BOC Study Guide
Muscles Tested in Resisted Shoulder Extension
Teres minor (*) Lat. dorsi Post. Deltoid Teres major triceps
Thompson Test
Test Achilles Tendon Patient prone w/ knees in full extension. Examiner squeezes the gastrocnemius to elicit plantar flexion. Positive test w/ no plantar flexion
Test Objective/Target: Allen Maneuver
Test for T.O.S. subclavian artery/vein or brachial plexus entrapment
Kleigers Test
Tests Deltoid Ligament Examiner passively forces patient into ankle eversion to place stress on the deltoid ligament. Positive test indicated by pain or laxity when compared to the unaffected side.
Pronator Teres Syndrome
Tests Median Nerve Patient sits with elbow flexed to 90, examiner strongly resists pronation as the elbow is extended. Positive test = paresthesia along median nerve distribution in forearm and hand
Posterior Sag Sign
Tests PCL Patient lays supine with hips and knees flexed at 45 degrees. Examiner observes to see if there is any posterior tibial translation. Positive test if one tibia sags posteriorly more than the unaffected side.
Finkelstein Test
Tests for Tenosynovitis Positive test = pain upon stretch
Hoffman's Test
Tests for an upper motor neuron lesion Flick the distal tip of the patients middle finger Positive Test = the index finger and/or thumb involuntarily move upon flicking of the middle finger
Murphy's Sign
Tests for lunate dislocation Positive test is 3rd MC is the same height as 2nd and 4th MC
Lunatotriquetral ballottement test
Tests for lunate dislocation Tests for laxity using anterior posterior glide
What is the decreased blood flow theory
That cold causes vasoconstriction which decreases blood flow which decreases hemorrhaging which results in less swelling
Which act states that athletes infected with HIV cannot be discriminated against and may be excluded from participation only on a medically sound basis
The Americans with Disabilities Act
What is an example of a functional screening test that was developed by Padua to identify individuals at high risk for anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury?
The Landing Error Scoring System
When designing equipment, which factor can help reduce potential injury?
The absorption of energy
What is the best plan for an athlete who has been diagnosed with overtraining syndrome?
The athlete can be active but not in his chosen sport, and he must decrease activity by half.
The workspace station of the athletic trainer needs to fit the individual. Which best describes an ergonomically fit space?
The chair allows for the feet to touch the floor.
How does the distance between electrodes affect tissue stimulation?
The closer the electrode placement, the more superficial tissues are stimulated. The further apart the electrodes the DEEPER the tissues are stimulated.
What is Biot's breathing pattern
series of normal breathes followed by complete cessation
Which of the following neurotransmitters is active in the descending pathways of synaptic transmission
serotonin
symptoms of tinea pedis include:
severe itching with vesicles or erosion of instep and with peeling maceration and fissures between toes dry, scaly, mildly erythematous patches on plantar and lateral foot surfaces
what equipment is required for soccer?
shin guards, cleats
What is septic shock
shock from a severe, usually, bacterial infection
According to Dr. Hirahara what shoulder motion should you start with in your injury evaluation and why
shoulder flexion because it is the easiest motion
What blood disorder has been associated with exertional rhabdomyolysis
sickle-cell trait
Progression of Agility
simple to complex slow to fast cognitive to automatic
What can an athlete do to minimize the effects of travel?
sleep well the night before hydrate well prior to boarding the plane avoid drinking juices, sodas, caffeinated beverages and alcohol during flight eat and sleep on schedule that coincides with home time if possible remove shoes, stretch, and walk about periodically to improve circulation schedule rest time during the day if necessary
What condition occurs in boys who are characteristically tall and thin, or obese and between the ages of 10-17
slipped capital femoral epiphysis
How can you prevent callus formation?
soaking feet and using callus files to reduce thickness wearing double socks to cushion the sole of the foot wearing properly fitted shoes applying emollients to feet and hands to prevent friction and keep skin supple wearing protective gloves, tape, or moleskin to protect palms from friction
what is the most commonly missed component of Joel's fracture presentation
spiral fx of proximal 1/3 fibula
damage to a joint, with a partial rupture of the supporting ligaments, usually caused by wrenching or twisting, related to a fall
sprain
In what stage of Tanners maturity assessment is an individual most vulnerable in high intensity and/or collision sports
stage 3
Coordination Progression
static to dynamic simple to complex slow to fast light to heavy coordination to agility
What is Direct Current
steady unidirectional flow of electrons
CN 12 and how to test
stick out tongue and move it side to side, jaw excursion
What term refers to the relative ability of a tissue to resist a particular load
stiffness
What are symptoms of turf toe?
stiffness pain swelling at injury site pain with active flexion and extension of great toe
What is the descending influence for pain management and what modalities can be used to induce it
stimulation of the periaqueductal grey to release enkephalins and serotonin to inhibit pain through descending tracts to dorsal root. Acupressure, noxious TENS
All of the following are reasons why an insurance claim might be denied except: A. Lack of patient progress B. The duration of care is considered excessive C. Improper coding D. The goals are based on functional outcomes E. Treating beyond the approved number of visits
The goals are based on functional outcomes
Which of the following best describes how to fit an ice hockey helmet?
The helmet should fit snuggly on the forehead, top, and sides of the head.
An adhesive tape is graded according to:
The number of longitudinal and vertical fibers per inch of backing material
What does frequency of ultrasound mean
The number of waveforms being emitted by the electrical stimulating unit per second
overstitching of a part of the musculature that causes microscopic tears in the muscle or tendon, usually resulting from excess stress or overuse
strain
Hooke's Law
strain (deformation) of an object is directly related to the objects ability to resist stress (load)
Which bursa of the shoulder is the most important and the most commonly injured
subacromial bursa
Is a symptom subjective or objective data?
subjective
What are the symptoms of heat stress?
swollen hands and feet, itchy skin, sunburn, heat syncope (pale moist skin, hypotension) and heat cramps
Tissue Repair: Reconstruction
taking damaged cells and replacing them with identical cells
What are signs and symptoms of Marfan's Syndrome?
tall, thin stature with loose joints, with the long bones disproportionately long scoliosis flat feet pectus carinatum (pigeon chest) or pectus excavatum (funnel chest) long, narrow face with high-arched roof of mouth and crowding of teeth dislocation of lenses of eyes and sometimes retinal detachment, myopia aortic valve disorders with heart murmur stretch marks abdominal/inguinal hernia sleep apnea (rare)
What is a subdural hematoma
tearing of a vein in the subdural space
What is an epidural hematoma
tearing of one of the meningeal arteries
What are the symptoms for heat stroke?
temperature greater than 106. may result in seizures, neurological damage, multiple organ failures and death.
