneous larval migrans

In the anesthetized patient, pale mm color can indicate all of the following except -Inadequate O2 levels -Cyanosis -Excessive blood loss -Decreased tissue perfusion

Cyanosis

Hoover, a canine patient, was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection 2 weeks earlier and was placed on a course of amoxicillin. The veterinarian asked that he return for a recheck to ensure the infection has resolved. The collection method of choice in this patient would be: Catheterization Free catch Cystocentesis Manual expression

Cystocentesis

102) The huge comma-shaped section of the large intestine of the horse that occupies much of the right side of the abdomen is the A) Colon C) Rectum B) Ileum D) Cecum

D

103) Which of the following lists the sections of the small intestine in order from anterior to posterior? A) Jejunum, ileum, duodenum B) Duodenum, colon, jejunum C) Ileum, duodenum, cecum D) Duodenum, jejunum, ileum

D

105) The scientific discipline that studies the functions of living things is A) Anatomy C) Physomy B) Systemic anatomy D) Physiology

D

110) What term is used to describe the motion when a body part is moved closer to the median axis of the body? A) Flexion C) Abduction B) Extension D) Adduction

D

113) When oxygen levels in the blood decrease, the mucous membranes of a veterinary patient may appear: A) Red C) Purple B) Pink D) Blue

D

116) What is the name of the condition when one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum? A) Pyometra C) Urethrostomy B) Hypothyroidism D) Cryptorchidism

D

117) When a vessel constricts, what does the vessel do? A) Expanded in length C) Expanded in diameter B) Decreased in length D) Decreased in diameter

D

124) Hematuria is the clinical term for finding what in the urine? A) Pus C) Protein B) Crystals D) Blood

D

13) Predatory aggression deals with A) Intermale conflict C) Pain-induced B) Suckling female D) Chasing and killing prey

D

134) Veterinary technicians can perform which of the following: A) Diagnosing C) Prescribe medicine B) Prognosing D) Surgical assisting

D

138) Zoonotic diseases are: A) Only contracted from a zoo animal B) Only found in veterinary clinics that work with zoo animals C) Shared between animals and plants D) Shared between animals and humans

D

141) What is the most common clinical sign observed with salmonellosis? A) Fever C) Muscle spasms B) Headache D) Diarrhea

D

157) Determine the number of pounds in 10.5 kilograms. A) 25.5 C) 21.9 B) 24.6 D) 23.1

D

161) Which of the following breeds of sheep is considered a fine wool breed? A) Southdown B) Suffolk C) Hampshire D) Rambouillet

D

168) The order is 0.5 mg of Centrine, and 0.2 mg tablets are on hand. How many tablets will be administered? A) 1.0 tablets B) 1.5 tablets C) 2.0 tablets D) 2.5 tablets

D

174) The veterinarian orders 4.4 mg/kg of carprofen for pain control divided into two equal daily doses for a 50-lb dog. On hand are 100-mg scored tablets. How many tablets is/are administered each morning and afternoon? A) 5 tablets in the morning and 2 in the afternoon B) 1 tablet in the morning and afternoon C) .5 tablets in the morning and 1 in the afternoon D) .5 tablets in the morning and afternoon

D

175) The level of fluid in the liter bags reads at the 700 mark. How much fluid has been given? A) 700 L B) 700 ml C) 300 L D) 300 ml

D

180) Which is not a sign of heart failure: A) Excessive intolerance C) Fluid accumulation in lungs and abdomen B) Animal develops a cough D) All are signs of heart failure

D

188) Six blood pressure readings are 115, 120, 123, 121, 121 and 112 mm hg. What is the average value? A) 123 C) 121 B) 120 D) 119

D

19) The best way to approach a horse is: A) Quickly and directly from the front B) Slowly and directly from the front C) Quickly and from the front left side D) Slowly and from the front left side

D

190) A growth in the skin that is 2 inches in diameter is how many centimeters? A) 2.5 C) 20 B) 30 D) 5

D

193) In feed that has 20lbs of corn, 5lbs of beet pulp, 1lbs bone meal, and 2lbs of whey, approximately what percent is corn? A) 98% C) 40% B) 28% D) 71%

D

201) A compound fracture is one in which: A) The break is along the axis of a bone. B) The bone shatters in the many pieces. C) The break is on one side of the bone. D) The bone breaks through the skin.

D

204) The abomasum is: a. The first compartment of the ruminant stomach. b. The second compartment of the ruminant stomach. c. The third compartment of the ruminant stomach. d. The fourth compartment of the ruminant stomach.

D

212) Which of the following needles has the smallest bore? A) 16 gauge B) 20 gauge C) 21 gauge D) 25 gauge

D

217) When treating or assisting a doctor with an animal's abscess wound, it is important to: A) Wear disposable gloves. B) Disinfect the treatment counter thoroughly. C) Wash and disinfect all instruments used. D) All of the above.

D

219) Rabies is transmitted through: a. Blood from the affected animal b. Urine from the affected animal c. Feces from the affected animal d. Saliva from the affected animal

D

221) One of the fastest means of getting drugs in to the bloodstream is: A) Orally B) Intranasally C) Topically D) Intravenously

D

225) The amount of fecal matter needed for a canine or feline fecal analysis is approximately: A) The size of a baseball B) The size of a golf ball C) The size of a grapefruit D) The size of a grape

D

232) Lauren is bandaging Bruce, a four year old horse. Leg bandages on horses are started on the _______ part of the leg and wrapped toward the back. A) Vertical B) Horizontal C) Lateral D) Proximal

D

24) Which of these is not a warning sign from a cat? A) Hissing C) Swiping at you with a paw B) Ears lowered D) Looking the other way

D

244) Ideally, a horse should be bedded on: A) Newspaper B) Straw C) Walnut shavings D) Wood shavings

D

253) The term that means of, or relating to swine: A) Equine B) Canine C) Galline D) Porcine

D

254) The term that means of, or relating to sheep: A) Equine B) Galline C) Bovine D) Ovine

D

255) The term that means of, or relating to poultry: A) Equine B) Feline C) Porcine D) Galline

D

256) Your place of employment offers dog boarding services and has the ability to accommodate the specific needs of each pet and family. The daily rates for 8 to 24 hour boarding are: Under 20 lbs - $25.00 20 - 50 lbs - $26.00 Over 50 lbs - $27.00 Dogs can be walked for an additional fee of $5.00 per dog for each walk around the property. Medications are administered or applied at a rate of $0.50 per dose. Two or more dogs in the same kennel receive a 10% discount on all boarding services. A client has two dogs that are to be housed together. One is a 5.5-pound poodle named Timmy, and the other is a 62-pound mixed breed named Max. The owner instructs you that Max needs to be given a medication once a day for 4 days and that each dog is to be walked once a day. The owner boarded the dogs from Monday morning until Sunday evening. Taxes are included in all prices quoted. You are responsible for billing the client. What is the total charge for all boarding services? A) $437.50 C) $427.40 B) $436.00 D) $392.40

D

26) The types of animal restraint are: A) Physical, psychological, and hypnotic B) Traumatic, chemical, and physical C) Chemical, hypnotic, and psychological D) Chemical, psychological, and physical

D

260) You are directed to take a weight on a client's dog. The English Mastiff named Sophia weighs 85.90 kg. How much does Sophia weigh in pounds? A) 8.59 lbs C) 85.90 lbs B) 18.9 lbs D) 188.9 lbs

D

264) Selamectin is recommended for use in dogs 6 weeks of age and older. The directions state: "Apply to the skin once a month at the recommended dosage of 6 mg/kg or 6 milligrams of selamectin per kilogram of body weight". The product comes prepackaged in six tubes. Each dispensing tube contains 240 mg of selamectin. If the client's dog weighs 88 pounds, how many months of treatment are in one package of selamectin? A) 2 months C) 5.5 months B) 3.25 months D) 6 months

D

266) Indicate the number of tablets prescribed for the following order: Rx: Metronidazole tablets 50mg Sig: 2 tablets, P.O. BIDx 10 days A) 10 tablets C) 30 tablets B) 20 tablets D) 40 tablets

D

271) Linda is going to perform a laboratory test. Where is it possible that she will be doing this? A) Veterinary hospitals B) Research facilities C) Zoos D) All of the above

D

279) While Linda was running a laboratory test, she evaluated total plasma protein, and noticed an elevated total plasma protein. This is a sign of A) Inflammation B) Infection C) Dehydration D) All of the above

D

280) In most species, what are the kidneys shaped like? A) Pears B) Circles C) Clovers D) Beans

D

281) Sammy is trying to run a urinalysis. He first has to obtain urine from the dog. How can he obtain urine from an animal? A) Free Catch B) Cystocentesis C) Catheterization D) All of the above

D

284) A member of OSHA is doing a walkthrough of a veterinary clinic. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration is housed in A) The Department of Health B) The Department of Finance C) The Department of Security D) The Department of Labor

D

285) Adam has just assisted in restraining a Lhasa Apso for am IM injection. The RVT that gave the injection must now dispose of the needle and syringe. Where must all needles and syringes be disposed of? A) A bottle B) A dumpster C) A trashcan D) A sharps container

D

286) Sugar, a small dog, has come into a veterinary clinic with sarcoptic mange. To prevent the spread of this and other zoonotic diseases, you need to: A) Dispose of waste in a proper manner B) Isolate infected animals C) Wash hands often D) All of the above

D

287) Evan is creating a poster of biohazards for his Veterinary Technology class. Which of these is NOT an example of a biohazard and therefore should not be included in his poster? A) Needles B) Materials soaked with bodily fluids C) Bandage material D) None of the above

D

296) Which of the following is not a primary action of testosterone? a. Anabolic growth b. Promotes spermatogenesis c. Promotes secretions from accessory glands d. None of these

D

297) What are the anatomical differences between the oviducts of most mammals and the oviducts of poultry? a. Mammals have one oviduct. b. Mammals do not have oviducts. c. Poultry do not have oviducts. d. Poultry have one oviduct.

D

3) The most common encountered type of attack in veterinary facilities is: A) Canine dominance-aggression biting C) Female rabbit territorial-aggression biting B) Equine dominance-aggression biting D) Canine fear biting

D

30) A needle holder combined with scissor is called A) Mathieu C) Mayo-Hegar B) Rochester-Pean D) Olsen-Hegar

D

300) Which of the following are the primary hormones produced by the ovaries? a. Estrogen and testosterone. b. Testosterone and oxytocin. c. Testosterone and progesterone. d. Estrogen and progesterone.

D

33) Which of the following is not a type of surgical scissor? A) Mayo C) Iris B) Metzenbaum D) Lembert

D

35) Metzenbaum scissors are only used for A) Cutting suture C) Ophthalmic surgery B) Cutting paper drapes D) Cutting tissue

D

4) Which species is most likely to seek out a hiding place if it escapes its enclosure? A) Bird C) Horse B) Dog D) Cat

D

40) Which of the following tool is used to control a horse? A) Chain twitch C) Humane twitch B) Halter D) All of the above

D

43) Which of the following a common method of pill administration for a dog or cat? A) Pill Push Method C) Food Method B) Pill Crushed Method D) All are recognized methods of pill administration

D

47) Which tool simultaneously severs the spermatic cord in order to prevent hemorrhage? A) Elastrator B) Adson tissue forceps B) Babcock tissue forceps D) Emasculator

D

48) The following tool aids in the illumination and magnification of the ear: A) Endoscope C) Opthalmoscope B) Stethoscope D) Otoscope

D

53) Which is not a form of restraint or control of an animal? A) Elizabethan collar C) Cat bag B) Muzzle D) Cannula

D

55) Which is used to cover the animal except the area that is surgically worked on: A) Surgical gown C) Surgical tray B) Surgical masks D) Surgical drapes

D

58) The best suited tool to pull Foxtails out of a dogs ear: A) Rat tooth Forceps C) Adson Tissue Forceps B) Allis Tissue Forceps D) Alligator Forceps

D

60) The instrument specifically used for collecting a fecal sample directly from the animal's rectum is a: A) Fecal extractor C) Fecal Spoon B) Fecalyzers D) Fecal loop

D

66) Which tool can be used to control arterial blood flow? A) Kelly forceps C) Gavage needle B) Suture materials D) Tourniquet

D

70) Which of the following cannot be used to prevent the handler from being bite? A) Basket Muzzle C) Commerical muzzle B) Elizabethan collar D) Cat bag

D

75) What machine is used to deliver inhalant anesthetics and oxygen. A) Autoclave C) Centrifuge B) Gravity feeder/ J tube D) Anesthetic machine

D

81) Where are striated muscles located? A) Stomach wall and the uterus B) Urinary bladder and intestine C) Ciliary body of the eye D) Heart and skeletal muscle

D

91) The cat has how many cervical vertebrae? A) 13 C) 3 B) 10 D) 7

D

94) Dogs have how many cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae? A) 7, 13, 6 C) 6, 13, 7 B) 7, 12, 7 D) 7, 13, 7

D

96) Which chamber of the heart is surrounded by the largest amount of cardiac muscle? A) Right atrium C) Right ventricle B) Left atrium D) Left ventricle

D

98) Which enzyme breaks down carbohydrates in the digestive tract? A) Lipase C) Protease B) Ileus D) Amylase

D

A semipermanent feeding tube may be placed in all of the following ways, except: a. Through the nose b. Through a pharyngostomy site c. Through a gastrostomy site d. Through the mouth

D

For which of the following surgeries are stay sutures not normally necessary? a. Cystotomy b. Gastrotomy c. Intestinal anastomosis d. Hepatic biopsy

D

What suture pattern is commonly used to close the skin of cattle following a rumenotomy? a. Simple interrupted b. Simple continuous c. Continuous Ford interlocking pattern d. A and C

D

When preparing for an orthopedic surgery, shaving the surgical site should be performed: a. The previous night to shorten the anesthesia time b. The first thing in the morning to help the procedures run more smoothly c. Immediately before the induction of anesthesia d. Just after the induction of anesthesia

D

Which of the following does not describe a type of surgical scissors? a. Mayo b. Metzenbaum c. Iris d. Lembert

D

Which of the following is an advantage of monofilament material over multifilament material? a. Greater knot security b. Greater suture strength c. Less likely to cause suture reactions d. Passes through tissue more easily

D

Which of the following procedures is not considered elective? a. Orchidectomy b. Ovariohysterectomy c. Onychectomy d. Enucleation of a proptosed eye

D

Which of the following statements regarding pyometra is incorrect? a. Onychectomies are usually curative b. A purulent vaginal discharge is always present c. Affected females usually have polyuria and polydipsia d. It often occurs soon after a heat cycle

D

Which of the following suture materials is most appropriate to close the muscle layers of a cow following a left-displaced abomasum surgery? a. 3-0 catgut b. 3-0 polydioxanone c. 3 chromic catgut d. 3 polydioxanone

D

Which structure is not part of the spermatic cord? a. Pampiniform plexus b. Vas deferens c. Testicular artery d. Epididymis

D

You are monitoring a cat during an exploratory surgery and notice the pupils are central and dilated. The cat is: a. Too light b. Too deep c. Under the influence of atropine d. In a state impossible to determine without more information

D

which of the following suffixes is used to describe the surgical alteration of a shape or form? -pexy -plasty -ostomy -rrhapy

-plasty

How many milliliters of a 50:50 mixture of diazepam and ketamine at a dose of 1 ml/20 lb should be given to an 8-lb cat? 0.4 ml diazepam; 0.4 ml ketamine 0.2 ml diazepam; 0.2 ml ketamine 2 ml diazepam; 2 ml ketamine 1 ml diazepam; 1 ml ketamine

0.2 ml diazepam; 0.2 ml ketamine

How many ml of a 50:50 mixture of diazepam and ketamine at a dose of 1ml/20lb should be administered to an 8lb cat? 0.4 ml diazepam; 0.4ml ketamine 0.2 ml diazepam; 0.2 ml ketamine 2 ml diazepam; 2 ml ketamine 1 ml diazepam ; 1 ml ketamine

0.2 ml diazepam; 0.2 ml ketamine

To prepare a dose of 0.2 mg of atropine using a solution that contains 400 ug/ml how much do you draw into the syringe? 0.05ml 0.2 ml 0.5 ml 2 ml

0.5 ml

You are asked to set up an IV administration set up for a 32 lb. dog that needs to receive 64 ml/hr of IV LRS. You set up the IV using a macro administration set (15 gtt/ml). What is the drip rate (gtt/sec)? 1gtt/6sec 1gtt/2sec 1gtt/4sec 1gtt/12sec

1 gtt/4 sec

If you are asked to administer 0.1 mg of epinephrine to an animal with threatened cardiac collapse, how much of a 1:10,000 solution should you inject? 10 ml 0.01 ml 0.1 ml 1 ml

1 ml

How many cc of 5% Ultra-mycin should you give PO for 44 lb. dog, if the dose is 50 mg/kg? 15 ml 40 ml 20 ml 10 ml

10 ml

Which of the following suture sizes is most appropriate for eye surgeries? -0 -3-0 -6-0 -10-0

10-0

It is cause for concern if an anesthetized cat's heart rate falls below -160 bpm -120 bpm -100 bpm -140 bpm

100 bpm

How much 50% dextrose must be added to 1 L of lactated Ringer solution to make a solution that contains 5% dextrose? 5mL 50mL 55mL 100mL

100mL

A 10% solution of thiopental sodium for anesthetic induction contains -10 mg/ml -100 mg/ml -20 mg/ml -40 mg/ml

100mg/ml

What would the Triadan number be for the upper right third premolar? 106 107 208 205

107

You are asked to prepare 20 mEq of KCl for addition to a 1-L bag of lactated Ringer solution. The solution contains 30 mEq/15 ml. Ho wmuch should you draw into a syringe to add to the fluid bag? 10ml 20ml 30ml 40ml

10ml

How many incisors are present in the adult equine patient? 6 12 24 36

12

You are taking the heart rate of a cat. If you count 10 beats in 5 seconds, what is the rate in beats per minute? 50 120 300 220

120

Assuming 15 psi, the minimum conditions that must be met to ensure that a pack has been adequately sterilized by autoclaving are

121 degrees C for 15 minutes

Autoclaving to sterilize a virally contaminated material requires the following same parameters as for a bacterially contaminated material -121 degrees C, 15 psi for 30 minutes -250 degrees F, 150 psi for 15 minutes -121 degrees C, 10 psi for 15 minutes -250 degrees F, 100 psi for 30 minutes

121 degrees C, 15 psi for 30 minutes

The normal systolic blood pressure for a canine patient ranges from: 120-160 mm Hg 130-160 mm Hg 140-180 mm Hg 160-190 mm Hg

130-160 mm Hg

How many ml of medication would you give an animal weighing 77 pounds if the dosage is stated as 11 mg/kg and the concentration of the medication is 2.5%? 33.9mL 15.4mL 1.5mL 3.1mL

15.4mL

Tidal volume for a dog is 15 ml/kg. If a 10-kg male dog is taking 10 breaths per minute, what is his minute volume? 150 ml/min 1500 ml/min 15 ml/min 10 ml/min

1500 ml/min

Tidal volume for a dog is 15ml/kg. If a 10kg male dog is taking 10 breaths per minute, what is his minute volume? 150ml/min 1500 ml/min 15 ml / min 10 ml/min

1500 ml/min

A 36.5-kg Springer spaniel is brought to the clinic because of anorexia and lethargy. Dehydration is estimated at 8%. The maintenance requirement of fluids is 66 ml/kg/day. To correct this dog's dehydration, how much fluid should it receive over the first 24 hours? 2920mL 1600mL 1320mL 1336mL

1600mL

A normal growth rate for puppies (per kilogram of anticipated adult weight) is 1-2g/day 2-4g/day 4-5g/day 3-6g/day

2-4g/day

In assessing titers, how long after the first serum sample is collected should the second sample be collected? -7 days -3 days -2-6 weeks -14 weeks

2-6 weeks

When would the maxillary first permanent incisor of a horse erupt? 1.5 2.5 3.5 4.5

2.5

How many mg/ml does a 2% Lidocaine solution contain? -5 -10 -20 -30

20

When autoclaving, the minimum temperature and exposure time for the center of the surgical packs is

250 degrees F for 15 minutes

According to the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, the maximum recommended level of exposure of people to volatile anesthetic agents in the environment is -2 ppm -4 ppm -6 ppm -8 ppm

2ppm

The correct dental formula for an adult cat is: 2x (3/3I, 1/1C, 3/2P, 1/1M) = 30 2x (4/4I, 1/1C, 2/3P, 1/1M) = 34 2x (3/3I, 1/1C, 2/3P, 1/1M) = 30 2x (3/3I, 1/1C, 3/2P, 2/1M) = 32

2x (3/3I, 1/1C, 3/2P, 1/1M) = 30

Which of these sequences correctly lists suture material diameter, from largest to smallest?

3, 2, 1, 1-0, 2-0, 3-0

which of the following sequences correctly lists suture material diameter, from largest to smallest?

3,2,1,1-0,2-0,3-0

How many adult teeth does the normal cat have? 30 32 40 42

30

The respective gestation periods of a rabbit, guinea pig, and mouse are 30, 68, 21 days 30, 42, 21 days 24, 42, 21 days 21, 68, 30 days

30, 68, 21 days

The effect of IV administration of any anesthetic drug is usually detected in -30-60 seconds -3-5 minutes -15-20 minutes -1 hour

30-60 seconds

If you are giving IV fluids using an IV set that delivers 10 drops/ml and you set the drip rate at 15/drips/minute how much fluid will be delivered in 4 hours? 240ml 360 ml 400 ml 720 ml

360ml

Given the following data of a dog: Hgb=5 g/dl; PCV=20%, RBC count - 4.7 million/microliter calculate the MCV and MCHC: 25.5 femtoliters; 106 g/dl 42.5 femtoliters; 25 g/dl 60.5 femtoliters; 45 g/dl 80.0 femtoliters; 86 g/dl

42.5 femtoliters; 25 g/dl

The doctor has written a prescription for a 55 kg dog for Biomox. The dosage is 3 mg/lb TID x 10 days. The drug is available in 100 mg and 250 mg tablets. How many tablets should be dispensed? 15 - 100mg 15 - 250mg 25 - 250mg 45 - 250mg

45 - 250mg

A calf with pinkeye is being treated with an injection of long acting oxytetracycline. The calf weighs 100 lbs and the dose is 10mg/kg. How many milligrams will be needed for one dose? 1000 milligrams 2200 milligrams 454 milligrams 75 milligrams

454 milligrams

If an IV set dispenses 60 drops/ml what is the IV drip rate (drops per minute) needed to give a cat 300 ml of Lactated Ringers solution over 6 hours? 60 50 100 10

50

A 15 year old, 40lb corgi is 7% dehydrated. You are instructed to administer fluids equal to the deficit over the next 24 hours. How high should you set the fluid pump? 53 ml/hr 67ml/hr 100ml/hr 221ml/hr

53 ml/hr

When inflating the cuff on an ET tube, you should change to a larger diameter tube if cuff inflation requires injection of more than what volume of air? -2 ml -5 ml -7 ml -10 ml

5ml

A pack double wrapped in muslin and kept in a closed cabinet is good for how long?

6 to 7 weeks

Which of the following suture sizes is most appropriate for eye surgeries?

6-O

What amount of diluent would you need to make 50 mL of a 10% solution from a stock solution of 80% 6.25ml 20ml 30.5ml 43.75ml

6.25ml

Most pharmaceutical agents that are measured in grains have how many milligrams per grain? 30 60 100 120

60

The minimum acceptable heart rate for an anesthetized medium-sized dog is -40 bpm -60 bpm -80 bpm -100 bpm

60 bpm

If a 30 lb dog was held on anesthesia at an oxygen flow rate of 700 ml/min and the surgery lated 1.5 hours, what is the total volume of oxygen used during the surgery? 2.1 liters 15 liters 30 liters 63 liters

63 liters

No more than ___ nitrous oxide should be delivered to an anesthetized patient. -40% -50% -60% -70%

70%

The approximate volume of oxygen in an E cylinder is -70 L -700 L -7000 L -2200 L

700 L

The approximate volume of oxygen in an H cylinder is -70 L -700 L -7000 L -2200 L

7000L

During the maintenance period of anesthesia in a cat or dog, respiratory rates lower than how many breaths/min may indicate excessive anesthetic depth that should be reported to the veterinarian? -5 -8 -10 -12

8

Minimally acceptable systolic pressures are -80 mm Hg in dogs and 90 mm Hg in cats -60 mm Hg in dogs and 120 mm Hg in cats -40 mm Hg in dogs and 80 mm Hg in cats -120 mm Hg in dogs and 60 mm Hg in cats

80 mm Hg in dogs and 90 mm Hg in cats

1) When trying to remove a frightened cat from a kennel, which body posture are you least likely to see? A) Tail carried upright C) Ears flattened against head B) Paws elevated D) Crouched position

A

100) What tissue type is responsible for fat storage? A) Adipose tissue C) Connective tissue B) Neural tissue D) Glandular tissue

A

108) What type of connective tissue connects muscles to bones? A) Tendon C) Cartilage B) Ligament D) Blood

A

109) Bone marrow produces: A) Blood cells C) Calcium and Phosphorus B) Periosteum D) Spongy Bone

A

111) What arteries supply blood to the head? A) Carotid arteries C) Mesenteric arteries B) Renal arteriesD) Iliac arteries

A

112) The term used to describe a heart rate that is faster than normal is: A) Tachycardia C) Arrhythmia B) Bradycardia D) Atrial fibrillation

A

12) Agonistic behavior deals with A) Conflict C) Fear-induced B) Territorial D) Dominance

A

125) Drugs that have the greatest potential for being abused or addictive are classified by the DEA as: A) Schedule I C) Schedule III B) Schedule II D) Schedule IV

A

129) What is the function of the red blood cell (RBC)? A) Transport oxygen throughout the body C) Hemostasis or clotting B) Help to maintain pH and temperature D) Body defense

A

131) When an animal is presented with an cranial abnormality, the word cranial means: A) Toward the head C) Toward the nose B) Toward the tail D) Closest to the midline

A

143) The medical term for inflammation of the urinary bladder is: A) Cystitis C) Dystocia B) Peritonitis D) Uremia

A

147) Sterilization is defined as the: A) Destruction of all organisms on an object B) Reduction of the number of pathogenic microorganisms on an object C) Reduction of the number of microorganisms on an object to an acceptable public health standard D) Removal of all visible signs of dirt

A

148) The decision to prescribe medications to a patient is the responsibility of the: A) Veterinarian B) Credentialed veterinary technician C) Veterinary assistant D) Owner

A

150) Which nutrient is the most important for survival? A) Water C) Carbohydrates B) Protein D) Vitamins

A

166) Indicate the minimum amount of tablets/capsules prescribed for the following order: Rx: Ascriptin tablets Sig: 1 tab P.O., BID x 14 days then 1 tab BID prn a. 28 tablets b. 24 tablets c. 20 tablets d. 16 tablets

A

169) A cat in end-stage renal disease is receiving epoetin (2000 u/ml). The dose is 100 u/kg. Your patient weighs 5.5 lb. How many units will you deliver? A) 250 B) 500 C) 750 D) 1000

A

172) How many mgs of a drug should be given to a patient weighing 22 lb if the dose is 0.2 mg/kg? A) 2 mg B) 2.2 mg C) 22 mg D) 22.2 mg

A

173) Indicate the tablets/capsules prescribed for the following order: Rx: Cephalexin capsules 250 mg Sig: 2 caps P.O., STATthen 1 cap P.O., BID x 14 days A) 30 capsules C) 50 capsules B) 40 capsules D) 60 capsules

A

178) Hip dysplasia is a condition in which: A) The ball and socket joint of the hip becomes diseased B) The socket joint is deep not allowing the head of the femur to be held C) The cartilage lining of the acetabulum becomes calcified and thick D) Is not painful and does not impact the dogs ability to walk correctly

A

18) The most dangerous animal of all the species that veterinary personnel are asked to restrain is the: A) Dairy Bull C) Thoroughbred stallion B) Adult male Rottweiler D) Adult female python

A

191) A 16oz bottle contains how many milliliters? A) 480 C) 40 B) 240 D) 1.6

A

196) A patient requires 3 units of insulin every 12 hours. If the concentration of insulin Is 30 units/ml, how many milliliters should be given? A) 0.1 C) 0.05 B) 10 D) 0.01

A

2) Castration of a male dog will help to eliminate which type of aggressive behavior? A) Territorial aggression C) Predatory aggression B) Fear-induced aggression D) Redirected aggression

A

203) Microfilaria are: a. The larval stage of the heartworm. b. The segment of the tapeworm containing the male and female reproductive organs. c. Microscopic single celled organisms. d. None of the above.

A

214) "Max" needs 30 mg. Gentocin IV Gentocin comes in two different concentrations 50 mg/ml or 100 mg/ml. Using 50 mg/ml, how many ml would you draw up? AND Using 100 mg/ml, how many ml would you draw up? A) 0.6 ml and 0.3 ml B) 6 ml and 3 ml C) 0.3 ml and 0.6 ml D) 3 ml and 6 ml

A

218) If you are bitten, scratched or cut when working around animals, you should: A) Wash thoroughly with water and a disinfecting soap, then notify your supervisor. B) Quickly rinse out the area. C) Just wipe the blood off and bandage if needed. D) None of the above.

A

226) Which internal parasite is the most common in puppies and kittens? A) Roundworm B) Hookworm C) Whipworm D) Giardia

A

229) If an animal was suffering from anaphylactic shock, it would be A) An exaggerated allergic response B) Proteins produced by lymph system C) Minerals in the blood stream D) Slippery white film

A

230) An animal is being given a vaccine. Vaccine is defined as A) A suspension of killed or modified microorganisms that stimulate an immune response when introduced into the body B) Swelling and inflammation C) More susceptible to disease D) Having no resistance to disease

A

231) An animal is vaccinated for rabies. Rabies is caused by: A) A rhabidovirus B) Parvo virus C) Bacteria D) Fungus

A

233) The bellyband should _______ slightly as it is wrapped. A) Overlap B) Space out C) Cut off circulation D) Never touch

A

234) Immunity is defined as: A) Having resistance to a disease due to the formation of antibodies. B) Slow and painful abscess C) Rhabidovirus D) Not being able to tolerate disease

A

235) A kitten is suffering from FCV. Feline calicivirus is caused by: A) RNA virus B) Fungus C) Bacteria D) Does not exist

A

238) Jane is taking a dog's pulse. What is the name of the artery where she will do this? A) Femoral artery B) Brachiocephalic artery C) Facial artery D) Carotid Artery

A

245) An eight month old Chihuahua was stung by a wasp and had a fluctuation in its heart rate. What term describes its fluctuating heart rate? A) Arrhythmia B) Auscultation C) Bradycardia D) Tachypnea

A

247) Which of the following answers best completes this statement? Temperature, pulse and respiration rates tend to _________ as size of the animal ____________. A) Increase, decreases B) Decreases, decreases C) Shallow, decreases D) Decreases slowly, decreases rapidly

A

248) What is spermatogenesis? A) Process by which sperm are produced by the male. B) Condition in which one or both testicles remain in the body cavity. C) Process by which ova are produced by the female. D) Causes destruction of the cotyledons of the uterus.

A

25) As a restraint tool, a towel is used to A) Wrap up an angry cat C) Let the cat hide under B) Let the cat curl up and go to sleep D) Protect you from bites and scratches

A

250) The term that means of, or relating to cats: A) Feline B) Bovine C) Canine D) Galline

A

252) The term that means of, or relating to horses: A) Equine B) Galline C) Bovine D) Ovine

A

259) You have taken the body temperature of a market hog that reads 38 degrees Celsius. The owner of the hog does not understand Celsius and ask you to convert it to Fahrenheit. What is the converted body temperature? A) 100.4 F C) 102.5 B) 104 F D) 98.8

A

261) The doctor diagnosed pinkeye in a 450 pound heifer calf and prescribed Nuflor for the treatment. The dosage on the label is 200mg/kg or 20 milligrams of drug per kilogram of body weight. The concentration of Nuflor is 300 mg/ml. What dose of Nuflor will be administered? A) 13.7 ml C) 10.22 ml B) 137 ml D) 4,100 ml

A

267) `Feline viral rhinotracheitis symptoms include: A) Sneezing, discharge from nose and eyes B) Anorexia C) Aggression D) Licking of wound

A

268) Leptospirosis is caused by: A) Leptospira bacteria B) DNA virus C) Borrelia burgdorferi bacteria D) None of the above

A

276) Which of these is the correct flow of blood through the heart? A) Right Atrium, Right Ventricle, Pulmonary Arteries, Lungs, Pulmonary Veins, Left Atrium, Left Ventricle, Aorta B) Left Atrium, Left Ventricle, Pulmonary Arteries, Lungs, Pulmonary Veins, Right Atrium, Right Ventricle, Aorta C) Right Atrium, Right Ventricle, Pulmonary Veins, Lungs, Pulmonary Arteries, Left Atrium, Left Ventricle, Aorta D) Left Atrium, Left Ventricle, Pulmonary Veins, Lungs, Pulmonary Arteries, Right Atrium, Right Ventricle, Aorta

A

277) What are the percentages of cells and plasma in blood? A) 40% to 60%, respectively B) 50% to 50%, respectively C) 60% to 40%, respectively D) 30% t0 70%, respectively

A

288) Fran is doing research on pathogens. A pathogen is: a. A microorganism that produces disease. b. Disease that can be transmitted between animals and humans. c. Precautions taken to prevent contamination of a surgical wound. d. Refers to the back.

A

289) Aseptic technique is a. Precautions taken to prevent contamination of a surgical wound. b. Cleaning surfaces with bleach c. Swabbing for a bacteria culture d. A chemical agent that kills of prevents to growth of microorganisms

A

290) While cleaning an exam room, Abby uses a disinfectant is: a. A chemical agent that kills, or inhibits the growth of microorganisms on inanimate objects. b. a washcloth and hot water c. something that contaminates surfaces d. a chemical agent that allows that growth of microorganisms on inanimate objects

A

291) An animal has a superficial wound. Superficial means: a. Near the surface, also called external. b. deep laceration c. a wound that is on the extremities of an animal d. on an organ.

A

293) The operating room should be cleaned a. Daily b. Weekly c. Bi-weekly d. Monthly

A

299) What is the purpose of the infundibulum? a. To transport the egg from the ovary to the oviduct. b. To expel the fetus. c. To contract during labor. d. To give nourishment to the fetus.