Complete the phrase "Eye protection must be worn by all athletes who play sports..."?
that use fast moving projectiles
What is the amortization phase?
The transition phase a.k.a. time difference between eccentric and concentric
Laundry bins with wheels are preferred over stationary baskets in facilities. What is the reason for wheeled bins rather than stationary ones?
They are more ergonomically oriented
What is a concern associated with using BMI to assess athletes who have high lean body mass?
They can be classified as obese based on the index.
Which of the following types of skin is most likely to be sunburned?
Thin and white in color
An athletic trainer may have been exposed to a bloodborne pathogen. How long must documentation of this exposure be kept?
Thirty years from the date of the end of employment
Your team physician sends a prescription to you for your athlete that reads "whirlpool treatments TID." What does TID mean? A. Twice a day B. Every 3 hours C. Four times a day D. Three times a week E. Three times a day
Three times a day
Myotome C8
Thumb Extension
Functional Impairment of Thumb, Index, Middle, Ring and Little Finger
Thumb: functionally most important. Loss affects 40-50% of hand function Index: Second most important. Loss affects 20% of hand function Middle: Strongest, needed for precision and power grip. Loss affects 20% of hand function Ring: Least function role. Loss affects 10% of hand function Little: enhances power grip and holds objects against hypothenar eminence. Loss affects about 10% of hand function
This nerve branches from the sciatic nerve, travels down the back of the leg, through the popliteal fossa at the back of the knee and terminates at the plantar side of the foot.
Tibial nerve
Ringworm
Tinea Corporis is a fungal infection of the skin
Athlete's foot is the common name for:
Tinea Pedis
What special tests would be positive if a person is suffering from carpal tunnel syndrome?
Tinel's sign Phalen's test Oriental Prayer test
What is the primary purpose of research in injury surveillance?
To discover injury patterns and be able to modify rules and behaviors to prevent injury
What is the purpose of certification and licensure?
To protect the public
What is the purpose of obtaining baseline neurological screening of the brain?
To track a patient's recovery from injury
Game Keepers Thumb
Torn Ulnar Collateral Ligament of the thumb
A legal wrong that is committed against a person or property is known as a:
Tort
With proper posture the palms should be facing which direction?
Towards the lateral thigh
Divides the body or parts into superior (upper) and inferior (lower) sections - example: bat swing in baseball movement of criterion arm in bball jump shot movement of criterion arm in forehand drive (tennis)
Transverse (horizontal)
What special test evaluates for weakness of the gluteus medius?
Trendelenburg test
CN 5 and how to test
Trigeminal facial sensation, chewing
Cranial Nerve 5
Trigeminal: Facial sensation, mastication (sensory and motor)
What is the name of the medial humeral condyle
Trochlea
Cranial Nerve 4
Trochlear: Inferior and Lateral eye movement (motor)
Strangulated hernia occurs when the inguinal ring constricts the protruding sac and occludes normal blood circuation
True
T/F: Annual updates are required by the NCAA before participation in intercollegiate sports programs
True
T/F: The athletic trainer should ensure that a procedure is in place to check the field before use
True
True or False: Crossing the volar aspect of the carpal bones is the transverse carpal ligament, which serves as the roof of the carpal tunnel through which the median nerve passes
True
True or False: Dysmenorrhea is caused by ischemia or possible hormonal imbalance
True
True or False: HIV replication only occurs in CD4+ T cells, and these cells die once HIV replicates
True
True or False: Oblique fractures occur when one end of the bone receives sudden torsion or twisting while the other end is fixed.
True
True or False: Professional liability insurance typically covers negligence in civil cases, but not if a criminal complaint has been filed
True
True or False: The Cotton test is performed to determine if there is a sprain to the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis.
True
True or False: Using Kinesio taping will put the muscle on 10 percent of its resting static length
True
T/F: Treatment for mononucleosis is mcnally supportive as there is no treatment for the virus
True treatment includes rest, acetaminophen or ibuprofen, and adequate fluid intake
Which of the following diseases or conditions requires the standard precaution that the athletic trainer wear a mask covering the nose and mouth?
Tuberculosis
How often should the athletic trainer educate tackle football players on the risks of head-down contact in a season?
Twice: once at the beginning and midway through the season
This nerve branches from the brachial plexus and travel down the arm from the shoulder, traveling along the anterior forearm beside the ulna, to the palm of the hand.
Ulnar nerve
Tinel's Sign Elbow
Ulnar nerve is tapped (between olecranon process and medial epicondyle) Positive sign: Paresthesia "tingling" along ulnar distribution of forearm and hand
How does frequency of US effect energy absorption in the tissue?
Ultrasound energy absorption increases as the frequency increases
What modalities to use to stimulate the healing process?
Ultrasound, E-Stim, Hot packs
U.S.P.
United States Pharmacopoeia
Which characteristic is a likely predictor of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
Unrealistic expectations about one's own abilities or distorted self-image
What is Muscle Energy Technique (MET) and what are its application
Use of muscle contraction to correct a joints malalignment. Muscle spasm, weak muscle overpowered by stronger muscle, restricted mobility
What cranial nerve would you assess for chewing and sensory examination?
V. Trigeminal (with eyes closed, person indicates the part of the face being touched)
What cranial nerve would you assess for lateral movement of the eyes?
VI. Abducens (have person follow your finger in a horizontal and vertical axis (W) check for nystagmus or deviation
What cranial nerve would you assess for the ability of a person to frown?
VII. Facial (have patient frown, smile and puff out cheeks, checking for symmetry)
What cranial nerve would you assess for balance and hearing?
VIII. Vestibulocochlear (tandem gait and Romberg's test. Hearing is checked with person's eyes closed and rubbing fingers together next to their ear. Have them identify which side they hear the noise. )
CN 10 and how to test
Vagus swallow and say AHH
Cranial Nerve 10
Vagus: Swallowing, speech, regulation of pulmonary/cardiovascular/gastrointestinal functions (sensory and motor)
Out of the following... Streptococcus, Verruca Plantaris, Bacillus and Staphylococcus which is not a bacterial organism
Verruca Plantaris
What viral infection is characterized by hemorrhagic puncta
Verruca Plantaris (Plantar Wart)
Test Objective/Target: Cervical Quadrant Test
Vertebral Artery
What are the 3 components of balance
Vestibular, Oculomotor, Proprioception
CN 8 and how to test
Vestibulocochlear locate snaps or finger rubbing, Romberg balance test
Cranial Nerve 8
Vestibulocochlear: Hearing and Equilibrium (sensory)
Shingles
Viral infection of the skin that causes a painful rash
Plantar Warts
Viral, hard, grainy growths that appear on the heels or balls of the feet
What vitamin, when taken in excess, can cause headaches, nausea, loss of hair, dry skin, and diarrhea?
Vitamin A
what vitamin is essential for maintaining skin and other cells that line the inside of the body and in preventing night blindness
Vitamin A
What vitamin, when taken in excess, can cause kidney stones and diarrhea?
Vitamin C
What vitamin results in appetite loss, weight loss, and a failure to grow if consumed in huge quantities
Vitamin D
Which nutritional factor positively influences bone density?
Vitamin D intake
What vitamin deficiency will cause an increase in a person's bleeding time?
Vitamin K
Which of the vitamins are fat soluble
Vitamins A, D, E, K
A softball catcher is complaining of a loss of motor function in her fingers and a sensory loss in her forearm. She is also experiencing contracture in her fingers. She had an elbow dislocation three weeks ago. The athlete is most likely suffering from
Volkman's Contracture
Possible complications of a supracondylar humeral fracture are muscle spasm, swelling, or bone pressure on the brachial artery, which inhibits blood circulation to the forearm, wrist, and hand. This is known as:
Volkmann's Contracture
Select the answer that best describes the NCAA recommendation for reducing cold stress.
Warm up thoroughly.
Damage to the median nerve can result in...
Weak pronation and wrist flexion Inability to radially deviate inability to oppose or flex thumb weak grip and pinch
How does Iontophoresis work
When DC is applied to an ionized drug solution, ions that have the same charge as the electrode are repelled and delivered through the skin
When can the athletic trainer breach confidentiality?
When another person is in clear and imminent danger
When is the best time for an athlete to exhale during weightlifting?
When the athlete is in the concentric phase of the lift
In a clinical setting, when can a client be billed for reimbursement?
When the athletic trainer corrects the form of the client doing exercise
What is the NOCSAE standard for football helmets regarding eye protection?
Wire face mask and a polycarbonate eye shield
When is heat syncope most likely to occur?
Within the first five days of practice before acclimatization occurs
Which sport has athletes who tend to be nutritionally compromised as a result of the need to strive for a lean body?
Wrestling and gymnastics
Drop Wrist
Wrist extensor muscles paralyzed due to radial nerve palsy
Wrist drop deformity:
Wrist extensors paralyzed (radial nerve palsy) wrist and fingers cannot be extended......
What mineral deficiencies will produce skin problems and growth problems?
Zinc
Boxer's Fracture
a break through the bones of the hand that form the knuckles. Commonly occur from punching an object with a closed fist
What is compartment syndrome
a condition caused by pressure buildup from internal bleeding or swelling of tissues
What is neural inhibition
a decrease or absence of normal neuromuscular function (strength, ROM)
What is osteoarthritis
a degeneration or wearing down of the articular or hyaline cartilage
What type of tank is used for fully body immersion
a low boy tank
What is a springy block endpoint
a rebound at the enpoint
What is progressive relaxation
a relaxation technique that involves progressively tensing each muscle group for 5-6 seconds followed by relaxing the group for 20-30 seconds
What is circuit training
a series of exercise stations that consist of various combination of weight training, flexibility, calisthenics, and brief aerobic exercise
Injuries involving a possible spine or pelvis fracture are best splinted using what
a spine board
What is an active trigger point
a trigger point that causes pain at rest and may elicit a jump sign when pressure is applied
What is a latent trigger point
a trigger point that does not cause spontaneous pain but may restrict movement or cause muscle weakness
what is otitis externa
a.k.a. swimmers ear is an infection of the ear canal often caused by water remaining in the ear after swimming
How much of ethanol is metabolized in the liver?
about 90%
damage to superficial layers of skin, such as with road burn or ligature marks
abrasion
What is edema
accumulation of the fluid portion of blood in the tissue due to more capillary filtration compared to capillary re-absorption
Contraindications to plyometrics?
acute inflammation post-operative Pt's Instability
indicates failure to acclimatize, may be mild to severe and often presents with headache, lethargy, nausea, confusion, unsteady gait, and dyspnea. occurs 6 - 24 hours after ascent
acute mountain sickness (AMS)
What is one indication for high frequency IFC treatment
acute pain
what are the symptoms of plantar fasciitis?
acute pain in heel - often first thing in the morning
What is Kehr's sign?
acute pain on the tip of the left shoulder due to the presence of blood or other irritants in the peritoneal cavity from a ruptured spleen
What is the function of platelets
adhere to exposed collagen fibers to create a sticky matrix on the vascular wall which forms a platelet plug localizing the injury response
a type of training utilized to increase the production of energy to meet demands of athletic activities, such as running, swimming and cycling
aerobic endurance training
What is the treatment after warming and debridement of clear blisters from hypothermia?
aloe vera cream every 6 hours to blistered areas dressings, separation of digits tetanus prophylaxis
What is the primary survey
an examination that determines the existence of potentially life-threatening situations including problems with consciousness, airway, breathing, circulation, severe bleeding and shock
What is beam nonuniformity ratio
an indicator of the amount of variability of intensity within the ultrasound beam ex: 2:1 BNR = the max output can be up to 2x the avg. output
What is malfeasance
an individual commits an act that is not legally his to perform
What is misfeasance
an individual improperly does something he has the legal right to do
What does an SPF of 6 indicate
an individual with SPF 6 sunscreen can be exposed to UV rays 6 times longer than if they were without sunscreen before their skin turns red
What is a spasm endpoint
an involuntary muscle contraction that prevents motion because of pain
What is an associated danger if a mouthpiece is cut down to cover only the front teeth?