A

31) Self-retaining tissue forceps with multiple fine intermeshing teeth at the tips are called: A) Allis C) Babcock B) Adson D) Brown-Adson

A

32) When opening a double-wrapped gown pack, non-scrubbed surgical personnel may touch the A) Autoclave tape C) Towel B) Indicator D) Gown

A

37) Emasculators are used A) In large animal castrations C) During surgical ovariectomies in heifers and mares B) During enucleations in large dogs D) To perform ovariohysterectomy

A

41) Which is not used to give shots: A) Bulb syringe C) Leur lock syringe B) Slip tip syringe D) Automatic syringe

A

46) Which instrument is best for determining if a canine has a scratched cornea? A) Opthalmoscope C) Otoscope B) Stethoscope D) Trocar

A

50) Only the top jaw moves on which forcept? A) Alligator C) Crile B) Kelly D) Brown-Adson

A

57) Which is not a tool that removes dead hair? A) Flea comb C) Shedding blade B) Curry comb D) Scotch comb

A

64) The stethoscope is used to listen to the digestive organs. A) True B) False

A

65) Endotracheal tubes are used to open the air way of an animal. A) True B) False

A

71) A cat bag completely encloses the body of the cat. A) True B) False

A

72) The dental floats are used to file down the teeth of a horse. A) True B) False

A

73) Which tool would you used to remove plaque from the teeth. A) Dental scaler C) Dental float B) Dental retractor D) Dental radiography

A

74) The gag mouth speculum would be used to open the mouth to work on the teeth. A) True B) False

A

76) This tool is used to attach drapes to the patient: A) Backhaus towel clamp C) Halstead mosquito hemostatic B) Kelly forceps D) Tourniquet

A

79) What system is anatomically composed of the brain and spinal cord? A) Central nervous system C) Parasympathetic nervous system B) Peripheral nervous system D) Sympathetic nervous system

A

80) The hormone produced by a developing ovarian follicle is A) Estrogen C) Progesterone B) Prolactin D) Oxytocin

A

89) The time period from the beginning of one cycle to the beginning of the next is called the A) Estrous cycle C) testosterone cycle B) Estrus cycle D) Mating cycle

A

93) The cardiovascular system has four components. Which of the following is not part of the system? A) Lungs C) Heart B) Blood circulation D) Blood vessels

A

Fracture apposition reduction refers to: a. Placing bones back in their normal positions b. Keeping bones still until healing has occurred c. Removing small fragments from around the fracture d. Placing pins through the marrow cavity

A

Scrotal swelling after orchidectomy is most likely caused by a: a. Hematoma b. Seroma c. Hemangioma d. Lipoma

A

To maintain sterility throughout the surgical procedure, the method by which contamination with microorganisms is prevented is known as: a. Sterile technique b. Sterile field c. Sterility d. Terminal sterilization

A

What is the proper term for trimming the edges of a jagged tear before suturing? a. Debridement b. Decoupage c. Curettage d. Cauterization

A

What type of instrument is a Mayo-Hegar? a. Needle holder b. Scissors c. Towel clamp d. Hemostatic forceps

A

Which of the following clinical signs would not normally be seen if a dog were suffering from hemorrhage after an ovariohysterectomy? a. Decreased respiratory rate b. Pale mucous membranes c. Slow recovery from anesthesia d. Slow capillary refill time

A

Which of the following forceps has the best crushing action? a. Rochester-Carmalt b. Adson-Brown c. Ochsner d. Crile

A

Which of the following is a needle driver that is also able to cut suture material? a. Olsen-Hegar b. Mayo-Hegar c. Adson-Brown d. Rochester-Pean

A

Which of the following is a nondesirable characteristic of ethylene oxide? a. Carcinogenic b. Teratogenic c. Mutagenic d. Mitogenic

A

Which of the following is an absorbable suture material? a. Polydioxanone b. Prolene c. Silk d. Cotton

A

The boarding facility has the daily rates for 8 to 24 hour boarding are: under 20 lbs - $25.00, 20-50 lbs - $26.00, over 50 lbs - $27.00 Dogs can be walked for an additional fee of $5.00 per dog. Medications are administered or applied at a rate of $0.50 per dose. Two or more dogs in the same kennel receive a 10% discount on all boarding services. A client has two dogs that are to be housed together. One is a 5.5-pound poodle named Timmy, and the other is a 62-pound mixed breed named Max. The owner instructs you that Max needs to be given a medication once a day for 4 days and that each dog is to be walked once a day. The owner boarded the dogs from Monday morning until Sunday evening. Taxes are included in all prices quoted. You are responsible for billing the client. What is the total charge for all boarding services? A. $437.50 B. $427.40 C. $436.00 D. $392.40

D. $392.40

The veterinarian orders 4.4 mg/kg of carprofen for pain control divided into two equal daily doses for a 50-lb dog. On hand are 100-mg scored tablets. How many tablets is/are administered each morning and afternoon? A. 5 tablets in the morning and 2 in the afternoon B. 1 tablet in the morning and afternoon C. .5 tablets in the morning and 1 in the afternoon D. .5 tablets in the morning and afternoon

D. .5 tablets in the morning and afternoon

Six blood pressure readings are 115, 120, 123, 121, 121, and 112 mm hg. What is the average value? A. 123 B. 120 C. 121 D. 119

D. 119

The order is 0.5 mg of Centrine, and 0.2 mg tablets are on hand. How many tablets will be administered? A. 1.0 tablets B. 1.5 tablets C. 2.0 tablets D. 2.5 tablets

D. 2.5 tablets

Determine the number of pounds in 10.5 kilograms. A. 25.5 B. 24.6 C. 21.9 D. 23.1

D. 23.1

Which of the following needles has the smallest bore? A. 16 gauge B. 20 gauge C. 21 gauge D. 25 gauge

D. 25 gauge

The level of fluid in the liter bags reads at the 700 mark. How much fluid has been given? A. 700 L B. 700 ml C. 300 L D. 300 ml

D. 300 ml

Indicate the number of tablets prescribed for the following order: Rx: Metronidazole tablets 50mg Sig: 2 tablets, P.O. BID x 10 days A. 10 tablets B. 20 tablets C. 30 tablets D. 40 tablets

D. 40 tablets

A growth in the skin that is 2 inches in diameter is how many centimeters? A. 2.5 B. 30 C. 20 D. 5

D. 5 (2.5 cm/in x 2 = 5cm)

Selamectin is recommended for use in dogs 6 weeks of age and older. The directions state: "Apply to the skin once a month at the recommended dosage of 6mg/kg or 6 milligrams of selamectin per kilogram of body weight". The product comes prepackaged in six tubes. Each dispensing tube contains 240 mg of selamectin. If the client's dog weighs 88 pounds, how many months of treatment are in one package of selamectin? A. 2 months B. 3.25 months C. 5.5 months D. 6 months

D. 6 months

The cat has how many cervical vertebrae? A. 13 B. 10 C. 3 D. 7

D. 7

Dogs have how many cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae? A. 7, 13, 6 B. 7, 12, 7 C. 6, 13, 7 D. 7, 13, 7

D. 7, 13, 7

In feed that has 20lbs of corn, 5lbs of beet pulp, 1lbs bone meal, and 2lbs of whey, approximately what percent is corn? A. 98% B. 28% C. 40% D. 71%

D. 71% (20+5+1+2=28 20/28=71%)

An abscess is: a. Usually lanced, drained, flushed, and sutured closed b. A solid infiltration of inflammatory cells c. A rare consequence of bite wounds d. A "walled-off" or circumscribed accumulation of pus

D. A "walled-off" or circumscribed accumulation of pus

Adam has just assisted in restraining a Lhasa Apso for an IM injection. The RVT that gave the injection must now dispose of the needle and syringe. Where must all needles are syringes be disposed of? A. A bottle B. A dumpster C. A trashcan D. A sharps container

D. A sharps container

When a dog is presented to the hospital to be spayed, the veterinary technician should prepare the surgical site. In which area is the incision most commonly made? a. Inguinal b. Scrotum c. Prescrotal prepuce d. Abdominal ventral midline

D. Abdominal ventral midline

What compartment of the ruminant stomach is called the true stomach? A. Rumen B. Reticulum C. Omasum D. Abomasum

D. Abomasum

What term is used to describe the motion when a body part is moved closer to the median axis of the body? A. Flexion B. Extension C. Abduction D. Addiction

D. Adduction

All of the following are benefits to having a peripheral IV catheter placed in advance of surgery except for: a. Administering anesthesia b. Administering emergency drugs in case of anesthetic complications c. Administering intravenous fluids d. Administering enteral nutrition

D. Administering enteral nutrition

Which of the following is a common method of pill administration for a dog or cat? A. Pill push method B. Pill crushed method C. Food method D. All are recognized methods of pill administration

D. All are recognized methods of pill administration

Which is not a sign of heart failure? A. Excessive intolerance B. Animal develops a cough C. Fluid accumulation in lungs and abdomen D. All are signs of hear failure

D. All are signs of heart failure

Linda is going to perform a laboratory test. Where is it possible that she will be doing this? A. A veterinary hospital B. Research facilities C. Zoos D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Sammy is trying to run a urinalysis. He first has to obtain urine from the dog. How can he obtain urine from an animal? A. Free catch B. Cystocentesis C. Catheterization D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Sugar, a small dog, has come into a vet clinic with Sarcoptic mange. To prevent the spread of this and other zoonotic diseases, you need to: A. Dispose of waste in a proper manner B. Isolate infected animals C. Wash hands often D. All of the above

D. All of the above

When treating or assisting a doctor with an animal's abscess wound, it is important to: A. Wear disposable gloves B. Disinfect the treatment counter thoroughly C. Wash and disinfect all instruments used D. All if the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following tool is used to control a horse? A. Chain twitch B. Halter C. Humane twitch D. All of the above

D. All of the above

While Linda was running a laboratory test, she evaluated total plasma protein, and noticed an elevated total plasma protein. This is a sign of: A. Inflammation B. Infection C. Dehydration D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following statements about electrocautery is false? a. If the patient is not properly grounded, the surgeon may receive a shock b. The intensity of the current passed through the unit is adjustable c. Small bleeding blood vessels are sealed with a controlled electrical current that burns the bleeding end d. All portions of the electrocautery unit can and should be sterilized

D. All portions of the electrocautery unit can and should be sterilized

The best suited tool to pull foxtails out of a dogs ear? A. Rat tooth forceps B. Allis tissue forceps C. Adson tissue forceps D. Alligator forceps

D. Alligator forceps

Which enzyme breaks down carbohydrates in the digestive tract? A. Lipase B. Ileus C. Protease D. Amylase

D. Amylase

What machine is used to deliver inhalant anesthetic and oxygen? A. Autoclave B. Gravity feeder/ J tube C. Centrifuge D. Anesthetic machine

D. Anesthetic machine

In most species, what are the kidneys shaped like? A. Pears B. Circles C. Clovers D. Beans

D. Beans

Hematuria is the clinical term for finding what in the urine? A. Pus B. Crystals C. Protein D. Blood

D. Blood

When oxygen levels in blood decrease, the mucous membranes of a veterinary patient may appear: A. Red B. Pink C. Purple D. Blue

D. Blue

Annie is helping examine a patient. She is instructed to take the temperature, pulse and respiration, which is a crucial part of a physical exam. Which of the following factors does not affect TPR? A. Age B. Size C. Environmental temperature D. Breed

D. Breed

The most common encountered type of attack in veterinary facilities is: A. Canine dominance-aggression biting B. Equine dominance-aggression biting C. Female rabbit territorial-aggression bitting D. Canine fear biting

D. Canine fear biting

Which is not a form of restraint or control on an animal? A. Elisabethan collar B. Muzzle C. Cat bag D. Cannula

D. Cannula

Which species is most likely to seek out a hiding place if it escapes its enclosure? A. Bird B. Dog C. Horse D. Cat

D. Cat

Which of the following cannot be used to prevent the handler from being bit? A. Basket muzzle B. Elizabethan collar C. Commercial muzzle D. Cat bag

D. Cat bag

The huge comma-shaped section of the large intestine of the horse that occupies much of the right side of the abdomen is the: A. Colon B. Ileum C. Rectum D. Cecum

D. Cecum

Predatory aggression deals with: A. Intermale conflict B. Suckling females C. Pain-induced D. Chasing and killing prey

D. Chasing and killing prey

The types of animal restraint are: A. Physical, psychological, and hypnotic B. Traumatic, chemical, and physical C. Chemical, hypnotic, and psychological D. Chemical, psychological, and physical

D. Chemical, psychological, and physical

What is the name of the condition when one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum? A. Pyometra B. Hypothyroidism C. Urethrostomy D. Cryptorchidism

D. Cryptorchidism

Metzenbaum scissors are only used for: A. Cutting suture B. Cutting paper drapes C. Ophthalmic surgery D. Cutting tissue

D. Cutting tissue

When a vessel constricts, what does the vessel do? A. Expand in length B. Decrease in length C. Expand in diameter D. Decrease in diameter

D. Decrease in diameter

What is the most common clinical sign observed with salmonellosis? A. Fever B. Headache C. Muscle spasm D. Diarrhea

D. Diarrhea

Which of the following lists the sections of small intestine in order from anterior to posterior? A. Jejunum, ileum, duodenum B. Duodenum, colon, jejunum C. Ileum, duodenum, cecum D. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum

D. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum

Which tool simultaneously severs the spermatic cord in order to prevent hemorrhage? A. Elastrator B. Adson tissue forceps C. Babcock tissue forceps D. Emasculator

D. Emasculator

Surgical procedures of the ear include all of the following except: a. Otoplasty b. Bulla osteotomy c. Aural hematoma drainage d. Enucleation

D. Enucleation

Which of the following are the primary hormones produced by the ovaries? A. Estrogen and testosterone B. Testosterone and oxytocin C. Testosterone and progesterone D. Estrogen and progesterone

D. Estrogen and progesterone

The instrument specifically used for collecting a fecal sample directly from the animals rectum is: A. Fecal extractor B. Fecalyzer C. Fecal spoon D. Fecal loop

D. Fecal loop

The term that means of, or relating to poultry: A. Equine B. Feline C. Porcine D. Galline

D. Galline

When a bitch is presented to the hospital for an ovariohysterectomy, the technician should do all of the following except: a. Ensure the dog is a female b. Obtain a telephone number where the client can be reached that day c. Ensure that the bitch does not have an abdominal scar d. Give the dog aspirin, because the surgical procedure will be painful

D. Give the dog aspirin, because the surgical procedure will be painful

Where are striated muscles located? A. Stomach and wall of the uterus B. Urinary bladder and intestine C. Ciliary body of the eye D. Heart and skeletal muscle

D. Heart and skeletal muscle

What type of instrument is a Kelly? a. Needle holder b. Scissors c. Towel clamp d. Hemostatic forceps

D. Hemostatic forceps

Where would you expect the find DNA within the cell? A. In the cell membrane B. In the cytoplasm C. In the ribosomes D. In the nucleus

D. In the nucleus

One of the fastest means of getting drugs in to the bloodstream is: A. Orally B. Intranasally C. Topically D. Intravenously

D. Intravenously

When attaching an ECG, which leg should have the red lead attached to it? a. Right foreleg b. Left foreleg c. Right hind leg d. Left hind leg

D. Left hind leg

Which chamber of the heart is surrounded by the largest amount of cardiac muscle? A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle

D. Left ventricle

Which of the following is not a type of surgical scissor? A. Mayo B. Metzenbaum C. Iris D. Lembert

D. Lembert

Which of these is not a warning sign from a cat? A. Hissing B. Ears lowered C. Swiping at you with a paw D. Looking the other way

D. Looking the other way

What is the vector for heartworms? A. Tick B. Lice C. Flea D. Mosquito

D. Mosquito

Evan is creating a poster of biohazards for his vet technology class. Which of these is NOT an example of a biohazard and therefore should not be included in his poster? A. Needles B. Materials soaked with bodily fluids C. Bandage material D. None of the above

D. None of the above

Which of the following is a not primary action of testosterone? A. Anabolic growth B. Promotes spermatogenesis C. Promotes secretions from accessory glands D. None of these

D. None of these

A needle holder combines with scissors is called: A. Mathieu B. Rochester-Pean C. Mayo-Hegar D. Olsen-Hegar

D. Olsen-Hegar

Before starting the surgical procedure, the technician who has scrubbed in with the surgeon should do all of the following, except: a. Count the gauze sponges in the pack b. Arrange the instruments to be located quickly and easily c. Place the scalpel blade on the handle d. Open the suture material

D. Open the suture material

The following tool aids in the illumination and magnification of the ear: A. Endoscope B. Stethoscope C. Ophthalmoscope D. Otoscope

D. Otoscope

The term that means of, or relating to sheep: A. Equine B. Galline C. Bovine D. Ovine

D. Ovine

The scientific discipline that studies the functions of living things is: A. Anatomy B. Systemic anatomy C. Physomy D. Physiology

D. Physiology

A chest tube is placed with an animal has: a. Subcutanesous emphysema b. Pulmonary edema c. Ascites d. Pneumothorax

D. Pneumothorax

The term that means of, or relating to swine: A. Equine B. Canine C. Galline D. Porcine

D. Porcine

What are the anatomical differences between the oviducts of most mammals and the oviducts of poultry? A. Mammals have one oviduct B. Mammals do not have oviducts C. Poultry do not have oviducts D. Poultry have one oviduct

D. Poultry have one oviduct

Rabies is transmitted through: A. Blood from the affected animal B. Urine from the affected animal C. Feces from the affected animal D. Saliva from the affected animal

D. Saliva from the affected animal

Zoonotic diseases are: A. Only contracted from zoo animals B. Only found in vet clinics that work with zoo animals C. Shared between animals and plants D. Shared between animals and humans

D. Shared between animals and humans

The best way to approach a horse is: A. Quickly and directly from the front B. Slowly and directly from the front C. Quickly and from the left side D. Slowly and from the left side

D. Slowly and from the left side

Vet techs can preform which of the following: A. Diagnosis B. Prognosis C. Prescribe medication D. Surgical assisting

D. Surgical assisting

Which is used to cover the animal except the area that is surgically worked on? A. Surgical gown B. Surgical masks C. Surgical tray D. Surgical drapes

D. Surgical drapes

A member of OSHA is doing a walkthrough of a vet clinic. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration is housed in: A. The Department of Health B. The Department of Finance C. The Department of Security D. The Department of Labor

D. The Department of Labor

The client should be instructed to contact the veterinary hospital if any of the following occur with a splint or cast, except: a. The animal chews at the splint or cast b. The splint or cast is wet c. The leg looks swollen above or below the cast d. The animal is walking on or using the splinted or casted leg

D. The animal is walking on or using the splinted or casted leg

A compound fracture is one which: A. The break is along the axis of the bone B. The bone shatters into many pieces C. The break is on one side of the bone D. The bone breaks through the skin

D. The bone breaks through the skin

The abomasum is: A. The first compartment of the ruminant stomach B. The second compartment of the ruminant stomach C. The third compartment of the ruminant stomach D. The fourth compartment of the ruminant stomach

D. The fourth compartment of the ruminant stomach

Which of the following statements is false after serious oral surgery, such as mandibular fracture repair or oral-nasal tumor resection? a. The patient might refuse to eat b. The patient might need a gastrotomy tube c. The patient might refuse to drink d. The patient will no longer be in pain

D. The patient will no longer be in pain

What is the significance of an autoclave that will not properly seal, but still has steam rising from it? a. Because it is the sterilizing agent, it will work find, but you must be more cautious to prevent burns to personnel b. The pressure is what kills the microbes, and thus the autoclave will not work c. It will continue to sterilize but will require more water as the stream escapes d. The pressure will not increase, which is required to meet the minimum temperature for sterilization

D. The pressure will not increase, which is required to meet the minimum temperature for sterilization

The amount of fecal matter needed for a canine or feline fecal analysis is approximately: A. The size of a baseball B. The size of a gold ball C. The size of a grapefruit D. The size of a grape

D. The size of a grape

What is the primary function of a Brown- Adson? a. Retractor b. Rongeur c. Periosteal elevator d. Thumb forceps

D. Thumb forceps

Which tool can be used to control arterial blood flow? A. Kelly forceps B. Suture materials C. Gavage needle D. Tourniquet

D. Tourniquet

Ideally, a horse should be bedded on: A. Newspaper B. Straw C. Walnut shavings D. Wood shavings

D. Wood shavings

What is the first thing a technician should ascertain from a telephone triage with an owner who is worried about his or her pet?

A name and phone number where the caller can be contacted if disconnected.

A patient requires 3 units of insulin every 12 hours. If the concentration of insulin is 30 units/ml, how many milliliters should be given? A. 0.1 B. 10 C. 0.05 D. 0.01

A. 0.1 ((3 units/(30 units/ml) = 0.1)

"Max" needs 30 mg. Gentocin IV, Gentocin comes in two different concentrations; 50 mg/ml or 100 mg/ml. Using 50 mg/ml, how many ml would you draw up? AND using 100 mg/ml, how many ml would you draw up? A. 0.6 ml and 0.3 ml B. 6 ml and 3 ml C. 0.3 ml and 0.6 ml D. 3 ml and 6 ml

A. 0.6 ml and 0.3 ml

You have taken the body temperature of a market hog that reads 38 degrees Celsius. The owner of the hog does nor understand Celsius and asks you to convert it to Fahrenheit. What is the converted body temperature? A. 100.4 F B. 104 F C. 102.5 D. 98.8

A. 100.4 F

The doctor diagnosed pinkeye in a 450 pound heifer calf and prescribed Nuflor for the treatment. The dosage on the label is 200mg/kg or 20 milligrams of drug per kilogram of body weight. The concentration of Nuflor is 300 mg/ml. What dose of Nuflor will be administered? A. 13.7 ml B. 137 ml C. 10.22 ml D. 4,100 ml

A. 13.7 ml

How many mgs of a drug should be given to a patient weighing 22 lb if the dose is 0.2 mg/kg? A. 2 mg B. 2.2 mg C. 22 mg D. 22.2 mg

A. 2 mg

A cat in end-stage renal disease is receiving epoetin (2000 u/ml). The dose is 100 u/kg. Your patient weighs 5.5 lb. How many units will you deliver? A. 250 B. 500 C. 750 D. 1000

A. 250

Indicate the minimum amount of tablets/capsules prescribed for the following order: Rx: Ascriptin tablets Sig: 1 tab P.O., BID x 14 days then 1 tablet BID prn. A. 28 tablets B. 24 tablets C. 20 tablets D. 16 tablets

A. 28 tablets

Indicate the tablets/capsules prescribed for the following order: Rx: Cephalexin capsules 250 mg Sig: 2 caps P.O., STAT; then 1 cap P.O., BID x 14 days. A. 30 capsules B. 40 capsules C. 50 capsules D. 60 capsules

A. 30 capsules

What are the percentages of cells and plasma in blood? A. 40% to 60%, respectively B. 50% to 50%, respectively C. 60% to 40%, respectively D. 30% to 70%, respectively

A. 40% to 60%, respectively

A 16oz bottle contains how many milliliters? A. 480 B. 420 C. 40 D. 1.6

A. 480 (16oz x 30ml/1oz = 480)

While cleaning an exam room, Abby uses a disinfectant is: A. A chemical agent that kills, or inhibits the growth of microorganisms on inanimate objects B. A washcloth and hot water C. Something that contaminates surfaces D. A chemical agent that allows that growth of microorganisms on inanimate objects

A. A chemical agent that kills, or inhibits the growth of microorganisms on inanimate objects

Fran is doing research on pathogens. A pathogen is: A. A microorganism that produces disease B. Disease that can be transmitted between animals and humans C. Precautions taken to prevent contamination of a surgical wound D. Refers to the back

A. A microorganism that produces disease

An animal is vaccinated for rabies. Rabies is caused by: A. A rhabidovirus B. Parvo virus C. Bacteria D. Fungus

A. A rhabidovirus

An animal is being given a vaccine. Vaccine is defined as: A. A suspension of killed or modified microorganisms that stimulate an immune response when introduced into the body B. Swelling and inflammation C. More susceptible to disease D. Having no resistance to disease

A. A suspension of killed or modified microorganisms that stimulate an immune response when introduced into the body

What tissue type is responsible for fat storage? A. Adipose tissue B. Neural tissue C. Connective tissue D. Glandular tissue

A. Adipose tissue

All of the following statements regarding cesarean sections are true, except: a. After the newborns are removed, the mother is out of danger, and most of the technician's attention should be on the newborns b. A cesarean section is also known as a hysterotomy c. For some breeds of dogs, such as the English bulldog, it is expected that a cesarean section will need to be performed d. Wait to place the mother with the newborns until after she has adequately recovered from anesthesia

A. After the newborns are removed, the mother is out of danger, and most of the technician's attention should be on the newborns

Only the top jaw moves on which forcept? A. Alligator B. Kelly C. Crile D. Brown-Adson

A. Alligator

Self-retaining tissue forceps with multiple fine intermeshing teeth at the tips are called: A. Allis B. Adson C. Babcock D. Brown-Adson

A. Allis

If an animals was suffering from anaphylactic shock, it would be: A. An exaggerated allergic response B. Proteins produced by lymph system C. Minerals in the blood stream D. Slippery white film

A. An exaggerated allergic response

Which of these is the scientific name for hookworm? A. Ancylostoma caninum B. Dipylidium caninum C. Toxocara canis D. None of the above

A. Ancylostoma caninum

An eight month old chihuahua was stung by a wasp and had a fluctuation in its heart rate. What term describes its fluctuating heart rate? A. Arrhythmia B. Auscultation C. Bradycardia D. Tachypnea

A. Arrhythmia

If an animal has problems in the right side of the heart, what other problem will likely occur? A. Ascites B. Lung congestion C. Nerve Degeneration D. Osteoporosis

A. Ascites

What agent, method, or device is most appropriate for sterilizing a needle holder to be used in a surgical procedure? a. Autoclave b. Dry heat c. Ethylene oxide gas d. Liquid chemical disinfectant

A. Autoclave

When opening a double-wrapped gown pack, non-scrubbed surgical personnel may touch the: A. Autoclave tape B. Indicator C. Towel D. Gown

A. Autoclave tape

This tool is used to attach drapes to the patient: A. Backhaus towel clamp B. Kelly forceps C. Halstead mosquito hemostatic D. Tourniquet

A. Backhaus towel clamp

Which of the following instruments should be available to use during abdominal exploratory surgery a. Balfour retractor b. Weitlaner retractor c. Gelpi retractor d. Senn retractor

A. Balfour retractor

Bone marrow produces: A. Blood cells B. Periosteum C. Calcium and phosphorous D. Spongy bone

A. Blood cells

Which is not used to give shots: A. Bulb syringe B. Slip tip syringe C. Leur lock syringe D. Automatic syringe

A. Bulb syringe

A proptosed globe: a. Can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal b. Is not considered an emergency c. Can most easily occur in dolichocephalic breeds, such as collies d. It is commonly a consequence of conjunctivitis

A. Can be cause by overzealous restraint of the animal

What arteries supply blood to the head? A. Carotid arteries B. Renal arteries C. Mesenteric arteries D. Iliac arteries

A. Carotid arteries

The patient is to be prepared for a popliteal lymph node biopsy. What part of the body is prepped? a. Caudal aspect of the stifle b. Cranial aspect of the elbow c. Medial aspect of the thigh d. Area cranial to the shoulder

A. Caudal aspect of the stifle

What system is anatomically composed of the brain and spinal cord? A. Central nervous system B. Peripheral nervous system C. Parasympathetic nervous system D. Sympathetic nervous system

A. Central nervous system

The effectiveness of a surgical scrub on the hands and arms with an antibacterial soap depends on the a. Combination of contact time and scrubbing action b. Amount of soap used throughout the scrub c. Scrubbing action of the brush d. Temperature of the water

A. Combination of contact time and scrubbing action

Agonistic behavior deals with: A. Conflict B. Territorial C. Fear-induced D. Dominance

A. Conflict

Place the following surgeries in the order in which they should be scheduled, from first to last: a. Cruciate repair, OHE, compound fracture repair, intestinal resection b. Intestinal resection, cruciate repair, compound fracture repair, OHE c. Compound fracture repair, cruciate repair, OHE, intestinal resection d. Cruciate repair, compound fracture repair, OHE, intestinal resection

A. Cruciate repair, OHE, compound fracture repair, intestinal resection

The medical term for inflammation of the urinary bladder is: A. Cystitis B. Peritonitis C. Dystocia D. Uremia

A. Cystitis

The operating room should be cleaned: A. Daily B. Weekly C. Bi-weekly D. Monthly

A. Daily

The most dangerous animal of all the species that veterinary personnel are asked to restrain is the: A. Dairy bull B. Adult male Rottweiler C. Thoroughbred stallion D. Adult female python

A. Dairy bull

Which tool would you use to remove plaque from the teeth? A. Dental scaler B. Dental retractor C. Dental float D. Dental radiology

A. Dental scaler

Sterilization is defined as the: A. Destruction of all organisms on an object B. Reduction of the number of pathogenic microorganisms on an object C. Reduction of the number of microorganisms on an object to an acceptable public health standard D. Removal of all visible signs of dirt

A. Destruction of all organisms on an object

Kennel cough is found in A. Dogs B. Cats C. Dogs and cats D. All species

A. Dogs

There is more concern about pulling out the endotracheal tube too soon in the ______, versus an English mastiff: a. English bulldog b. German shepherd c. Jack Russel terrier d. Greyhound

A. English bulldog

The term that means of, or related to horses: A. Equine B. Galline C. Bovine D. Ovine

A. Equine

The hormone produced by a developing ovarian follicle is: A. Estrogen B. Prolactin C. Progesterone D. Oxytocin

A. Estrogen

The time period from the beginning of one cycle to the beginning of the next is called the: A. Estrous cycle B. Estrus cycle C. Testosterone cycle D. Mating cycle

A. Estrous cycle

Jane is taking a dog's pulse. What is the name of the artery where she will do this? A. Femoral artery B. Brachiocephalic artery C. Facial artery D. Carotid artery

A. Femoral artery

Immunity is defines as: A. Having resistance to a disease due to the formation of antibodies B. Slow and painful abscess C. Rhabidovirus D. Not being able to tolerate disease

A. Having resistance to a disease due to the formation of antibodies

Emasculators are used A. In large animal castration B. During enucleations in large dogs C. During surgical ovariectomies in heifers and mares D. To perform ovariohysterectomy

A. In large animal castration

Which of the following answers best completes this statement? Temperature, pulse and respiration rates tend to _____ as a size of the animal _____. A. Increase, decreases B. Decreases, decreases C. Shallow, decreases D. Decreases slowly, decreases rapidly

A. Increase, decreases

All of the following statements are true regarding gastrointestinal (GI) surgery, except: a. It is absolutely essential that all patients fast before GI surgery. The GI tract must be empty before surgery b. At no point is the GI tract sterile; therefore, it is important to guard against contamination c. Irrigation of the peritoneal cavity with a sterile isotonic solution after GI surgery helps reduce the number of microorganisms that remain free in the peritoneum following the procedure d. The surgical assistant must be alert to the possibility of intestinal contents contaminating the abdominal cavity and must help the surgeon prevent this from happening

A. It is absolutely essential that all patients fast before GI surgery. The GI tract must be empty before surgery

Leptospirosis is caused by: A. Leptospira bacteria B. DNA virus C. Borrelia burgdorferi bacteria D. None of the above

A. Leptospira bacteria

The cardiovascular system has four components. Which of the following is not part of the system? A. Lungs B. Blood circulation C. Heart D. Blood vessels

A. Lungs

During a surgical procedure, which of the following does not have to be sterile to maintain aseptic technique? a. Mask b. Drapes c. Instruments d. Gloves

A. Mask

An animal has a superficial wound. Superficial means: A. Near the surface, also called external B. Deep laceration C. A wound that is on the extremities of an animal D. On an organ

A. Near the surface, also called external

What is the size of a scalpel blade used for making an abdominal skin incision in a dog? a. No. 10 b. No. 11 c. No. 12 d. No. 15

A. No. 10

Which instrument is best for determining if a canine has a scratched cornea? A. Ophthalmoscope B. Stethoscope C. Otoscope D. Trocar

A. Ophthalmoscope

The bellyband should _____ slightly as it is wrapped. A. Overlap B. Space out C. Cut off circulation D. Never touch

A. Overlap

Aseptic techniques is: A. Precautions taken to prevent contamination of a surgical wound B. Cleaning surfaces with bleach C. Swabbing for a bacterial culture D. A chemical agent that kills of prevents to growth of microorganisms

A. Precautions taken to prevent contamination of a surgical wound

Overinflation or underinflation of the endotracheal tube cuff can result in all of the following except: a. Prevention of fluid aspiration into the lungs b. Pressure necrosis of the cells lining the trachea c. Inability to keep the patient under anesthesia with the expected concentration of gas anesthetic d. Increased levels of waste gas anesthesia in the surgical room

A. Prevention of fluid aspiration into the lungs

An ovariohysterectomy might be performed for all of the following reasons, except: a. Prevention of prostate cancer b. Prevention of pyometra c. Sterilization of the animal d. Prevention of estrus

A. Prevention of prostate cancer

Staples and other metal clips can: a. Resist infection b. Cause little scarring c. Be removed easily using scissors d. Be applied by hand without any special application device

A. Resist infection

Which of these is the correct flow of blood through the heart? A. Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary arteries, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta B. Left atrium, left ventricle, pulmonary arteries, lungs, pulmonary veins, right atrium, right ventricle, aorta C. Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary veins, lungs, pulmonary arteries, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta D. Left atrium, left ventricle, pulmonary veins, lungs, pulmonary arteries, right atrium, right ventricle, aorta

A. Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary arteries, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta

Which internal parasite is the most common in puppies and kittens? A. Roundworm B. Hookworm C. Whipworm D. Giardia

A. Roundworm

Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis symptoms include: A. Sneezing, discharge from nose and eyes B. Anorexia C. Aggression D. Licking of wound

A. Sneezing, discharge from nose and eyes

The term used to describe a heart rate that is faster than normal is: A. Tachycardia B. Bradycardia C. Arrhythmia D. Atrial fibrilation

A. Tachycardia

When trying to remove a frightened cat from a kennel, which body posture are you least likely to see? A. Tail carried upright B. Paws elevated C. Ears flattened against head D. Crouched position

A. Tail carried upright

Castration of a male dog will help to eliminate which type of aggressive behavior? A. Territorial B. Fear-induced C. Predatory D. Redirected

A. Territorial

Hip dysplasia is a condition which: A. The ball and socket joint of the hip becomes diseased B. The socket joint is deep not allowing the head of the femur to be held C. The cartilage lining the acetabulum becomes calcified and thick D. Is not painful and does not impact the dogs ability to walk correctly

A. The ball and socket joint of the hip becomes diseased

Which of the following is not true about dogs that are spayed before their first estrous cycle? a. The hair coat will change and become easier to manage with less shedding b. The surgery is generally considered easier to perform if the bitch has not been through an estrous cycle c. Mammary cancer is less likely to occur in a bitch that has been spayed before her first estrous cycle d. The uterus and ovaries enlarge after the first estrous cycle. This necessitates a larger abdominal incision when the bitch is spayed

A. The hair coat will change and become easier to manage with less shedding

Microfilaria are: A. The larval stage of the heartworm B. The segment of the tapeworm containing the male and female reproductive organs C. Microscopic single celled organisms D. None of the above

A. The larval stage of the heartworm

What is the purpose of the infundibulum? A. To transport the egg from the ovary to the oviduct B. To expel the fetus C. To contract during labor D. To give nourishment to the fetus

A. To transport the egg from the ovary to the oviduct

When an animal is present with a cranial abnormality, toward cranial means: A. Toward the head B. Toward the tail C. Toward the nose D. Closest to the midline

A. Toward the head

What is the function of the red blood cell (RBC)? A. Transport oxygen throughout the body B. Help to maintain pH and temp C. Hemostasis or clotting D. Body defense

A. Transport oxygen throughout the body

A cat bag completely encloses the body of the cat. A. True B. False

A. True

Endotracheal tubes are used to open the air way of an animal. A. True B. False

A. True

The dental floats are used to file down the teeth of a horse. A. True B. False

A. True

The gag moth speculum would be used to open the mouth to work on the teeth. A. True B. False

A. True

The stethoscope is used to listen to the digestive organs. A. True B. False

A. True

A patient is to be prepared for a cystotomy. What part of the body is prepped? a. Ventral abdomen b. Lumbar spine c. Ventral cervical area d. Top of the head

A. Vental abdomen

The decision to prescribe medication to a patient is the responsibility of the: A. Vet B. Credentialed vet tech C. Vet assistant D. Owner

A. Vet

If you are bitten, scratched or cut when working around animals, you should: A. Wash thoroughly with water and disinfecting soap, then notify your supervisor B. Quickly rinse out the area C. Just wipe the blood off and bandage if needed D. None of the above

A. Wash thoroughly with water and disinfecting soap, then notify your supervisor

Proper splint and bandage care includes all of the following except: a. Washing the splint and bandage daily b. Preventing the bandage or splint from becoming wet c. Inspecting the bandage or splint daily for any change, such as swelling above or below the splint or bandage d. Inspecting the bandage or splint for any shifting or change in position on the limb

A. Washing the splint and bandage daily

As a restraint tool, a towel is used to: A. Wrap up an angry cat B. Let the cat curl up and go to sleep C. Let the cat hide under D. Protect you from bites and scratches

A. Wrap up an angry cat

Which drug is most likely to cause hypotension in normal doses? -Diazepam -Butorphanol -Acepromazine -Flunixin meglumine

Acepromazine

Which drug should be avoided in the stallion because it may cause permanent prolapse of the penis? -Glycopyrrolate -Acepromazine -Xylazine -Diazepam

Acepromazine

The NSAID that is extremely toxic to cats is Aspirin Acetominophen Carprofen Flunixin

Acetominophen

What factor will not influence how rapidly suture materials are absorbed by the body? -Age of patient -Presence of infection -The location of the suture -The composition of the suture material

Age of patient

A drug is considered an ___ if its action at the receptor is to stimulate. -Agonist -Antagonist -Anarchist -Antitussive

Agonist

Caslicks procedure prevents: Passing of feces Air from entering the mare's vagina Recto-vaginal tears Behavioral problems

Air from entering the mare's vagina

Upon the loss of a controlled substance, the veterinarian or veterinary technician must Notify the local veterinary clinics and hospitals Alert the local police department and the FBI in your area Notify the local police department and DEA field office Notify other veterinary clinics/hospitals within a 50-mile radius

Alert the local police department and the FBI in your area

If an animal goes home with a bandage, the client should observe the bandage daily and remove it if any of the following are observed except Skin irritation at the edge of the bandage. All bandages should be removed 24 hours after being applied. The bandage is wet. The position of the bandage has shifted.

All bandages should be removed 24 hours after being applied.

Viral diagnostic tests include -Fluorescent antibody test -Electron microscopic visualization -Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay -All of the above

All of the above

When administering a vaccine, to ensure the maximum immunity possible in the patient, it is important you -Follow the timing given by the manufacturer in the written protocol -Use the correct route of administration -Store the vaccines correctly and reconstitute them according to the manufacturer's instructions -All of the above

All of the above

When submitting samples to a diagnostic laboratory virology department, it is important to -Include a thorough case history -Use an approved shipping medium -Take serum samples from readily identifiable animals, now and up to 4 weeks later -All of the above

All of the above

Which are clinical signs of anaphylaxis? -Vomiting -Dyspnea -Incoordination -All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following is used to classify a virus? -Their shape, as seen via electron microscopy -Type of genome it possesses -Presence or lack of an envelope -All of the above

All of the above

Self-retaining tissue forceps with multiple fine intermeshing teeth at the tips are called -Allis -Babcock -Adson -Adson-Brown

Allis

What is a small portable device that can provide ventilator support during cardiopulmonary cerebral resuscitation, providing either room air or 100% oxygen depending on the model?

Ambu bag

What is the definition of an occult heartworm infection? An infection with Dirofilaria immitis microfilariae but no adult heartworms An infection with both Dirofilaria immitis adults and microfilariae An infection with Dirofilaria immitis adults but no microfilariae An infection with Acanthocheilonema spp. adults and microfilariae

An infection with Dirofilaria immitis adults but no microfilariae

A snook hook is typically used during

An ovariohysterectomy

Butorphanol is best described as a/an -Anti-inflammatory -Analgesic -Anesthetic -Diuretic

Analgesic

The drug xylazine is best described as an -Anti-inflammatory -Analgesic and sedative -Antiemetic -Anesthetic

Analgesic and sedative

Opioid drugs are used in anesthetic protocols primarily as -Anesthetics -Analgesics -Anti-inflammatories -Antihistamines

Analgesics

Which one of the following nematodes has an ovoid egg with thin shell and morulated embryo on fecale exam? Toxascuaris leonina Toxocara canis Trichuris vulpis Ancylostoma caninum

Ancylostoma caninum

Which federal government agency is responsible for monitoring and enforcing regulations on the interstate shipment of livestock? Department of the Interior Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service Drug Enforcement Administration Food and Drug Administration

Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service

What drug is approved for the treatment of old dog dementia? Clomipramine Meloxicam Diazepam Anipryl

Anipryl

What drug will not slow the heart rate? -Anticholinergics -Phenothiazine tranquilizers -Alpha 2 agonists -Gas anesthetics

Anticholinergics

The common signs of organophosphate overdose in animals-miosis, salivation, breathing difficulties, vomiting, defecation, and muscle fasciculations are due to the chemical's: Anticholinergic effects Anticholinesterase effects Sympathomimentic effects Beta-receptor effects

Anticholinesterase effects

In a Siamese cat, the ET tube should be removed -As soon as the surgery or technique is completed -Only after the animal is fully conscious and able to maintain a free airway -When the animal is taken off the anesthesia machine -As soon as the animal begins to swallow and cough

As soon as the animal begins to swallow and cough

_______, _______, and ________pass their eggs in dog feces and are commonly diagnosed by fecal flotation techniques. Tapeworms, heartworms, hookworms Dirofilaris spp, Dipetalonema spp, Dipylidium spp. Ascarids, hookworms, whipworms Intestinal threadworms, coccidian, Giardia spp.

Ascarids, hookworms, whipworms

What are the three main rhythms in dogs and cats are

Asystole, pulseless electrical activity, ventricular fibrillation

A sponge count should be done

At the beginning of the surgery and before closure

Some anesthetists routinely bag the patient under inhalation anesthesia once every 5 minutes to help prevent -Apnea -Mydriasis -Hypercapnia -Atelectasis

Atelectasis

Name three drugs found in the crash cart we take to wet labs

Atropine, Lidocaine, Epinephrine

Which drugs can be administered safely via the endotracheal tube?