an obstructed airway
used to increase muscle mass and improve athletic performance
anabolic steroids
The outer periphery of the intervertebral disk composed of strong, fibrous tissue is called the:
annulus fibrosus
Characterized by a profound fear of weight gain and severe restriction of food intake. Often accompanied by abuse of diuretics and laxatives. Can cause a delay or cessation of menses.
anorexia nervosa
What are the different types of eating disorders?
anorexia nervosa bulimia nervosa binge eating
the distal tibia and fibula is stabilized by the:
anterior and posterior tibiofibular ligaments
Anterior Drawer Ankle test what structure
anterior talofibular ligament
The primary artery that supplies blood to the lower leg is the:
anterior tibial artery
what is the treatment for folliculitis?
antibacterial soaps and topical and oral antibiotics
What organ is in the lower right quadrant
appendix
When running, the pelvis rotates along a longitudinal axis proportionate to the amount of:
arm swing
What is the standard of reasonable care
assumes that an individual is neither exceptionally skillful nor extraordinarily cautious, but is a person of reasonable and ordinary prudence
tinea pedis is commonly referred to as:
athletes foot fungal infection of the feet and toes
A decrease in the energy of sound when it is scattered and absorbed by the tissue it penetrates is known as:
attenuation
What is Legg-Calve Perthes Disease
avascular necrosis of the proximal femoral neck
tissue that is separated from its base and lost without adequate base for attachment
avulsion
what is the treatment for chlamydia?
azithromycin 1 g orally in one dose OR doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 1 week avoid sexual contact for 1 week
What form of stretching involves a bouncing movement in which repetitive contractions of the agonist muscle are used to produce quick stretches of the antagonist
ballistic stretching
what equipment is required for baseball?
batting helmets, mouth guards, shin guards, chest protector, and protective mitt
Why does a twin-pulse high-volt current not produce a chemical effect?
because the electrons are moving against a gradient, when the phase duration stops the ionized medication will "roll" back
How can you tell hypothermia is occurring?
begins with shivering as the body's core temperature drops
affects 2-5% of females and includes grossly overeating, often resulting in obesity, depression and shame
binge eating
Stages of Inflammation: Hemodynamic Changes
blood changes that mobilize and transport defense components of blood to the injury site. WBC's fall out of the bloodstream, stick to the vessel walls and pass through into the wounded tissue due to increase permeability
If an internal hemorrhage is suspected what vital sign must be closely monitored
blood pressure
What are the causes of a ruptured achilles tendon?
blunt trauma to the tendon excessive forced dorsiflexion of the ankle injury to a taut tendon
What is Wolff's law
bone and soft tissue will respond to the physical demands placed on them, causing them to remodel or realign along lines of tensile force
What is genu varum
bow legged
what sports should athletes with one eye be excluded from:
boxing wrestling full-contact martial arts
What is Cheyne-Stokes breathing pattern
breathing rate speeds up and slows down over 1 to 3 minutes
What are the general characteristics of arterial bleeding
bright red blood and flows in strong spurts
open spaces surrounding areas of sports activity within a facility. needed because athletes leave the playing area at high speed
buffer zone
binge eating followed by vomiting, often along with use of diuretics, enemas and laxatives. gastric acids can damage throat and teeth
bulimia nervosa
Shortwave diathermy is used to treat:
bursitis
Talar Tilt tests what structure
calcaneofibular ligament
what is commotio cordis
cardiac arrest that occurs due to a blunt impact to the chest
Occurs when the median nerve is compressed within the compartment formed by ligaments and bones, between the forearm and the hand.
carpal tunnel syndrome
Which form of research study is the least rigorous
case study
What is the decreased secondary injury theory
cells not affected by primary injury will suffer secondary metabolic injury due to decreased blood flow and 02. Cryotherapy decreases cells metabolic need allowing it to survive
What are symptoms of MRSA?
cellulitis or impetigo folliculitis, especially on face, appearing like severe pustular acne furunculosis below the hairline carbuncles involving hair follicles
Which type of state athletic training regulation indicates that a person possesses the basic knowledge and skills required in the profession and has passes a legitimate examination
certification
What portions of the spine have a convex curve anteriorly
cervical and lumbar spine
This area of the football helmet should fit snuggle against the sides of the face
cheek pads
what is the most common STD in the US
chlamydia
Pain that subsides during activity usually indicates what
chronic inflammation
What is one indication for low frequency IFC Treatment
chronic pain
What is the cause of a clubbed nail
chronic respiratory disease
What are policies
clear and accurate written statements that identify the basic rules and principles used to control and expedite decision making
An exercise that involves weight bearing through an extremity is considered:
closed kinetic chain
causes the muscle to shorten, as occurs when the muscle is used to lift a weight, as with a bicep curl
concentric contraction
localized response to contact with an allergen, resulting in a rash that may blister and itch
contact dermatitis
What is a pulastile current
contain three or more pulses grouped together
occurs when friction or pressure causes damage to underlying vessels
contusion
What is the treatment for heat exhaustion?
cool the body and replace sodium and fluids, must be prompt in order to prevent heat stroke. careful monitoring (reactions may be delayed)
Describe rales breathing sounds
crackling or bubbling
If you are stuck in an open area during lighting, what position should you take?
crouch low with only feet touching the ground
What are the general characteristics of venous bleeding
dark red blood with a continuous flow
What is attenuation for ultrasound
decrease in energy as ultrasound passes through various tissue layers
How does decreased secondary metabolic injury decrease edema
decreased secondary metabolic injury reduces the amount of free proteins generated by phagocytosis which leads to decreased edema
What is osteochondritis
degenerative changes in the ossification centers of the epiphyses of bones
The medial aspect of the ankle is stabilized by the:
deltoid ligament
What is Specific Gravity?
density of an object relative to water
What are procedures
describe the process by which something is done
Areas of the body that may refer pain to the shoulder
diaphragm, gallbladder, spleen, liver, heart, C-spine, TMJ
symptoms of iliotibial band syndrome include:
diffuse burning pain at lateral knee (usually after running or cycling for a few minutes) pain occurs earlier when inflammation increases
What is the acute stage of pathogen infection
disease has reached it greatest development, liklihood of transferring pathogen is at its highest
astigmatism
distortion of vision
which isotonic contraction causes greater DOMS
eccentric
cause the muscle to lengthen, as occurs when lowering the weight
eccentric contraction
A middle school tennis player complains of sudden pain and locking of the elbow joint. She also has swelling, pain, and crepitation. What could be wrong with this athlete?