Atropine, lidocane, epinephrine, naloxone, vasopressin

In rabbits, IV anesthetics should be injected into which of the following veins? -Femoral -Jugular -Auricular -Cephalic

Auricular

Ivermectin, moxidectin, and doramectin are in the _______ class. Avermectin Ivermectin Tetrahydropyrimidines Microfilaricides

Avermectin

101) Which organ is located immediately behind the diaphragm in the carnivore? A) Spleen C) Pancreas B) Liver D) Kidney

B

104) Which animals have a dental pad in place of upper incisors and canines? A) Horse & cow C) Dog & sheep B) Cow & goat D) Cat & horse

B

11) The study of animal behavior is called: A) Homotoxicology C) Mircobiology B) Ethology D) Physiology

B

115) Ovariohysterectomy is the technical term for which procedure? A) Removal of testicles C) Removal of uterus B) Removal of ovaries and uterus D) Removal of fetus

B

118) Having feed available to the animal at all time is called: A) Restricted diet C) Supplemental diet B) Free-choice diet D) Total mixed diet

B

122) Cystocentesis is the sterile collection of: A) Blood C) Abdominal fluid B) Urine D) Cerebrospinal fluid

B

130) When evaluating the integumentary system of Rowdy, a Palomino, the CVA would evaluate all of the following areas EXCEPT: A) Skin and hide C) Hooves B) Mucous membranes D) Hair

B

133) The ultimate responsibility for all activities in the veterinary hospital belongs to the: A) Client B) Veterinarian C) Veterinary technicians D) Patients

B

135) In a medical record the abbreviation SOAP means: A) supply, open, apply, prepare B) subjective, objective, assessment, plan C) submit, observe, ask, prepare D) scrub, open, assess, plan

B

139) The identifying information for every veterinary patient presented for evaluation is called: A) History C) Chief complaint B) Signalment D) Vital signs

B

14) Following a seizure which sign is not a common behavior for an animal: A) Animal appears blind C) Animal is disoriented B) Animal cannot control bowels D) Elevated body temperature

B

140) What blood test evaluates the red blood cell count, the size of the red blood cells, amount of hemoglobin, number of platelets, total while blood cell count and a breakdown of the types of cells present? A) Packed cell volume B) Complete blood cell count C) Chemistry profile D) Serology

B

145) A benefit of rehabilitation for veterinary patients is: A) Loss of all chronic pain C) Weight gain B) Increased mobility D) Loss of all acute pain

B

149) A flotation test to look for internal parasites is conducted on which of the following? A) Urine C) Blood B) Feces D) Saliva

B

15) Ears raised, mouth opened in a relaxed grin, lowered front half of body in a "bowing" posture, and tail wagging is considered to be which type of canine visual communication? A) Aggressive C) Submission B) Play D) Relaxed

B

151) Which disease is caused by a virus? A) Salmonellosis C) Tetanus B) Rabies D) Ringworm

B

16) The feline's first line of defense is: A) Its teeth C) Its tail B) Its claws D) Its hind legs

B

160) Which is referring to the underside of an animal? A) Dorsal B) Ventral C) Cranial C) Anterior

B

163) Indicate the tablets/capsules prescribed for the following order: Rx: Metronidazole tablets 250 mg Sig: 1 tablet, P.O., BID x 10days a. 10 tablets b. 20 tablets c. 30 tablets d. 40 tablets

B

167) A 13-year old M/N domestic short hair (DSH) named Buttons has a bite wound in the right side of the mandible. The owner does not know when the cat got the bite wound because Buttons is an outside cat. He has not been eating or drinking the past few days, is lethargic, and on PE has a T= 103.5>, HR = 180 bpm, and RR = 45 breaths/min. Other than the mandibular wound, he is healthy. He is current on vaccinations. The decision is made to sedate Buttons so that the wound can be clipped, cleaned, and debrided. You must calculate the dose of injectable anesthetic for Buttons, who weighs 12.5 lb. The dosage of Ketamine is 22 mg/kg IM. The concentration listed on the vial of ketamine is 100 mg/ml. The animal's weight in kg is? A) 2.4 kg B) 5.7 kg C) 7.1 kg D) 9.9 kg

B

17) A good rule to follow when restraining animals for veterinary care is: A) Apply the maximum amount of restraint possible to ensure the safety of all involved. B) Apply the minimum effective amount of restraint that will keep the animal and personnel safe. C) Always supply the same amount of restraint: that which is usually tolerated by a member of species being handled. D) Never use ropes when restraining animals

B

176) Fenbendazole (10% suspension) is an antiparasitic drug used in the treatment of whipworms, roundworms, hookworms, and some species of tapeworms. For dogs the dosage is 50 mg/kg po for 3 days. How many mls would you give a dog that weights 50 lbs? A) 9.5 mls B) 11.4 mls C) 12.1 mls D) 14.3 mls

B

179) A comminuted fracture of an animal's bone is where: A) The bone is broken into two pieces, a clean break B) Several fragments of bone are the result of the break C) One bone punctures through the skin as a result of the break D) None of the above

B

182) Which of the following is not a bacterial infection in animals: A) Pneumonia C) Strangles B) Canine Parvovirus D) Anthrax

B

184) Ruger, a 10 month old black Labrador, weighs 25 kilograms. Approximately how many pounds does he weigh? A) 40 pounds C) 60 pounds B) 55 pounds D) 70 pounds

B

187) Six 12oz puppies need deworming medication. If the dose is 1 ml/lb How many milliliters do you dispense? A) 12 C) 6 B) 4.5 D) 3

B

189) You are taking the heart rate of a cat. If you count 10 beats in 5 seconds, What is the rate in beats per minute? A) 50 C) 300 B) 120 D) 220

B

194) Five tonometer readings in mm/Hg are 14, 15, 19, 14, and 18. What is the average? A) 14 C) 18 B) 16 D) 14.5

B

198) The capillary refill time (CRT) for Buddy is 1 second. In the patient chart, the CVA records that the CRT for Buddy is: A) Abnormally low B) Normal C) Abnormally high D) Not enough information to record

B

200) Pericardium is: A) The muscular layer of the heart wall. B) The fibrous sac that encloses the heart. C) A thin layer that lines the surface of the heart. D) A thin layer that lines the inside of the heart.

B

202) An orchiectomy : A) Removal of the ovaries and uterus. B) Removal of the testes. C) An incision into the thorax. D) Removal of a tumor.

B

205) The function of the cecum is to: a. Produce bile. b. Aide in the digestion of fibrous materials. c. Produce insulin. d. None of the above.

B

206) Carbohydrates contain or include: a. Amino Acids b. Simple Sugars c. Lipids d. None of the above

B

207) Which organization governs the use, storage and disposal of controlled substances? A) EPA B) DEA C) OSHA D) None of the above

B

208) Which zoonotic disease is fatal in humans? A) Corona B) Rabies C) Parvovirus D) Scabies

B

21) If a dog is too large for you to lift onto the examination table by yourself, you should: A) Lift him like you would a medium-sized dog B) Get help so two of you can lift him C) Try to get him to jump up on the table D) Lift his front quarters onto the table then lift hindquarters to meet his front quarter

B

210) Which of the following material is not considered a bio-hazardous material? A) Scalpel blade B) Syringe C) Microscope Slide D) Needle

B

211) Which of the following bedding materials is most commonly used in the small animal clinic? A) Pine Shavings B) Newspaper C) Blankets and Towels D) Straw

B

213) Kyra, a 7-year=old, F/S mixed breed dog (107 lb) is presented to the clinic with signs of increases vocalization and urine leaking. She does not appear to be PU/PD (increased urination/increased drinking) or having accidents due to lack of training. She usually leaks urine after she has lain down (her bed is damp). The U/A (urinalysis) is WNL as the PE. Scout radiographs of the urinary bladder are unremarkable. Based on her history and pattern of urine leaking, the vet determines that she might have estrogen responsiveness incontinence. She is prescribed DES (diethylstilbestrol) at a dosage of 1 mg po sid for 3 days, followed by maintenance therapy of 1 mg po per week. DES comes in 1-mg and 5- mg tablets. How many mg does this dog receive for 3 weeks of treatment? A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9

B

216) To prevent inhaling gas when you are monitoring anesthesia, it is best for you to stand : A) Close to the patient's head. B) Away from the patient's head. C) Anywhere in the room. D) Outside of the room.

B

22) You are restraining a Basenji dog for cephalic venipuncture. When the person performing the injection has placed the needle and is ready to inject the drug, he says to you, "Okay". He is most likely asking you to: A) Let go of the dog's foreleg B) Lift the thumb that is occluding the vein C) Talk softly to the dog D) Gently push down on the dog to encourage him to lie down

B

223) The Snap Canine Heartworm Test tests the blood for: A) Adult heartworms B) Antigen produced by female heartworms C) Microfilaria D) Female heartworms only

B

227) The roundworm is often described as looking like: A) Rice B) Spaghetti C) Flakes D) A leech

B

236) Lauren is taking a patient history from Ms. Harper about her horse. Which is the most appropriate question for her to ask? A) "Is your horse drinking a lot of water and eating okay?" B) "How much water is it drinking and how much is it eating?" C) "Is your horse able to exercise daily?" D) "Is you horse drinking more water now than compared to a few months ago?"

B

239) During an exam, Julie must take vital signs from an animal. Which of the following steps is the most correct procedure for her to take the rectal temperature? A) Shake down thermometer, lubricate with petroleum jelly, gently insert and hold for 1 minute, remove and rotate to read. B) Shake down thermometer, lubricate with petroleum jelly, gently insert and hold for 3 minutes, remove and rotate to read. C) Wipe thermometer with alcohol, shake down thermometer, lubricate with petroleum jelly, gently insert and hold for 1 minute, remove and rotate to read. D) Wipe thermometer with alcohol, shake down thermometer, lubricate with petroleum jelly, gently insert and hold for 3 minutes, remove and rotate to read.

B

240) The veterinarian is describing to Spike's owner how he'll be neutered. Neuter is defined as: A) Having resistance to a disease B) The common term for removal of male reproductive organs C) Proteins produced by lymph system D) Swelling and inflammation

B

251) The term that means of, or relating to cattle: A) Feline B) Bovine C) Canine D) Galline

B

257) A veterinary assistant's gross income per year is $27,461.00. After a raise, her gross yearly salary increases to $28,284.83. What is the percentage increase in her raise? A) 1% C) 8% B) 3% D) 25%

B

258) To prepare for disinfection of hard non-porous surfaces against canine parvovirus, mix a solution of Clorox® Regular-Bleach in 2.5 gallons of water at the rate of ¾ cup of bleach per 1 gallon of water. What is the volume of bleach added to the 2.5 gallons of water? A) 30 fl. Oz C) 1 ¾ cups B) 15 fl. Oz D) 1 ½ cups and 2 tbsp

B

263) How many milliliters are in 9 ounces of liquid? A) 2.70 ml C) 900 ml B) 270 ml D) 9000ml

B

27) A thorough nutritional assessment consists of a patient's history and a physical examination including body weight, BCS and hydration status. What does BCS stand for: A) Bovine Condition Sessions C) Bowel Condition System B) Body Condition Scoring D) Brand Clinic Survival

B

272) In preparation for her CVA test, Mary is studying systems of the body. Which of these is NOT included in the circulatory system? A) Heart B) Lymphatics C) Blood Vessels D) Blood

B

274) Luke, a border collie, has a problem in the left side of the heart. What other problem will likely occur? A) Ascites B) Lung congestion C) Nerve Degeneration D) Osteoporosis

B

28) Type of scissors with long handles used for cutting delicate tissue are A) Littauer C) Mayo B) Metzenbaum D) Lister

B

283) James accidentally spilled bleach. In order to know the correct clean up procedure to take, he must check the MSDS. The acronym MSDS stands for: A) Material Safety from Disease Sheet B) Material Safety Data Sheet C) Mechanical Safety Destruction Sheets D) Mechanical Safety Data Sheet

B

295) Which of the following hormones is the most primary hormone produced by the testes? a. Estrogen b. Testosterone c. Progesterone d. Oxytocin

B

298) What is the main difference between the testes of mammals and the testes of poultry? a. Mammals have one testicle. b. The testes of poultry do not descend out of the abdominal cavity. c. Poultry have one testicle. d. The testes of mammals do not descend out of the abdominal cavity.

B

38) Which of the following separates blood? A) Autoclave C) Carmalt B) Centrifuge D) J tube

B

45) When spaying a cat, which instrument would not be used? A) Scalpel handle C) Needle holder B) Standard splint D) Scalpel blade

B

51) Which syringe is most efficient for vaccinating large numbers of animals because of its ability to be adjusted and set to the same dosage? A) Bulb C) Drench B) Automatic D) Paste gun

B

52) Which is not a type of brush? A) Dandy C) Slicker B) Scotch D) Pin

B

59) The temperature that must be reached in an autoclave to destroy microorganisms is: A) 110 degree C C) 170 degree C B) 121 degree C D) 240 degree C

B

6) Which type of aggression rarely poses a risk to veterinary hospital personnel during their workday? A) Pain-induced aggression C) Territorial aggression B) Predatory aggression D) Dominance aggression

B

61) What does a change in color in autoclave tape indicate? A) The surgical instruments in the pack have been adequate sterilized B) During the autoclaving process, steam has reached the tape C) Adequate temperature and pressures have been achieved D) The pack has been exposed to adequate pressures

B

62) What type of scissors is best for removing suture material? A) Bandage C) Mayo dissecting B) Littauer D) Lister bandage

B

67) Radiology P.P.E's are used when using the Autoclave. A) True B) False

B

68) The weight tape is used to figure the carcass weight of an animal. A) True B) False

B

69) Obstetrical chain and handle assists in the birthing process. A) True B) False

B

7) The process by which an animal develops appropriate social behaviors toward members of its own and other species is called: A) Sensitization C) Integration B) Socialization D) Anthropomorphism

B

84) Giving birth is known as: A) Estrous C) Lactation B) Parturition D) Gestation

B

86) In the avian species the ventral wall of the esophagus is greatly expanded to form the: A) Proventriculus C) Gizzard B) Crop D) Duodenum

B

87) The portion of the cardiac muscle that separates the right and left ventricles is called the: A) Sternum C) Coronary sinus B) Septum D) Myometrium

B

88) Which of these is not a division of the small intestine? A) Duodenum C) Ileum B) Ilium D) Jejunum

B

9) Most cats prefer to be petted: A) On the head B) On their scent glands located on their cheeks and in front of their ears C) On the belly D) On the back

B

97) Bile is produced in the: A) Spleen C) Pancreas B) Liver D) Omasum

B

A Caslick operation is performed in horses to: a. Stop roaring b. Prevent uterine infection c. Treat navicular disease d. Clean out the guttural pouches

B

A declaw is also known as an: a. Orchidectomy b. Onychectomy c. Ovariohysterectomy d. Onychotomy

B

Nephrectomy refers to: a. An incision into the kidney b. The removal of a kidney c. The removal of a tumor from the kidney d. The biopsy of a kidney

B

When would it be considered an advantage to use a hand tie versus an instrument? a. When suturing very tough tissue b. When suturing the linea alba or areas that are difficult to reach c. When suturing the skin d. When suturing hollow organs

B

Which of the following suture materials remains in the body for the longest period? a. Polydioxanone b. Prolene c. Chromic catgut d. Vicryl

B

Combined immunodeficiency is a condition in which the animal fails to produce functioning ___. -Plasma cells -B cells -T cells -B and T cells

B and T cells

What cells are chiefly concerned with production and secretion of antibodies? -B lymphocytes -T lymphocytes -Neutrophils -Monocytes

B lymphocytes

Lauren is taking a patient history from Ms. Harper about her horse. Which is the most appropriate question for her to ask? A. "Is your horse drinking a lot of water and eating okay?" B. "How much water is it drinking and how much is it eating?" C. "Is your horse able to exercise daily?" D. "Is your horse drinking more water now than compared to a few months ago?"

B. "How much water is it drinking and how much is it eating it?"

Fenbendazole (10% suspension) is an anti-parasitic drug used in the treatment of whipworms, roundworms, hookworms, and some species of tapeworms. For dogs the dosage is 50 mg/kg po for 3 days. How many mls would you give a dog that weighs 50 lb? A. 9.5 mls B. 11.4 mls C. 12.1 mls D. 14.3 mls

B. 11.4 mls

You are taking the heart rate of a cat. If you count 10 beats in 5 seconds, what is the rate in beats per minute? A. 50 B. 120 C. 300 D. 220

B. 120 ((10 beats / 5 seconds) x (60 seconds / 1 minute) = 120 beats)

The temperature that must be reached in an autoclave to destroy microorganisms is: A. 110 degrees C B. 121 degrees C C. 170 degrees C D. 240 degrees C

B. 121 degrees C

To prepare for disinfection of hard non-porous surfaces against canine parvovirus, mix a solution of Clorox Regular-Bleach in 2.5 gallons of water at the rate of 3/4 cup of bleach per 1 gallon of water. What is the volume of bleach added to the 2.5 gallons of water? A. 30 fl. oz B. 15 fl. oz C. 1 3/4 cups D. 1 1/2 cups and 2 tbsp

B. 15 fl. oz

Five tonometer readings in mm/Hg are 14, 15, 19, 14, and 18. What is the average? A. 14 B. 16 C. 18 D. 14.5

B. 16 ((15+14+14+19+18)/5 = 16mm/Hg)

Four hundred pounds is how many kilograms? A. 880 B. 182 C. 600 D. 18

B. 182 (400lb/(2.2lb/kg) = 181.8 kg = 182 kg)

The order of 500 mg of amoxicillin, and tablets on hand are 250 mg. How many tablets will be administered? A. 1 tablet B. 2 tablets C. 5 tablets D. 6 tablets

B. 2 tablets

Indicate the tablet/capsules prescribed for the following order: Rx: Metronidazole tablets 250 mg Sig: 1 tablet, P.O., BID x 10 days: A. 10 tablets B. 20 tablets C. 30 tablets D. 40 tablets

B. 20 tablets

How many milliliters are in 9 ounces of liquid? A. 2.70 ml B. 270 ml C. 900 ml D. 9000 ml

B. 270 ml

A vet assistant's gross income per year is $27,461.00. After a raise, her gross yearly salary increases to $28,284.83. What is the percent increase in her raise? A. 1% B. 3% C. 8% D. 25%

B. 3%

Six 12oz puppies need deworming medication. If the dose is 1ml/lb, how many milliliters do you dispense? A. 12 B. 4.5 C. 6 D. 3

B. 4.5 (12oz divided by 160/lb x 1ml/lb x 6 puppies = 4.5 ml)

The doctor's order reads: "Amoxicillin 225 mg, P.O. q12hrs." The bottle from pharmacy is labeled: "250 mg=5 ml" How many milliliters would you give per dose? A. 0.45 ml B. 4.5 ml C. 45 ml D. 450 ml

B. 4.5 ml

Kyra, a 7-year old, F/S mixed breed dog (107 lb) is presented to the clinic with signs of increased vocalization and urine leaking. She does not appear to be PU/PD (increases urination/increased drinking) or having accidents due to lack of training. She usually leaks urine after she has lain down (her bed is damp). The U/A (urinalysis) is WNL as the PE. Scout radiographs of the urinary bladder are unremarkable. Based on her history and pattern of urine leaking, the vet determines that she might have estrogen responsiveness incontinence. She is prescribed DES (diethylstillbestrol) at a dosage of 1 mg po sid for 3 days, followed by maintenance therapy of 1 mg po per week. DES comes in 1-mg and 5-mg tablets. How many mg does this dog receive for 3 weeks of treatment? A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9

B. 5

A 13-year old M/N domestic shorthair (DSH) named Buttons has a bite wound in the right side of the mandible. The owner does not know where the cat got the bite wound because Buttons is an outdoor cat. He has not been eating or drinking the past few days, is lethargic, and on PE has a T=103.5>, HR=180 bpm, and RR=45 breaths/min. Other than the mandibular wound, he is healthy. He is current on vaccinations. The decision is made to sedate Buttons so that the wound can be clipped, cleaned, and debrided. You must calculate the dose of injectable anesthetic for Buttons, who weighs 12.5 lb. The dosage of Ketamine is 22 mg/kg IM. The concentration listed on the vial of Ketamine is 100 mg/ml. The animal's weight in kg is? A. 2.4 kg B. 5.7 kg C. 7.1 kg D. 9.9 kg

B. 5.7 kg

The function of the cecum is to: A. Produce bile B. Aide in the digestion of fibrous materials C. Produce insulin D. None of the above

B. Aide in the digestion of fibrous materials

If an animal goes home with a bandage, the client should observe the bandage daily and remove it if any of the following are observed, except: a. Skin irritation at the edge of the bandage b. All bandages should be removed 24 hours after being applied c. The bandage is wet d. The position of the bandage has shifted

B. All bandages should be removed 24 hours after being applied

Following a seizure which sign is not a common behavior for an animal: A. Animal appears bling B. Animal cannot control bowels C. Animal is disoriented D. Elevated body temperature

B. Animal cannot control bowels

The Snap Canine Heartworm Test tests the blood for: A. Adult heartworms B. Antigen produced by female heartworms C. Microfilaria D. Female heartworms only

B. Antigen produced by female heartworms

A good rule to follow when restraining animals for veterinary care is: A. Apply the maximum amount of restraint possible to ensure the safety of all involved B. Apply the minimum effective amount of restraint that will keep the animal and personal safe C. Always supply the same amount of restraint: that which is usually tolerated by a member of species being handled D. Never use ropes when restraining animals

B. Apply the minimum effective amount of restraint that will keep the animal and personnel safe

Which syringe is most efficient for vaccinating large numbers of animals because of its ability to be adjusted and set to the same dosage? A. Bulb B. Automatic C. Drench D. Paste gun

B. Automatic

To prevent inhaling gas when you are monitoring anesthesia, it is best for you to stand: A. Close to the patient's head B. Away from the patient's head C. Anywhere in the room D. Outside

B. Away from the patient's head

A thorough nutritional assessment consists of a patients history and a physical examination including body weight, BCS and hydration status. What does BCS stand for? A. Bovine Condition Sessions B. Body Condition Score C. Bowel Condition System D. Brand Clinic Survival

B. Body Condition Scoring

The term of, or relating to cattle: A. Feline B. Bovine C. Canine D. Galline

B. Bovine

Which of the following separates blood? A. Autoclave B. Centrifuge C. Carmalt D. J tube

B. Centrifuge

What blood test evaluates the red blood cell count, the size of the red blood cells, amount of hemoglobin, number of platelets, total white blood cell count and a breakdown of types of cells present? A. Packed cell volume B. Complete blood cell count C. Chemistry profile D. Serology

B. Complete blood cell count

If during surgery you notice an item at the edge of a sterile field, you should: a. Ask others to find out whether it was contaminated b. Consider it unsterile if you are not absolutely certain c. Consider it sterile d. Move it further into the sterile field

B. Consider it unsterile if you are not absolutely certain

Which animals have a dental pad in place of upper incisors and canines? A. Horse & cow B. Cow & goat C. Dog & sheep D. Cat & horse

B. Cow & goat

In the avian species the ventral wall of the esophagus is greatly expanded to form the: A. Proventriculus B. Crop C. Gizzard D. Duodenum

B. Crop

Which organization govern the use, storage and disposal of controlled substances? A. EPA B. DEA C. OSHA D. None of the above

B. DEA

When a patient is having an ovariohysterectomy performed, the patient is placed in _______ recumbency. A. Lateral B. Dorsal C. Ventral D. Sternal

B. Dorsal

What does a change in color in autoclave tape indicate? A. The surgical instruments in the pack have been adequate sterilized B. During the autoclave process steam has reached the tape C. Adequate temperature and pressure have been achieved D. The package has been exposed to adequate pressure

B. During the autoclave process steam has reached the tape

The study of animal behavior is called: A. Homotoxicology B. Ethology C. Microbiology D. Physiology

B. Ethology

Obstetrical chain and handle assist in the birthing process. A. True B. False

B. False

Radiology P.P.E's are used when using the autoclave. A. True B. Flase

B. False

The weight tape is used to figure the carcass weight of an animal. A. True B. False

B. False

A flotation test to look for internal parasites is conducted on which of the following? A. Urine B. Feces C. Blood D. Saliva

B. Feces

When feeding the patient though a gastrostomy tube, the technician should: a. Rapidly inject the fluids and food b. Flush the tube with water c. Flush the tube with air d. Feed a full day's caloric requirement immediately after placement

B. Flush the tube with water

Clipper burn can cause all of the following adverse effects except: a. Excessive licking of the area b. Follicular damage preventing hair regrowth c. Inhibition of wound healing d. Promotion of bacteria growth

B. Follicular damage preventing hair regrowth

Having feed available to the animal at all times is called: A. Restricted diet B. Free-choice diet C. Supplement diet D. Total mixed diet

B. Free choice diet

If the dog is too large for you to lift on to the examination table by yourself, you should: A. Lift him like you would a medium-sized dog B. Get help so two of you can lift him C. Try to get him to jump on the table D. Lift his front quarters onto the table and lift hind quarters to meet his front quarters

B. Get help so two of you can lift him

A patient is to be prepared for a femoral head ostectomy. What part of the body is prepped? a. Top of the head b. Hip c. Shoulder d. Lumbar spine

B. Hip

Which of these is not a division of the small intestine? A. Duodenum B. Ilium C. Ileum D. Jejunum

B. Ilium

A benefit of rehabilitation for veterinary patients is: A. Loss of all chronic pain B. Increased mobility C. Weight gain D. Loss of all acute pain

B. Increased mobility

The feline's first line of defense is: A. Its teeth B. Its claws C. Its tail D. Its hind legs

B. Its claws

This tool is used to help place an endotracheal tube: A. Gag mouth speculum B. Laryngoscope C. Ambubag D. Cannula

B. Laryngoscope

You are restraining a Basenji dog for cephalic venipuncture. When the person performing the injection has placed the needle and is ready to inject the drug, he says to you, "Okay." His is most likely asking you to: A. Let go of the dogs foreleg B. Lift the thumb that is occulating the vein C. Talk softly to the dog D. Gently push down on the dog to encourage him to lie down

B. Lift the thumb that is occulating the vein

What type of scissors is best for removing suture material? A. Bandage B. Littauer C. Mayo dissecting D. Lister bandage

B. Littauer

Which organ is located immediately behind the diaphragm in the carnivore? A. Spleen B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Kidney

B. Liver

Luke, a border collie, has a problem in the left side of the heart. What other problem will likely occur? A. Ascites B. Lung congestion C. Nerve Degeneration D. Osteoporosis

B. Lung congestion

In preparation for her CVA test, Mary is studying systems of the body. Which of these is NOT included in the circulatory system? A. Heart B. Lymphatics C. Blood vessels D. Blood

B. Lymphatics

James accidentally spilled bleach. In order to know the correct clean up procedure to take, he must check the MSDS. The acronym MSDS stands for: A. Material Safety from Disease Sheet B. Material Safety Data Sheet C. Mechanical Safety Destruction Sheets D. Mechanical Safety Data Sheet

B. Material Safety Data Sheet

Type of scissors with long handles used for cutting delicate tissue are: A. Littauer B. Metzenbaum C. Mayo D. Lister

B. Metzenbaum

When evaluating the integumentary system of Rowdy, a Palomino, the CVA would evaluate all of the following areas except: A. Skin and hide B. Mucous membranes C. Hooves D. Hair

B. Mucous membranes

Which of the following bedding material is most commonly used in the small animal clinic? A. Pine shavings B. Newspaper C. Blankets and towels D. Straw

B. Newspaper

The capillary refill time (CRT) for Buddy is 1 second. In the the patient chart, the CVA records that the CRT for Buddy is: A. Abnormally low B. Normal C. Abnormally high D. Not enough information to record

B. Normal

Most cats prefer to be petted: A. On the head B. On their scent glands located on their cheeks and in front of their ears C. On the belly D. On the back

B. On their scent glands located on their cheeks and in front of their ears

Whipworm eggs look like a/an _____ under a microscope A. Circle B. Oval C. Rectangle D. Cone

B. Oval

Giving birth is known as: A. Estrous B. Parturition C. Lactation D. Gestation

B. Parturition

Ears raised, mouth opened in a relaxed grin, lowered front half of body in a "bowing" posture, and tail wagging is considered to be which type of canine visual communication? A. Aggressive B. Play C. Submissive D. Relaxed

B. Play

Which disease is caused by a virus? A. Salmonellosis B. Rabies C. Tetanus D. Ringworm

B. Rabies

Which zoonotic disease is fetal in humans? A. Corona B. Rabies C. Parvovirus D. Sabies

B. Rabies

Ovariohysterectomy is the technical term for which procedure? A. Removal of testicles B. Removal of ovaries and uterus C. Removal of uterus D. Removal of fetus

B. Removal of ovaries and uterus

An orchiectomy is: A. Removal of the ovaries and uterus B. Removal of the testes C. An incision into the thorax D. Removal of a tumor

B. Removal of the testes

Which is not a type of brush? A. Dandy B. Scotch C. Slicker D. Pin

B. Scotch

A patient to be prepared for an orchidectomy. What part of the body is prepped? a. Ventral abdomen b. Scrotal/prescrotal area c. Paw d. Ear

B. Scrotal/prescrotal area

When a cat is presented for castration, and both testicles are descended, the veterinary technician will prepare the surgical site. In which area is the incision most commonly made? a. Flank b. Scrotum c. Prescrotal prepuce d. Midabdomen

B. Scrotum

The portion of the cardiac muscle that separates the right and left ventricles is called the: A. Sternum B. Septum C. Coronary sinus D. Myometrium

B. Septum

A comminuted fracture of an animal's bone is where: A. The bone is broken into two pieces, a clean break B. Several fragments of bone are the result of the break C. One bone punctures through the skin as a result of the break D. None of the above

B. Several fragments of the bone are a result of the break

During an exam, Julie must take vital signs from an animal. Which of the following steps is the most correct procedure for her to take the rectal temperature? A. Shake down thermometer, lubricate with petroleum jelly, gently insert and hold for 1 minute, remove and rotate to read B. Shake down thermometer, lubricate with petroleum jelly, gently insert and hold for 3 minutes, remove and rotate to read C. Wipe thermometer with alcohol, shake down thermometer, lubricate with petroleum jelly, gently insert and hold for 1 minute, remove and rotate to read D. Wipe thermometer with alcohol, shake down thermometer, lubricate with petroleum jelly, gently insert and hold for 3 minutes, remove and rotate to read

B. Shake down thermometer, lubricate with petroleum jelly, gently insert and hold for 3 minutes, remove and rotate to read

Carbohydrates contain or include: A. Amino acids B. Simple sugars C. Lipids D. None of the above

B. Simple sugars

The process by which an animal develops appropriate social behaviors toward members of its own and other species is called: A. Sensitization B. Socialization C. Integration D. Anthropomorphis

B. Socialization

The roundworm is often described a looking like: A. Rice B. Spaghetti C. Flakes D. A leech

B. Spaghetti

When spaying a cat which instrument would not be used? A. Scalpel handle B. Standard splint C. Needle holder D. Scalpel blade

B. Standard splint

In a medical record the abbreviation SOAP means: A. Supply, open, apply, prepare B. Subjective, objective, assessment, plan C. Submit, observe, ask, prepare D. Scrub, open, assess, plan

B. Subjective, objective, assessment, plan

Which of the following material is not considered a biohazardous material? A. Scalpel blade B. Syringe C. Microscope slide D. Needle

B. Syringe

Which of the following hormones is the most primary hormone produced by the testes? A. Estrogen B. Testosterone C. Progesterone D. Oxytocin

B. Testosterone

Which of the following statements regarding pyometra is false? a. The bitch that goes to surgery will have the ovaries and uterus removed b. The bitch that goes to surgery will have only her uterus removed c. The uterus might have ruptured before surgery begins d. The patient represents a high-risk anesthesia case, because other organs in the body might be compromised

B. The bitch that goes to surgery will have only her uterus removed

The vet is describing to Spike's owner how he'll be neutered. Neuter is defined as: A. Having resistance to a disease B. The common term for removal of male reproductive organs C. Proteins produced by lymph system D. Swelling and inflammation

B. The common term for removal of male reproductive organs

Pericardium is: A. A muscular layer of the heart wall B. The fibrous sac that encloses the heart C. A thin layer that lines the surface of the heart D. A thin layer that lines the inside of the heart

B. The fibrous sac that encloses the heart

What is the main difference between the testes of mammals and the testes of poultry? A. Mammals have one testicles B. The testes of poultry do not descend out of the abdominal cavity C. Poultry have one testicle D. The testes of mammals do not descend out of the abdominal cabity

B. The testes of poultry do not descend out of the abdominal cavity

Which of the following is not true of an aural hematoma? a. An aural hematoma must be drained b. Trimming back the pinna repairs it c. It is painful and bothersome to the animal d. An aural hematoma may be drained and bandaged by wrapping the head with the ear folded back across the top of the head

B. Trimming back the pinna repairs it

Nebulized is defined as: A. Turned into a liquid B. Turned into a fine mist C. Turned into molecules D. Turned into oxygen

B. Turned into a fine mist

Cystocentesis is the sterile collection of: A. Blood B. Urine C. Abdominal fluid D. Cerebrospinal fluid

B. Urine

Which is referring to the underside of an animal? A. Dorsal B. Ventral C. Cranial D. Anterior

B. Ventral

The ultimate responsibility for all activities in the veterinary hospital belongs to the: A. Client B. Veterinarian C. Vet tech D. Patients

B. Veterinarian

Lyme disease is caused by a: A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Parasite D. Fungus

B. Virus

When passing surgical instruments to the surgeon, the technician should do all of the following except: a. Gently but firmly slap the palm of the surgeon with the instrument b. Pass the instrument in the open position c. Pass the instrument with the handle placed into the surgeon's hand d. Pass the curved instrument so that it is oriented in the surgeon's hand with the concave up

B.Pass the instrument in the open position

The newly hired veterinary assistant is cleaning up after a procedure and returns an opened bottle of propofol to the refrigerator, stating that it can be used the next day on another patient. You explain to her that: Propofol should be stored at room temperature rather than in the refrigerator. The bottles are designed to contain only enough drug for one patient, and there likely will not be enough drug left to anesthetize another patient the next day. Bacteria will readily grow in propofol and will produce endotoxins, so it is unwise to use the remains of an opened bottle. The bottle has been contaminated from the first patient, and there is a possibility that contagious diseases can be transmitted in this way.

Bacteria will readily grow in propofol and will produce endotoxins, so it is unwise to use the remains of an opened bottle.

What is the name of the nematode that raccoons harbor that infects the central nervous system of people? Trichuris sp. Uncinaria sp. Ancylostoma sp. Baylisascaris sp.

Baylisascaris sp.

The digestive system in the bird includes the following anatomical structures, moving from cranial to caudal. Crop, glottis, proventriculus, gizzard Beak, glottis, esophagus, proventriculus, ventriculus Crop, ventriculus, gizzard Beak, glottis, esophagus, crop, gizzard

Beak, glottis, esophagus, proventriculus, ventriculus

When should used sponges be counted? After termination of surgery Before the incision is closed Before extubation Before the last skin suture is placed

Before the incision is closed

Complete the following statement: "Viruses are spread between contacts most effectively" -During the acute stages of the disease -Before the onset of clinical signs and for a very short time afterword -At the beginning of convalescence -None of the above

Before the onset of clinical signs and for a very short time afterword

The etiologic agent of Lyme disease is Bordetella bronchiseptica Borrelia burdorferi Coronavirus Lentivirus

Borrelia burdorferi

Which of the following choices is a common cause of the Cheyne-Stokes breathing pattern? (Fast breathing, then slowing down, then no breathing, then cycle starts again.) Hypovolemia and low intracranial pressure Brain damage, animal too deeply anesthetized Light levels (phase 1) of inhalant anesthesia. Severe metabolic acidosis, diabetic ketoacidosis

Brain damage, animal too deeply anesthetized

After preforming CPCR on a dog, the animal develop opisthotonuc with rigidity in a II four limbs. Where is the lesion and what is the prognosis?

Brainstem; grave

Which of the following bovine vaccinations can cause zoonotic disease if accidentally injected? Brucellosis Parainfluenza Listeriosis Clostridiosis

Brucellosis

Psyllium and Metamucil are examples of Saline cathartics Bulk laxatives Lubricants Irritant cathartics

Bulk laxatives

10) Reinforcement or punishment of emotionally induced behavior is referred to as________ conditioning. A) Positive C) Operant B) Negative D) Counter

C

106) The canine foreleg is composed of the following bones A) Tibia, radius, ulna C) Humerus, radius, ulna B) Humerus, radius, fibula D) Femur, tibia, fibula

C

107) The cardiovascular system is composed of: A) Heart and lungs C) Heart and blood vessels B) Lungs and trachea D) Heart, lungs, and kidneys

C

114) What compartment of the ruminant stomach is called the true stomach? A) Rumen C) Omasum B) Reticulum D) Abomasum

C

119) Which organ is most involved in the ellimination of drugs? A) Liver C) Kidney B) Stomach D) Brain

C

120) The long bone in the forelimb of a horse between the scapula and the radius is the: A) Femur C) Humerus B) Ulna D) Tibia

C

121) Guinea pigs cannot synthesize which vitamin? A) A C) C B) B12 D) K

C

123) The most common cause of viral enteritis in the canine is: A) Hepatitis virus C) Parvo virus B) Rabies virus D) Herpes virus

C

126) Which medical term is used for inflammation of the sac around the heart? A) Cephalitis C) Pericarditis B) Arthritis D) Bradycardia

C

127) Strangles is a common and highly contagious bacterial respiratory disease in horses that is caused by: A) Aspergillus fungus C) Streptococcus equi bacterium B) Equine herpes virus D) Equine encephalitis virus

C

128) The correct medical term for neutering a male animal is: A) Orchiotomy C) Orchiectomy B) Ovariohysterectomy D) Cystotomy

C

132) What does the acronym AVMA stand for? A) American Veterinary Medical Associates B) Associates of Veterinary Medical Associations C) American Veterinary Medical Associations D) Association of Veterinary Medical Americans

C

136) In taking history of a veterinary patient, it is important to ask open-ended questions so the client can give you important information. Which question below is an open-ended question? A) Your pet eats a lot, doesn't he? B) Is your pet eating more than normal? C) What are your pet's normal eating habits? D) Your pet ate a lot this morning, didn't he?