elbow osteochondritis dissecans
What is the treatment for heat stroke?
evaporative cooling, rehydration, and immediate emergency transfer
Stages of Inflammation: Primary Injury
event that impairs the structure or function of tissue altering the cells ability to carry out normal function
Trauma Level 4 Facility
facilities are often rural clinics in remote areas and can generally only offer patient care until arrangement for transportation can be mad
Trauma Level 2 Facility
facility is expected to be able to provide definitive care to patients, despite the type of injury the patient may have suffered facility may have to send a patient with more severe injuries to a Level I
Trauma Level 1 Facility
facility must have the capability to deal with all levels and types of patient injury on a 24-hour basis leading medical care facilities
What is psychogenic shock
fainting
hypertropia
farsightedness
Which of the fast twitch fibers are considered "true" fast twitch fibers
fast twitch type II-b
what are the macronutrients and their calorie equivalents
fats = 9 cals/gram (30% of the diet) carbohydrates = 4 cals/gram (55% of the diet) proteins = 4 cals/gram (15% of the diet)
Who are the most common victims of the date rape drug?
females
count the seconds from the lightning to the sound of thunder an divide by 5
flash-to-bang method
The elbow extension test requires patients to...
flex their shoulders to 90 degrees and then fully extend and lock both elbows
Components of Agility
flexibility strength speed power balance coordination
cervical spine injuries are most common as a result of the neck being put into which position
flexion
what is the function of the internal abdominal oblique muscle
flexion and rotation
Jersey Finger is the rupture of what tendon
flexor digitorum profundus tendon
What is alternating current
flow of electrons that rhythmically changes direction
What are the symptoms for heat exhaustion?
flu-like aching, nausea, and vomiting, headaches, dizziness, and hypotension with cold clammy skin and diaphoresis. excessive sweating and temp <106 degrees
bacterial infection of the hair follicles, often on the face, resulting in pustules, erythema, and crusts that are painful and itchy
folliculitis
what equipment is required for football?
football helmet, mouth guard, shoulder, hip and tailbone padding, thigh guards
A common mechanism of injury for fibularis tendon subluxation is
forced dorsiflexion and inversion
Trauma Level 3 Facility
found in smaller communities that do not have access to larger Level I or Level II medical centers provide prompt assessment, resuscitation and emergency operations and arrange for transport
E-Stim used for the purpose of retarding muscle atrophy is most effective when using what parameter settings
frequency = 30-60 pps biphasic current
____ is a superficial freeze injury that is reversible
frostnip
The predominance of one type of muscle fiber over another in the human body results primarily from:
genetics
what determines the VO2 max?
genetics
this muscle controls abduction of thigh and allows the hip to rotate internally and externally; during running, it stabilizes the pelvis
gluteus medius
Angiogenesis
growth of new blood vessels
What can you feel for when palpating a patient?
hardness temperature swelling size mobility
Describe stertor breathing sounds
harsh, discontinuous, crackling sounds
What does HMO stand for
health maintenance organization
When weight training for increasing strength what should an athlete do (weight + reps)
heavy weights, low reps
What exercises are the best to use when immobilization is discontinued and you want to increase the mechanical properties of ligaments
high frequency, short duration exercises
can lead to acute neurological damage, causing seizures, coma and death
high-altitude cerebral edema (HACE)
can lead to acute respirator distress and death
high-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE)
Describe wheezing breathing sounds
high-pitches musical tones
The Kendall and Thomas tests determine the extent of:
hip flexor contracture
How is the diagnosis made that a person has been drugged with rohypnol?
history and clinical examination
What does H.O.P.S. stand for
history, observation, palpation, special tests
Callus formation (keratoderma) is formed by:
hypertrophy of the stratum corner layer of the epidermis
Stages of Inflammation: Metabolic Changes
if energy is reduced, cellular structures stop working (ex: Na+ pumps) when Na+ pumps stop the concentration of Na+ inside the cell increases drawing more water into the cell causing the cell to swell and lyse. Decreased aerobic metabolism increases cellular acidosis which causes organelles such as lysosomes to rupture. Lysosomes contain enzymes that destroy foreign matter and other organelles which causes cell death
The strongest ligament of the body that prevents hyperextension of the thigh is called the:
iliofemoral ligament
During the PPE, a patient is shown to have vision of 20/10. What does this mean?
The patient can read the letters on the Snellen eye chart on the 10-foot line while standing 20 feet from the chart.
When should the athletic trainer refer a patient for substance abuse?
The patient has a persistent desire but unsuccessful effort to control or cut down substance use and gives up activities because of substance use.
When performing a peer review of a patient's medical condition, which of the following is true regarding the patient's confidentiality?
The peer reviewers must hold all information derived from the medical case confidential.
Hypothermia may be a result of:
immersion in cold water exposure to cold temperatures metabolic disorders (hypothyroidism, hypoglycemia, hypoadrenalism) CNS abnormalities (head trauma, Wernicke disease)
Where are trigger points most commonly found
in muscles that are involved in postural support
Damage to the Radial Nerve can result in....
inability to supinate or extend wrist grasp or stabilize wrist extend fingers of abduct thumb
How do you increase the depth of penetration of the ES which will result in a stronger sensory response and eventually a motor response
increase the amplitude (a.k.a. use a high peak current)
What is swelling
increased tissue volume due to extra fluid and cellular material on the tissue
The most common site for stress fractures of the pelvis is in the:
inferior pubic ramus
what findings may result in an athletes exclusion of sports
injuries latent conditions such as cardiac abnormalities physical disabilities that pose a danger to the person or others renal disease uncontrolled hypertension staph infection/MRSA disagreement among physicians failure of reasonable accommodations to eliminate risk contagious disease that poses a risk to others
what injuries of the lower extremity are most common?