C

137) A kennel cough vaccination is recommended before a dog is admitted into a: A) Veterinary hospital C) Boarding kennel B) Nursing home D) Human hospital

C

142) What type of anesthesia requires oxygen? A) Local anesthesia B) Regional anesthesia C) Inhalation anesthesia D) Topical anesthesia

C

144) You are instructed to give a medication SQ. This abbreviation means you give the medication via: A) Intraperitoneal injection C) Subcutaneous injection B) Intramuscular injection D) Intravenous injection

C

146) Which of the following terms is defined as "difficult birth"? A) Dyspnea C) Dystocia B) Dysphagia D) Dysphagia

C

152) Everyone who is in the surgery room should be wearing A) Sterile gloves C) Scrubs B) Sterile gown D) Protective eyewear

C

153) Which of the following needles would most commonly be used for canine vaccinations? A) 16 gauge C) 21 gauge B) 20 gauge D) 25 gauge

C

154) Which of the following acronyms is used when administering medication twice a day? A) TID C) BID B) QID D) SID

C

155) Which of the following cattle breeds would be considered a dairy breed? A) Shorthorn B) Polled Hereford C) Brown Swiss D) Gelbvieh

C

156) Which of the following hazards is associated with radiography? A) Hearing Loss C) Cancer B) Burns or scalds D) None of the above

C

158) Which of the following parasites is considered an endoparasite? a. Fleas C. Hookworms b. Ticks D) Mites

C

159) Dystocia can be defined as: a. The carrying of an embryo or fetus. b. The process of giving birth. c. Abnormal or difficult birth. d. A birth in which the offspring enters the birth canal hind end first.

C

162) Kyra, a 7-year-old, F/S mixed breed dog (107 lb) is presented to the clinic with signs of increases vocalization and urine leaking. She does not appear to be PU/PD (increased urination/increased drinking) or having accidents due to lack of training. She usually leaks urine after she has lain down (her bed is damp). The U/A (urinalysis) is WNL as the PE. Scout radiographs of the urinary bladder are unremarkable. Based on her history and pattern of urine leaking, the vet determines that she might have estrogen responsiveness incontinence. She is prescribed DES (diethylstilbestrol) at a dosage of 1 mg po sid for 3 days, followed by maintenance therapy of 1 mg po per week. DES comes in 1-mg and 5-mg tablets. How many tablets does this dog receive for the first three days? A) 5 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2

C

164) You regularly order six 10-ml vials per month of a drug that has a concentration of 50 mg/ml. Now that same drug is only available in 20-ml vials of 10 mg/ml. How many vials should you order this month? a. 25 vials b. 20 vials c. 15 vials d. 10 vials

C

170) Translate the following into percents: 1:100 A) .05% C) 1% B) .5% D) 1.5%

C

171) 1000 mg = _____ g A) .001 B) .01 C) 1 D) 10

C

177) Which statement is Not true regarding nutritional differences between dogs and cats: A) Cats are true carnivores and dogs are omnivores B) Cats have a higher demand for protein than dogs C) Dogs require higher levels of taurine and arginine than cats in their diet D) A cats requirements for niacin and vitamin A are much higher than a dog

C

183) Sargent, a German Shepherd Dog, needs anti-inflammatory medication due to his surgery for 30 days post op. For the first 20 days he will need 2 pills a day, once in the morning and once at night. For the next 10 days he will take one pill a day. How many pills total will he be taking over the 30 days period? A) 30 pills C) 50 pills B) 40 pills D) 60 pills

C

185) A 75lb dog must be dewormed. If the daily dose of the dewormer is 1 teaspoon per 25lb body weight for 3 days, approximately how much should be given each day? A) 3 tablespoons C) 1 tablespoon B) 5 teaspoons D) 1 teaspoon

C

186) How many tablets would you dispense for a 1-month supply of a drug with a dose Of one and one-half tablets three times daily? A) 500 C) 135 B) 45 D) 90

C

195) A patient requires 3 units of insulin every 12 hours. If the concentration of Insulin is 100 units/ml, how many milliliters should be given? A) 0.3 C) 0.03 B) 30 D) 0.15

C

199) Anemia is: A) The study of parasites. B) A single celled animal. C) A decrease in the number of red blood cells. D) A disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans.

C

20) The first step to take when attempting to handle a large, aggressive dog is: A) Put on heavy leather gloves and grab the scruff of the neck B) Place a muzzle C) Catch the dog by the neck using a snare or a lead rope with a slip knot D) Throw a towel over the dog's head

C

209) Which of the following is not a disease that affects dogs? A) Rabies B) Distemper C) Black Leg D) Hepatitis

C

215) 0.2 L = ________ ml A) 2 B) 20 C) 200 D) 2000

C

228) The veterinarian is explaining to Sally's owner how she will be spayed. Spay is defined as: A) Substance that induces an immune response C) Swelling and inflammation C) The common term for removal of female reproductive organs D) Allergic response

C

23) One of the most effective ways to capture and restrain an agitated cat is: A) Gently grasp both front legs B) Place one hand over its back and one hand under its belly C) Grasp the scruff of the neck D) Talk softly to the cat

C

237) A vet diagnosed Bill's lamb with dyspnea. What does this mean? A) The lamb has normal breathing. B) The lamb has abnormal heart sounds. C) The lamb has difficulty breathing. D) The lamb has bluish discoloring of its skin.

C

242) What type of mite can cause a zoonotic disease? A) Demodectic B) Otodectes C) Sarcoptic D) All of the above

C

249) The term that means of, or relating to dogs: A) Feline B) Bovine C) Canine D) Galline

C

262) The Veterinarian informs you that the patient has a bite wound and will required antibiotics. A common antibiotic Cefrazolin, is administered to help fight infection. Cefazolin is administered at a dosage of 22 mg/kg. The patient weighs 44 pounds. What is the dose of Cefazolin for this animal? A) 0.44 mg C) 440 mg B) 4.4 ml D) 968 mg

C

269) Symptoms of distemper include: A) Lameness B) Swollen joints C) Aggression D) Fever, vomiting, diarrhea, nasal secretions, and seizures

C

270) Rabies is transmitted by: A) Bite from a tick B) Ingestion of fecal material from infected dog C) Contamination of wound by saliva D) Inhalation bacteria

C

275) Mary is also studying the physiology of the body systems. Which of these is a function of the circulatory system? A) Respiration for the body B) Urination of waste products C) Transportation of nutrients, blood cells, gases, etc. D) Protection of the body

C

278) Which of these is NOT part of the process of filtration of the blood through the urinary system? A) Nephrons B) Medulla C) Vena Cava D) Kidney

C

29) Forceps that are 20 cm (9 inches) with longitudinal grooves are: A) Rochester-Pean C) Rochester- Carmalt B) Kelly D) Crile

C

292) Most surgical instruments are manufactured from a. Aluminum b. Copper c. Stainless Steel d. Lead

C

34) Which of the following forceps should not be used to hold edges of the incision open? A) Rat tooth C) Crile B) Brown-Adson D) Allis tissue

C

36) A snook hook is typically used during A) A castration C) A ovariohysterctomy B) A diaphragmatic hernia repair D) Declawing

C

39) The rumen magnet is used in which of the following? A) Dog C) Cow B) Horse D) B & C

C

42) Which statement is true regarding the use of a trocar: A) Trocar is driven through the abdomen into the abomasum of a cow's stomach B) Trocar is a large, sharp probe with a metal sleeve around it and is never plastic C) Once in the Rumen of the animal the probe is removed, leaving the metal sleeve in to drain gas D) None of the above are true statements

C

44) To deliver a copper bolus to an animal, which of the following would be used? A) Stomach pump C) Balling Gun B) Dosing syringe D) Bulb syringe

C

49) Which dehorner cauterizes as it removes the horn? A) Barnes C) Electric B) Tube D) Allis

C

54) Which implement applies a permanent form of identifications? A) Identification Tag applicator C) Tattooing Instruments B) Ear tag pliers D) None of the above

C

56) Which is not an instrument that is used on a horse: A) Dental float C) Fingertip toothbrush B) Chain Twitch D) Gag mouth speculum

C

78) This tool provides artificial ventilation: A) Autoclave C) Ambubag B) Cat bag D) Laryngoscope

C

8) An animal that growls, hisses, bares teeth, air-snaps, and/or lunges is exhibiting______ behavior. A) Dominant C) Threating B) Submissive D) Aggressive

C

82) The SA node is located in the wall of which chamber? A) Left atrium C) Right atrium B) Left ventricle D) Right ventricle

C

83) Smooth muscles can be found in the: A) Heart C) Stomach and reproductive tract B) Pelvic limb D) Diaphragm

C

85) A capillary refill time of 2 seconds would suggest: A) Shock C) A healthy animal B) Anemia D) Dehydration

C

90) The first cervical vertebrae, C1, is referred to as the: A) Axis C) Atlas B) Arch D) Auricle

C

92) The breastbone is referred to as the: A) Septum C) Sternum B) Hyoid D) Tubercle

C

95) Which arteries carry deoxygenated blood? A) Aorta C) Pulmonary arteries B) Coronary arteries D) Vena cava

C

All of the following are important reasons to reduce the amount of dead space with drains in a wound, except: a. To decrease the chance of infection b. To decrease the chance of seroma formation c. To decrease hemostasis d. To minimize necrosis

C

Which of the following agents can be used as both an antiseptic as well as a disinfectant? a. Quaternary ammonium compounds b. Mercurial chloride compounds c. Isopropyl alcohol d. Formaldehyde

C

Which of the following does not cause an increase in respiratory rate (RR) in an anesthetized animal? a. Increased blood CO₂ b. Anesthesia is too light c. Increased PaO₂ d. Hyperthermia

C

Which of the following is not a factor influencing the formation of exuberant granulation tissue? a. Presence of infection b. Amount of missing tissue c. Depth of the wound d. Location of the wound

C

Which of the following suffixes is used to describe the surgical creation of an artificial opening? a. -ectomy b. -otomy c. -ostomy d. -rrhapy

C. -ostomy

A patient requires 3 units of insulin every 12 hours. If the concentration of insulin is 100 units/ml, how many milliliters should be given? A. 0.3 B. 30 C. 0.03 D. 0.15

C. 0.03 ((3 units)/(100 units/ml) = 0.03)

1000 mg= ____g A. .001 B. .01 C. 1 D. 10

C. 1

A 75lb dog must be dewormed. If the daily dose of the dewormer is 1 teaspoon per 25lb body weight for 3 days, approximately how much should be given each day? A. 3 tablespoons B. 5 tablespoons C. 1 tablespoon D. 1 teaspoon

C. 1 tablespoon (3 teaspoons=1 tablespoon)

Translate the following percents: 1:100 A. .05% B. .5% C. 1% D. 1.5%

C. 1%

How many tablets would you dispense for a 1-month supply of a drug with a dose of one and one-half tablets three times daily? A. 500 B. 45 C. 135 D. 190

C. 135

You regularly order six 10-ml vials per month of a drug that has a concentration of 50 mg/ml. Now that same drug is only available in 20-ml vials of 10 mg/ml. How many vials should you order this month? A. 25 vials B. 20 vials C. 15 vials D. 10 vials

C. 15 vials

Which of the following needles would most commonly be used for canine vaccination? A. 16 gauge B. 20 gauge C. 21 gauge D. 25 gauge

C. 21 gauge

Kyra, a 7-year old, F/S mixed breed dog (107 lbs) is presented to the clinic with signs of increased vocalization and urine leaking. She does not appear to be PU/PD (increased urination/increases drinking) or having accidents due to lack of training. She usually leaks urine after she has lain down (her bed is damp). The U/A (urinalysis) is WNL as the PE. Scout radiographs of the urinary bladder are unremarkable. Based on her history and patterns of urine leaking, the vet determines that she might have estrogen responsiveness incontinence. She is prescribed DES (diethylstilbestrol) at a dosage of 1 mg po sid for 3 days, followed by maintenance therapy of 1 mg po per week. DES comes in 1-mg and 5-mg tablets. How many tablets does this dog receive for the first three days? A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. 2

C. 3

When you view a specimen under a compound microscope using the 40x objective and a 10x ocular, the total magnification of the specimen being viewed is: A. 4x B. 40x C. 400x D. 4000x

C. 400x

Sargent, a German Shepherd Dog, needs anti-inflammatory medication due to his surgery for 30 days post op. For the first 20 days he will need 2 pills a day, once in the morning and once at night. For the next 10 days he will take one pill a day. How many pills total will he be taking over the 30 day period? A. 30 pills B. 40 pills C. 50 pills D. 60 pills

C. 50 pills

Anemia is: A. The study of parasites B. A single celled organism C. A decrease in the number of red blood cells D. A disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans

C. A decrease in the number of red blood cells

A capillary refill time of 2 seconds would suggest: A. Shock B. Anemia C. A healthy animal D. Dehydration

C. A healthy animal

Dystocia can be defined as: A. The carrying of an embryo or fetus B. The process of giving birth C. Abnormal or difficult birth D. A birth in which the offspring enters the birth canal hind end first

C. Abnormal or difficult birth

Symptoms of distemper include: A. Lameness B. Swollen Joints C. Aggression D. Fever, vomiting, diarrhea, nasal secretions, and seizures

C. Aggression

This tool provides artificial ventilation: A. Autoclave B. Cat bag C. Ambubag D. Laryngoscope

C. Ambubag

What does the acronym AVMA stand for? A. American Veterinary Medical Associates B. Associates of Veterinary Medical Associations C. American Veterinary Medical Associations D. Association of Veterinary Medical Americans

C. American Veterinary Medical Associations

A snook hook is typically used during: A. Castration B. A diaphragmatic hernia repair C. An ovariohysterectomy D. Declawing

C. An ovariohysterectomy

It is important that the nursing care provided to paralyzed patients focuses on patient comfort. The prevention of decubital ulcers can be accomplished by all of the following procedures, except: a. Frequent turning or repositioning of the patient b. Adequate padding in the cage or bed c. Appropriate analgesic therapy d. Massage

C. Appropriate analgesic therapy

To deliver a copper bolus to an animal which of the following would be used? A. Stomach pump B. Dosing syringe C. Balling gun D. Bulb syringe

C. Balling gun

When assisting the surgeon, the technician should: a. Always cut sutures on top of the knot b. Cut sutures with the middle tip part of the scissors blade c. Blot the surgical site with a gauze square to clear the site of blood d. Attach the scalpel blade to the handle using a pair of hemostats

C. Blot the surgical site with a gauze square to clear the site of blood

A kennel cough vaccination is recommended before a dog is admitted into a: A. Veterinary hospital B. Nursing home C. Boarding kennel D. Humane hospital

C. Boarding kennel

External fixation devices include all of the following, except: a. Cast b. Splint c. Bone plate d. Kirschner-Ehmer (K-E) apparatus

C. Bone plate

Suture materials are: a. Absorbable b. Nonabsorbable only c. Braided or monofilament d. Only supplied with a needle attached

C. Braided or monofilament

Which of the following cattle breeds would be considered a dairy breed? A. Shorthorn B. Polled Hereford C. Brown Swiss D. Gelbvieh

C. Brown Swiss

Guinea pigs cannot synthesize which vitamin? A. A B. B12 C. C D. K

C. C

Which of the following hazards is associated with radiology? A. Hearing loss B. Burns or scars C. Cancer D. None of the above

C. Cancer

The term that means of, or relating to dogs: A. Feline B. Bovine C. Canine D. Galline

C. Canine

The first step to take when attempting to handle a large, aggressive dog is: A. Put on heavy leather gloves and grab the scruff of the neck B. Place a muzzle C. Catch the dog by the neck using a snare or a lead rope with a slip knot D. Throw a towel over the dogs head

C. Catch the dog by the neck using a snare or a lead rope with a slip knot

The hair coat can be most efficiently and gently removed when preparing a dog for spaying by which of the following methods? a. Plucking b. Clipping with sharp scissors c. Clipping against the grain of the hair with electrical clippers using a No. 40 blade d. Clipping against the grain of the hair with electrical clippers using a No. 10 blade

C. Clipping against the grain of the hair with electrical clippers using a No. 40 blade

Rabies is transmitted by: A. Bite from a tick B. Ingestion of fecal material from infected dog C. Contamination of wound by saliva D. Inhabitation bacteria

C. Contamination of wound by saliva

The rumen magnet is used in which of the following? A. Dog B. Horse C. Cow D. B & C

C. Cow

Which of the following forceps should not be used to hold edges of the incision open? A. Rat tooth B. Brown-Adson C. Crile D. Allis Tissue

C. Crile

Which statement is NOT true regarding nutritional differences between cats and dogs: A. Cars are true carnivores and dogs are omnivores B. Cats have higher demand for protein than dogs C. Dogs require higher levels of taurine and arginine than cats in their diet D. A cats requirements for niacin and vitamin A are much higher than a dog

C. Dogs require higher levels of taurine and arginine than cats in their diet

Which of the following terms is defined as "difficult birth"? A. Dyspnea B. Dysphagia C. Dystocia D. Dysphagia

C. Dystocia

Which dehorner cauterizes as it removes the horn? A. Barnes B. Tube C. Electric D. Allis

C. Electric

When a male dog is presented to the hospital for a castration procedure, the technician should do all of the following, except: a. Ensure that the dog is a male b. Ensure that there are two testicles in the scrotum c. Ensure that the dog is not in heat d. Ensure that there is a telephone number to reach the client

C. Ensure that the dog is not in heat

Which is not an instrument that is used on a horse? A. Dental float B. Chain twitch C. Fingertip toothbrush D. Gag mouth speculum

C. Fingertip toothbrush

One of the most effective ways to capture and restrain an agitated cat is: A. Gently grasp both front legs B. Place one hand over its back and one hand under its belly C. Grasp the scruff of the neck D. Talk softly to the cat

C. Grasp the scruff of the neck

The cardiovascular system is composed of: A. Heart and lungs B. Lungs and trachea C. Heart and blood vessels D. Heart, lungs, and kidneys

C. Heart and blood vessels

What is the tool that is not used to trim the hooves of an animal? A. Hoof trimmers B. Hoof nippers C. Hoof rasp D. Hoof knife

C. Hoof rasp

Which of the following parasites is considered an endoparasite? A. Fleas B. Ticks C. Hookworms D. Mites

C. Hookworms

The long bone in the forelimb of a horse between the scapula and the radius is the: A. Femur B. Ulna C. Humerus D. Tibia

C. Humerus

The canine foreleg is composed of the following bones: A. Tibia, radius, ulna B. Humerus, radius, fibula C. Humerus, radius, ulna D. Femur, tibia, fibula

C. Humerus, radius, ulna

What type of anesthesia requires oxygen? A. Local anesthesia B. Regional anesthesia C. Inhalation anesthesia D. Topical anesthesia

C. Inhalation anesthesia

Which statement regarding first-intention wound healing is false? a. It occurs without infection b. It occurs when the skin edges are held together in apposition c. It usually has some degree of suppuration d. It occurs with minimal scar formation

C. It usually has some degree of suppuration

Which organ is most involved in the elimination of drugs? A. Liver B. Stomach C. Kidney D. Brain

C. Kidney

Which statement is true regarding the use of a trocar: A. Trocar is driven through the abdomen into the abomasum of the cow's stomach B. Trocar is a large sharp probe with a metal sleeve around it and is never plastic C. Once in the rumen of the animal the probe is removed leaving the metal sleeve into drain gas D. None of the above statements

C. Once in the rumen of the animal the probe is removed leaving the metal sleeve in to drain gas

Surgical procedures of the eye and adnexal structures include all of the following, except: a. Entropion repair b. Keratectomy c. Onychectomy d. Enucleation

C. Onychectomy

Reinforcement or punishment of emotionally induced behavior is referred to as ____ conditioning. A. Positive B. Negative C. Operant D. Counter

C. Operant

The correct medical term for neutering a male animal is: A. Orchiltomy B. Ovariohysterectomy C. Orchiectomy D. Cystotimy

C. Orchiectomy

The most common cause of viral enteritis in the canine is: A. Hepatitis virus B. Rabies virus C. Parvo virus D. Herpes virus

C. Parvo virus

Which medical term is used for inflammation of the sac around the heart? A. Cephalitis B. Arthritis C. Pericarditis D. Bradycardia

C. Pericarditis

Surgical instruments should be: a. Lubricated with oil between uses b. Cleaned without water to avoid the possibility of rusting c. Placed on surfaces and never dropped or thrown d. Cleaned with abrasive cleaners

C. Placed on surfaces and never dropped or thrown

When a dog is presented for castration, and both testicles are descended, the veterinary technician will prepare the surgical site. In which area is the incision most commonly made? a. Flank b. Scrotum c. Prescrotal prepuce d. Midabdomen

C. Prescrotal prepuce

Which arteries carry deoxygenated blood? A. Aorta B. Coronary arteries C. Pulmonary arteries D. Vena cava

C. Pulmonary arteries

Preparing a patient's skin for surgery: a. Renders the skin sterile b. Does nothing to affect the outcome of the surgery c. Reduces the bacterial flora to a level that can be controlled by the patient's immune system d. Is not necessary if antibiotics are administered

C. Reduces the bacterial flora to a level that can be controlled by the patient's immune system

The SA node is located in the wall of which chamber? A. Left atrium B. Left ventricle C. Right atrium D. Right ventricle

C. Right atrium

Forceps that are 20 cm (9 inches) with longitudinal groves are: A. Rochester-Pean B. Kelly C. Rochester-Carmalt D. Crile

C. Rochester-Carmalt

What type of mite can cause a zoonotic disease? A. Demodectic B. Otodectes C. Sarcoptic D. All of the above

C. Sarcoptic

Everyone who is in the surgery room should be wearing: A. Sterile gloves B. Sterile gown C. Scrubs D. Protective eyeware

C. Scrubs

Postoperative physical therapy can help the patient in each of the following ways, except in: a. Enhancing patient comfort b. Preventing complications from disease c. Slowing the healing process d. Decreasing edema

C. Slowing the healing process

Most surgical instruments are manufactures from: A. Aluminum B. Copper C. Stainless steel D. Lead

C. Stainless steel

The breastbone is referred to as the: A. Septum B. Hyoid C. Sternum D. Tubercle

C. Sternum

Smooth muscles can be found in the: A. Heart B. Pelvic limb C. Stomach and reproductive tract D. Diaphram

C. Stomach and reproductive tract

Strangles is a common and highly contagious bacterial respiratory disease in horses that is caused by: A. Aspergillum fungus B. Equine herpes virus C. Streptococcus equi bacterium D. Equine encephalitis virus

C. Streptococcus equi bacterium

Which implement applies a permanent form of identification? A. ID tag applicator B. Ear tag pliers C. Tattooing instrument D. None of the above

C. Tattooing instument

Which of the following statements regarding cesarean sections is false? a. Bloody vaginal discharge is expected following surgery b. The newborns delivered by cesarean section are under the effects of anesthesia c. The client should observe the surgical incision starting after 1 week, because the newborns don't start moving around the mammary area until then d. The newborn should be immediately removed from the membranous sac that covers its body when it is removed from the uterus

C. The client should observe the surgical incision starting after 1 week, because the newborns don't start moving around he mammary area until then

The vet is explaining to Sally's owner how she will be spayed. Spay is defined as: A. Substance that induces an immune response B. Swelling and inflammation C. The common term for removal of female reproductive organs D. Allergic response

C. The common term for removal of female reproductive organs

All of the following are instructions provided to a client when the patient has had a Penrose drain placed, except: a. An Elizabethan collar may be needed b. Clean the skin around the drain with warm water or dilute chlorhexidine c. The drain will fall out, and there is no need to return for removal d. Carefully watch the animal and prevent it from licking or chewing at the drain

C. The drain will fall out, and there is no need to return for removal

An animal that growls, hisses, bares teeth, air snaps, and/or lunges is exhibiting ____ behavior. A. Dominant B. Submissive C. Threatening D. Aggressive

C. Threatening

Mary is also studying the physiology of the body systems. Which of these is a function of the circulatory system? A. Respiration for the body B. Urination of waste products C. Transportation of nutrients, blood cells, gases, etc. D. Protection of the body

C. Transportation of nutrients, blood cells, gases, etc.

Which of these is NOT part of the process of filtration of the blood through the urinary system? A. Nephrons B. Medulla C. Vena cava D. Kidney

C. Vena Cava

In taking history of a veterinary patient, it is important to ask open-ended questions so the client can give you important information. Which questions below is an open question? A. Your per eats a lot, doesn't he? B. Is your pet eating more than normal? C. What are your pet's normal eating habits? D. Your pet ate a lot this morning, didn't he?

C. What are your pet's normal eating habits?

Tums can be administered to supplement: Calcium Vitamin B Vitamin C Vitamin E

Calcium

Which of the following is not true of a Doppler monitor? -Affordable -Can measure systolic pressure -Can measure direct arterial pressure -Can provide accurate heart rate

Can measure direct arterial pressure

Which choice correctly lists the four core vaccines for dogs? Bordetella bronchiseptica, rabies, canine parainfluenza, canine adenovirus Canine influenza virus, canine distemper, leptospira interrogans, boreelia burgdorferi Canine distemper, canine parvovirus, canine adenovirus, rabies Crotalus atrox, canine hepatitus virus, canine parvovirus, canine influenza

Canine distemper, Canine parvovirus, canine adenovirus, rabies

What is the scientific name for Vetafil? -Polyglycolic acid -Polypropylene -Caprolactrum -Polydioxanone

Caprolactrum

Diazepam is considered to be a good choice in patients when which body system is compromised? -Hepatic -Renal -Cardiovascular -All body systems

Cardiovascular

Which types of syringe tips are needed to attach to 10fr red rubber tubes? Leuer lock eccentric Catheter Curved

Catheter

In the US, xylazine is not approved for use in -Dogs -Cats -Horses -Cattle

Cattle

The animal is to be prepared for a popliteal lymph node biopsy. What part of the body is prepped? Caudal aspect of the stifle Cranial aspect of the elbow Medial aspect of the thigh Cranial to the shoulder

Caudal aspect of the stifle

Routine use of atropine in horses should be avoided, because it may -Cause colic -Slow the heart rate -Cause excitement -Increase salivation

Cause colic

All of the following are methods that reduce waste gas levels except -Scavenging systems -Elimination of breathing circuit leaks -Careful filling of vaporizers to avid spillage -Chamber and mask inductions

Chamber and mask inductions

In rabbits organism causes "walking dandruff" Pasteurella multocida Otodectes cyanotis Cheyletiella yasurgi Francisella tularensis

Chelyetiella yasurgi

Increased carbon dioxide levels are detected by Chemoreceptors in the pulmonary artery Chemoreceptors at the bifurcation of the carotid arteries Chemoreceptors at the bifurcation of the jugular veins Chemoreceptors in the renal veins

Chemoreceptors at the bifurcation of the carotid arteries

Which of the following is a recommended antiseptic for patient preparation? -Chlorhexadine -Hydrogen peroxide -Roccal -Dish detergent

Chlorhexadine

Which anticoagulant is normally used for aPTT and PT tests? Citrate Oxalate Heparin EDTA

Citrate

The hair coat can be most efficiently and gently removed when preparing a dog to be spayed by which of the following methods?

Clipping against the grain of the hair with electrical clippers using a No. 40 blade

the hair coat can be most efficiently and gently removed when preparing a dog to be spayed by what method?

Clipping against the grain of the hair with electrical clippers using a No. 40 blade

Which anesthetic breathing system has the lowest fresh gas flow rate during maintenance of anesthesia? Nonrebreathing Partial rebreathing Closed system Semi-closed system

Closed system

Which of the following is the most correct description of multi-modal analgesia? Treatment with pain medication during surgery and prior to recovery of a patient Use of an antagonist to reverse dangerous side effects of an analgesic medication Combination of different types of analgesic medications and procedures to treat pain. Use of higher doses of pain medication given previously to a patient to achieve adequate analgesia.

Combination of different types of analgesic medications and procedures to treat pain.

If during surgery, you notice an item at the edge of a sterile field, you should -Ask others to determine whether it was contaminated -Consider it unsterile if you are not absolutely sure -Consider it sterile -Move it further into the sterile field

Consider it unsterile if you are not absolutely sure

What is urethrostomy? Removal of blockage from urethra Removal of the urethra Construction of a new opening in the urethra Removal of kidney stones

Construction of a new opening in the urethra

Which of the following species receive no maternal antibody during gestation? -Cat -Cow -Dog -Primate

Cow

Which of the following forceps should not be used to hold the edged of the incision open? -Rat tooth -Brown-Adson -Crile -Allis tissue

Crile

"Strike through" refers to:

Wicking of bacteria through a surgical drape that has become wet, allowing bacteria to contaminate the sterile area

The definition of sterile is?

Without microbes or living spores

Which of the following is described as ataxia and paresis resulting from spondylosis of the vertebrae? Brachycephalic syndrome Horner syndrome Wobbler syndrome Vestibular syndrome

Wobbler syndrome

Tachycardia in an anesthetized patient may be an indication of any of the following except -Hypotension -Pain -Light plane of anesthesia -Xylazine overdose

Xylazine overdose

Which drug is an antagonist of xylazine? -Butorphanol -Detomidine -Yohimbine -Pentazocine

Yohimbine

an abcess is?

a "walled-off" or circumscribed accumulation of pus

A Buhner needle is used in: a. The repair of bovine vaginal and uterine prolapses b. Eye enucleations in dogs c. Intestinal anastomosis surgeries d. Orthopedic surgeries

a.

A disadvantage of tilting the surgical table so the patient's head is lower than it tail is: a. The increased pressure on the diaphragm, which can interfere with respiration b. The tension on the large bowel, which may initiate defecation c. It interferes with visualization of the caudal abdomen d. It can cause a gastric volvulus

a.

A fenestrated drape is: a. Has a window opening in middle through which the surgery is performed b. Is folded in half in accordion style for ease of opening c. Is folded such that the middle of the drape can easily be found d. Is a cloth drape made of three doubled layers of muslin

a.

A good time to clean the surgery room is: a. On the night before surgery to allow airborne dust to settle before surgery b. Immediately before surgery so things can be as clean as possible c. Once a week d. Once a month

a.

A laminectomy is used to treat: a. Intervertebral disk disease b. Fractures of spinous processes c. Hip dysplasia d. Foot disorders in horses

a.

A patient is to be prepared for a cystotomy. What part of the body is prepped? a. Ventral abdomen b. Lumbar spine c. Ventral cervical area d. Top of the head

a.

A proptosed globe: a. Can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal b. Is not considered an emergency c. Can most easily occur in the dolichocephalic breeds, such as collies d. Is commonly a consequence of conjunctivitis

a.

A sponge count should be done: a. At the beginning of the surgery and before closure b. Several times during the surgery c. Before surgery only d. Before closure only

a.

A surgical scrub with residual antibacterial activity is important because: a. Bacteria below the superficial dermal area are constantly rising to the surface b. It makes it unnecessary to worry about touching a scrubbed area with an ungloved hand c. It makes it unnecessary to be as fastidious in the scrubbing technique d. It makes it unnecessary to worry about prepping the area with alcohol, in addition to the surgical scrub

a.

Absorbable gelatin sponges: a. Are typically soaked or sutured into a bleeding site b. Should never be left in the body after surgery c. Are radiopaque d. Are not available for veterinary surgery

a.

All of the following statements are true regarding gastrointestinal (GI) surgery, except: a. It is absolutely essential that all patients fast before GI surgery. The GI tract must be empty before surgery b. At no point is the GI tract sterile; therefore it is important to guard against contamination c. Irrigation of the peritoneal cavity with a sterile isotonic solution after GI surgery helps reduce the number of microorganisms that remain free in the peritoneum following the procedure d. The surgical assistant must be alert to the possibility of intestinal contents contaminating the abdominal cavity and must help the surgeon prevent this from happening.

a.

All of the following statements regarding cesarean sections are true, except: a. After the newborns are removed, the mother is out of danger, and most of the technician's attention should be on the newborns b. A cesarean section is also know as a hysterotomy c. For some breeds of dogs, such as the English bulldog, it is expected that a cesarean section will need to be performed d. Wait to place the mother with the newborns until after she has adequately recovered from anesthesia

a.

All of the following statements regarding chlorhexidine gluconate surgical scrub are true except: a. Tends to stain the skin and hair coat b. Is effective against the Pseudomonas species c. Is marketed as Nolvasan d. Should be rinsed with alcohol

a.

An accumulation of purulent discharge within the uterus is called: a. Pyometritis b. Mastitis c. Peritonitis d. Vaginitis

a.

An advantage of the braided suture over the monofilament is: a. Knot security b. Tensile strength c. It does not hide bacteria in contaminated wounds d. Tissue reactivity

a.

An example of an elective procedure is: a. Ovariohysterectomy b. Nephrotomy c. Exploratory laparotomy d. Splenectomy

a.

An example of an inverting suture pattern is the: a. Purse-string b. Simple interrupted c. Interrupted horizontal mattress d. Simple continuous

a.

An incision into the bladder is known as a: a. Cystotomy b. Cystectomy c. Cystocentesis d. Cystostomy

a.

An ovariohysterectomy might be performed for all of the following reasons except: a. Prevention of prostate cancer b. Prevention of pyometra c. Sterilization of the animal d. Prevention of estrus

a.

Assuming 15 psi, the minimum conditions that must be met to ensure that a pack has been adequately sterilized by autoclaving are: a. 121 C for 15 minutes b. 131 F for 15 minutes c. 121 C for 25 minutes d. 131 F for 30 minutes

a.

Assuming that good aseptic technique is being followed, the most common source of contamination in a surgical wound is: a. The patient's skin or internal organs b. Your own breath c. Dust falling from the ceiling d. Dust from the floor

a.

Chromic catgut is produced by exposure to basic chromium salts. How does this process affect it? a. Increases intermolecular bonding b. Decreases it's strength c. Increases tissue reaction to it d. Decreases absorption time

a.

Cleaning instruments before sterilization: a. Must be performed carefully by hand b. Is done only if there is time c. Can be done exclusively with ultrasonic cleaners d. Is not necessary if proper sterilization practices are followed

a.

Clear fluid removed from thoracic cavity is known as: a. Pleural effusion b. Pulmonary edema c. Ascites d. Phothorax

a.

Cryptorchidectomy is performed on male dogs: a. When one or both testicles have not descended into the scrotal sac b. When no other treatment for cryptosporidiosis is available c. And is similar to the vasectomy procedure performed in people d. When complications from routine castration arise

a.

During a cystotomy, the doctor requests a suture to close the bladder. Which suture is the most appropriate? a. Monofilament, absorbable with a taper point b. Monofilament, non absorbable with a taper point c. Multifilament, absorbable with cutting point d. Multifilament, non absorbable with a taper point

a.

During a surgical procedure, which of the following does not have to be sterile to maintain aseptic technique? a. Mask b. Drapes c. Instruments d. Gloves

a.

Emasculators are used: a. In large animal castrations b. During surgical ovariectomies in heifers and mares c. During enucleations in large breed dogs d. To remove dewclaws in dogs

a.

Exteriorizing a body part or organ during surgery: a. Is a routine practice when the part or organ contains contaminants b. Is very hazardous to the patient and is not routinely done c. Precludes the need for lavaging d. Is done only if that part or organ is to be resected (surgically removed)

a.

Fracture apposition reduction refers to: a. Placing bones back in their normal positions b. Keeping bones still until healing has occurred c. Removing small fragments from around the fracture d. Placing pins through the marrow cavity

a.

Healing of a properly sutured surgical wound is most appropriately termed: a. First-intention healing b. Granulation c. Second-intention healing d. Third-intention healing

a.

How should one handle a ventral midline surgical wound dehiscence of the muscle, subcutaneous tissue, and skin layers? a. As an emergency b. It would be for cosmetic purposes only, so surgery could be scheduled c. As of minor significance d. As serious but not an an emergency

a.

If a fracture is found on the proximal part of the tibia, it is: a. Distal to the femur b. Proximal to the femur c. In the middle of the bone d. Distal to the metatarsals

a.

In general, the difference between a disinfectant and an antiseptic is: a. Disinfectants are agents used on inanimate objects, and antiseptic agents are used on living tissue b. Disinfectants are used on living tissues and antiseptics are used on inanimate objects c. Disinfectants are bacteriostatic, and antiseptics are bactericidal d. Disinfectants kill microbes, whereas antiseptics inhibit their growth only

a.

In terms of surgical contamination, endogenous organisms are those that: a. Originate from the patient's own body b. Come from the external surgical environment c. Rarely cause any problem in surgical wounds d. Come from the surgeon

a.

Keeping tissues moist during a surgical procedure: a. Is important, because dry tissues are less resistant to bacterial infection b. Is undesirable, because wet tissue is an ideal medium for bacterial regeneration c. Is of little value d. Should be accomplished with 70% isopropyl alcohol

a.

Moist wound healing: a. Enhances wound healing b. Slows wound healing c. Has no effect on healing d. Increases the bacterial contamination of the wound

a.

Nonscrubbed surgical personnel may properly touch anything that is: a. Contaminated b. Inside the patient's body c. Inside the sterile zone d. Part of a sterile field

a.

Overinflation or under inflation of the endotracheal tube cuff can result in all of the following except: a. Prevention of fluid aspiration into the lungs b. Pressure necrosis of the cells lining the trachea c. Inability to keep the patient under anesthesia with the expected concentration of gas anesthetic d. Increased levels of waste gas anesthesia in the surgical room

a.

Place the following surgeries in the order in which they should be scheduled, from first to last: a. Cruciate repair, OHE, compound fracture repair, intestinal resection b. Intestinal resection, cruciate repair, compound fracture repair, OHE c. Compound fracture repair, cruciate repair, OHE, intestinal resection d. Cruciate repair, compound fracture repair, OHE, intestinal resection

a.

Proper splint and bandage care includes all of the following, except: a. Washing the splint or bandage daily b. Preventing the bandage or splint from becoming wet c. Inspecting the bandage or splint daily for any change, such as swelling above or below the splint or bandage d. Inspecting the bandage or splint for any shifting or change in position on the limb

a.

Regarding disinfectants, to what does "contact time" refer? a. The time required for disinfectants to be in contact with microorganisms to achieve the intended effect b. The time of day when the manufacturer can be contacted for assistance c. The time required for a microorganism to develop resistance to a disinfectant d. The latent phase of microorganisms, providing the disinfectant "a window of opportunity" to kill the microorganism

a.

Scrotal swelling after orchidectomy is most likely caused by a : a. Hematoma b. Seroma c. Hemangioma d. Lipoma

a.

Staples and other metal clips can: a. Resist infection b. Cause little scaring c. Be removed easily using scissors d. Be applied by hand without any special application device

a.

Sterilization is the process of killing microorganisms by physical or chemical means. What is the quickest and most reliable form of sterilization? a. Steam under pressure b. Gas c. Dry heat d. Radiation

a.

The chemical or mechanical destruction of pathogens is known as: a. Disinfection b. Decontamination c. Barrier d. Aseptic technique

a.

The definition of sterile is: a. Without microbes or living spores b. Without pathogenic microbes c. With the presence of commensal organisms only d. Without bacteria or their byproducts

a.

The effectiveness of a surgical scrub of the hands and arms with a bactericidal soap depends on the: a. Combination of contact with the skin b. Time the soap is in contact with the skin c. Scrubbing action of the brush d. Temperature of the water

a.

The effectiveness of a surgical scrub on the hands and arms with an antibacterial soap depends on the: a. Combination of contact time and scrubbing action b. Amount of soap used throughout the scrub c. Scrubbing action of the brush d. Temperature of the water

a.

The healing potential for a fractured bone that is properly aligned and kept immobile is: a. Excellant b. Fair c. Good d. Poor

a.

The instrument suitable for cutting a paper drape is: a. Operating scissors b. Metzenbaum scissors c. Scalpel blade d. Wire scissors

a.

The patient is to be prepared for a popliteal lymph node biopsy. What part of the body is prepped? a. Caudal aspect of the stifle b. Cranial aspect of the elbow c. Medial aspect of the thigh d. Area cranial to the shoulder

a.

The suffix -ectomy refers to: a. Surgical removal b. Reduction c. Drainage d. Incision into

a.

The term that means surgically opening the abdominal cavity is: a. Laparotomy b. Pleurotomy c. Thoracotomy d. Cystotomy

a.

There is more concern about pulling out the endotracheal tube too soon in the _________, versus an English mastiff: a. English bulldog b. German Shepherd c. Jack Russell terrier d. Greyhound

a.

To maintain sterility throughout the surgical procedure, the method by which contamination with microorganisms is prevented is known as: a. Sterile technique b. Sterile field c. Sterility d. Terminal sterilization

a.

Ultrasonic cleaners are used for: a. Removing small particles of blood and tissue from instruments b. Removing rust from instruments c. Disinfecting instruments d. Lubricating instruments

a.

What agent, method, or device is most appropriate for sterilizing a needle holder to be used in a surgical procedure? a. Autoclave b. Dry heat c. Ethylene oxide gas d. Liquid chemical disinfectant

a.

What characteristic is true of ethylene oxide gas? a. It is flammable b. Exposure to it is not considered a health hazard c. It is noncombustible d. It is nontoxic to tissues

a.

What factor relating to the infection of a surgical wound can an aseptic technique reasonably be expected to influence significantly? a. Number of microorganisms entering the wound b. Pathogenicity of microorganisms entering the wound c. Route of exposure to infectious microorganisms d. Susceptibility of the patient to infection

a.

What factor will not influence how rapidly the body absorbs suture materials? a. Age of the patient b. Presence of infection c. The location of the suture d. The composition of the suture material

a.

What is a Steinmann IM pin? a. An intramedullary pin used in orthopedics b. An intramuscular pin used in orthopedics c. A type of screw used in orthopedics d. A staple used to hold muscle or bone fragments together

a.

What is an important measure that can help prevent myositis during equine surgery? a. Providing proper padding b. Ensuring that the horse does not experience hypothermia c. Not over inflating the endotracheal tube cuff d. Withholding food for 12 hours

a.

What is the correct order of tasks when preparing for routine surgery? a. Premedicate, place IV catheter, clip and prep, move into surgery, final prep b. Place IV catheter, premedicate, clip and prep, move into surgery, final prep c. Premedicate, IV catheter, move into surgery, clip and prep, final prep d. Place IV catheter, premedicate, clip and prep, move into surgery, final prep

a.

What is the primary function of a Balfour? a. Retractof b. Rongeur c. Periosteal elevator d. Thumb forceps

a.

What is the proper term for microorganisms that gain entrance into an incision during a surgical procedure? a. Contamination b. Debridement c. Infection d. Septicemia

a.

What is the proper term for trimming the edges of a jagged tear before suturing? a. Debridement b. Decoupage c. Curettage d. Cauterization

a.

What is the size of a scalpel blade used for making an abdominal skin incision in a dog? a. No. 10 b. No. 11 c. No. 12 d. No. 15

a.

What size scalpel blade fits a No. 3 scalpel handle? a. No. 10 b. No. 20 c. No. 21 d. No. 30

a.

What specifically does the strip on the autoclave tape indicate when it turns dark? a. The correct temperature has been reached b. The correct pressure has been reached c. The correct temperature for the proper amount of time has been reached d. The correct temperature, pressure, and time have been reached.

a.

What suture pattern would not be used to close skin? a. Cushing b. Horizontal mattress c. Simple interrupted d. Ford interlocking

a.

When is it permissible for non scrubbed surgical personnel to pass between scrubbed personnel and the patient during surgery? a. Never b. When opening suture material c. When adjusting the anesthesia machine d. When adjusting the intravenous drip

a.

When opening a double-wrapped gown pack, non scrubbed surgical personnel may touch the: a. Autoclave tape b. Indicator c. Towel d. Gown

a.

Which of the following clinical signs would not normally be seen if a dog were suffering from hemorrhage after an ovariohysterectomy? a. Decreased respiratory rate b. Pale mucous membranes c. Slow recovery from anesthesia d. Slow capillary refill time

a.

Which of the following does not normally need to be sterilized as a part of good aseptic surgical technique? a. Cap b. Drapes c. Gown d. Scrub brush

a.

Which of the following forceps has the best crushing action? a. Rochester-Carmalt b. Adson-Brown c. Ochsner d. Crile

a.

Which of the following instruments is most suitable for the removal of bone to perform spinal surgery? a. Rongeur b. Curette c. Periosteal elevator d. Trephine

a.

Which of the following instruments should be available for use during abdominal exploratory surgery? a. Balfour retractor b. Weitlaner retractor c. Gelpi retractor d. Senn retractor

a.

Which of the following is a needle driver that is also able to cut suture material? a. Olsen-Hegar b. Mayo-Hegar c. Adson-Brown d. Rochester-Pean

a.

Which of the following is a non desirable characteristic of ethylene oxide? a. Carcinogenic b. Teratogenic c. Mutagenic d. Mitogenic

a.

Which of the following is an absorbable suture material? a. Polydioxanone b. Prolene c. Silk d. Cotton

a.

Which of the following is not a sign of hemorrhagic shock in a post surgical in a post surgical patient? a. Deep, slow breathing b. Slow capillary refill c. Tachycardia d. Weakness

a.

Which of the following is not an early sign of wound dehiscence during the first 24 hours after abdominal surgery? a. Body temperature elevation of 1 to 2 degrees b. Serosanguineous discharge from the incision c. Swollen incision d. Very warm incision

a.

Which of the following is not completely removed in an ovariohysterectomy? a. Broad ligament b. Ovaries c. Uterine horns d. Oviducts

a.

Which of the following is not considered a contaminated surgery and would be considered the cleanest? a. Cruciate repair b. Dental extractions c. Intestinal anastomosis d. Gastrotomy

a.

Which of the following is not true about dogs that are spayed before their first estrous cycle? a. The hair coat will change and become easier to manage with less shedding b. The surgery is generally considered easier to perform if the bitch has not been through an estrous cycle c. Mammary cancer is less likely to occur in a bitch that has been spayed before her first estrous cycle d. The uterus and ovaries enlarge after the first estrous cycle. This necessitates a larger abdominal incision when the bitch is spayed

a.

Which of the following is used primarily to determine patient safety as opposed to anesthetic depth? a. Respiratory rate b. Palpebral reflex c. Eye position d. Muscle tone

a.

Which of the following should not be used to help prevent hypothermia in surgical patients? a. Electric heating pad set on low b. Warm-water circulating pad c. Warm rice pads d. Towel placed between the surgery table and patient

a.

Which of the following suffixes is used to describe the removal of an organ? a. -ectomy b. -otomy c. -ostomy d. -rrhapy

a.

Which of the following suffixes is used to describe the surgical fixation? a. -pexy b. -otomy c. -ostomy d. -rrhapy

a.

Which of the following suture materials is most likely to cause stitch granulomas if left in too long? a. Silk b. Cotton c. Nylon d. Prolene

a.

which of the following describes the minimum exposure time and temp to which all parts of an autoclaved surgical pack should be exposed to achieve sterility a. 121c for 15 mins b. 121f for 15mins c. 250c for 20 mins d. 250f for 20 mins

a. 121c for 15 mins

A 20-kg springer spaniel is brought to the clinic because of anorexia and lethargy. Dehydration is estimated at 8%. The maintenance requirements of fluids is 66ml/kg/day. To correct this dog's dehydration, how much fluid should it receive over the first 24 hours? a. 2920 ml b. 1600 ml c. 1320 ml d. 1336 ml

a. 2920 ml

All of the following statements regarding cesarean sections are true, except: a. After the newborns are removed, the mother is out of danger, and most of the technician's attention should be on the newborns b. A cesarean section is also know as a hysterotomy c. For some breeds of dogs, such as the English Bulldog, it is expected that a cesarean section will need to be performed d. Wait to place the mother with the newborns until after she has adequately recovered from anesthesia

a. After the newborns are removed, the mother is out of danger, and most of the technician's attention should be on the newborns

What agent, method, or device is most appropriate for sterilizing a needle holder to be used in a surgical procedure? a. Autoclave b. Dry heat c. Ethylene oxide gas d. Liquid chemical disinfectant

a. Autoclave

Which of the following instruments should be available for use during an abdominal exploratory surgery? a. Balfour retractor b. Weitlaner retractor c. Gelpi retractor d. Senn retractor

a. Balfour retractor

A proptosed globe: a. Can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal b. Is not considered an emergency c. Can most easily occur in dolichocephalic breeds, such as collies d. Is commonly a consequence of conjunctivitis

a. Can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal

The effectiveness of a surgical scrub on the hands and arms with an antibacterial soap depends on the: a. Combination of contact time and scrubbing action b. Amount of soap used throughout the scrub c. Scrubbing action of the brush d. Temperature of the water

a. Combination of contact time and scrubbing action

Place the following surgeries in the order in which they should be scheduled, from first to last: a. Cruciate repair, OHE, compound fracture repair, intestinal resection b. Intestinal resection, cruciate repair, compound fracture repair, OHE c. Compound fracture repaid, cruciate repair, OHE, intestinal resection d. Cruciate repair, compound fracture repair, OHE intestinal resection

a. Cruciate repair, OHE, compound fracture repair, intestinal resection

All of the following statements are true regarding gastrointestinal (GI) surgery, except: a. It is absolutely essential that all patients fast before GI surgery. The GI tract must be empty before surgery b. At no point is the GI tract sterile; therefore, it is important to guard against contamination c. Irrigation of the peritoneal cavity with a sterile isotonic solution after GI surgery helps reduce the number of microorganisms that remain free in the peritoneum following the procedure d. The surgical assistant must be alert to the possibility of intestinal contents contaminating the abdominal cavity and must help the surgeon prevent this from happening

a. It is absolutely essential that all patients fast before GI surgery. The GI tract must be empty before surgery

During a surgical procedure, which of the following does not have to be sterile to maintain aseptic technique? a. Mask b. Drapes c. Instruments d. Gloves

a. Mask

What is the size of a scalpel blade used for making an abdominal skin incision in a dog? a. No. 10 b. No. 11 c. No. 12 d. No. 15

a. No. 10

Overinflation or underinflation of the endotracheal tube cuff can result in all of the following except: a. Prevention of fluid aspiration into the lungs b. Pressure necrosis of the cells lining the trachea c. Inability to keep the patient under anesthesia with the expected concentration of gas anesthetic d. Increased levels of waste gas anesthesia in the surgical room

a. Prevention of fluid aspiration into the lungs

An ovariohysterectomy might be performed for all of the following reason, except: a. Prevention of prostate cancer b. Prevention of pyometra c. Sterilization of the animal d. Prevention of estrus

a. Prevention of prostate cancer

Staples and other metal clips can: a. Resist infection b. Cause little scarring c. Be removed easily using scissors d. Be applied by hand without any special application device

a. Resist infection

Which of the following is not true about dogs that are spayed before their first estrus cycle? a. The hair coat will change and become easier to manage with less shedding b. The surgery is generally considered easier to perform if the bitch has not been through an estrus cycle c. Mammary cancer is less likely to occur in a bitch that has been spayed before her first estrus cycle d. The uterus and ovaries enlarge after the first estrous cycle. This necessitates larger abdominal incision when the bitch is spayed.

a. The hair coat will change and become easier to manage with less shedding

Proper splint and bandage care includes all of the following, except: a. Washing the splint or bandage daily b. Preventing the bandage or splint from becoming wet c. Inspecting the bandage or splint daily for any change, such as swelling above or below the splint or bandage d. Inspecting the bandage or splint for any shifting or change in position of the limb

a. Washing the splint or bandage daily

Signs of impending cardiopulmonary arrest include all of the following except: a. alertness b. dilated pupils c. dilated pupils d. no femoral pulse

a. alertness

Which of the following is not considered a contaminated surgery? a. anal sac removal b. dental extractions c. intestinal anastomosis d. gastrotomy

a. anal sac removal

What drugs will not slow the heart rate? a. anticholinergics b. phenothiazine tranquilizers c. alpha-2 agonists d. gas anesthetics

a. anticholinergics

For which of the following species is ketamine use approved? a. cats b. birds c. horses d. dogs

a. cats

the animal is to be prepared for a popliteal lymph node biopsy, what part of the body is prepped a. caudal aspect of the stifle b. cranial aspect of the elbow c. medial aspect of the thigh d. cranial to the shoulder

a. caudal aspect of the stifle

Which area of the brain is responsible for higher functions such as learning, memory, and interpretation of sensory input (eg vision and pain recognition)? a. cerebrum b. thalamus c. hypothalamus d. reticular formation

a. cerebrum

Use of an indwelling catheter in an artery to monitor blood pressure is termed: a. direct monitoring b. central venous pressure c. indirect monitoring d. peripheral venous pressure

a. direct monitoring

in general, the difference between a disinfectant and an antiseptic is a. disinfectants are agents used on inanimate objects, and antiseptic agents are used on living tissue b. disinfectants are used on living tissue and antiseptic are used on inanimate objects c. disinfectants are bacteriostatic, and antiseptics are bacteriocidal d. disinfectants kill microbes, whereas antiseptics inhibit their growth only

a. disinfectants are agents used on inanimate objects, and antiseptic agents are used on living tissue

Four patients present at the same time with emergency conditions. In which order should the patients be triaged? a. dyspnea, dystocia, proptosis, laceration b. proptosis, dyspnea, dystocia, laceration c. laceration, dystocia, dyspnea, proptosis d. dystocia, proptosis, laceration, dyspnea

a. dyspnea, dystocia, proptosis, laceration

A patient with a head or neck injury should be transported to the hospital in what position? a. head elevated, neck neutral b. head elevated, neck flexed c. head lowered, neck neutral d. head lowered, neck neutral

a. head elevated, neck neutral

Feline eosinophilic granuloma complex involves which 3 conditions? a. indolent ulcers, eosinophilic plaques, and linear granulomas b. indolent ulcers, eosinophilic granulomas, and linear plaques c. linear ulcers, eosinophilic plaques, and linear granulomas d. eosinophilic ulcers, indolent granulomas, and linear plaques

a. indolent ulcers, eosinophilic plaques, and linear granulomas

Which of the following diseases/conditions warrants isolation of the affected animal? a. kennel cough b. diabetes c. renal disease d. lyme disease

a. kennel cough

What clinical sign is associated with hyperthyroidism? a. loss of weight with a normal or increased appetite b. lethargy c. decreased tolerance of cold d. decreased metabolic rate

a. loss of weight with a normal or increased appetite

clear fluid removed from thoracic cavity is known as a. pleural effusion b. pulmonary edema c. ascites d. pyothorax

a. pleural effusion

an accumulation of purulent discharge within the uterus is called a. pyometritis b. mastitis c. peritonitis d. vaginitis

a. pyometritis

An animal that assumes a praying or play bowing position most likely has ___________ pain

abdominal

when dog is presented to the hospital to be spayed the vet tech should prepare the surgical site, in which area is the incision most commonly made?

abdominal ventral midline

When scrubbing, the hands should be held

above the elbows

Which two drugs are contraindicated in animals with a history of seizures? Ketamine, diazepam Morphine, Phenobarbital xylazine, thiopental Acepromazine, ketamine

acepromazine, ketamine

all of the following are benefits to having a peripheral IV catheter placed in advance of surgery EXCEPT for? -admin anesthesia -admin emergency drugs in case of anesthetic complications -admin intravenous fluids -admin enteral nutrition

admin enteral nutrition

all of the following statements regarding cesarean sections are true EXCEPT? -after the newborns are removed, the mother is out of danger and most of the techs attention should be on the newborns -a cesarean section is also known as a hysterectomy -for some breeds of dogs such as the english bulldog it is that a cesarean section will need to be performed -wait to place the mother with the newborns until after she has adequately removed from anesthesia

after the newborns are removed the mother is out of danger and most of the techs attention should be on the newborns

if an animal goes home with a bandage the client should observe the bandage daily and remove it is any of the following are observed EXCEPT: -skin irritation at the edge of the bandage -all bandages should be removed 24 hours after being applied -the bandage is wet -the position of the bandage has shifted

all bandages should be removed 24 hours after being applied

Which of the following operating room personnel should face the sterile field during a procedure

all personnel, both scrubbed in and nonsterile

which of the following statements about electrocautery is false? -if the patient is not properly grounded the surgeon may receive a shock -the intensity of the current passed through the unit is adjustable -small bleeding blood vessels are sealed with a controlled electrical current that burns the bleeding end -all portions of the electrocautery unit can and should be sterilized

all portions of the electrocautery unit can and should be sterilized

All inhalant anesthetic machines should have -a nitrous oxide flowmeter -blood pressure monitors -respiratory monitors -an anesthetic waste gas scavenging system

an anesthetic waste gas scavenging system

The drug maropitant is best categorized as an prokinetic antiemetic antitussive analgesic

antiemetic

It is important that the nursing care provided to paralyzed patients focuses on patient comfort. The prevention of decubital ulcers can be accomplished by all the following procedures except

appropriate analgesic therapy

it is important that the nursing care provided to paralyzed patients focuses on patient comfort, the prevention of deductible ulcers can be accomplished by the following procedures EXCEPT? -frequent turning or repositioning of the patient -adequate padding in the cage or bed -appropriate analgesic therapy -massage

appropriate analgesic therapy

Suture materials

are only supplied with a needle attached

When assisting the surgeon, the tech should

attach the scalpel blade using a pair of hemostats or needle holders to hold the blade

what agent, method or device is most appropriate for sterilizing a needle holder to be used in a surgical procedure?

autoclave

When opening a double-wrapped gown pack, nonscrubbed surgical personnel may touch the

autoclave tape

A Caslick operation is performed in horses to: a. Stop roaring b. Prevent uterine infection c. Treat navicular disease d. Clean out the guttural pouches

b.

A Snook hook is typically used during: a. A castration b. An ovariohysterectomy c. A diaphragmatic hernia repair d. Declawing

b.

A declaw is also known as an: a. Orchidectomy b. Onychectomy c. Ovariohysterectomy d. Onychotomy

b.

A good solution to instill in the conjunctival sac before surgery is: a. 10% chlorhexidine gluconate b. 10% povidone-iodine solution c. 5% isopropyl alcohol d. Dilute soapy water

b.

A patient is to be prepared for an orchidectomy. What part of the body is prepped? a. Ventral abdomen b. Scrotal/prescrotal area c. Paw d. Ear

b.

A patient is to be prepped for a femoral head ostectomy. What part of the body is prepped? a. Top of the head b. Hip c. Shoulder d. Lumbar spine

b.

A safeguard to ensure that a pack is sterilized adequately is: a. Sterilization tape b. Sterilization indicators c. Feeling how hot the instrument is after the sterilization process is complete d. Visually inspecting the pack for microorganisms

b.

A tapered suture needle is: a. Best to use in skin b. The least traumatic and most often used in deep tissue layer c. Not used very often because of its relative inability to penetrate tissue d. Too expensive for routine surgical use

b.

A thoracotomy is an incision into the: a. Abdomen b. Chest c. Skull d. Ear

b.

A timed scrub should last at least: a. 15 minutes b. 5 minutes c. 30 minutes d. 1 minute

b.

A visiting relief veterinarian whom you are assisting in surgery asks you to provide a non absorbable suture that is less than 2-0 in size. Which of the following would meet the request? a. 3-0 chromic gut b. 4-0 silk c. 00 Dermalon nylon d. 0 Polydioxanone

b.

Abscesses are generally allowed to heal open to provide continuous drainage. This type of would healing is considered: a. Primary intention b. Second intention c. Third intention d. Fourth intention

b.

After what amount of time does a synthetic absorbable suture lose its tensile strength? a. 120 days b. 60 days c. 30 days d. 6 months

b.

All of the following are objectives of the surgical hand scrub except: a. To remove gross dirt and oil from the hands b. To sterilize the hands c. To reduce the microorganism count on the hands to as close to zero as possible d. To produce a prolonged depressant effect on the number of microflora on the hands and forearms

b.

All of the following sutures have a degree of capillarity, except: a. Polyglycolic acid b. Silk c. Surgical gut d. Polypropylene

b.

An autoclave: a. Is not a safe method to sterilize metal implants for orthopedic procedures b. Must not be overloaded because this decreases its effectiveness c. Can be used to sterilize syringes for future vaccination clinics d. Is expensive and is therefore not practical for most veterinary clincs

b.

As a part of effective aseptic technique, surgical gowns: a. Are commonly made of cloth, paper, or plastic b. Are folded so that the inside of the gown faces outward c. Are routinely sterilized by ethylene oxide gas d. Do not need to be sterile, only clean

b.

Blood vessels are ligated: a. To remove them completely from the body b. When blood flow needs to be stopped c. With suture material only d. Rarely and in emergency situations only

b.

Characteristics of an ideal suture material include all of the following except: a. Minimal tissue reaction b. Favorability for bacterial growth c. Comfort in working with it d. Economical to use

b.

Clipper burn can cause all of the following adverse effects except: a. Excessive licking of the area b. Follicular damage preventing hair regrowth c. Inhibition of would healing d. Promotion of bacterial growth

b.

During a surgical scrub, you bump you hand on the faucet. What should you do? a. Continue the scrub, giving the bumped area double the number of brush strokes to compensate b. You have contaminated yourself and must start the entire scrub again c. Rescrub the area immediately, rinse the brush, and then continue the scrub d. Continue the scrub and add one more cycle on the bumped hand, because you cannot make your hands truly sterile anyway

b.

During the debridement phase of wound healing, all of the following are components of exudate, except: a. WBC b. RBC c. Dead tissue d. Wound fluid

b.

Electrocautery is: a. An effective way to sterilize skin b. Used to coagulate blood flow from a cut vessel c. Cannot be used for most surgical procedures d. Atraumatic and can be used liberally

b.

Ethyl and isopropyl alcohols: a. Have characteristics that make them ideal for sterilizing instruments b. Have the ability to act both as disinfectants and as antiseptics c. Have excellent residual effects because of rapid evaporation d. Have no place in veterinary surgery

b.

Fenestration refers to: a. Cutting a part exactly in half b. Creating a window in tissue c. The draping procedure d. Folding back the top skin layer

b.

Fracture reduction: a. Involves trimming the areas of bone adjacent to the fracture site b. Involves apposing (pulling together) the fractured bone ends c. Is rarely necessary for good healing d. Can usually be performed without anesthesia

b.

Hepatic refers to: a. Heparin preparations b. Liver c. Blood d. Stomach

b.

How can you help prevent "strike through" during surgery? a. Make sure sharp instruments are protected so they do not puncture the wrap and cause contamination b. Assist in keeping the surgical drapes and gown from becoming wet during surgery c. Make sure the drape is properly placed and opened so the fenestration is not over a contaminated area d. Have reverse cutting needles available so the suture does not pull through the tissue

b.

How long must instruments be aerated for (after ethylene oxide gas sterilization) before they can be used? a. 1 hour b. 15 hours c. 4 days d. 7 days

b.

If a surgical incision is dehiscing, the discharge, if present, is most likely: a. Mucopurulent b. Serosanguineous c. Serous d. Purulent

b.

If an animal goes home with a bandage, the client should observe the bandage daily and remove it if any of the following are observed, except: a. Skin irritation at the edge of the bandage b. All bandages should be removed 24 hours after being applied c. The bandage is wet d. The position of the bandage has shifted

b.

If during surgery you notice an item at the edge of a sterile field, you should: a. Ask others to find out whether it was contaminated. b. Consider it unsterile if you are not absolutely certain. c. Consider it sterile d. Move it further into the sterile field.

b.

In what way is a surgeon's knot different from a square knot? a. A surgeon's knot has one throw on the first pass and two throws on the second pass; a square knot has two throws on each pass b. A surgeon's knot has two throws on the first pass and one throw on the second pass; a square knot has one pass on each throw c. A surgeon's knot has one throw on each pass; a square knot has two throws on each pass d. A surgeon's knot has two throws on the first pass and one throw on the second pass; a square knot has one throw on each pass

b.

Instruments are autoclaved: a. With the ratchets closed to prevent tearing the wrap material b. With the ratchets open to allow steam exposure to the entire surface c. Always in a surgical tray to prevent the instruments from shifting d. Without touching any other instruments to prevent corrosion

b.

Iodophors, such as povidone-iodine scrub: a. Are the ideal surgical preparation solutions b. Have been replaced by newer, more effective scrubbing agents c. Are effective when used with alcohol only d. Have better residual activity than chlorhexidine

b.

Lavaging (flushing) a body cavity with warm, sterile saline after completing a surgical procedure and before closing the incision: a. Is of minimal value in abdominal surgeries b. Decreases the amount of bacteria left behind and warms the patient c. Serves as a medium in which bacteria can multiply, so it should be avoided d. Is necessary only if a break in aseptic technique has occurred

b.

Liquid chemical sterilization is used primarily for: a. Electrical equipment b. Endoscopic equipment c. Orthopedic equipment d. Surgical drapes

b.

Mayo-Hegar scissors are used in all of the following situations except for cutting: a. Sutures b. Delicate tissue c. Paper drapes d. Skin or muscle

b.

Metzenbaum scissors are used for: a. Cutting sutures b. Soft-tissue dissection c. Cutting the linea alba d. Cutting skin

b.

Needle holders that do not have scissors, but have a needle-holding surface, are called: a. Mayo-Hegar b. Olsen-Hegar c. Metzenbaum d. Crile-Wood

b.

Onychetomy: a. Is the procedure used to remove a cat's testicles and spermatic cord b. Is the procedure used to remove a cat's claws and associated phalanges c. Can be performed without anesthesia d. Can be performed on female cats only

b.

Ovariohysterectomy is routinely performed: a. In excitable dogs that need immediate calming b. In young female dogs that the owners wish rendered sterile c. In male dogs with female characteristics d. Exclusively in female dogs who have already had litters of puppies

b.

Pathogenic bacteria is defined as bacteria that: a. Produce toxins b. Cause disease c. Live off and gain nutrients from the host d. Multiply in the host

b.

Peripheral catheters should be monitored frequently and changed every: a. 12 hours b. 24 hours c. 36 hours d. 72 hours

b.

Peritonitis refers to: a. Inflammation of the pericardial space b. Inflammation of the lining of the abdominal cavity c. Inflammation caused by parasite infection d. Inflammation of the perianal area

b.

Rank the following from greatest tensile strength to least: a. 00 gut, 3-0 Vicryl, 1 Chromic gut, 6-0 silk b. 1 Chromic guy, 00 gut, 3-0 Vicryl, 6-0 silk c. 6-0 silk, 3-0 Vicryl, 00 gut, 1 chromic gut d. 6-0 silk, 3-0 Vicryl, 1 chromic gut, 00 gut

b.

Regarding wound healing, it is better to: a. Increase the size of the suture material rather than the number of sutures b. Increase the number of sutures rather than the size of the suture material c. Decrease both the size of the suture material and the number of the sutures d. Increase both the size of the suture material and the number of the sutures

b.

Scrubbed surgical personnel become contaminated if they touch: a. Objects in sterile fields b. Objects outside of the sterile zone c. Properly sterilized surgical instruments d. Freshly exposed tissues of the patient

b.

Surgical masks: a. Prevent unpleasant odors from reaching the surgeon's nose b. Lose their effectiveness when saturated with moisture c. Are used for orthopedic procedures only d. Can be tied loosely so that they are not as confining

b.

Surgical scrubs are applied to the surgically prepared site: a. In any pattern, just so the area is covered thoroughly b. In target fashion, starting with the incision site and spiraling outward toward the edge of the clip area c. Starting with the edges, because they are the dirtiest areas, and working in toward the incision site d. Without subsequent rinsing, because dilution reduces the antimicrobial effect

b.

Talking in the surgery room should be kept to a minimum to: a. Prevent unnecessary injection of bacteria into the operating theater b. Prevent distractions c. Expedite the surgery d. Talking does not need to be kept to a minimum

b.

The distal portion of a long bone is: a. The one closest to the trunk of the body b. The one farthest away from the trunk of the body c. The inner portion of the bone d. The outer layer of the bone

b.

The main function of bactericidal disinfectants is to: a. Slow bacterial proliferation b. Kill bacteria c. Remove organic debris from the site d. Flush bacteria from the site

b.

The most effective sterilizing method for an object that could be damaged by heat is: a. Autoclaving b. Gas sterilization c. Flash flaming d. Alcohol scrub

b.

The preferred method for gloving is: a. Open b. Closed c. Assisted d. Double

b.

The surgical preparation room is located: a. Within the surgical suite b. Adjacent to the surgical suite c. Separated from the surgical suite by a treatment room d. Upstairs, above the surgical suite

b.

The term arthrotomy refers to an incision into a/an: a. Artery b. Joint c. Muscle d. Long bone

b.

The usual significance of a small seroma beneath a suture line in the skin is: a. Emergency b. Cosmetic only c. Major problem d. Serious but not an emergency

b.

What abdominal incision is most appropriate for a standing cesarean section on a heifer? a. Ventral midline b. Flank c. Paracostal d. Ventral paramedian

b.

What does a change in color in autoclave tape indicate to a surgical nurse? a. The surgical instruments in the pack have been adequately sterilized b. During the autoclaving process, steam has reached the tape c. Adequate temperature and pressures have been achieved d. The pack has been exposed to adequate pressures

b.

What if a gauze sponge that is being used for the surgical scrub inadvertently touches the patient's hair? a. It can continue to be used for the scrub, because the antimicrobial agents in the scrub will kill any bacteria picked up from the hair b. It should be thrown out and replaced with a new sponge c. It should now be used only for the edges of the clipped site d. It should not be considered contaminated unless gross contamination is visible

b.

What instrument is not a self-retaining tissue retractor? a. Finochietto b. Army-Navy c. Balfour d. Gelpi

b.

What is the most appropriate wound-flushing solution? a. Hydrogen peroxide b. Isotonic saline c. Povidone-iodine solution d. Tap water

b.

What is the primary function of a Lempert? a. Retractor b. Rongeur c. Periosteal elevator d. Thumb forceps

b.

What is the purpose of using a subcuticular suture pattern for final closure? a. To decrease the amount of suture material needed b. To eliminate the need for skin sutures c. To eliminate infection d. To be more cost effective

b.

What orthopedic fixation consists of pins that penetrate fractured bones and skin from the outside and are held in place externally by bolts attached to another cross pin? a. Rush pinning b. External fixators c. Steinmann fixation d. Bone plating

b.

What size scalpel blade is generally used in an arthroscopy for making the stab incision into the joint because of its pointed, rather than rounded or hooked, end? a. No. 10 b. No. 11 c. No.12 d. No. 15

b.

What term best describes freedom from infection as it applies to the surgical technique? a. Uncontaminated b. Asepsis c. Healthy d. Clean

b.

What type of instrument is a Metzenblum? a. Needle holder b. Scissors c. Towel clamp d. Hemostatic forceps

b.

When a cat is presented for castration, and both testicles are descended, the veterinary technician will prepare the surgical site. In which area is the incision most commonly made? a. Flank b. Scrotum c. Prescrotal prepuce d. Midabdomen

b.

When an animal is sent home after surgery: a. The wound should already be completely healed b. The client should be given written detailed home care instructions c. The animal is no longer legally your patient and is no longer your concern d. The technician should make daily visits to ensure that the patient is given the same care as in the hospital

b.

When aseptically opening a sterile surgical pack on an instrument stand, it is not proper for non scrubbed surgical personnel to touch: a. Autoclave b. Contents of the pack c. Corners of the wrap d. Instrument stand

b.

When autoclaving, the minimum temperature and exposure times for the center of the surgical packs are: a. 121.5 F for 10 minutes b. 250 F for 13 minutes c. 250 F for 20 minutes d. 300 F for 30 minutes

b.

When cleaning instruments, the instruments should first be soaked in a surgical soap solution (e.g. Aseptic-Zyme) to: a. Remove bacteria b. Remove blood c. Sterilize them d. Enhance the effect of the ultrasonic cleaner

b.

When does a sutured surgical wound begin to gain significant strength from the production of collagen stands so that the wound edges are held together not only by the sutures? a. Immediately b. In 5 days c. In 14 days d. In 35 days

b.

When feeding the patient through a gastrostomy tube, the technician should: a. Rapidly inject the fluids and food b. Flush the tube with water c. Flush the tube with air d. Feed a full day's caloric requirement immediately after placement

b.

When gloving for surgery, which of the following is not permitted? a. One gloved thumb touches the other gloved thumb b. The scrubbed fingers touch the outside of the glove c. The outside of the gown cuff is touched by inside of the glove cuff d. The scrubbed fingers touch the inside of the glove cuff

b.

When passing surgical instruments to the surgeon, the technician should do all of the following except: a. Gently but firmly slap the palm of the surgeon with the instrument b. Pass the instrument in the open position c. Pass the instrument with the handle placed into the surgeon's hand d. Pass the curved instrument so that it is oriented in the surgeon's hand with the concave side up

b.

When preparing a feline patient for a routine spay, administration of antibiotics before surgery: a. Should be given only if the surgeon does not wear a cap or mask b. Is not indicated for short, uncomplicated procedures c. Should always be given as a precaution to prevent infection d. Is never useful in conjunction with surgery

b.

When scrubbing for a surgical procedure, the position of the arms: a. Varies with the height of the scrub sink b. Should always be with the hands higher than the elbows c. Should always be with the elbows higher than the hands d. Varies with the height of the scrubbing personnel

b.

When the term eviscerates is used, this can indicate: a. The wound has dehisced b. Abdominal contents protrude through the suture line c. The aseptic technique has been broken and contamination has occurred d. Infection has entered the body through the surgical wound

b.

When would it be considered an advantage to use a hand tie versus an instrument tie? a. When suturing very tough tissue b. When suturing the linea alba or areas that are difficult to reach c. When suturing the skin d. When suturing hollow organ

b.

Where is the most likely place for a rumenotomy incision in a dairy cow? a. Right paralumbar fossa b. Left paralumbar fossa c. Linea alba d. Paramedian

b.

Which of the following can be used as a surgical scrub on a patient? a. Povidone iodine solution b. Chlorhexidine scrub c. Alcohol d. Nolvasan solution

b.

Which of the following disinfectants includes the weakest viridical activity? a. Glutaraldehyde (2%) b. Quaternary ammonium compounds at standard concentration c. Formalin (37%) d. Isopropyl alcohol (70%)

b.

Which of the following does not enhance the healing of an open wound? a. Debridement b. Exuberant granulation tissue c. Granulation tissue d. Wound flushing

b.

Which of the following does not have to be gas sterilized? a. Arthroscope b. Plastic pipette tips c. Polyethylene tubing d. Plastic spray bottles

b.

Which of the following is an absorbable suture? a. Prolene b. Vicryl c. Mersilene d. Silk

b.

Which of the following is not a recommend agent for patient surgical preparation? a. Chlorhexidine b. Roccal c. Alcohol d. Povidone iodine

b.

Which of the following is not a requirement for fracture healing? a. Apposition b. Shearing c. Fixation d. Reduction

b.

Which of the following is not an effective aseptic surgical technique? a. Considering a sterile item to be non sterile if it touches a non sterile item b. Considering an item sterile if its sterility is in doubt c. Allowing non scrubbed personnel to touch non sterile items only d. Allowing sterile items to touch only other sterile items

b.

Which of the following is not an effective form of surgical hemostasis? a. Crushing b. Curettage c. Ligation d. Pressure

b.

Which of the following is not true of an aural hematoma? a. An aural hematoma must be drained b. Trimming back the pinna repairs it c. It is painful and bothersome to the animal d. An aural hematoma may be drained and bandaged by wrapping the head with the ear folded back across the top of the head

b.

Which of the following is the most effective and timely indicator that sterilization conditions have been met in an autoclaved surgery pack? a. Autoclave b. Chemical indicator c. Culture test d. Melting pellet

b.

Which of the following situations can cause hypocarbia? a. Decreased respiratory rate b. Increased respiratory rate c. Exhausted soda lime d. Kinked endotracheal tube

b.

Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome in the equine surgical patient is correct? a. Compartment syndrome only affects the surgery compartment b. The "up" side of the patient can be affected c. Following all proper precautions can prevent compartment syndrome d. Compartment syndrome rarely results in euthanasia

b.

Which of the following statements regarding pyometra is false? a. The bitch that goes to surgery will have the ovaries and uterus removed b. The bitch that goes to surgery will have only her uterus removed c. The uterus might have ruptured before surgery begins d. The patient represents a high-risk anesthesia case, because other organs in the body might be compromised

b.

Which of the following suffixes is used to describe a process of cutting into an organ? a. -ectomy b. -otomy c. -ostomy d. -rrhapy

b.

Which of the following suffixes is used to describe the surgical alteration of a shape or form? a. -pexy b. -plasty c. -ostomy d. -rrhapy

b.

Which of the following suture materials remains in the body for the longest period? a. Polydioxanone b. Prolene c. Chromic gut d. Vicryl

b.

Which of the following suture patterns is an inverting stitch? a. Cruciate b. Cushing c. Horizontal mattress d. Vertical mattress

b.

While you are working as a sterile surgical assistant, your mask slips down below your nose. What should you do? a. The non sterile assistant may stand in front of you and secure the mask in its proper position b. The non sterile assistant may secure the mask in position while standing behind you c. You may take a non sterile piece of gauze and place it over the mask to allow you to adjust it into position d. You are completely contaminated and must leave surgery

b.

Why is an anal purse-string suture placed before perianal surgery? a. To keep the tail out of the surgical field b. To prevent fecal contamination during surgery c. To close the urethra d. To tighten loose folds of perianal skin

b.

Wound dehiscence is usually seen within the first: a. 1-2 days b. 3-4 days c. 5-6 days d. 10-14 days

b.

You are to assist with a rumenotomy. Where on the patient would you prep for the surgery? a. Ventral midline from xiphoid to pubic bone b. Left paralumbar fossa c. Right paralumbar fossa d. Right paramedic region

b.