injuries to the knees and ankles
Bishop's Deformity
injury to the ulnar nerve results in flexion of 4th and 5th digit
What is the name of the inner and outer portions of a spinal disc
inner: nucleus pulposus outer: annulus fibrosis
What is secondary insurance
insurance that pays the remaining medical bills once the personal insurance company has made its payment
Describe stridor breathing sounds
intense continuous, monophonic wheezes
Most sprains are______ injuries with tearing of the lateral ligaments
inversion
female athletes develop amenorrhea when their body attempts to conserve stores of _____
iron
What is the cause of a spooning or depressed nail
iron-deficiency anemia
occur without muscle movement, as when attempting to push or pull an immovable object, tightening the muscle, or holding an object out in front of the body so that the weight pushes down but the muscles' opposing force keeps the object stable
isometric
Contractions involve movement of the muscle when pushing or pulling. Usually balance concentric and eccentric contractions
isotonic
What is the significance of the femur's cylindrical shaft that bows forward and outward
it accommodates the stresses placed on the femur during bending of the hip and knee during weight bearing
Why is the lower third of the tibia the most common site for fractures of the leg
it has the most pronounced change in structure, producing an anatomical weakness
___ is a disturbance in the circadian rhythm of walking and sleeping when traveling from one time zone to another
jet lag
tinea cruris is commonly referred to as:
jock itch
What is plyometrics
jump training that utilizes quick eccentric activity follow by a burst of concentric activity
what is genu valgum
knock kneed
tear in the skin resulting from blunt force
laceration
the point at which aerobic activity becomes anaerobic
lactate threshold
This ligament connects the femur to the fibula
lateral collateral ligament
Which of the following is the best type of shoe for a person who excessively pronates?
less flexible with rearfoot control
Normal blood glucose levels when fasting
less than 100 mg/dL
What are normal blood glucose levels when fasting
less than 100 mg/dl
Normal blood glucose levels 2 hours after eating
less than 140 mg/dL
What are the normal post meal (2 hours) blood glucose levels in individuals w/out diabetes
less than 140 mg/dL
What are normal blood glucose levels 2 hours after eating
less than 140 mg/dl
What term describes the state of being legally responsible for the harm that one causes another person
liability
____ kills about 100 people per year, and injuries 400-500
lightning
what are negative side effects of anabolic steroids for men
liver disorders cardiovascular disorders increased aggressiveness and libido decreased sperm count gynecomastia (breast development)
what are negative side effects of anabolic steroids for women?
liver disorders cardiovascular disorders increased aggressiveness and libido inhibition of formation of follicles and irregularities of menstrual cycle, including amenorrhea hypertrophy of the clitoris acne hair loss and male pattern balding with increased facial hair breast atrophy masculinization of body, features, and lowering of voice
Winging of only one scapula indicates an injury to what nerve?
long thoracic
When weight training for muscular endurance what should an athlete do (weight + reps)
low weight, high reps
FADIR's test is positive for what general condition
lumbar pathology
Rehab Program: Phase 5
maintain flexibility and strength Fine-tune smooth return Fnxl activity progresses to sport specific activity
Normal and Abnormal Elbow Carrying Angles for Males and Females
males 5-10° and females 10-15° Angle < normal = cubitus varus Angle > normal = cubitus valgus
In managing a scrotal contusion, the first responsibility is to:
manage testicular spasms and ease the patient
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA)-mandatory medical examination of student athletes?
mandates that all student athletes undergo a complete medical examination within six months of starting any type of required preseason conditioning, practice, or competition.
Recommendation for WBGT reading 90-92
max length practice 1 hour, no protective equipment, no conditioning. 20 minutes of rest breaks during the hour of practice
Recommendation for WBGT 87-89.9
max practice time 2 hours, football players in helmets and shoulder pads only. no protective equipment for conditioning. 4, 4 minute rest breaks each hour
What is the significance of the USP logo
means pharmaceutical grade oxygen
How is skeletal maturity assessed?
measurement of the hand and wrist as well as weight/height for age
What is acoustic microstreaming
mechanical pressure applied by the sound wave produces unidirectional movement of fluid along and/or around the cell membrance
What is NOT true of anatomical characteristics of synovial joints
mechanoreceptors provide lubrication, shock absorption, and nutrition to the joint
Claw hand deformity results from compression of what nerves
median and ulnar nerves
Which form of research study is the most rigorous
meta-analysis
What term refers to the biotransformation of drugs into water-soluble compounds that can be excreted
metabolism
What is not a symptom of diabetic coma
moist, cool and pale skin
An infectious disorder caused by the Epstein-Barr virus
mononucleosis
What is the Epstein Barr virus and what serious condition can it lead to
mononucleosis, enlarged spleen
What kind of current do you need for Iontophoresis
monophasic direct current
CN 7 and how to Test
motor control of facial expressions (puff out cheeks, smile, frown and wrinkle forehead etc.)
What is an empty feel endpoint
movement is definitely beyond the anatomical limit and pain occurs before the end of the range of motion
What is flexibility
musculotendinous units ability to elongate with the application of force
What is the main indication for COMBO therapy
myofascial trigger points
What are the contractile units of muscles
myofilaments
myopia refers to:
nearsightedness
Type of tissue damage if finding is weak and pain free
neurological lesion or, tendon
What would be considered a key element to address with patients who have chronic ankle instabilities?
neuromuscular control
US treatment area size
no more than 2x size of soundhead
Recommendation for WBGT reading over 92
no outdoor workouts, cancel exercise, exercise indoors or change practice time
Benefits of catastrophic insurance begin to kick in once what amount of expenses have been reached
$25,000
Pinch Grip test:
(ant. interosseous N.) Pt pinches tips of index finger and thumb together Positive test: Pt cannot pinch tips; pinch is flattened.