Which of the following suffixes is used to describe the surgical alteration of a shape or form? a. -pexy b. -plasty c. -ostomy d. -rrhapy

b. -plasty

When clients are instructed to bring in a fecal sample, how much are they told to collect? a. 1 pint b. 1-2 tspns c. 1 cup d. 60 ml

b. 1-2 teaspoons

Which of the following is the maximum length of time that a compression bandage should be left on? a. 1/2 hour b. 4 hours c. 72 hours d. 1 week

b. 4 hours

If an animal goes home with a bandage, the client should observe the bandage daily and remove it if any of the following are observed, except: a. Skin irritation at the edge of the bandage b. All bandages should be removed 24 hours after being applied c. The bandage is wet d. The position of the bandage has shifted

b. All bandages should be removed 24 hours after being applied

If during a surgery you notice n item at the edge of a sterile field, you should: a. Ask others to find out whether it was contaminated b. Consider it unsterile if you are not absolutely certain c. Consider it sterile d. Move it further into the sterile field

b. Consider it unsterile if you are not absolutely certain

When feeding the patient through the gastrostomy tube, the technician should: a. Rapidly inject the fluids and food b. Flush the tube with water c. Flush the tube with air d. Feed a full day's caloric requirement immediately after placement

b. Flush the tube with water

Clipper burn can cause all of the following adverse effects except: a. Excessive licking of the area b. Follicular damage preventing hair regrowth c. Inhibition of wound healing d. Promotion of bacteria growth

b. Follicular damage preventing hair regrowth

When passing surgical instruments to the surgeon, the technician should do all of the following except: a. Gently but firmly slap the palm of the surgeon with the instrument b. Pass the instrument in the open position c. Pass the instrument with the handle placed into the surgeon's hand d. Pass the curved instrument so that it is oriented in the surgeon's hand with the concave side up

b. Pass the instrument in the open position

When a cat is presented for castration, and both testicles are descended, the veterinary technician will prepare the surgical site. In which area is the incision most commonly made? a. Flank b. Scrotum c. Prescrotal prepuce d. Midabdomen

b. Scrotum

Which of the following statements regarding pyometra is false? a. The bitch that goes to surgery will have the ovaries and uterus removed b. The bitch that goes to surgery will have only her uterus removed c. The uterus might have ruptured before surgery begins d. The patient represents a high-risk anesthesia case, because other organs in the body might be compromised

b. The bitch that goes to surgery will have only her uterus removed

Which of the following is not true of an aural hematoma? a. An aural hematoma must be drained b. Trimming back the pinna repairs it c. It is painful and bothersome to the animal d. An aural hematoma may be drained and bandaged by wrapping the head with the ear folded back across the top of the head

b. Trimming back the pinna repairs it

The anesthetized patient may respond to surgical stimulation if the anesthetic depth is inadequate. Response to a painful stimulus may be indicated by all of the following except: a. a considerable increase in heart rate and an increase in blood pressure b. a decrease in lacrimation and salivation c. an increase in respiratory rate d. sweating on the foot pads

b. a decrease in lacrimation and salivation

which of the following statements regarding pyometra is incorrect a. ovariohysterectomy is usually curative b. a purulent vaginal discharge is always present c. affected females usually have polyuria and polydipsia d. it often occurs soon after a heat cycle

b. a purulent vaginal discharge is always present

What is meant by the term pathogenic bacteria a. bacteria that produce toxins b. bacteria that causes disease c. bacteria that lives off and gain nutrients from the host d. bacteria that multiply in the host

b. bacteria that causes disease

Which of the following is not a response of increased stimulation to the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system? a. constriction of the pupils b. dilation of the bronchioles c. decreased heart rate d. increased digestive activity

b. dilation of the bronchioles

Because sucralfate is more effective in an acidic environment, it should be administered before: a. cisapride b. famotidine c. lactulose d. metoclopramide

b. famotidine

When administering oral medications to cats, which of the following techniques should be practiced? a. placing medication inside a piece of cheese b. flushing water with a syringe into the mouth after the tablet has been given c. placing the tablet or capsule on the back of the tongue and holding the mouth shut d. cats cannot take oral medications

b. flushing water with a syringe into the mouth after the tablet has been given

Adverse reaction to food is an abnormal response to which of the following? a. ingested toxin b. ingested food c. inhaled food d. inhaled toxin

b. ingested food

Which of these drugs is a laxative used most commonly in small animals with chronic constipation? a. diphenoxylate b. lactulose c. loperamide d. paregoric

b. lactulose

The feeding tube used in gavage is measured to equal a distance from the: a. mouth to the base of the trachea b. lips to the 8th rib c. lips to the last lumbar vertebra d. lips to the end of the duodenum

b. lips to the 8th rib

Hypoxemia is defined as: a. decreased circulating blood volume b. low blood oxygen levels c. low tissue oxygen levels d. an increase in circulating fluid in the body

b. low blood oxygen levels

Which of the following is not done on a routine physical examination of a cat? a. open the mouth and look at the teeth, tongue, and gums b. perform a rectal exam c. listen to the heart and lungs d. palpate the abdomen for masses

b. perform a rectal exam

The function of a robert jones bandage is to: a. support the shoulder joint after surgery b. stabilize a fracture before surgery c. support the hind limb after reduction of hip luxation d. stabilize a fracture after surgery

b. stabilize a fracture before surgery

All of the following are signs of shock, except: a. weak and thready pulse b. vasodilation c. prolonged CRT d. tachycardia

b. vasodilation

which of the following instructions should be available for use during abdominal exploratory surgery? -balfour retractor -weitlaner retractor -gelpi retractor -senn retractor

belfour retractor

External fixation devices include all of the following except

bone plate

external fixation devices include all of the following except? -cast -splint -bone plate -KE apparatus

bone plate

suture materials are?

braided or monofilament

Which of the following is not competely removed in an ovariohysterectomy

broad ligament

there is more concern about pulling out the ET tube too soon in the ______ versus an english mastiff. -bulldog -shepherd -jack russell -greyhound

bulldog

A disinfectant labeled as a virucidal: a. Prevents bacteria from growing b. Kills all spores c. Kills viruses d. Prevents viruses from growing

c.

A dog presents at your clinic with a suspected intestinal foreign body. During the laparotomy the doctor removes the object and notes that a section of the intestines is necrotic. What is the name of the procedure to remove the necrotic area and rejoin the healthy intestines? a. Resection and intussusception b. Resection and enterotomy c. Resection and anastomosis d. Resection and celiotomy

c.

A gastrotomy refers to a surgical incision into the: a. Gastrosnemius muscle b. Peritoneal wall c. Stomach d. Small intestine

c.

A pack double wrapped in muslin and kept in a closed cabinet is good for how long? a. 1 week b. 3 to 4 weeks c. 6 to 7 weeks d. 6 months

c.

A patient is to be prepared for an ovariohysterectomy. What part of the body is prepped? a. Paw b. Ventral chest wall c. Ventral abdomen d. Ear

c.

All of the following are considered benefits of using skin staples except: a. Skin is more resistant to abscess formation than when sutures are used b. Staples provide excellent wound healing c. Staples are more cost effective d. Staples save time

c.

All of the following are good reasons for using an instrument tie (with the use of a needle holder) except: a. It is economical; small pieces of suture can be used, and therefore suture material is not wasted b. It saves time c. It is more accurate than one or two handed tie d. It is readily adaptable to any type of wound closure

c.

All of the following are important reasons to reduce the amount of dead space with drains in a wound, except: a. To decrease the chance of infection b. To decrease the chance of serum formation c. To decrease hemostasis d. To minimize necrosis

c.

All of the following are instructions provided to a client when the patient has had a Penrose drain placed, except: a. An Elizabethan collar, may be needed b. Clean the skin around the drain with warm water or dilute chlorhexidine c. The drain will fall out, and there is no need to return for removal d. Carefully watch the animal and prevent it from licking or chewing at the drain

c.

All of the following are signs of hypotension during surgery, except: a. Excessive vasodilation b. Hypovolemia c. Hypothermia d. Anesthetic depth

c.

All of the following are true regarding aseptic technique, except: a. It provides a clean surgical environment b. It prevents pathogenic microbes from entering the surgical suite c. It provides a sterile surgical environment d. It reduces the likelihood of fatal infections

c.

All of the following can contribute to a prolonged recovery except: a. Breed predisposition b. Poor perfusion c. Hyperglycemia d. Hypothermia

c.

An effective disinfectant to clean a cage after an animal has had a Pseudomonas-contaminated wound is: a. Chlorhexidine b. Isopropyl alcohol c. Quaternary ammonium d. Povidone- iodine

c.

An enucleation my be required to correct a/an: a Third eyelid prolapse b. Penile prolapse c. Proptosis of the eye d. Aural hematoma

c.

Arresting the flow of blood from a vessel or to a part is called: a. Aspiration b. Fibrinolysis c. Hemostasis d. Hemolysis

c.

Cesarean sections in cattle are most commonly performed via what surgical approach? a. Through a right paracostal incision b. Through a right paravertebral incision c. Through the left paralumbar fossa d. Through the ventral midline approach

c.

Chemical cauterization: a. Releases toxic fumes, exposing team members to a potential hazard b. Is rarely used in veterinary medicine c. Is traumatic to adjacent tissues and therefore is not used in surgical cases d. Is a misnomer; chemicals cannot stop bleeding

c.

Clean-contaminated surgery refers to: a. All surgeries b. Incisions in sterile areas that become contaminated during surgery c. A clean wound in which a drain is placed d. Incisions in a previously contaminated area that has been rendered sterile

c.

During surgery, the back outside aspect of a surgeon's gown should be considered: a. Sterile b. Sterile as long as someone has not touched it c. Unsterile d. Neither sterile nor unsterile, because it is not likely to contact the patient

c.

Dystocia is: a. Difficulty in breathing b. A side effect of opioid drugs c. A difficult or abnormal birth d. Difficulty in urinating

c.

Ear canal ablation refers to: a. Irrigation of the ear canal b. Instilling antibiotics to correct otitis media c. Surgical removal and closure of the external ear canal d. The instrument used to examine the ear canal

c.

External fixation devices include all of the following except: a. Cast b. Splint c. Bone plate d. Kirchner-Ehmer (K-E) apparatus

c.

How long does a sealed item remain sterilized after being sterilized by gamma radiation? a. 1 year b. 6 months c. Until it is opened d. 1 month

c.

If a gowned and gloved person at the surgery table is not participating in the surgery at some point: a. His or her hands should be held quietly at the sides b. His or her hands may be held behind the back if it is still sterile c. His or her hands should be folded at chest level or placed on the instrument table d. He or she must leave the room

c.

If a non sterile person must move to the other side of a sterile person, the non sterile person should pass: a. Back to back b. Front to back c. Facing the back of the surgeon d. With his or her side facing the back of the surgeon

c.

If a single technician is responsible for setting the patient up in surgery, what task should be performed first? a. Tying the animal to the table b. Applying the final prep c. Attaching the monitoring devices d. Opening the surgery pack

c.

If skin edges are under extreme tension (e.g. in a large skin wound), what is the suture pattern of choice? a. Simple continuous b. Simple interrupted c. Interrupted horizontal mattress d. Continuous horizontal mattress

c.

Instruments suitable for cutting sutures include: a. Scissors on Mayo-Hegar needle holders, operating scissors, and Mayo scissors b. Operating scissors, scissors on Olsen-Hegar needle holders, and Metzenbaum scissors c. Operating scissors, scissors on Olsen-Hegar needle holders, and Mayo scissors d. Suture (stitch) scissors, Mayo scissors, and Metzenbaum scissors

c.

It is important that the nursing care provided to paralyzed patients focuses on patient comfort. The prevention of deductible ulcers can bee accomplished by all of the following procedures, except: a. Frequent turning or repositioning of the patient b. Adequate padding in the cage or bed c. Appropriate analgesic therapy d. Massage

c.

Perioperative antibiotics: a. Should never be used b. Should always be used c. Are indicated in surgical procedures longer than 1.5 hours d. Are questionable in their effectiveness

c.

Plating a fractured bone: a. Refers to coating the bone with a rigid metallic solution to induce healing b. Is beyond the scope of most veterinary practices c. Is an internal method of fracture fixation involving stainless steel plates and screws d. Can be done without skin incision

c.

Postoperative physical therapy can help the patient in each of the following ways, except in: a. Enhancing patient comfort b. Preventing complications from disuse c. Slowing the healing process d. Decreasing edema

c.

Preparing a patient's skin for surgery: a. Renders the skin sterile b. Does nothing to affect the outcome of the surgery c. Reduces the bacterial flora to a level that can be controlled by the patient's immune system d. Is not necessary if antibiotics are administered

c.

Sterile patient preparation generally consists of _____ round(s) of alternating antiseptic solution with saline rinse, and every pass with gauze moves in a circular motion from the anticipated incision site radiating outward. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

c.

Surgical instruments should be: a. Lubricated with oil between uses b. Cleaned without water to avoid the possibility of rusting c. Placed on surfaces and never dropped or thrown d. Cleaned with abrasive cleaners

c.

Surgical procedures of the eye and adnexal structures include all of the following, except: a. Entropion repair b. Keratectomy c. Onychectomy d. Enucleation

c.

Suture materials are: a. Absorbable b. Nonabsorbable only c. Braided or monofilament d. Only supplied with a needle attached

c.

Suture patterns can be classified into three types: appositional, inverting, and tension. What tissue is most appropriately sutured in an appositional pattern? a. Tendon b. Hollow viscus c. Skin d. Nerve

c.

The agent used in gas sterilization is: a. Glutaraldehyde b. Chlorhexidine c. Ethylene oxide d. Formaldehyde

c.

The clothing worn in a surgical room: a. Can be clothes worn on the street b. Should be clothes worn while in the clinic only c. Should be a scrub suit dedicated to surgery use d. Is required to be clean only and not torn

c.

The counted brush stroke method for surgical scrubbing: a. Is not practical on a routine basis b. Is quicker than a timed scrub c. Refers to scrubbing the arms and hands in a methodical, consistent manner d. Is more thorough than a timed scrub

c.

The first phase of the wound-healing process involves: a. Endotracheal cell proliferation b. Fibroblast proliferation c. Inflammation d. Equilibrium of collagen synthesis

c.

The hair coat can be most efficiently and gently removed when preparing a dog for spaying by which of the following methods? a. Plucking b. Clipping with sharp scissors c. Clipping against the grain of the hair with electrical clippers using a No. 40 blade d. Clipping against the grain of the hair with electrical clippers using a No. 10 blade

c.

The main goal of the aseptic surgical technique is to prevent contamination of the: a. Operative personnel b. Surgical instruments c. Surgical wound d. Surgical drapes

c.

The most effective use for a wronger is to: a. Pinch off a bleeding vessel b. Elevate soft tissue off a bony surface c. Remove small pieces of bone d. Retract soft tissue away from bone

c.

The sterile field in the surgery room: a. Is the entire surgical suite b. Consists of the shaved and prepared area on the animal's skin c. Consists of the draped field and instrument table d. All of the above

c.

The surgical nurse circulating for the scrubbed-in surgeon(s): a. Has the task of keeping the animal anesthetized b. Does not need a cap and mask because he or she is not assisting with surgery c. Must constantly be concern with maintaining an aseptic technique d. Need not wear sterile surgical gloves

c.

What agent, method, or device is most appropriate for sterilizing in electric drill to be used in an orthopedic surgical procedure? a. Autoclave b. Dry heat c. Ethylene oxide gas d. Liquid chemical disinfectant

c.

What does the medical term ovariohysterectomy mean? a. Removal of the ovaries only b. Removal of the uterus only c. Removal of the ovaries and uterus only d. Removal of the entire reproductive tract, including ovaries, uterus, cervix and vagina

c.

What is a nosocomial infection? a. Infection arising from bacteria in the gastrointestinal tract b. Infection originating from the respiratory tract, especially the nose c. Hospital-acquired infection d. Resistant infection

c.

What is considered the most painful portion of a routine spay procedure? a. The initial abdominal incision b. Applying the angiotribe c. The plucking/tearing of the suspensory ligament d. Ligation of the ovarian pedicle

c.

What is the best type of cleaner to use when washing surgical instruments by hand? a. Ordinary hand soap b. Abrasive compounds c. Low-sudsing detergents d. Plain hot water

c.

What is the most significant advantage of using a swaged-on needle as opposed to a closed-eye needle? a. The needle never separates from the suture b. The suture diameter is smaller than the needle diameter c. Tissue is subjected to fewer traumas, because a single strand is pulled through the tissue d. It saves time and money

c.

What is the purpose of the surgical drape? a. To keep the animal warm b. To keep the surgeon focused on the surgical area c. To establish a sterile field d. To protect the table and mayo stand from contamination

c.

What items should all personnel wear when entering the operating room? a. Cap and mask b. Cap, mask, and booties c. Cap, maks, booties, and clean scrubs or gown d. Cap, mask, and sterile gown

c.

What parameter(s) does the pulse oximeter measure: a. Heart rate only b. Respiration rate and depth c. Oxygen saturation of hemoglobin and heart rate d. Respiration rate and heart rate

c.

What retractor is not self-retaining? a. Weitlaner b. Alms c. Senn d. Balfour

c.

What should you wear when working as a non sterile surgical assistant? a. Mask and clean scrubs b. Mask, cap, and clean scrubs c. Mask, cap, shoe covers, and clean scrubs d. Mask, cap, shoe covers, and sterile gown

c.

What surgical procedure is least likely to combat the debilitating complications of canine hip dysplasia? a. Triple pelvic osteotomy b. Total hip replacement c. Intramedullary pinning d. Pectineal myotomy

c.

What suture material is absorbed most rapidly from an infected wound through increased local phagocytic activity? a. Vicryl (polyglactin 910) b. PDS (polydioxanone) c. Catgut d. Nylon

c.

What sutures is not recommended for skin closure? a. Polydioxanone b. Nylon c. Chromic gut d. Stainless steel

c.

What tissue must form in a wound that is healing by second intention before wound contraction or epithelial regeneration can occur? a. Collagen fibers b. Fibrin clot c. Granulation tissue d. Scar tissue

c.

What type of instrument is a Backhaus? a. Needle holder b. Scissors c. Towel clamp d. Hemostatic forceps

c.

What type of surgical scrub solution is most effective in reducing the number of bacteria on the skin and maintaining the longest residual activity? a. Hexachlorophene alcohol b. Povidone-iodine c. Chlorohexidine gluconate d. Polypropylene parachormeta-xylenol

c.

When a dog is presented for castration, and both testicles are descended, the veterinary technician will prepare the surgical site. In which area is the incision most commonly made? a. Flank b. Scrotum c. Prescrotal prepuce d. Midabdomen

c.

When a male dog is presented to the hospital for a castration procedure, the technician should do all of the following except: a. Ensure that the dog is a male b. Ensure that there are two testicles in the scrotum c. Ensure that the dog is not in heat d. Ensure that there is a telephone number to reach the client

c.

When assisting the surgeon, the technician should: a. Always cut sutures on top of the knot b. Cut sutures with the middle tip part of the scissors blade c. Blot the surgical site with gauze square to clear the site of blood d. Attach the scalpel blade to the handle using a pair of hemostats

c.

When attaching an animal to an ECG, which lead is hooked up to the right foreleg? a. Red b. Black c. White d. Green

c.

When not otherwise occupied, scrubbed surgical personnel should stand with: a. Arms folded b. Hands above shoulder level c. Hands clasped between waist and shoulder level d. Hands down at their sides

c.

When the surgeon and surgical technician are scrubbing for surgery, the hands should be held: a. Below the elbows b. Parallel to the elbows c. Above the elbows d. Above the head

c.

Which of the following agents can be used as both an antiseptic as well as a disinfectant? a. Quaternary ammonium compounds b. Mercurial chloride compounds c. Isopropyl alcohol d. Formaldehyde

c.

Which of the following does not cause an increase in respiratory rate in an anesthetized animals? a. Increased blood CO2 b. Anesthesia is too light c. Increased PaO2 d. Hyperthermia

c.

Which of the following forceps should not be used to hold the edges of the incision open? a. Rat-tooth b. Brown-Adson c. Crile d. Allis tissue

c.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multifilament suture material? a. Less knot security than monofilament suture material b. Tears tissue more easily than monofilament suture material c. Has a greater tendency for wicking bacteria than monofilament suture material d. Has less strength than monofilament suture material

c.

Which of the following is a monofilament suture material? a. Polyglactin 910 (Vicryl) b. Polyester (Mersilene) c. Polyethylene (Dermalene) d. Cotton

c.

Which of the following is a surgical scrub soap that forms a bacteriostatic film on the skin when it is used exclusively? a. Chlorhexidine b. Chlorpheniramine c. Hexachlorophene d. Povidone-iodine

c.

Which of the following is false regarding the ECG? a. It measures the electrical impulses of the heart b. There can be a normal ECG tracing when there is no cardiac output c. There is always a pulse beat with each QRS complex d. Alcohol and steril lubricant will enhance the connection of the skin leads

c.

Which of the following is not a factor influencing the formation of exuberant granulation tissue? a. Presence of infection b. Amount of missing tissue c. Depth of the wound d. Location of the wound

c.

Which of the following is not an advantage to neutering a male dog? a. Decreased risk for perineal hernias b. Decreased roaming c. It will prevent it from lifting its leg to urinate d. Decreased aggression toward other dogs

c.

Which of the following need not be considered in the timing of the autoclave cycle? a. Time required to heat up the interior of the chamber b. Time required to allow the steam to penetrate the interior of the packs c. Time required to seal the chamber d. Time required to sterilize those items in contact with the steam

c.

Which of the following operating room personnel should face the sterile field during a procedure? a. The surgeon only b. The scrubbed-in technicians and surgeon only c. All personnel, both scrubbed in and non sterile d. Only the surgeon and non sterile personnel; the scrubbed-in technician should face the instrument field

c.

Which of the following patterns is not suitable for the closure of an intestinal biopsy incision? a. Simple continuous b. Simple interrupted c. Everting d. Inverting

c.

Which of the following statements, regarding cesarean sections is false? a. Bloody vaginal discharge is expected following surgery b. The newborns delivered by cesarean section are under the effects of anesthesia c. The client should observe the surgical incision starting after 1 week, because the newborns don't start moving around the mammary area until then d. The newborn should be immediately removed from the membranous sac that covers its body when it is removed from the uterus

c.

Which of the following surgical packs would not be considered contaminated and would not need to be reautoclaved? a. Single-wrapped crepe paper pack stored on an open shelf for 8 weeks b. Pack that was opened for a procedure but was not used and was needed for the next day's procedure c. Double-wrapped paper pack stored in a closed cabinet for 6 weeks d. Instrument in an autoclave pouch that has a very small tear near the top of the pack

c.

Which of the following suture sizes is most appropriate for eye surgeries? a. 0 b. 3-0 c. 6-0 d. 10-0

c.

Which of the these statements concerning surgical catgut is false? a. It can be used for ligating superficial blood vessels b. It is recommended for epidermal use c. It is recommended for internal use d. It absorbs quickly

c.

Which of these is not a common surgical site for the corrections of a left-displaced abomasum in cattle? a. Right paralumbar b. Left paralumbar c. Ventral midline d. Right paramedian

c.

Which of these sequences correctly lists suture material diameter, from largest to smallest? a. 3-0, 2-0, 0, 1, 2, 3 b. 000, 00, 0, 1, 2, 3 c. 3, 2, 1, 1-0, 2-0, 3-0 d. 7-0, 5-0, 3-0, 1

c.

Which statement regarding first-intention would healing is false? a. It occurs without infection b. It occurs when the skin edges are held together in apposition c. It usually has some degree of suppuration d. It occurs with minimal scar formation

c.

Why are such elaborate measures taken to maintain aseptic technique during surgery? a. To protect personnel from pathogenic microbes encountered in the animals b. To decrease the risk of nosocomial infections spread among patients c. To decrease the risk of contamination into the surgical site and interference with would healing d. To decrease the virulence of the microbes in the hospital

c.

Why is it better to ligate many small vessels rather than one mass ligation of tissues? a. Mass ligation of tissues is unsightly b. Mass ligation of tissue might result in an infected area c. Mass ligation of tissue is more likely to fail d. Tissues included in a mass ligation may be too difficult for the body to resorb

c.

Why must instrument milk be used after ultrasonic cleaning? a. To complete the sterilization process b. To provide further cleaning and sanitizing of the instruments c. To replace lubrication removed by the ultrasonic cleaner d. To prevent rust spots from forming on the instruments

c.

You are checking on a recent surgical wound and find that the tissue is slightly warmer and redder than the surrounding tissue. What is the significance of this? a. It is an indication that the wound is contaminated and requires an emergency intervention b. The wound will likely dehisce and should be checked immediately by the veterinarian c. It is normal, because the first stage of wound healing is inflammation d. It is an indication that the sutures are interfering with blood flow, and necrosis is likely

c.

Which of the following suffixes is used to describe the surgical creation of an artificial opening? a. -ectomy b. -otomy c. -ostomy d. -rrhapy

c. -ostomy

Inducing emesis after ingestion of a solid toxin is probably no longer of value after how much time has elapsed since ingestion? a. 10 mins b. 10 mins c. 1-4 hrs d. 24 hrs

c. 1-4 hrs

It is important that the nursing care provided to paralyzed patients focuses on the patient comfort. The prevention of decubital ulcers can be accomplished by all of the following procedures, except: a. Frequent turning or repositioning of the patient b. Adequate padding in the cage of bed c. Appropriate analgesic therapy d. Massage

c. Appropriate analgesic therapy

When assisting the surgeon, the technician should: a. Always cut sutures on top of the knot b. Cut sutures with the middle tip part of the scissors blade c. Blot the surgical site with a gauze square to clear the site of blood d. Attached the scalpel blade to the handle using a pair of hemostats

c. Blot the surgical site with a gauze square to clear the site of blood

External fixation devices include all of the following, except: a. Cast b. Splint c. Bone plate d. Kirschner-Ehmer (K-E) apparatus

c. Bone plate

Suture materials are: a. Absorbable b. Nonabsorbable only c. Braided or Monofilament d. Only supplied with a needle attached

c. Braided or Monofilament

The hair coat can be most efficiently and gently removed when preparing a dog for spaying by which of the following methods? a. Plucking b. Clipping with sharp scissors c. Clipping against the grain of the hair with electrical clipper using a No. 40 blade d. Clipping against the grain of the hair with electrical clippers using a No. 10 blade

c. Clipping against the grain of the hair with electrical clipper using a No. 40 blade

When a male dog is presented to the hospital for a castration procedure, the technician should do all of the following, except: a. Ensure that the dog is a male b. Ensure that there are two testicles in the scrotum c. Ensure that the dog is not in heat d. Ensure that there is a telephone number to reach the client

c. Ensure that the dog is not in heat

Which statement regarding first-intention wound healing is false? a. It occurs without infection b. It occurs when the skin edges are held together in apposition c. It usually has some degree of suppuration d. It occurs with minimal scar formation

c. It usually has some degree of suppuration

Surgical instruments should be: a. Lubricated with oil between uses b. Cleaned without water to avoid the possibility of rusting c. Placed on surfaces and never dropped or thrown d. Cleaned with abrasive cleaners

c. Placed on surfaces and never dropped or thrown

Preparing a patient's skin for surgery: a. Renders the skin sterile b. Does nothing to affect the outcome of the surgery c. Reduces the bacterial flora to a level that can be controlled by the patient's immune system d. Is not necessary if antibiotics are administered

c. Reduces the bacterial flora to a level that can be controlled by the patient's immune system

Postoperative physical therapy can help the patient in each of the following ways, except in: a. Enhancing patient comfort b. Preventing complications from disuse c. Slowing the healing process d. Decreasing edema

c. Slowing the healing process

Which of the following statements regarding cesarean sections is false? a. Bloody vaginal discharge is expected following surgery b. The newborns delivered by cesarean section are under the effects of anesthesia c. The client should observe the surgical incision starting after 1 week, because the newborns don't start moving around the mammary area until then d. The newborn should be immediately removed from the membranous sac that covers its body when it is removed form the uterus

c. The client should observe the surgical incision starting after 1 week, because the newborns don't start moving around the mammary area until then

All of the following are instructions provided to a client when the patient has had a Penrose drain placed, except: a. An Elizabethan collar may be needed b. Clean the skin around the drain with warm water or dilute chlorhexidine c. The drain will fall out, and there is no need to return for removal d. Carefully watch the animal and prevent it form licking or chewing at the drain

c. The drain will fall out, and there is no need to return for removal

Which of the following may be legally performed by a vet tech? a. canine castration b. diagnosing feline epilepsy c. administering isoflurane d. prescribing ampicillin

c. admin isoflurane

An anesthetized cat's heart rate has slowed to an abnormally low 30 beats per minute. Which of the following terms best describes condition? a. arrhythmia b. murmur c. bradycardia d. tachycardia

c. bradycardia

A dog that have experiences shock may have fluid replacement provided by all of the following. The least desirable is: a. crystalloids b. hypertonic saline c. dextrose d. colloids

c. dextrose

dystocia is a. difficult breathing b. due to a side effect of opioid drugs c. difficult or abnormal birth d. always a surgical emergency

c. difficult or abnormal birth

For which of the following would a brachial plexus block provide analgesia? a. thorax b. forefeet c. distal to the elbow d. proximal to the elbow

c. distal to the elbow

the agent used in gas sterilization is a. glutaraldehyde b. chlorhexidine c. ethylene oxide d. formaldehyde

c. ethylene oxide

Diet recommendation for diabetic patients is: a. foods that are high in fat for weight gain b. foods that are high in sugar for energy c. foods that are high in fiber for slow release of nutrients d. foods that are high in moisture for compensatory hydration

c. foods that are high in fiber for slow release nutrients

A vet prescribes erythreropoietin for use in a dog in terminal renal failure. Why was this drug prescribed? a. for its fibrinolytic activity b. for its immunosuppressive activity c. for its ability to stimulate RBC cell production and realease d. for its ability to reduce hypertension

c. for its ability to stimulate RBC production and release

A dog has swallowed a ball, and it is stuck in its stomach. What is the name of the surgical procedure performed to remove it? a. gastrectomy b. gastrostomy c. gastrotomy d. gastropexy

c. gastrotomy

What is the correct term for blood in the urine? a. hemolysis b. uremia c. hematuria d. hemocentesis

c. hematuria

IV access is difficult, emergency drugs can be administered safely and effectively by the _______________ route. a. intracardiac b. intraperitoneal c. intratracheal d. intramuscular

c. intratracheal

which of the following agents can be used as both an antiseptic as well as a disinfectant a. quaternary ammonium compounds b. mercurial compounds c. isopropyl alcohol d. formaldehyde

c. isopropyl alcohol

You are checking on a recent surgical wound and find that the tissue is slightly warmer and redder than the surrounding tissue. What is the significance of this? a. it is an indication that the wound is contaminated and requires an emergency intervention b. the wound will likely dehisce and should be checked immediately by the vet c. it is normal, because the first stage of wound healing is inflammation d. it is an indication that the sutures are interfering with blood flow, and necrosis is likely

c. it is normal, because the fist stage of wound healing is inflammation

Which statement concerning first aid for a seizure is most accurate? a. grasp the animal's tongue and pull it forward to prevent airway obstruction b. administer oral anticonvulsants c. keep the animal quiet, and prevent it from injuring itself d. immediately start infusion of intravenous fluids

c. keep the animal quiet, and prevent it form injuring itself

What structure lies between the proximal and distal convoluted tubules of the kidney? a. bowman capsule b. malpighian corpuscle c. loop of henle d. glomerulus

c. loop of henle

The MAC of an anesthetic agent will change for all of the following reasons except: a. preanesthetic drug administration b. patient's age c. patient's breed d. anemia

c. patient's breed

Which of the following choices characterizes the mucus membrane color and CRT in a patient with systemic inflammation? a. pale, prolonged b. pink, normal c. red, rapid d. yellow, normal

c. red, rapid

Medical records: a. are the undisputed property of the client and must be sent to any client who is moving from the area b. do not include radiographic films and lab reports c. should be retained even if the client moves away d. can be shared with anyone requesting copies

c. should be retained even if the client moves away

Liquid preps for oral administration may be purchased in several different forms. Which of the following is generally mixed with water and requires shaking well before administration? a. elir b. emulsion c. suspension d. syrup

c. suspension

Toxins that interfere with the function of acetylcholinesterase would have what effect on muscle fibers? a. they would prevent contraction completely, so the muscle would be paralyzed b. they would cause the muscles to become very weak and flaccid c. the muscle fiber would continue to contract, causing tremors and cramping d. they would cause rigor mortis

c. the muscle fiber would continue to contract, causing tremors and cramping

which of the following is false regarding the ECG a. It measures the electrical impulses of the heart b. there can be a normal ECG tracing when there is no cardiac output c. there is always a pulse beat with each QRS complex d. alcohol and sterile lubricant will enhance the connection of the skin leads

c. there is always a pulse beat with each QRS complex

When used in reference to food, tdn refers to: a. total determined nutrition b. tested digestible nutrition c. total digestible nutrients d. tested determined nutrients

c. total digestible nutrients

Which of the following is least likely to be a result of administering barbiturates perivascularly? a. an excitement phase b. tissue sloughing c. transient apnea

c. transient apnea

Which of these is not a common surgical site for the correction of a left-displaced abomasum in cattle? a. right paralumbar b. left paralumbar c. ventral midline d. right paramedian

c. ventral midline

when attaching an animal to an ECG, which lead is hooked up to the right foreleg a. red b. black c. white d. green

c. white

What items should personnel wear when entering the operating room?

cap, mask,booties, and clean scrubs or gown

What should you wear when cleaning the surgical suite before and after sx?

cap,mask,booties, and clean scrubs

_______ provides a means to measure the expired dioxide concentration of expired air, whereas ______ indicates a noninvasive measurement of the hemoglobin-oxygen saturation

capnograpgy ; pulse oximetry

Which animal does not have a gall bladder? goat donkey cat sheep

cat

the patient is to be prepared for a popliteal lymph node biopsy, what part of the body is prepped?

caudal aspect of the stifle

The hair coat can be most efficiently and gently removed when preparing a dog to be spayed by which of the following methods?

clipping against the grain of the hair with electric clippers using a number 40 blade

the hair coat can be most efficiently and gently removed when preparing a dog for spamming by which method?

clipping against the grain of the hair with electrical clippers using a No. 40 blade

Disseminated intravascular coagulation is primarily a disorder of the bodys _______ function

clotting

The effectiveness of a surgical srub of the hands and arms with an antibacterial soap depends on the

combination of contact time and scrubbing action

the effectiveness of a surgical scrub on the hands and arms with an antibacterial soap depends on the?

combination of contact time and scrubbing action

if during surgery you notice an item at the edge of a sterile field you should?

consider is unsterile if you are not absolutely certain

If during surgery you notice an item at the edge of a sterile field, you should

consider it unsterile if you are not absolutely certain

place the following surgeries in the order in which they should be scheduled from first to last: -cruciate repair, OHE, compounded fracture repair, intestinal resection -intestinal resection, cruciate repair, compound fracture repair, OHE -compound fracture repair, cruciate repair, OHE, intestinal resection -cruciate repair, compound fracture repair, OHE, intestinal resection

cruciate repair, OHE, compounded fracture repair, intestinal resection

Metzenbaum scissors are used only for

cutting tissues

An incision into the bladder is known as

cystotomy

All of the following are methods of microogranism transmission in the veterinary hospital, except: a. Team members b. Contaminated instruments c. Equipment contamination d. Uterus

d

A chest tube is placed when an animal has: a. Subcutaneous emphysema b. Pulmonary edema c. Ascites d. Pneumothorax

d.

A diaphragmatic hernia: a. Is a diaphragm that is in continuous spasm b. Is displacement of the heart and part of the lungs into the abdomen c. Cannot be corrected and is considered fatal d. Should be suspected if the animal is dyspneic following a traumatic experience

d.

A semipermanent feeding tube may be placed in all of the following ways, except: a. Through the nose b. Through a pharyngostomy c. Through a gastrostomy site d. Through the mouth

d.

A surgical prep for feline castration: a. Involves clipping the prescrotal region from the umbilicus to the scrotum b. Involves clipping the scrotum with a No. 40 clipper blade c. Does not involve hair removal, because the entire scrotal area is prepped with Nolvasan and alcohol d. Includes plucking or pulling the hair from the scrotum before the surgical scrub

d.

All of the following are benefits to having a peripheral IV catheter placed in advance of surgery, except for: a. Administering anesthesia b. Administering emergency drugs in case of anesthetic complications c. Administering intravenous fluids d. Administering enteral nutrition

d.

All of the following are clinical signs of pain that a patient may exhibit when recovering from an ovariohysterectomy, except: a. Tachycardia b. Hyperpnea c. Muscle tension d. Hypotension

d.

All of the following are contributing factors of wound dehiscence except: a. Suture failure b. Infection c. Tissue weakness d. Optimal nutrition

d.

All of the following are duties assigned to the sterile surgical assistant except: a. Passing instrument b. Draping the patient c. Identifying suture patterns d. Administering drugs intraoperatively

d.

All of the following are factors that determine whether infection occurs, except: a. Number of microorganisms b. Virulence of microorganisms c. Susceptibility of the patient d. Length of exposure time

d.

All of the following items are removed when deriding a wound, except: a. Dead or damaged tissue b. Foreign bodies c. Microorganisms d. WBCs

d.

An abscess is: a. Usually lanced, drained, flushed, and sutured closed b. A solid infiltration of inflammatory cells c. A rare consequence of bite wounds d. A "walled-off" or circumscribed accumulation of pus

d.

An advantage of using a Gelpi retractor over a Senn retractor is: a. The Gelpi is much less expensive to purchase b. The Gelpi is smaller overall than the Senn c. The Senn must be molded to fit the position required d. The Gelpi is self-retaining

d.

Before starting the surgical procedure, the technician who has scrubbed in with the surgeon should do all of the following except: a. Count the gauze sponges in the pack b. Arrange the instruments to be located quickly and easily c. Place the scalpel blade on the handle d. Open the suture material

d.

For which of the following surgeries are stay sutures not normally necessary? a. Cystotomy b. Gastrotomy c. Intestinal anastomosis d. Hepatic biopsy

d.

How long does an instrument that is sterilized and wrapped in paper remain sterile? a. 6 months b. 1 week c. 1 month d. 1 year

d.

How many phases of wound healing are present in animals? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

d.

How should a pack be placed in an autoclave for sterilization? a. Diagonally b. Horizontally c. Upside down d. Vertically

d.

How soon after surgery should animals be offered food? a. 8 hours after recovery b. 12 hours after recovery c. 24 hours after recovery d. As soon as possible after recovery

d.

If a patient is at an adequate surgical plane of anesthesia, which of the following statements would be true? a. The pedal reflex would be present b. The palpebral reflex would be present c. The swallowing reflex would be present d. The corneal reflex would be present

d.

In dogs, the most common location for a thoracotomy incision is: a. Through the sternum b. Through the diaphragm c. Along the linea alba d. Between the ribs

d.

In male dogs, the prepuce is: a. Sutured closed before an abdominal surgical procedure to prevent contamination b. Considered an uncontaminated area that is not given special consideration c. Flushed with alcohol while the dog is awake d. Flushed with a weak povidone-iodine and saline solution before abdominal surgery

d.