Wartenberg's sign: (ulnar neuropathy)
(ulnar neuropathy) Pt places hands on table. Examiner passively abducts fingers then asks Pt to adduct bring fingers together. Positive Test: Inability to adduct digit 5
What is the % body weight change of an individual who is well hydrated
+1 to -1 %
What neurotransmitter inhibits pain between first and second order neurons
norepinephrine
Recommendation for WBGT reading <82.0
normal activities with 3 rest breaks each hour of at least 3 minutes
Frostnip affects the:
nose, ears and distal extremities
Initial symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome include:
numbness tingling/burning (esp palm/thumb/index/middle fingers) eventual weakening/inability to grip Compression increases when wrist is flexed symptoms may worsen during sleep
Is a sign subjective or objective data?
objective
CN 3 and how to test
occulomotor P.E.A.R.R.L., H pattern
What is a loose endpoint
occurs in extreme hypermobility
What is Thoracic breathing pattern
occurs without diaphragmatic breathing
CN 1 and how to test
olfactory close eyes and identify this smell
In regards to medical prescription terminology what does Q.D. mean
once a day
In Joel's presentation what surgical reduction technique was the best
open reduction
CN 2 and how to test
optic read shirt, how many fingers, snellen
most often occur with blunt force against the globe causing a rupture through the floor or the orbital bone or a direct blow to the orbital rim
orbital fractures
what are the treatments for patients who are pes cavus?
orthotic arch support special shoes stretching to relax taut muscles severe cases: surgical repair
what are the common causes of plantar fasciitis?
overuse excess pressure on the heel poorly fitting shoes high arch/flat feet
symptoms of a DVT include:
pain or aching in the calf, especially on activity swelling
What is the ascending influence for pain management and what modalities can be used to induce it.
pain relief induced by gate mechanism TENS, Massage, Cryotherapy
what are symptoms of tendinitis?
pain with movement edema dysfunction decreased range of motion
What are the symptoms of hypothermia?
pallor cold skin drowsiness alteration in mental status confusion severe shivering
What is a likely complication following a posterior hip dislocation
palsy of the sciatic nerve
What is hemiplegia?
paralysis of one side of the body
an open patellar neoprene compression sleeve can be used in athletes with what condition
patellofemoral conditions
What is Apneustic breathing pattern
pauses at full inspiration
infestation with lice is known as:
pediculosis
a technique in which fingers of one hand are laid flat against the skin and tapped with the finger tips of the opposite hand, causing sound to resonate.
percussion
What is fibroplasia
period of scar formation
what are symptoms of lice?
persistent itch, irritation, excoriation, and sometimes secondary infection
In muscle healing, initially, there will be hemorrhage and edema followed almost immediately by
phagocytosis
Remodeling Phase
phase of wound healing that causes a scar to become smaller, more pale, and stronger
is yoga a religion or philosophy
philosophy
inflammation of the fascia along the bottom of the foot
plantar fasciitis
What type of exercise utilizes the stretch-shortening cycle
plyometrics
What is McBurney's point?
point over the right side of the abdomen that is 1/3 of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus. Indicative of appendicitis
What should athletic glasses be made of
polycarbonate
what is most eye protection made out of?
polycarbonate plastic
What is the cause of a vertical ridging nail
poor development and/or nutritional deficiences
Describe crackles breathing sounds
popping sounds
Problems such as persistent headache, impaired memory, lack of concentration, anxiety and irritability, giddiness, fatigue, depression and visual disturbances are associated with:
post concussion syndrome
Tinel's sign for the ankle is performed where
posterior tibial nerve
Most elbow dislocations result in the ulna and radius dislocating in what direction
posteriorly
A procedure that allows the examiner to identify potential health problems related to an athlete's participation in sports
pre-participation examination
What is the primary function of the calcaneofibular ligament?
preventing inversion of the calcaneus
What should be included in the medical history?
previous hospitalization/surgeries current or chronic illnesses and medical conditions current medication and history of illicit/illegal drug use (Epi-pen, allergies) exercise-induced symptoms history of hypertension history of neurological disorders, pinched nerve, seizures, head injury history of menses, including onset, last period and frequency ortho injuries, past or present
What are the three phases of syphilis?
primary secondary tertiary
what are the treatment options for syphilis?
primary, secondary, early tertiary: benzathine penicillin G 104 million units IM in one dose tertiary: benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM weekly for three weeks
Pain that increases in a joint throughout the day usually indicates what
progressive increase in edema
The PPE should perform the following functions:
- athletes at risk of injury or death - disqualify athletes from participation in sports only if there are compelling safety concerns or other reasons - meet regulatory and insurance requirements in order to protect the organization from liability
what is a muscle spasm
prolonged reflex muscle contraction
The bicipital bursa cushions the bicep tendon when the forearm is...
pronated
What is the % body weight change of an individual who has minimal dehydration
-1 to -3 %
What is the body weight change of an individual who has significant dehydration
-3 to -5 %
How long til recoverybetween isotonic sets
.5-1 minute
Manual Muscle Test Grading
0 (zero) = no contraction palpated 1 (trace) = no joint motion, tendon becomes prominent with weak contraction 2- (poor -)= Partial ROM w/ gravity eliminated 2 (poor)= Complete ROM w/ gravity eliminated 2+ (poor +)= Partial ROM against gravity 3- (fair -)= Incomplete ROM against gravity 3 (fair 50%)= Complete ROM against gravity 3+ (fair +)= Complete ROM against gravity w/ minimal resistance 4 (good 75%)= Complete ROM against gravity w/ moderate resistance 5 (normal)= Complete ROM against gravity w/ maximal resistance
What is the frequency range for low frequency E-stim
0-10 Watts
US rate of heating per minute Intensity = 0.5 Frequency = 1 Mhz
0.04 C
US rate of heating per minute Intensity = 1.0 Frequency = 1 Mhz
0.2 C
US rate of heating per minute Intensity = 0.5 Frequency = 3 Mhz
0.3 C
US rate of heating per minute Intensity = 1.5 Frequency = 1 Mhz
0.3 C
US rate of heating per minute Intensity = 2.0 Frequency = 1 Mhz
0.4 C
How much additional PSI per 1 additional foot under water?
0.43 PSI
US rate of heating per minute Intensity = 1.0 Frequency = 3 Mhz
0.6 C
US rate of heating per minute Intensity = 1.5 Frequency = 3 Mhz
0.9 C
What is the specific gravity of the average human?
0.95
Acromioclavicular Joint Sprain Grades 1-3
1 = partial tear to AC ligament 2 = complete tear to AC, partial tear to CC 3 = complete tear to AC and CC
Type 1 and 2 muscle fiber speeds
1 = slow 2 = fast
Flash to Bang Ratio
1 mile away for every 5 seconds Ex: Flash to bang is 30 seconds = lighting is 6 miles away
How long til recovery between isometric sets
1 minute
According to the NATA position statement on safe weight loss, how many pounds can be safely lost in a week?
1 to 2 pounds per week
Time frame of gentle ROM for injuries and post-op.
1 week after injury 3 weeks after surgery
Time frame for "easiest" ROM changes after Sx/severe injury
1-2 months, after 2 months mature collagen leads to more difficult ROM gains.