In the first 24 hours of primary union wound healing, most of the resistance to the opening of the wound is provided by: a. Collagen strands b. Fibrin strands c. Granulation tissue d. Sutures

d.

In what type of abdominal incision can the muscle wall be most effectively closed with one layer of sutures? a. Flank b. Paracostal c. Paramedian d. Ventral midline

d.

In what type of surgical procedure would you make sure that the Jacob's bone chuck is sterilized and available? a. Onychectomy b. Celiotomy c. Thoracotomy d. Orthopedic

d.

Increased risk of nosocomial infection may result from improper application of methods of: a. Sanitation b. Sterilization c. Disinfection d. All of the above

d.

Instrument milk is used for all of the following except: a. Lubrication b. Rust inhibition c. Extending the life of the instrument d. Cleaning the instrument

d.

Keeping the environment (floors, walls, counters) clean throughout the hospital is: a. Not important if your surgery areas are separate from other areas of the clinic b. Advisable because it is good public relations c. Mandated by the AVMA d. Mandatory to prevent cross-contamination into the surgery area

d.

Most of the clinical signs seen in an animal shock from excessive blood loss are attributable to: a. Acidosis b. Alkalosis c. Cell death d. Redistribution of blood flow

d.

Postoperative care for horses following castration: a. Includes strict confinement to the stall for at least 1 week to prevent hemorrhage b. Includes suture removal at 10 to 14 days c. Involves antibiotic administration for 5 days following surgery d. Involves exercise twice daily to promote drainage

d.

Rochester-Carmalt Pean forceps: a. Are generally smaller than a Kelly forceps b. Have longitudinal serrations with interdigitating teeth at the tips c. Have longitudinal serrations with a crosshatched pattern at the tips d. Have transverse longitudinal serrations along the entire length

d.

Surgical procedures of the ear include all of the following except: a. Otoplasty b. Bull osteotomy c. Aural hematoma drainage d. Enucleation

d.

The best surgical monitoring device is: a. An esophageal stethoscope b. A pulse oximeter c. A capnograph with ECG capability d. A skilled veterinary technician

d.

The client should be instructed to contact the veterinary hospital if any of the following occur with a splint or cast, except: a. The animal chews at the splint or cast b. The splint or cast is wet c. The leg looks swollen above or below the cast d. The animal is walking on or using the splinted or casted leg

d.

The main goal of aseptic surgical technique is to prevent contamination of the: a. Sterile fields b. Sterile zones c. Surgical instruments d. Surgical wound

d.

The main goal of surgery to remove a pus-filled uterus (pyometra) is: a. A prophylactic measure b. To make a diagnosis c. To restore the animal to a normal reproductive state d. To return the animal to health without restoring normal reproductive function

d.

The number of personnel in the operating theater: a. Has no bearing on the outcome of the surgery b. Cannot be controlled in most situations c. Must be high to keep the temperature in the room high d. Should be kept to a minimum to keep airborne bacteria levels low to reduce the likelihood of contamination

d.

The time necessary to disinfect surgical instruments with liquid chemicals can be shortened by: a. Cooling the solution b. Making the solution less concentrated than recommended c. Making the solution more concentrated than recommended d. Warming the solution

d.

Torsion of an organ or part refers to: a. Swelling or expansion b. Inflation with fluid c. Inflation with gas d. Twisting or rotation

d.

Using the dissection method, which parts of the distal forelimb are removed in an onychectomy? a. Nail and proximal phalanx b. Proximal and distal phalanges c. Middle and distal phalanges d. Distal phalanx and nail

d.

What incision is the most appropriate for exploratory surgery of the abdomen of a dog in which the precise location of the problem is not known? a. Flank b. Paracostal c. Paramedian d. Ventral midline

d.

What is the appropriate time to soak an instrument in a cold sterilization solution before adequate sterilization is achieved? a. 30 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 45 minutes d. 10 hours

d.

What is the minimum number of air changes per hour required for adequate ventilation in a surgical suite? a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15

d.

What is the minimum number of throws required when making a surgical knot? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

d.

What is the primary function of a Brown-Adson? a. Retractor b. Rongeur c. Periosteal elevator d. Thumb forceps

d.

What is the purpose of a transfixation ligature? a. To make the ligature stronger b. To close a hollow organ c. To prevent breakage of the suture d. To prevent slippage of the suture

d.

What is the significance of an autoclave that will not properly seal, but still has steam rising from it? a. Because it is the sterilizing agent, it will work fine, but you must be more cautious to prevent burns to personnel. b. The pressure is what kills the microbes, and thus the autoclave will not work. c. It will continue to sterilize but will require more water as the steam escapes. d. The pressure will not increase, which is required to meet the minimum temperature for sterilization.

d.

What portion of a surgical gown in considered sterile during surgery? a. Front and sides, from the neck to the bottom, including the arms b. Front, from the neck to the bottom, including the arms c. Front and sides, from the waist to the neck d. Front, from the waist up, including the arms

d.

What retractors are not handheld? a. Deaver b. Senn c. Rake d. Gelpi

d.

What size of electrical clipper blade is most commonly used for removing the hair from a surgical site? a. No. 10 b. No. 20 c. No. 30 d. No. 40

d.

What surgical drape material prevents bacteria from penetrating the drape by capillary action when the top surface of the drape becomes wet? a. Polyester b. Muslin c. Paper d. Plastic

d.

What surgical materials are sterilized by filtration? a. Nutrient solutions b. Irrigation solutions c. Surfical solutions d. Pharmaceutical solutions

d.

What suture pattern is commonly used to close the skin of cattle following a rumenotomy? a. Simple interrupted b. Simple continuous c. Continuous Ford interlocking pattern d. a and c

d.

What type of dressing best helps decried a wound with extensive tissue damage? a. Dry gauze b. Gauze dressing with an oily antiseptic c. Gauze with a water-soluble antiseptic d. Wet saline dressing

d.

What type of instrument is a Kelly? a. Needle holder b. Scissors c. Towel clamp d. Hemostatic forceps

d.

What type of instrument is an Adson? a. Retractor b. Rongeur c. Periosteal elevator d. Thumb forceps

d.

What type of sterilization technique is not acceptable for instruments used in canine castration? a. Gas sterilization b. Autoclaving c. Chemical sterilization d. Boiling

d.

When a bitch is presented to the hospital for an ovariohysterectomy , the technician should do all of the following except : a. Ensure the dog is female b. Obtain a telephone number where the client can be reached that day c. Ensure that the bitch does not have an abdominal scar d. Give the dog aspirin , because the surgical procedure will be painful

d.

When a break in aseptic technique occurs: a. The surgery must be called off immediately b. The break can be ignored and surgery can continue if the surgery is nearly finished c. The patient is unlikely to recover from the surgery because of infection d. Steps must be taken to remedy the situation immediately to the best of everyone's ability

d.

When a dog is presented to the hospital to be spayed, the veterinary technician should prepare the surgical site. In which area is the incision most commonly made? a. Inguinal b. Scrotum c. Prescrotal prepuce d. Abdominal ventral midline

d.

When a surgeon encounters bleeding, all of the following can be used to control it except: a. Electrocautery b. A hemostat c. Suction d. Rat-tooth forceps

d.

When assisting a surgeon in a gastric dilatation and volvulus surgery, which of the following is not your immediate concern? a. Establishing intravenous access to deliver shock doses of fluids b. Calculating lidocaine dose for constant rate infusion c. Monitoring for cardiac arrhythmias d. Preparing the ultrasound unit to confirm gastric dilatation and volvulus status of animal

d.

When attaching an ECG, which leg should have the red lead attached to it? a. Right foreleg b. Left foreleg c. Right hind leg d. Left hind leg

d.

When folding surgical gown for sterilization: a. Tie the arms together so they do not dangle when the surgeon is owning b. Have the ends of the sleeves on top for easy grasping c. Make sure the ties are on top so they can be used to pick up the gown d. Place the inside of the shoulder seams on top and fold all outer areas of the gown to the inside

d.

When preparing for an orthopedic surgery, shaving the surgical site should be performed: a. The previous night to shorten the anesthesia time b. The first thing in the morning to help the procedures run more smoothly c. Immediately before the induction of anesthesia d. Just after the induction of anesthesia

d.

Where is the sterile zone located on scrubbed personnel? a. Front and sides, from the neck below the neckline to the bottom of the gown, including the arms b. Front, from below the neckline to the bottom of the gown, including the arms c. Front, sides, and back, from the neck to the waist d. Front, from below the neckline to the waist, including the arms

d.

Which of the following agents has been associated with causing neurological disorders in cats? a. Chlorhexidine b. Povidone iodine c. Quaternary ammonium compounds d. Hexachlorophene

d.

Which of the following best describes the location of an incision extending from the xiphoid process to the umbilicus of an animal? a. Flank b. Paracostal c. Paramedian d. Ventral midline

d.

Which of the following best describes the location of an incision through the skin and linea alba, extending from the xiphoid process to the umbilicus? a. Flank b. Paracostal c. Paramedian d. Ventral midline

d.

Which of the following conditions does not require surgical repair? a. Gastric dilatation and volvulus b. Intussusception c. Mesenteric torsion d. Ileus

d.

Which of the following do/does not have to be sterile during a surgical procedure to maintain aseptic technique? a. Drapes b. Gloves c. Gown d. Mask

d.

Which of the following does not describe a type of surgical scissors? a. Mayo b. Metzenbaum c. Iris d. Lembert

d.

Which of the following does not need to be included when labeling a surgical pack? a. Contents of the pack b. Date the pack was made up c. Initials or name of the person making up the pack d. Date by which the pack must be used

d.

Which of the following external factors can delay wound healing? a. Steroids b. Radiation therapy c. Chemotherapeutic agents d. All of the above

d.

Which of the following has the poorest handling ease? a. Silk b. Braided polyglycolic acid (Dexon-Plus) c. Chromic gut d. Monofilament stainless steel wire

d.

Which of the following has the poorest potential for healing and return to normal function after damage and effective surgical repair? a. Bone b. Gastrointestinal tract c. Liver d. Nervous tissue

d.

Which of the following hemostatic forceps has striations different from the others? a. Halstead mosquitos b. Crile c. Rochester-Pean d. Rochester- Carmalt

d.

Which of the following instruments is not considered surgical scissors? a. Iris b. Metzenbaum c. Wire-cutting d. Mayo-Hegar

d.

Which of the following instruments is the only one appropriate for handling tissues during surgery? a. Dressing forceps b. Standard surgical scissors c. Sponge forceps d. Rat-tooth forceps

d.

Which of the following is an advantage of monofilament material over multifilament material? a. Greater knot security b. Greater suture strength c. Less likely to cause suture reactions d. Passes through tissue more easily

d.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of first-intention wound healing? a. Minimal contamination b. Minimal tissue damage c. No continuous movement of would edges resulting from body movement d. Wound edges not approximated

d.

Which of the following is not a common concern when assisting a surgeon with canine cesarean section surgery? a. Minimizing anesthetic drugs that may pass on to the puppies b. Minimizing the time the bitch is in dorsal recumbency because of the weight of the uterus on the aorta c. Suctioning fluid from the puppies' nasal cavities and mouths to stimulate breathing d. Intubating the puppies

d.

Which of the following is not a consideration when choosing a needle for use in a surgical procedure? a. Type of tissue to be sutured b. Location of the tissue to be sutured c. Size of suture material d. Strength of suture material

d.

Which of the following is not a consideration when choosing a suture material? a. The surgeon's training and experience b. The part of the body where it will be used c. The size of the animal on which it will be used d. The age of the animal on which it will be used

d.

Which of the following is not a consideration when evaluating a surgical pack for sterility? a. Sterilization date b. Indicator color change c. Holes or moisture damage d. Incorrect labeling

d.

Which of the following is not a likely cause of dehiscence of an abdominal incision? a. Excessive physical activity b. Stormy recovery from anesthesia c. Surgical would infection d. Suture material larger than needed

d.

Which of the following is not a likely contributor to postoperative wound dehiscence? a. Chronic postoperative vomiting b. Internal suture ends cut too short c. Infection d. Skin sutures left in too long

d.

Which of the following is not a primary concern when assisting a surgeon performing a pyometra surgery? a. Providing preoperative and intraoperative antibiotics for the patient b. Gentle handling of the friable tissue to prevent rupture and drainage of the contents of the uterus into the abdominal cavity c. Fluid therapy to diaries the kidneys d. Lidocaine infusion to prevent ventricular arrhythmias

d.

Which of the following need not be done before moving a horse into surgery for a general anesthesia procedure? a. Remove the shoes b. Rinse the mouth c. Clip as much of the surgical area as possible d. Perform a complete tail wrap

d.

Which of the following procedures is not considered elective? a. Orchidectomy b. Ovariohysterectomy c. Onychectomy d. Enucleation of a proposed eye

d.

Which of the following statements about electrocautery is false? a. If the patient is not properly grounded, the surgeon may receive a shock b. The intensity of the current passed through the unit is adjustable c. Small bleeding blood vessels are sealed with a controlled electrical current that burns the bleeding end d. All portions of the electrocautery unit can and should be sterilized

d.

Which of the following statements is false after serious oral surgery , such as mandibular fracture repair or oral-nasal tumor resection? a. The patient might refuse to eat b. The patient might need a gastrotomy tube c. The patient might refuse to drink d. The patient will no longer be in pain

d.

Which of the following statements regarding pyometra is incorrect? a. Onychectomies are usually curative b. A purulent vaginal discharge is always present c. Affected females usually have polyuria and polydipsia d. It often occurs soon after a heat cycle

d.

Which of the following suffixes is used to describe the surgical repair by suturing? a. -ectomy b. -otomy c. -ostomy d. -rrhapy

d.

Which of the following suture materials is most appropriate to close the muscle layers of a cow following a left-displaced abomasum surgery? a. 3-0 catgut b. 3-0 polydioxanone c. 3 chromic catgut d. 3 polydioxanone

d.

Which orthopedic fixation consists on pins that penetrate fractured bones that are held in place externally by bolts? a. Rush pinning b. Steinmann fixation c. Stack pinning d. Kirschner-Ehmer fixation

d.

Which structure is not part of the spermatic cord? a. Pampiniform plexus b. Vas deferens c. Testicular artery d. Epididymis

d.

While monitoring a patient under anesthesia, you notice its blood pressure begins to drop. After notifying the veterinarian, what steps do you initially take to correct the situation? a. Decrease fluid rate and increase oxygen flow b. Increase fluid rate and increase oxygen flow c. Decrease fluid rate and increase anesthetic d. Increase fluid rate and decrease anesthetic

d.

You are monitoring a cat during an exploratory surgery and notice the pupils are central and dilated. The cat is: a. Too light b. Too deep c. Under the influence of atropine d. In a state impossible to determine without more information

d.

If a dog that receives parenteral fluids is pyrexic, how much additional fluid should be added to the maintenance fluid dose? a. 20% b. 15% c. 25% d. 10%

d. 10%

What is the minimum number of air changes per hour required for adequate ventilation in a surgical suite? a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15

d. 15

An abscess is: a. Usually lanced, drained, flushed, and sutured closed b. A solid infiltration of inflammatory cells c. A rare consequence of bite wounds d. A "walled-off" or circumscribed accumulation of pus

d. A "walled-off" or circumscribed accumulation of pus

When a dog is presented to the hospital to be spayed, the veterinary technician should prepare the surgical site. In which are is the incision most commonly made? a. Inguinal b. Scrotum c. Prescrotal prepuce d. Abdominal ventral midline

d. Abdominal ventral midline

All of the following are benefits to having a peripheral IV catheter placed in advance of surgery, except for: a. Administering anesthesia b. Administering emergency drugs in case of anesthetic complications c. Administering intravenous fluids d. Administering enteral nutrition

d. Administering enteral nutrition

Which of the following statement about electrocautery is false? a. If the patient is not properly grounded, the surgeon may receive a shock b. The intensity of the current passe through the unit is adjustable c. Small bleeding blood vessels are sealed with a controlled electrical current that burns the bleeding end d. All portions of the electrocautery unit can and should be sterilized

d. All portions of the electrocautery unit can and should be sterilized

When a bitch is presented to the hospital for an ovariohysterectomy, the technician should do all of the following, except: a. Ensure the dog is a female b. Obtain a telephone number where the client can be reached that day c. Ensure that the bitch does not have an abdominal scar d. Give the dog aspirin, because the surgical procedure will be painful

d. Give the dog aspirin, because the surgical procedure will be painful

What type of instrument is a Kelly? a. Needle holder b. Scissors c. Towel clamp d. Hemostatic forceps

d. Hemostatic forceps

When attaching an ECG, which leg should have the red lead attached to it? a. Right foreleg b. Left foreleg c. Right hind leg d. Left hind leg

d. Left hind leg

Before starting the surgical procedure, the technician who has scrubbed in with the surgeon should do all of the following, except: a. Count the gauze sponges in the pack b. Arrange the instruments to be located quickly and easily c. Place the scalpel blade on the handle d. Open the suture material

d. Open the suture material

Which of the following statements is false after serious oral surgery, such as mandibular fracture repair or oral-nasal tumor resection? a. The patient might refuse to eat b. The patient might need a gastrostomy tube c. The patient might refuse to drink d. The patient will no longer be in pain

d. The patient will no longer be in pain

What is the significance of an autoclave that will not properly seal, but still has steam rising from it? a. Because it is the sterilizing agent, it will work fine, but you must be more cautious to prevent burns to personnel b. The pressure is what kills the microbes, and thus the autoclave will not work c. It will continue to sterilize but will require more water as the steam escapes d. The pressure will not increase, which is required to meet the minimum temperature for sterilization

d. The pressure will not increase, which is required to meet the minimum temperature for sterilization

A semipermanent feeding tube may be placed in all of the following ways, except: a. Through the nose b. Through a pharyngostomy site c. Through a gastrostomy site d. Through the mouth

d. Through the mouth

What is the primary function of the Brown-Adson? a. Retractor b. Rongeur c. Periosteal elevator d. Thumb forceps

d. Thumb forceps

The placement of a urinary catheter in a male cat with a urethral obstruction usually serves all of the following purposes, except: a. ability to document rate of urine formation b. ability to document rate of urine formation c. decompress bladder d. administration of in situ antibiotics

d. administration of in situ antibiotics

When performing a physical exam on a patient: a. it is only necessary to exam the body part that is of concern to the client b. always start at the rear of the patient c. always start at the patient's head d. all aspects of the exam should be examined in the same order whenever ossible

d. all aspects of the exam should be examined in the same order whenever

Chronic renal disease is one of the diseases seen most commonly in geriatric patients, especially cats. In addition to causing increased PU and PD, renal disease may also cause: a. anemia b. anorexia c. gastric upset d. all of the above

d. all of the above

What is the name of the drug used to reverse the alpha-2 agonist dexmedetomidine? a.medetomidine b. levomedetomidine c. xylazine d. atipamezole

d. atipamezole

If you are visiting all of the housing areas on a farm, in what order should you view or examine the animals? a. cows, weaned heifers or steers, calves b. weaned heifers or steers, calves, cows c. calves, cows, weaned heifers or steers d. calves, weaned heifers or steers, cows

d. calves, weaned heifers or steers, cows

The glands found in the external ear canal are called: a. sebaceous glands b. horn glands c. eccrine sweat glands d. ceruminous glands

d. ceruminous glands

The most useful preventive measures against kennel cough in a shelter would be: a. frequently cleaning exercise areas of feces b. frequently cleaning kennels of urine c. aggressively cleaning and disinfecting food and water dishes d. ensuring that air circulation is good

d. ensuring that air circulation is good

which of the following is not part of the spermatic cord a. pampiniform plexus b. vas deferens c. testicular artery d. epididymis

d. epididymis

When administering oral liquid medications the patient's neck should be: a. hyperextended b. flexed in a downward angle c. flexed in an upward angle d. held at a neutral angle

d. held at a neutral angle

what is meant by the term iatrogenic a. wounds induced by the animal itself b. patient-caused additional trauma to an existing wound c. patient-caused additional trauma to a surgical incision, generally licking d. induced or caused by the vet surgeon or staff

d. induced or caused by the vet surgeon or staff

When an animal has a sinus bradycardia, the heart rate: a. when an animal has a sinus bradycardia, the heart rate b. has stopped c. is normal d. is too slow

d. is too slow

Which statement concerning soda lime is least accurate? a. it can be nonfunctional and still maintain its original color b. its capacity should be at least one to two times the patient's tidal volume c. it removes carbon dioxide from the breathing circuit d. it should be changed once a month

d. it should be changed once a month

When attaching an ECG, which leg should have the red lead attached to it? a. right foreleg b. left foreleg c. right hing leg d. left hind leg

d. left hind leg

when attaching an ECG, which leg should have the red lead attached to it a. right foreleg b. left foreleg c. right hind leg d. left hind leg

d. left hind leg

which of the following does not describe a characteristic of ethylene oxide a. carcinogenic b. teratogenic c. mutagenic d. mitogenic

d. mitogenic

A common colloid preparation administered IV is: a. a common colloid prep admin b. normasol-R solution c. sodium chloride 9% d. pentastarch

d. pentastarch

Erysipeloid of people, caused by Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, is the result of wound infection with contaminated material. What farm animal is most likely to carry this organism? a. horses b. cattle c. sheep d. pigs

d. pigs

What is the correct term for a radiograph taken with air in the urinary bladder? a. cystogram b. aerocystogram c. electrocystogram d. pneumocystogram

d. pneumocystogram

Which of the following is not a recommended agent for patient surgical prep? a. chlorhexidine b. roccal c. alcohol d. povidone iodine

d. povidone iodine

Initial treatment for a cat with an open pneumothorax may include all of the following except: a. thoracocentesis b. oxygen administration c. covering the wound d. radiographic exam

d. radiographic exam

Most of the clinical signs seen in an animal in shock from excessive blood loss are attributable to: a. acidosis b. alkalosis c. cell death d. redistribution of blood flow

d. redistribution of blood flow

A heartworm preventive that is also approved for the treatment of ear mites and sarcoptic mange is : a. diethylcarbamazine (filaribits) b. milbemycin (interceptor) c. ivermectin (heartgard) d. selamectin (revolution)

d. selamectin (revolution)

Recovery from a volatile anesthetic will be prolonged because of all of the following except when: a. the animal is under for several hours b. a high percent of the anesthetic is biotransformed c. the solubility coefficient is high d. the MAC is high

d. the MAC is high

The client should be instructed to contact the veterinary hospital if any of the following occur with a splint or cast, except: a. The animal chews at the splint or cast b. The splint or cast is wet c. The leg looks swollen above or below the cast d. the animal is waling on or using the splinted or casted leg

d. the animal is waling on or using the splinted or casted leg

What is the term for the procedure in which a sterile needle is inserted into the chest and fluid is withdrawn into a syringe? a. cystocentesis b. thoracorrhagia c. pneumogenesis d. thoracocentesis

d. throacocentesis

Which of the following is an appropriate method for restraining an animal that does not respond well to gentle words and handling? a. force the patient down and proceed with the procedure without full control b. recruit help from the owner for physical restraint c. running the patient around until it is too tired to struggle d. use chemical agents for restraint

d. use chemical agents for restraint

Which of the following clinical signs would not normally be seen if a dog were suffering from hemorrhage after an ovariohysterectomy?

decreased HR

Dystocia is

difficult or abnormal birth

dystocia is?

difficult or abnormal birth

In general, the difference between a disinfectant and an antiseptic is

disinfectants are agents used on inanimate objects, and antiseptic agents are used on living tissue

Preparing a patients skin for surgery

does nothing to affect the outcome of the surgery

Which of the following surgical packs would bot be considered contaminated and would not need to be reautoclaved?

double wrapped paper pack stored in a closed cabinet for 6 weeks

What does a change in color in autoclave tape indicate to a surgical nurse?

during the autoclaving process, steam has reached the tape

There is more concern about pulling out the endotracheal tube too soon in what breed of dog?

english bulldog

when a male dog is presented to the hospital for a castration procedure the tech should do all of the following EXCEPT? -ensure that the dog is a male -ensure that there is two testicles in the scrotum -ensure that the dog is not in heat -ensure that there is a telephone number to reach the client

ensure that the dog is not in heat

surgical procedures of the ear include all of the following except? -otoplasty -bulla osteotomy -aural hematoma drainage -enucleation

enucleation

Which of the following is not considered an elective procedure?

enucleation of a proptosed eye

Which of the following is not part of the spermatic cord

epididymis

True or False: Stridor is an inspiratory noise similar to snoring caused by obstruction of airflow at the pharynx or larynx

false

True or False: When treating a parasite infestations of the ear, it is not important to clean the ear first before administering topical medication.

false

when feeding the patient through a gastrostomy tube the tech should?

flush the tube with water

clipper burn can cause all of the following adverse effects EXCEPT? -excessive licking of the area -follicular damage preventing hair growth -inhibition of wound healing -promotion of bacterial growth

follicular damage preventing hair growth

The agent used in gas st

formaldehyde

Where is the sterile zone located on scrubbed personnel?

front, from the neck to the waist, including the arms

An advantage of using a Gelpi retractor over a Senn retractor is

gelpi is self retaining

when a bitch is presented to the hospital for an OHE the tech should do all of the following EXCEPT? -ensure the dog is a female -obtain a telephone number where the client can be reached that day -ensure that the bitch does not have an abdominal scar -give the dog aspirin because the surgical procedure will be painful

give the dog aspirin because the surgical procedure will be painful

Which of the following is a needle driver that is also able to cut sutures?

hegar- olsen

Scrotal swelling after orchidectomy is most likely due to a

hematoma

what type of instrument is a kelly?

hemostatic forceps

Which of the following agents has been associated with causing neurological disorders in cats?

hexachlorophene

The animal is to be prepared for a femoral head ostectomy. What part of the body is prepped?

hip

a patient is to be prepared for a femoral head osteotomy, what part of the body is prepped?

hip

Which parasite causes blood loss, especially in young animals? roundworm tapeworm heartworm hookworm

hookworm

Of the common domestic animal species, only ________ are infected by pinworms. sheep goats cattle horses

horses

You are monitoring a cat during an exploratory sx and notice the pupils are central and dilated. The cat is

impossible to determine wo more info.

Ovariohysterectomy is not most commonly performed

in young female dogs

Diuresis is best defined as excess tubular filtrate secretion increased urine production excess creatinine and sodium secretion water retention

increased urine production

Which of the following is not a concern when assisting a surgeon in a canine cesarean section surgery?

intubating the puppies

Which of the following is not true of an aural hematoma?

is repaired by trimming back the pinna

all of the following statements are true regarding gastrointestinal GI surgery EXCEPT? -it is absolutely essential that all patients fast before GI surgery, the GI tract must be empty before -at no point is the GI tract sterile, therefore it is important to guard against contamination -irrigation of the peritoneal cavity with a sterile isotonic solution after GI surgery helps the number of microorganisms that remain free in the peritoneum following the procedure -the surgical assistant must be alert to the possibility of intestinal contents contaminating the abdominal cavity and must help the surgeon prevent this from happening

it is absolutely essential that all patients fast before GI surgery, the GI tract must be empty before

All of the following statements are true about gastrointestinal surgery except

it is absolutely essential to fast all patients before GI sx. The GI tract must be empty before the surgery.

You are checking on a recent surgical wound and find that the tissue is slightly warmer and redder than the surronding tissue. What is the significane of this?

it is normal, bc the first stage of wound healing is inflammation

which statement regarding first-intention wound healing is false? -it occurs without infection -it occurs when the skin edges are held together in apposition - it usually has some degree of suppuration -it occurs with minimal scar formation

it usually has some degree of suppuration

A disinfectant labeled to be virucidal

kills viruses

When performing chest compressions on an animal that weighs 15 pounds the animal should be placed in a

lateral recumbent position

when attaching an ECG which leg should have the red lead attached to it?

left hind leg

When attaching an ECG, which leg should have the red lead attached to it?

left hind limb

When attaching an ECG, which leg should have the red lead attached to it?

left hindleg

in the QRS complex, a tall R wave indicates

left ventricular enlargement

Which of the following is not the formal name of a retractor

lembert

Which of the following do/does not have to sterile during a surgical procedure to maintain aseptic technique

mask

during a surgical procedure which of the following does not have to be sterile to maintain aseptic technique? -mask -drapes -instruments -gloves

mask

When a dog or cat is spayed, the surgical incision is most commonly made

midline, caudal to the umbilicus

When a dog or cat is spayed, the surgical incision is most commonly made

midline, cranial to the umbilicus

What size scalpel blade fits on a No. 3 scalpel handle?

no. 10

What size scalpel blade 4

no. 20

What three factors determine whether a microbe will cause dz

number of pathogens, host resistance, and proper use of aseptic technique

Needle holders that have scissors, as well as a needle-holding surface, are named

olsen hegar

A dewclaw is also known as

onychectomy

surgical procedures of the eye and adrenal structures include all of the following except? -entropion repair -keratectomy -onychectomy -enucleation

onychectomy

before starting the surgical procedure the tech who has scrubbed in with the surgeon should do all of the following except? -count the gauze sponges in the pack -arrange the instruments to be located quickly and easily -place the scape blade on the handle -open the suture material

open the suture material

When passing surgical instruments to the surgeon, the technician should do all of the following except

pass the instrument in the open position

when passing surgical instruments to the surgeon the technician should do all of the following EXCEPT? -gently but firmly slap the palm of the surgeon with the instrument -pass the instrument in the open position -pass the instrument with the handle placed into the surgeon's hand -pass the curved instrument so that it is oriented in the surgeon's hand with the concave side up

pass the instrument in the open position

Which of the following is an advantage of monofilament material over mulitfilament material?

passes through tissue more easily

Erysipeloid of people, caused by Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, is the result of wound infection with contaminated material. What farm animal is most likely to carry this organism? horses cattle sheep pigs

pigs

surgical instruments should be?

placed on surfaces and never dropped or thrown

a chest tube is placed when an animal has?

pneumothorax

Which of the following is an absorb able suture material?

polydioxanone

When performing a canine orchidectomy, the location of the incision is usually

prescrotal

when a dog is presented for castration and both testicles are descended the vet tech will prepare the surgical site in which area is the incision most commonly made?

prescrotal prepuce

An ovariohysterectomy may be performed for all of the following reasons except?

prevention of estrus

Overinflation or underinflation of the endotracheal tube cuff can result in all of the following except

prevention of fluid aspiration into the lungs

overinflation or under inflation of the endotracheal tube can result in all of the following except? -prevention of fluid aspiration into the lungs -pressure necrosis of the cells lining the trachea -inability to keep the patient under anesthesia with the expected concentration of gas anesthetic -increased levels of waste gas anesthesia in the surgical room

prevention of fluid aspiration into the lungs

an ovariohysterectomy might be performed for all of the following reasons except? -prevention of prostate cancer -prevention of pyomtera -sterilization of the animal -prevention of estrus

prevention of prostate cancer

An accumulation of purulent discharge within the uterus is called

pyometritis

Which of the following disinfectants has the weakest virucidal activity?

quaternary ammonium compounds at standard concentrations

Which of the following instruments is the only one appropriate for handling tissues during surgery?

rat tooth forceps

You are asked to send only a plasma sample in for a lab test. After centrifugation you should transfer the plasma to a: purple top green top red top tiger top

red top

preparing a patient's skin of surgery:

reduces the bacterial flora to a level that can be controlled by the patients immune system

staples and other metal clips can?

resist infection

Which of the following is not recommended agent for pt surgical prep

roccal

Which of the following forceps has the best crushing action

rochester carmalt

Which of the following hemostatic forceps has striations different than the others?

rochester carmalt

The animal is to be prepared for an orchidectomy. What part of the body is prepped?

scrotal/prescrotal area

a patient is to be prepared for an orchidectomy, what part of the body is prepped?

scrotal/prescrotal area

when a cat is presented for castration and both testicles are descended the vet tech will prepare the surgical site, in which area is the incision most commonly made?

scrotum

Scrotal swelling after an orchidectomy is most likely due to a

seroma

If a surgical incision is dehiscing, the discharge, if present, is most likely to be

serosanguineous

post-op physically therapy can help the patient in each of the following ways EXCEPT? -enhancing patient comfort -preventing complicaitons from disuse -slowing the healing process -decreasing edema

slowing the healing process

Which of the following statements about electrocautery is false?

small bleeding blood vessels are sealed with a controlled electrical current that burns the bleeding end

During CPCR, stimulation of the Governor Vessel 26 acupuncture point is used to stimulate respiration During CPCR, stimulation of the Governor Vessel 26 acupuncture point is used to

stimulate respiration

Which of the following is not a major criterion used to classify suture material

tensile strength versus size

the client should be instructed to contact the vet clinic is any of the following occur with a splint or cast EXCEPT? -the animal chews at the splint or cast -the splint or cast is wet -the leg looks swollen above or below the cast -the animal is walking on or using the splinted or casted leg

the animal is walking on or using the splinted or casted leg

Which of the following statement regarding pyometra are fasle

the bitch that goes to surgery will have only her uterus removed

which of the following statements regarding pyometra is false? -the bitch that goes to surgery will have the ovaries and uterus removed -the bitch that goes to surgery will have only her uterus removed -the uterus might have ruptured before surgery begins -the patient represents a high-risk anesthesia case, because other organs in the body might be compromised

the bitch that goes to surgery will have only her uterus removed

which of the following statements regarding cesarean sections is false? -bloody vaginal discharge is expected following surgery -the newborns delivered by cesarean section are under the effects of anesthesia -the client should observe the surgical incision starting after 1 week because the newborns don't start moving around the mammary area until then -the newborn should be immediately removed from the membranous sac that covers its body when it is removed from the uterus

the client should observe the surgical incision starting after 1 week because the newborns don't start moving around the mammary area until then

What specifically does the strip on the autoclave tape indicate when it turns black?

the correct temperature has been reached

all of the following are instructions provided to a client when the patient has had a penrose drain placed, EXCEPT? -an e collar may be needed -clean the skin around the drain with warm water or diluted chlorhexidine -the drain will fall out and there is no need to return for removal -carefully watch the animal and prevent it from licking or chewing at the drain

the drain will fall out and there is no need to return for removal

All of the following are instructions to give owners of animals that have a Penrose drain placed except

the drain will fall out, no need to return for removal

which of the following is NOT true about dogs that are spayed before their first estrous cycle? -the hair coat will change and become easier to manage with less shedding -the surgery is generally considered easier to perform if the bitch has not been through an estrous cycle -mammary cancer is less likely to occur in a bitch that has been spayed before her first estrus cycle -the uterus and ovaries enlarge after the first estrous cycle, this necessitates a larger abdominal incision when the bitch is spayed

the hair coat will change and become easier to manage with less shedding

Which of the following statements about GI sx is false

the patient should be fed immediately upon recovery from anesthesia

which of the following statements is false after serious oral surgery such as mandibular fracture repair or oral-nasal tumor resection? -the patient might refuse to eat -the patient might need a gastrotomy tube -the patient might refuse to drink -the patient will no longer be in pain

the patient will no longer be in pain

The owner should be instructed to contact the veterinary hospital if any of the following occur to the splint or cast except

the pet is walking in or using the splinted or casted leg

what is the significance of an autoclave that will not properly seal but still has steam rising from it?

the pressure will not increase which is required to meet the minimum temperature for sterilization

a semipermanent feeding tube may be placed in all of the following ways EXCEPT? -through the nose -through a pharyngostomy site -through a gastrostomy site -through the mouth

through the mouth

what is the primary function of a brown-adson?

thumb forceps

Which of the following need not be considered in the timing of the autoclave cycle?

time required to seal the chamber

Why is it important to minimize the amount of dead space when suturing

to decrease the chance of seroma formation

which of the following is not true of an aural hematoma? -an aural hematoma must be drained -trimming back the pinna -it is painful and bothersome to the animal -an aural hematoma may be drained with the ear folded back across the top of the head

trimming back the pinna

a proptosed globe can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal, true or false?

true

The animal is to be prepared for a cystotomy. What part of the body is prepped?

ventral abdomen

The animal is to be prepared for an ovariohysterectomy. What part of the body is prepped?

ventral abdomen

a patient is to be prepared for a cystotomy, what part of the body is prepped?

ventral abdomen

a patient is to be prepared for an OHE, what part of the body is prepped?

ventral abdomen

proper splint and bandage care includes all of the following EXCEPT? -washing the splint or bandage daily -preventing the bandage or splint from becoming wet -inspecting the bandage or splint daily for any changes such as swelling above or below -inspecting the bandage or splint for any shifting or change in position on the limb

washing the splint or bandage daily

When attaching an animal to an ECG, which lead is hooked up to the right foreleg?

white

strike-through refers to

wicking of bacteria through a surgical drape that has become wet, allowing bacteria to contaminate the sterile area

If a nonsterile person must move to the other side of a sterile person, the nonsterile person should pass

with his or her side facing the back of the surgeon

The combination drug Telazol contains -diazepam and ketamine -diazepam and xylazine -zolazepam and Tiletamine -xylazine and Tiletamine

zolazepam and Tiletamine

A cat that weighs 11lb (5kg) is prescibed antibiotics at a dosage of 0.2mg/lb (0.44mg/kg). The medication is available only in 2 mg tablets. How many tablets should the cat receive in a single dose? ~1/2 tablet ~1 tablet ~1/4 tablet ~1 1/2 tablet

~1 tablet

A dog that experiences shock may have fluid replacement provided by all of the following. The least desirable is Crystalloids Hypertonic saline Dextrose Colloids

Dextrose

What vessel of the equine is palpable for the pulse rate? Digital artery Cephalic vein Jugular vein femoral artery

Digital artery

When applying a leg wrap to the cannon area of the front leg, even pressure should be used throughout the process to avoid injury to the: Cephalic vein Navicular bone Digital flexor tendons Olecranon process

Digital flexor tendons

Use of an indwelling catheter to an artery to monitor blood pressure is termed -Direct monitoring -Central venous pressure -Indirect monitoring -Peripheral venous pressure

Direct monitoring

When preforming cardiac compressions on a dog that weighs 9 pounds what is the point of compression?

Directly over the heart

Why are most antibiotics contraindicated in rabbits and hamsters? Highly permeable blood-brain barrier Small hearts sensitive to overstimulation Disruption of gut flora Increased risk of renotoxicity

Disruption of gut flora

___can cause convulsions when administered alone at high doses. -Dissociative anesthetics -Barbiturates -Benzodiazepine tranquilizers -Propofol

Dissociative anesthetics

What type of skull type do Collies have? Brachycephalic Mesaticephalic Doliocephalic Pesaticephalic

Doliocephalic

The adverse effects of anesthetic compounds are -Nothing to worry about -Never present with smaller doses -Dose dependent -Not dose dependent

Dose dependent

________ meaning difficult birth, represents a majority of obstetric emergencies

Dystocia

Which of the following options is not zoonotic? Toxoplasma Echinococcus Dipylidium Giardia

Echinococcus

The life cycle of canine flea includes which of the following intermediate stages? Egg, larva, nymph, adult Egg, larva, adult Egg, nymph, adult Egg, larva, pupa, adult

Egg, larva, pupa, adult

Recovery from barbiturate anesthesia is prolonged by all of the following except -Increased blood glucose concentration -Sight hounds -Liver disease -Elevated cardiac output

Elevated cardiac output

Booster vaccines are given to -Elicit a primary immune response -Cause the production of IgM antibodies -Stimulate the innate immune system -Elicit a secondary response and a higher antibody titer

Elicit a secondary response and a higher antibody titer

___ may occur because of rapid recovery from isoflurane anesthesia. -Diffusion hypoxia -Second gas effect -Biotransformation -Emergence delirium

Emergence delirium

Ketosis in dairy cows may result from a primary deficiency of __ intake or may be secondary to other disease that cause ____ Water, dehydration Calcium, hypocalcemia Energy, anorexia Selenium; neurologic signs

Energy, anorexia

Scooter, a 13-year-old miniature schnauzer, has arrested under anesthesia for routine dentistry. You run to the crash cart and grab what you know to be the drug of choice for cardiac arrest, which is Epinephrine Lidocaine Digoxin Dobutamine

Epinephrine

Coggins is the test for what Equine disease? Equine infection anemia Equine protozoal myeloencephalitis Potomac horse fever Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis

Equine infection anemia

What part of the CBC cannot be done manually with adequate accuracy? Erythrocyte count Leukocyte count Packed cell volume WBC differential

Erythrocyte count

A popular induction drug for patients with cardiac disease is -Thiopental -Lidocaine -Innovar-Vet -Etomidate

Etomidate

How often should instrument milk be changed?

Every 18 days

Which of the following is not an effect associated with atropine administration? -Tachycardia -Excessive salivation -Mydriasis -Decreased GI motility

Excessive salivation

Proud flesh is the Persistence of the spermatic cord following castration of a horse Exuberant granulation tissue developing in a wound Cutaneous neoplasm found in a horse Crest of a stallion's neck

Exuberant granulation tissue developing in a wound

True or False: Stertor is characterized by harsh high pitched respiratory sound usually caused by obstruction to airflow at pharynx or larynx

False

True or False: The goal of treating hypovolemia is to restore hydration over 24 hours or longer

False

Feline injection site sarcomas are primarily linked with which two vaccines? FeLV and Rabies vaccines Feline calici/herpes and panleukopenia vaccines FeLV and feline calici/herpes vaccines Rabies and FIV vaccines

FeLV and Rabies vaccines

Flea allergy dermatitis of dogs is caused by what agent?

Flea Saliva

Which statement concerning fleas is true? "Flea dirt" is flea feces Fleas are host specific Adults cannot survive for long periods without feeding Flea eggs are not sticky and they fall off into the environment

Flea eggs are not sticky and they fall off into the environment

The most common dental procedure performed on a horse is Quidding Curettage Scaling Floating

Floating

What is the common name for Fasciola hepatica Whipworm Hookworm Fluke Tapeworm

Fluke

What can be done to decrease the risk of esophageal lesions in cats secondary to oral medications? Do not give oral medications Crush the medications Advise the owner to bring in the cat for medicating Follow the medication with water

Follow the medication with water

Free or marginal gingival Occupies the space between the teeth Is the most apical portion of the gingival Forms the gingival sulcus around the tooth Is tightly bound to the cementum

Forms the gingival sulcus around the tooth

What method of urine sample collection would not be associated with traumatic hematuria? Catheterization You Answered Manual expression Free catch

Free catch

Envelope viruses are rendered inert with -Freezing and thawing -Heat -Soap and water -None of the above

Freezing and thawing

Of the following, what is the best diagnostic assay to determine feline diabetes? Glucose Lipase Fructosamine Amylase

Fructosamine

Which of the following drugs is classified as a loop diuretic and is typically used to treat heart failure and pulmonary edema?

Furosemide

In horses the blood chemistry tests most commonly used to evaluate liver functions are Alanine transminase and aspartate aminotransferase Electrolytes and blood urea nitrogen Gamma-glutamyl transferase and sorbitol dehyrogenase Amylase and lipase

Gamma-glutamyl transferase and sorbitol dehyrogenase

The advantages of a nonrebreathing system, as compared with a circle breathing system, include all of the following except -Reduced resistance to breathing -Greater potential for hypothermia caused by high flows needed -Reduced mechanical dead space -No soda lime required

Greater potential for hypothermia caused by high flows needed

Which one of the following is a disadvantage of multifilament (vs. monofilament) suture material? Less knot security Tear tissues more easily Greater tendency for wicking bacteria Less strength

Greater tendency for wicking bacteria

Oxygen cylinders are painted what color? -Green -Gray -Blue -Brown

Green

___ is commonly used along with ketamine or thiopental as an induction agent for adult horses. -Propofol -Phenobarbital -Guaifenesin -Isoflurane

Guaifenesin

Rochester Carmalt Forceps

Have longitudinal serrations with a crosshatched pattern at the tips

In a hypothermic patient, which of the following statements is true regarding supplemental heat? Heating lamps can cause thermal burns and should be avoided You Answered Electrical heating pads are the most appropriate means of warming patients Heated circulation water blankets should never be used Hot water bottles should be placed directly against the patient

Heating lamps can cause thermal burns and should be avoided

Which statement concerning zoonotic diseases is true? Tuberculosis is never transmitted from dogs to people. Histoplasmosis is seldom transmitted from dogs to people. Animals with toxoplasmosis are always visibly ill. Blastomycosis occurs in reptiles and amphibians only.

Histoplasmosis is seldom transmitted from dogs to people.

Which parasites can infect puppies through the dams milk? Lungworm, flukes Tapeworm, whipworm Hookworm, roundworm Coccidia, ringworm

Hookworm, roundworm

Which of the following is characterized as droopy eyelids, protruding nictitans, and miosis? Brachycephalic syndrome Horner syndrome Wobbler syndrome Vestibular syndrome

Horner syndrome

Detomidine is approved for use in -Dogs -Cats -Horses -Cattle

Horses

Flunixin meglumine (Banamine) is an NSAID most commonly used in: Dogs for the treatment of chronic osteoarthritis Horses for reducing fever Horses for the treatment of colic Dogs for its anticoagulant activity

Horses for the treatment of colic

What is one of the most common long-term problems associated using glucocorticoids like prednisolone in dogs? Diabetes mellitus Hypoadrenocorticism Hypothryoidism Hyperandrenocorticism

Hyperandrenocorticism

What is the underlying cause of icterus? Anemia hyperbilirubinemia ketonuria hyperhemaglobinemia

Hyperbilirubinemia

What is a potential electrolyte imbalance that can occur as a result of administering a loop diuretic to a small animal? Hypokalemia Hyperkalemia Hypercalcemia Hypocalcemia

Hypokalemia

Vaccines may be given by any of the following routes, except -SQ -IM -IN -IP

IP

Which of the following is not an effective aseptic surgical technique?

If the sterility of an item is in doubt, consider it sterile

Which immunoglobulin is most abundant in the serum and plays the major role in humoral immunity? -IgG -IgM -IgA -IgD

IgG

Which is not a malfunction of the immune system? -Allergy -Immunodeficiency -Autoimmune disease -Immunity by vaccination

Immunity by vaccination

A Caslick operation is done in horses to Stop roaring Improve fertility Treat navicular disease Clean out the guttural pouches

Improve fertility

Rabies vaccines licensed to be administered only intramuscularly are to be injected In the thigh In the gluteals In the pectorals Over the crest of the shoulders

In the thigh

A positive inotrope would cause which of the following effects? Increased heart rate Increased force of cardiac contractions Decreased heart rate Decreased force of cardiac contractions

Increased force of cardiac contractions

What effect does renal failure or compromised liver function have on the pharmacokinetics of many drugs? Decreased absorption of drugs given orally Increased elimination rate of drugs from the body Decreased volume of distribution of drugs Increased half-life of drugs

Increased half-life of drugs

If a dog is too deeply anesthetized, all of the following may be seen except -Tachycardia -Bradycardia -Pale mm color -Increased jaw muscle tone

Increased jaw muscle tone

Which of the following is a sign of overhydration? Decreased respiratory rate Decreased capillary refill time Increased respiratory rate Increased salivation

Increased respiratory rate

Prolonged exposure of serum to the blood cells before the serum is removed from the clot can result in: Increased serum glucose Increased serum phosphorus Increased serum enzyme activity Increased serum sodium

Increased serum phosphorus

Which of the following is not an advantage for ET intubation? -Ensures patent airway -Increases dead space and allows for more efficient ventilation -Prevents aspiration pneumonitis -Improves oxygenation of arterial blood

Increases dead space and allows for more efficient ventilation

Which of the following is not a good reason to use a preanesthetic? -Calms the patient -Minimizes the dose of induction agent needed -Smoothes induction and recovery -Increases vagal activity

Increases vagal activity

Glucocorticoids are often used in veterinary medicine for treatment of all of the following conditions except Allergies Musculoskeletal problems Infections Immune-mediated disease

Infections

If skin edges are under extreme tension, what is the suture pattern of choice? Simple continuous Simple interrupted Interrupted horizontal mattress Continuous horizontal mattress

Interrupted horizontal mattress

An abnormally elevated central venous presssure developing during anesthesia and surgery may indicate Intravenous fluid overload Increased cardiac output dehydration Liver disease

Intravenous fluid overload

An abscess

Is a "walled-off" or circumscribed accumulation of pus

Peritoneal fluid of horses Is normally very thick and viscid Is normally malodorous Is frequently examined in cases of colic Normally contains bacteria

Is frequently examined in case of colic

Which of the following agents can be used as both an antiseptic as well as a disinfectant? -Quaternary ammonium compounds -Mercurial compounds -Isopropyl alcohol -Formaldehyde

Isopropyl alcohol

Which of the following types of fluids is used primarily to replace intravascular volume? Hypertonic crystalloid Isotonic crystalloid Synthetic colloid Whole blood

Isotonic crystalloid

The following statement describes an allergy -It involves the excess production of IgE antibody and release of histamine -It is rare in all species of animals, but when it occurs it is always hereditary -It is a localized reaction to an allergen in animals that produce too much IgA antibody to that compound -It is a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction

It involves the excess production of IgE antibody and release of histamine

Unlike many other penicillins, penicillin G is not recommended for use by mouth (po). Why? It upsets the stomach. It is destroyed by gastric acid. It causes severe diarrhea and intestinal cramping. It is ineffectively absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract.

It is destroyed by gastric acid.

Which statement concerning soda lime is least accurate? -It removes CO2 from the breathing circuit -Its capacity, should be at least 1-2 times the patient's tidal volume -It can be nonfunctional and still maintain its original color -It should be changed once a month

It should be changed once a month

Ideally an ET tube should be inserted so that -Its tip is midway between the thoracic inlet and the larynx -The adaptor is just caudal to the incisors -It is deep enough to prevent backing out -Its tip just reaches the third rib

Its tip is midway between the thoracic inlet and the larynx

What drug is used most commonly as a microfilaricide in treatment of heartworm disease? Thiacetarsemide Diethylcarbamazine Ivermectin Piperazine

Ivermectin

What vein is commonly used for IV injections in Horses? Tail vein Aural Vein Cephalic vein Jugular vein

Jugular vein

When gavage feeding feeding parrots you should ensure that your feeding tube extends to the level of: Just cranial of the thoracic inlet The 5th rib space The last rib margin The synsacrum

Just cranial of the thoracic inlet

Apneustic breathing patterns are frequently seen in cats with use of -Pentobarbital -Thiamylal -Ketamine -Guaifenesin

Ketamine

Which drug is a dissociative anesthetic? Fentanyl Ketamine Xylazine Acepromazine

Ketamine

Which drug is a dissociative anesthetic? -Thiopental sodium -Ketamine -Xylazine -Acepromazine

Ketamine

When an endotracheal tube is being inserted in a horse, the animal should be in Sternal recumbency with its head at a 90 degree angle to the neck Sternal recumbency with its head and neck extended Lateral recumbency with its head at a 90 degree angle to the neck Lateral recumbency with its head, neck and back extended

Lateral recumbency with its head, neck and back extended.

When an ET tube is being inserted in a horse, the animal should be placed in -Sternal recumbency with its head at a 90 degree angle to the neck -Sternal recumbency with its head and neck extended -Lateral recumbency with its head at a 90 degree angle to the neck -Lateral recumbency with its head, neck, and back extended

Lateral recumbency with its head, neck, and back extended

What guidelines are followed when cutting suture ends for the doctor in closing an incision? Cut the suture ends next to the knot Leave the suture ends long enough for ease of removal The tips of the scissors should not be used to cut the suture Technicians are not allowed to cut sutures

Leave the suture ends long enough for ease of removal

When attaching an ECG, which leg should have the red lead attached to it?

Left hind leg

When attaching an ECG, which leg should have the red lead attached to it? Right foreleg Left foreleg Right hind leg Left hind leg

Left hind leg

You are to assist with a rumenotomy. Where do you prep for the surgery? Left paralumbar fossa Right paralumbar fossa Right paramedian region

Left paralumbar fossa

what drug can be used to treat ventricular tachycardia?

Lidocaine

Which is least likely to be a clinical sign of a patient experiencing allergies? Face rubbing Ear problems Loss of appetite Skin rashes

Loss of appetite

Which of the following would be considered an abnormal finding on healthy canine external ear canal cytology? Cerumen Epithelial cells Malassezia Debris

Malassezia

What drug promotes diuresis and decreases cerebral edema in a patient following cardiac arrest by drawing water from the interstitial space between cells?

Mannitol

What cells are sensitized by IgE to produce large quantities of histamines? -Mast cells and basophils -Eosinophils and basophils -Monocytes and lymphocytes -Neutrophils and eosinophils

Mast cells and basophils

Prednisone should not be given with: Midazolam Diphenhydramine Famotidine Meloxicam

Meloxicam

What cells respond more quickly to a second antigen exposure than to the initial exposure? -Thymocyctes -Monocytes -Memory B cells -Neutrophils

Memory B cells

Type of scissors with long handles used for cutting delicate tissue are -Littauer -Metzenbaum -Mayo -Lister

Metzenbaum

All of the following drugs predispose the animal to bloat except -Atropine -Medetomidine -Glycopyrrolate -Midazolam

Midazolam

Ketosis in dairy cows may result from all of the following except: Deficient energy intake Abomasal displacement Milk fever Metritis

Milk fever

Adequate oxygen may be evaluated subjectively during anesthesia by the -Heart rate -Respiratory rate -Mm color and CRT -Pulse pressure

Mm color and CRT

What can a technician do to recognize early signs of nephrotoxicity in an animal that receives aminoglycosides? Monitor blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels Monitor the CBC and total protein level Monitor feces for change in consistency Monitor urine for casts and protein

Monitor urine for casts and protein

Mask inductions are -Best used in dogs and cats with airway obstruction -Best used in aggressive dogs and cats -Absolutely the best way to induce anesthesia in all dogs and cats -More appropriately used in calm dogs and cats

More appropriately used in calm dogs and cats

Diazepam is used to produce -Analgesia -Hypnosis -Muscle relaxation -Vomiting

Muscle relaxation

Guaifenesin is most used in horses and cattle to provide -Analgesia -Muscle relaxation -Anesthesia -Diuresis

Muscle relaxation

Methocarbamol is labeled as an adjunctive therapy for Seizures Muscle tremors Increased intracranial pressure Endocrinopathies

Muscle tremors

Which of the following is a feline red blood cell parasite that is a bacteria, causes hemolytic anemia, and has the flea as its suspected vector? Cytauxzoon felis Mycoplasma haemofelis Mycoplasma haemocanis Anaplasma marginale

Mycoplasma haemofelis

Which drug is a narcotic antagonist? -Naloxone -Atropine -Pancuronium -Droperidol

Naloxone

Describe the posture of a pet with orthopnea

Neck extended, crouching, elbows abducted

What type of detergent should be used to clean instruments? -Slightly acid pH -Neutral pH -Slightly alkaline pH -Does not matter

Neutral pH

In normal healthy patients the most common leukocyte on a canine patient are _______, and the most common leukocyte in bovine patients are _______. Neutrophils, Eosinophils Monocytes, Lymphocytes Neutrophils, Lymphocytes Monoycytes, Neutrophils

Neutrophils, Lymphocytes

Activated charcoal devices absorb all inhalation agents except -Isoflurane -Halothane -Sevoflurane -Nitrous oxide

Nitrous oxide

Propofol is a/an -Xylazine antagonist -Ultrashort acting barbiturate -Ketamine like dissociative -Nonbarbiturate, IV anesthetic with hypotensive potential

Nonbarbiturate, IV anesthetic with hypotensive potential

Transfusions in cases of autoimmune hemolytic anemia are Recommended to replace lost platelets Recommended to replace lost RBCs Not recommended unless done very early in the condition Not recommended because they may increase hemolysis

Not recommended because they may increase hemolysis

A 12 year old Warmblood mare has been sedated intravenously with a combination of xylazine and butorphanol for dental evaluation because she has been dropping feed. You listen to the heart immediately after sedation and note a heart rate of 20 beats per minute (normal 28-44) with an occasional "dropped" beat, the horse is standing quietly. What is the most appropriate action to take next? Prepare a dose of yohimbine to reverse the xylazine. Prepare a dose of atropine to increase heart rate. Nothing, this is a normal response. Prepare a dose of naloxone to reverse the butorphanol.

Nothing, this is a normal response.

Which of the following is a needle driver that is also able to cut sutures?

Olsen-Hegar

Which of the following is not true regarding crytorchidism in horses? One or both of the testicles have not descended into the prepuce Surgery removal of the undescended testicle is more involved than a normal castration It is an inheritable condition. Stallions affected with unilateral crytorchidism will breed mares.

One or both of the testicles have not descended into the prepuce

Which volatile anesthetic agent is the most potent? -One with a 1 MAC value of 0.59 -One with a 1 MAC value of 1.2 -One with a 1 MAC value of 5.3 -One with a 1 MAC value of 0.09

One with a 1 MAC value of 0.09

In a pug, the ET tube should be removed -As soon as the surgery or technique is completed -Only after the animal is fully conscious and able to maintain a free airway -When the animal is taken off the anesthesia machine -As soon as the animal begins to swallow and cough

Only after the animal is fully conscious and able to maintain a free airway

Viral diseases are treated by administering antibiotics -True -Only during the viremic stage -Only as a supportive measure to control opportunistic infections -Only if the disease is due to an enveloped virus

Only as a supportive measure to control opportunistic infections

The instrument suitable for cutting a paper drape is Operating Scissors Metzenbaum scissors Osteostome Olson Hegars

Operating scissors

Hematocrit is another name for what lab measurement? Hemoglobin (Hbm g/dl) Red Blood Cell count Mean corpuscular hemoglobin conentration (MCHC, g/dl) Packed cell volume (PCV, %)

Packed cell volume (PCV, %)

In routine processing of veterinary product shipments, what is the usual sequence of document handling? Packing slip, bill, invoice, and inventory record Invoice, bill, packing slip, and inventory record Packing slip, invoice, inventory record, and bill Inventory record, packing slip, invoice, and bill

Packing slip, invoice, inventory record, and bill

Warts are caused by what virus? -Papilloma -Variola -Herpes -Pox

Papilloma

When passing surgical instruments to the surgeon, the technician should do all of the following except: Gently but firmly slap the palm of the surgeon with the instrument. Pass the instrument in the open position. Pass the instrument with the handle placed into the surgeon's hand. Pass the curved instrument so that it is oriented in the surgeon's hand with the concave side up.

Pass the instrument in the open position.

Which of the following is an advantage of monofilament material over multifilament material? -Greater knot security -Greater suture strength -Less likely to cause suture reactions -Passes through tissue more easily

Passes through tissue more easily

The MAC of an anesthetic agent will change for all of the following reasons except -Preanesthetic drug administration -Patient's age -Patient's breed -Anemia

Patient's breed

The minimum fresh gas flow in a semiclosed system is correctly determined by the -Patient's metabolic rate -Patient's respiratory rate -Drugs used for premedication -Size of soda lime container

Patient's metabolic rate

Pulse oximetry monitoring devices give an estimate of -Respiratory rate -Cardiac output -Percentage of hemoglobin saturation with oxygen in arterial blood -Oxygen content of arterial blood

Percentage of hemoglobin saturation with oxygen in arterial blood

The main function of the neutrophil is: Phagocytosis Hypersensitivity reaction Allergic reaction Immune response

Phagocytosis

When folding surgical gowns for sterilization Tie the arms together so they do not dangle when the surgeon is gowning Have the ends of the sleeves on top for easy grasping Attention to the method of folding is not necessary Place the inside of the shoulder seams on top and fold all outer areas of the gown to the inside

Place the inside of the shoulder seams on top and fold all outer areas of the gown to the inside

Fracture apposition reduction refers to Placing bones back in their normal positions Keeping bones still until healing has occurred Removing small fragments from around the fracture Placing pins through the marrow cavity

Placing bones back in their normal positions

Nitrous oxide is contraindicated in -Orthopedic procedures -Painful procedures -Pneumothorax -Exotics

Pneumothorax

Which of the following is an absorbable suture material? -Polydioxanone -Prolene -Silk -Cotton

Polydioxanone

Which of the following is an absorbable suture material? Polydioxanone Prolene Silk Cotton

Polydioxanone

Which of the following terms is used to describe passing larger volumes of urine than normal? Fomite Poikuria Polyuria Vector

Polyuria

What anticoagulant is used most commonly in animal-blood collection for CBCs? Sodium heparin Potassium oxalate Potassium ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid Sodium citrate

Potassium ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid

When comparing inhalation anesthetics, you should use the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) as a guide in assessing -Respiratory depression -Potency of the agent -Cardiovascular effects -Solubility coefficients

Potency of the agent

Which of the following are not used in cleaning/caring for instruments? Ultrasonic cleaner Povidone-iodine solution Neutral pH detergent Instrument milk

Povidone-iodine solution

Which drug is exclusively against cestode parasites? Praziquantel Pyrantel Piperazine Polymyxin

Praziquantel

When a dog is to be castrated, the veterinary technician should prepare the surgical site. The incision is most commonly made in what location?

Prescrotal

When a dog is to be castrated, the veterinary technician should prepare the surgical site. The incision is most commonly made in what location?

Prescrotal prepuce

Why is atropine commonly used as a preanesthetic drug? Cause sedation Provide analgesia Prevent bradycardia Prevent apnea

Prevent bradycardia

The advantage of xylazine over Acepromazine is that it -Does not cause cardiac arrhythmias -Produces a short period of analgesia -Has antiemetic properties -Is an anti-inflammatory

Produces a short period of analgesia

If propofol is given to a patient too rapidly, it may cause -Profound transient apnea -Irritation of the vein -A long-lasting excitement phase -Seizures

Profound transient apnea

What hormone is given to mares or cows for several days to mimic diestrus and then withdrawn to mimic natural lysis of the corpus luteum and a return to estrus? Estradiol cypionate (ECP) Prostalgandin F2a Human chorionic gonadtropin Progestin (Altrenogest)

Progestin (Altrenogest)

Depressant preanesthetic medication may have what effect on the anesthesia procedure? -Shorten recovery time -Prolong recovery time -Leave the recovery time unaltered -Necessitate increasing the dose of induction agent

Prolong recovery time

Hypothermia Prolongs anesthetic induction Prolongs anesthetic recovery Is common in obese patients Is of no concern in neonatal patients

Prolongs anesthetic recovery

Which drug is not classified as a barbiturate? -Phenobarbital -Thiopental -Pentobarbital -Propofol

Propofol

Injectable diazepam is soluted with -Hydrogen peroxide -Calcium carbonate -Propylene glycol -Ethyl alcohol

Propylene glycol

What drug is used to return a mare to proestrus from diestrus through lysis of the corpus luteum? Progesterone Estrogen Prostaglandin Gonadotropin

Prostaglandin

What drug is used to return a mare to proestrus from diestrus through lysis of the corpus luteum? Progesterone Estrogen Prostaglandin Gonadotropin

Prostaglandin

Which drug requires PPE when handling? Xylazine Torbugesic Prostaglandin Lidocaine

Prostaglandin

food allergies are usually due to which constituent of the diet

Protein

the average heart rate ( in bpm ) can be calculated by counting the number of

QRS complexes in a predetermined time period and multiplying the number of complexes by a specific factor

Compared to Isoflurane the inhaled anesthetic sevoflurane has Smaller quicker requirement quicker recovery time Less respiratory depression All of the above

Quicker recovery time

Sacculus rotundus, appendix, and cecum are parts of what laboratory animal's gastrointestinal tract? Mouse Rabbit Hamster Guinea pig

Rabbit

Which animal is most vulnerable to severe spinal cord damage when handled improperly? Cat Rabbit Ferret Parrot

Rabbit

Initial treatment for a cat with an open pneumothorax may include all of the following except Thoracocentesis Oxygen administration Covering the wound Radiographic examination

Radiographic examination

Which are good for tough connective tissue and fascia? Debakey Brown-Adson Rat Toothed Russian thumb

Rat Toothed

What does obtunded mean?

Reacts to stimuli more slowly than normal

T killer cells function to -Release histamine -Recognize cancer cells as abnormal cells and eliminate them -Coat cancer cells with antibody -Release endorphin

Recognize cancer cells as abnormal cells and eliminate them

An example of acquired natural active immunity is -Ingestion of colostrum -Recovery from disease -Vaccination -Maternal antibodies crossing the placental barrier in cats

Recovery from disease

Preparing a patient's skin for surgery -Renders the skin sterile -Does nothing to affect the outcome of the surgery -Reduces the bacterial flora to a level that can be controlled by the patient's immune system -Is not necessary if antibiotics are given

Reduces the bacterial flora to a level that can be controlled by the patient's immune system

When monitoring the vital signs of an anesthetized patient, you must observe and record all of the following, except -Mm color and CRT -Heart rate and respiratory rate ad depth -Reflexes -Pulse quality and strength

Reflexes

What does the medical term ovariohysterectomy mean

Removal of the ovaries and uterus only

What is the main purpose of the scavenger on the anesthetic machine? Relieve excess pressure Suppyl gas to breathing bag Remove waste gases Remove c02 from the anesthetic gases

Remove waste gases

Which of the following is not a major factor in reducing the effects of or preventing viral disease? -Treatment -Immunization -Replication cycle of the virus -Health measures

Replication cycle of the virus

When a large section of intestine has become necrotic, it is necessary to perform _____ and _____. Intussusception; anastomosis Resection; anastomosis Resection; intussusceptions Intussusception; resection

Resection; anastomosis

During the initial triage examination, the ______,_______, and _______ organs systems should be systematically and carefully examined.

Respiratory, cardiovascular, neurologic

The most reliable sign of inadequate anesthetic depth is -Increased heart rate -Increased respiratory rate -Active palpebral reflex -Responsive movement

Responsive movement

An anucleated immature RBC seen in the peripheral blood of some mammals is: Metarubricyte Rubicyte Reticulocyte Echinocyte

Reticulocyte

Polychromasia in an immature RBC will appear as ___ on a blood smear stained with new methylene blue stain Reticulocyte Dohle body Barr body Schistocyte

Reticulocyte

What is the primary function of a Balfour? Thumb forceps Periosteal elevator Rongeur Retractor

Retractor

Forceps that are 20 cm (9 inches) with longitudinal grooves are -Rochester-Pean -Rochester-Carmault -Kelly -Crile

Rochester-Carmault

A traumatic cause of OA in dogs indicates obesity as a risk factor. What is the most common traumatic cause of OA in dogs? Ruptured cruciate ligaments Torn Achilles group Hip dysplasia Phalangeal fracture

Ruptured cruciate ligaments

What are the parts of the cardiac conduction system

SA node, AV node, Bundle of HIS, Pukinje fibers

What is the purpose of a curette? Removes supragingival calculus Controls hemorrhage in soft tissues Scrapes hard tissues Holds intramedullary bone pins

Scrapes hard tissues

The outermost layer of the digestive tube is the Mucosa Muscle layer Serosa Submucosa

Serosa

In what species is scrotal circumference, rather than a sperm count using a hemocytometer, used to estimate sperm count? Horses Sheep Dogs Pigs

Sheep

The following is an acceptable transport media for viruses -Skim milk medium -Sterile William's solution -Sterile carbon transport medium -Formaldehyde

Skim milk medium

Rochester Carmalt forceps are commonly used in which choice? Spay Cardiosurgery Dentistry Orthopedic repair

Spay

_______ result from antibody binding to the RBC surface and removal of a portion of the membrane by macrophages; this occurs in immune hemolytic anemia (IHA), which is most commonly recognized in dogs. Acanthocytes Spherocytes Leptocytes Ethinocytes

Spherocytes

Which of the following is a Potassium-sparing diuretic? Mannitol Furosemide (Lasix) Spironolactone (Aldactone) Atenolol

Spironolactone (Aldactone)

The function of a Robert Jones bandage is to Support the shoulder joint after surgery Stabilize a fracture before surgery Support the hind limb after reduction of hip luxation Stabilize a fracture after surgery

Stabilize a fracture before surgery

Ideally, a smooth induction should bypass -Stage 1 -Stage 2 -Stage 3 -Stage 4

Stage 2

What stage of anesthesia may be characterized by vocalization, struggling, and breath holding? -Stage I -Stage II -Stage III, plane 1 -Stage III, plane 2

Stage II

A 10 year old dog has been anesthetized for removal of a skin tumor and is now maintained on 2% isoflurane. The anesthetist observes that its respirations are 8/min and shallow, its heart rate is 80 beats/min, its pupils are centrally positioned, its jaw tone is slack, and all of its reflexes are absent. This animal is in what stage and plane or anesthesia? Stage III, plane 2 Stage III, plane 3 Stage III, plane 4 Stage IV, plane 1

Stage III, plane 3

Once extubated, all animals should be placed in -Right lateral recumbency with neck extended -Left lateral recumbency with neck extended -Sternal recumbency with neck extended -Whatever position is most comfortable for the patient

Sternal recumbency with neck extended

While ruminants are recovering from anesthesia they should be placed in ___ recumbency to minimize ___ Left Lateral, regurgitation Sternal, regurgitation Right lateral, regurgitation Left lateral, atelectasis

Sternal, regurgitation

Extra label use of feed medications is Permitted by veterinary prescription Strictly illegal Permitted if a Form 1900 is secured Permitted under the guidelines of Form FD 2656

Strictly illegal

Appropriate blood collection sites in tortoises include the jugular vein and Caudal vena cava subcarapacial sinus medial metatarsal vein cephalic vein

Subcarapacial sinus

If a patient is 5-6% dehydrated, which characteristics would you expect to see? 5-6% is not clinically detectable Subtle loss of skin elasticity Prolonged capillary refill time Eyes are sunken in orbits

Subtle loss of skin elasticity

What is very important when positioning a horse in dorsal recumbency for surgery? Pulling the front legs cranially Position of the head Exposure of jugular vein for intravenous access Sufficient padding for shoulders and gluteal muscles

Sufficient padding for shoulders and gluteal muscles

Phenothiazine tranquilizers -Cause nausea -Increase seizure threshold -Cause vasoconstriction -Suppress the sympathetic nervous system

Suppress the sympathetic nervous system

After infection is eliminated, the immune response is reduced by -B lymphocytes -B-memory lymphocytes -Monocytes -T suppressor cells

T suppressor cells

A 4 year old retriever with a heart rate of 160 has Hypertension Tachycardia Bradypnea Paresis

Tachycardia

List 3 signs of hypovolemic shock

Tachycardia, weak pulse, hypotension

The first sign that heart disease has progressed to heart failure is: Tachycardia Bradycardia Bradypnea Tachypnea

Tachypnea

Which antibiotic will cause the enamel of teeth to yellow in a young animal? Penicillin Streptomycin Chloramphenicol Tetracycline

Tetracycline

It is important that all neonates receive colostrum within what time period? -The first 18 hours of life -The first 24 hours of life -The first 2 days of live -The first week of life

The first 18 hours of life

The sterile area on a person is considered to be: Any part of the gown including the sleeves The front of the gown, from below the shoulders to the waist, including the front of the sleeves The front and back of the gown, from below the shoulders to the waist. The sleeves and the whole front of the gown

The front of the gown, from below the shoulders to the waist, including the front of the sleeves

While examing a high-producing dairy cow that is off-feed, the vet puts her stethoscope on the left side in a line between the left elbow and the cow's hip bones and starts flicking her fingers against the side of the cow while listening to the stethoscope. What is she listening for? The characteristic dead spot of an impacted omasum The dull thud of rumen stasis The musical ping of a left displaced abomasum The regular movement of rumen contraction waves

The musical ping of a left displaced abomasum

If the rebreathing bag is empty during anesthesia, all of the following may be the cause, except -The oxygen flow may be too high -The oxygen flow may be too low -There may be a leak in the system -The waste gas scavenging system is not working properly

The oxygen flow may be too high

Concerning assisting in hollow-organ surgery, which statement is the most accurate? -Doyen intestinal forceps are specifically designed to not damage the intestines regardless of how much they are tightened or how long they are left in place. -When handling hollow organs, always use dry fingers to increase your grip strength and prevent the tissues from sliding through your fingers. -The surgeon places "stay" sutures and the suture ends are held up by the assistant to prevent the leakage of inner-organ contents. -Have the suture on a reverse cutting needle ready to close the organ.

The surgeon places "stay" sutures and the suture ends are held up by the assistant to prevent the leakage of inner-organ contents.

The safety margin between effective and toxicity is called what? Partition coefficient Penol index Lethal dose Therapeutic index

Therapeutic index

Which of the following statements is true about viruses? -They are microscopic, cellular, and parasitic organisms -They are all readily destroyed by ordinary household soaps and other disinfectants -They are obligate intracellular parasites -All of the above

They are obligate intracellular parasites

The endotracheal tube should not be inflated in birds because: They can bite it off and swallow it they have complete tracheal rings, making the trachea less compliant when the endotracheal tube cuff is inflated. The inflated cuff becomes easily lodged in air sacs Their trachea is soft and may be traumatized.

They have complete tracheal rings, making the trachea less compliant when the endotracheal tube cuff is inflated

Obesity delays elimination of what drug because of its high lipid solubility? -Propofol -Xylazine -Thiopental -Guaifenesin

Thiopental

Mites are diagnosed by the morphologic appearance of the adults, which most often requires: Thorough skin scrapings Close examination of the skin and hair with the unaided eye The adhesive tape test That cut hair samples be sent to a parasitologist for species identification

Thorough skin scrapings

The minimum number of surgical scrubs that should be completed on a surgical site is -One -Two -Three -Four

Three

The volume of the rebreathing bag on an anesthetic machine should be at least -The same as the patient's tidal volume -Three times the patient's tidal volume -Six times the patient's tidal volume -Nine times the patient's tidal volume

Three times the patient's tidal volume

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is transmitted by Exposure to pesticides Tick bites Consumption of uncooked fish Abrupt change to higher altitude environment

Tick bites

The doctor orders a dose of calcium gluconate be administered to a patient. In addition to drawing up the medication, what other procedure should you prepare for? To monitor an EKG To monitor the BP To monitor the SpO2 To monitor the temperature

To monitor an EKG

Why is it exremely important to exercise caution when using balling guns, dose syringes, and stomach tubes in cattle? To prevent the development of traumatic reticuloperitonitis To prevent the development of infectious bovine rhinotracheitis To prevent the development of pharyngeal cellulitis, abscessation, or hematoma To prevent the development of bovine respiratory syncytial virus

To prevent the development of pharyngeal cellulitis, abscessation, or hematoma

Which statement is false concerning the collection of a plasma sample for a blood chemistry analysis? If a needle and syringe are used, hemolysis can be minimized by removing the needle from the syringe before discharging the blood into a sample tube. Volume changes caused by evaporation can be minimized by keeping the cap on the blood collection tube as much as possible. To separate, allow the sample to clot for approximately 30 minutes; gently remove the clot from the sides of the tube, centrifuge, and then remove the plasma. Avoid lipemia by fasting the animal before collecting the sample.

To separate, allow the sample to clot for approximately 30 minutes; gently remove the clot from the sides of the tube, centrifuge, and then remove the plasma.

True or False: A dehydrated animal will show loss of skin turgor

True

True or False: An early sign of shock is hyperglycemia

True

True or False: orthopnea refers to a posture assumed by animals that are dyspneic

True

What is the required minimum number of throws required when making a surgical knot? -One -Two -Three -Four

Two

Vaporizers may be classified according to all of the following except the -Method of regulating output -Method of vaporization -Location in the anesthetic circuit -Type of breathing circuit with which they can be used

Type of breathing circuit with which they can be used

Innate immunity -Is recognized by the clinical signs of fever and chills -Is solely created by the actions of the neutrophils -Occurs after the adaptive immune response -Type of immunity with which one is born and does not develop after birth

Type of immunity with which one is born and does not develop after birth

Which of the following substances is used to evaluate kidney filtration and function, is excreted, and then is reabsorbed? Urea Creatinine Glucose Sodium

Urea

The Azostix strip is a rapid quantitative test for blood levels of Aspartateaminotransferase Alaninetransaminase Glucose Urea nitrogen

Urea nitrogen

You and the vet are called to a dairy farm at 4am for a "prolapse." What kind of problem is this likely to be? Uterus is hanging out Penis cannot retract into prepuce Eyeball protruded out of the socket Mismating

Uterus is hanging out

Which of the following is false with regard to vaccine therapy? -Vaccines may not be effective when given to a patient that is currently not showing clinical signs but is incubating the disease -Vaccines may be responsible for certain types of anemia in dogs -Vaccines are an example of acquired natural active immunity -Recombinant vaccines are very effective and safe

Vaccines are an example of acquired natural active immunity

All of the following are signs of shock, except Weak and thready pulse Vasodilation Prolonged capillary refill time Tachycardia

Vasodilation

If the testicles are not palpable, and a cryptorchidectomy is performed, the incision would most likely be Prescrotal Inguinal Ventral midline Perineal

Ventral midline

Which of the following suture materials persists in the body for the longest period? -Polydioxanone -Prolene -Chromic catgut -Vicryl

Vicryl

dog has a history of not eating for 2 days and has lost 10% of its body weight. This weight loss is most likely due to a loss of Lean body mass Fat Glycogen Water

Water

If a dog has flaccid paresis, what is the problem? Inflammation of the spinal cord Stiff limbs and paralysis Weak and limp muscles Inability to mate

Weak and limp muscles

All but one of the following make up the five vital assessments: Temp Weight Breed Nutrition

Weight