Time frame of largest ROM gains after injury
1-3 weeks
Name the fat soluble vitamins (4)
1. A 2. D 3. E 4. K
Apley's Scratch Test
1. Abduction with external rotation (fingers touch superior aspect of opposite scapula) 2. Adduction with internal rotation (fingers touch inferior aspect of opposites scapula) Dominant arm generally show greater restriction in internal rotation
What are the 5 stages of rehab protocol for surgery?
1. Address pain, swelling, spasms 2. ROM & Flexibility 3. Strength & Endurance 4. Balance, Agility & Coordination 5. Functional/Activity Specific
Evidence Based Medicine Pyramid (least reliable to most)
1. Animal Studies 2. Case Series & Case Reports 3. Case Control Studies 4. Cohort Studies 5. Randomized Controlled Trials 6. Systematic Review 7. Meta-Analysis
Stretching contraindications
1. Bony block 2. Infection in the joint 3. Acute inflammation in the joint 4. Sharp pain with motion
What are 2 special tests to help diagnose a lumbar disc herniation
1. Bowstrings Test 2. Straight Leg Test
Components of Inflammation (5)
1. Calor 2. Rubor 3. Swelling 4. Pain 5. Loss function
What 2 organizations are responsible for the safety requirements on hockey helmets
1. Canadian Standards Association 2. Hockey Equipment Certification Council
Oxygen Tank Preparation
1. Check Cylinder: make sure it's labeled U.S.P. and that it has yellow diamond labeled as oxygen 2. Clear the valve: remove protective covering, remove and save o-ring, make sure opening is turned away from people and open for 1 second to clear the debris. 3. Attach the regulator: place o-ring into valve, secure regulator on to cylinder 4. Open Cylinder & Check Pressure: counterclockwise one full turn and check gauge, needs to be at least 200 psi. 5. Attach Delivery Device: attach plastic tubing between flowmeter and delivery device.
What are the three zones of injury for frostnip:
1. Coagulation (usually distal) severe, irreversible cellular damage 2. Hyperemia (usually proximal) minimal cellular damage 3. Stasis (between other two zones) severe, damage is sometimes reversible
Principles of Manual Therapy (8)
1. Comfortable position 2. Body mechanics 3. Obtain feedback 4. Fingernails! 5. Explain 6. Assess 7. Use appropriate technique 8. Unsure? DONT DO IT
What are the 3 lateral epicondylitis tests
1. Cozen's Test 2. Mill's Test 3. Tennis Elbow Test
Stages of Grief (5)
1. Denial 2. Anger 3. Bargaining 4. Depression 5. Acceptance
What are the 5 stages of the Kubler-Ross Grief Cycle
1. Denial 2. Anger 3. Bargaining 4. Depression 5. Acceptance
Contraindications for Swiss Ball (4)
1. Dizziness 2. Increase Pain 3. Non-weight-bearing orders 4. Apprehension
Name 3 Types of Massage
1. Effleurage 2. Petrissage 3 . X friction
Prerequisites for Functional/Activity Specific Exercises (4 components)
1. Flexibility 2. Strength & Endurance 3. Coordination & Agility 4. Stabilization & Acceleration ability
Therapeutic Exercise Parameters
1. Flexibility/ROM 2. Strength/Muscular Endurance 3. Proprioception/Coordination/Agility
Components of Progression for Function/Sport-Specific Exercise (5 Categories)
1. Force and Intensity 2. Speed 3. Distance 4. Complexity 5. Supportq
What are the 3 types of drag?
1. Form 2. Wave 3. Frictional
Expected age of epiphyseal plate closure in girls and boys?
1. Girls = 18 2. Boys = 20
Expected age for puberty in girls and boys
1. Girls = 9 2. Boys = 12
How to maximize efforts of hamstring during knee flexion? 1. what is unaffected joint 2. what position 3. how to position it
1. Hip 2. Flexion 3. Seated
3 Types of PNF Stretching
1. Hold-Relax 2. Contract-Relax 3. Slow Reversal Hold-Relax
Contraindications of therapeutic pools (3)
1. Illness 2. Open Wounds 3. Other medical conditions
Newton's Laws of Motion
1. Inertia 2. Acceleration & Momentum 3. Action-Reaction
Phases of Healing and their Time frames
1. Inflammation (0-6 days) 2. Collagenization (1-3 weeks) 3. Maturation (2 weeks+)
BOC Role Delineation
1. Injury and Illness Prevention and Wellness Promotion 2. Examination, Assessment and Diagnoses 3. Immediate and Emergency Care 4. Therapeutic Intervention 5. Healthcare Administration and Professional Responsibility
Epi-Pen Protocol (12 steps)
1. Introduce self as EMR and obtain consent 2. Glove up 3. ask whats going on 4. have someone call 911 5. Check Epi-Pen for name to verify, date of expiration, and if liquid is clear 6. Ask Pt. if they know how to use it. 7. Remove cap and place in Pt's hand 8. Hold Pt's hand and describe injection into lateral thigh on count of 3 9. hold injector into thigh for 5-10 second 10. massage injection site for 10 seconds. 11. write time and save epi-pen for ems 12. SAMPLE
Using a manual suction device protocol (9)
1. Is the scene safe 2. glove up 3. place Pt. in HAINES recovery position 4. open mouth 5. remove any large visible debris using finger scoop method 6. measure the tube from the Pt's corner of mouth to their earlobe (this represents maximal tube insertion) 7. test device on finger to see if it is suctioning 8. insert device and squeeze the handle repeatedly to suction while using a sweeping motion 9. suction no more than 15 seconds at a time for an adult
Secondary Survey Physical Exam: HEAD (7)
1. Is the scene safe? 2. glove up 3. introduce self and obtain consent 4. feel head for pain, check back of head and check gloves for blood 5. look for blood/fluid or foreign object in nose, ears, mouth 6. check teeth 7. check pupils via PEARRL
Contraindication of Joint Mobilization (5)
1. Joint effusion 2. Hypermobility 3. Ligament rupture 4. Recent Fx 5. Herniated Disc
2 Special Tests for Impingement Syndrome
1. Kennedy-Hawkins Test 2. Neer Impingement Test
Effects of Immobilization
1. Loss of motion in all tissues due to the increase of collagen cross links 2. Connective tissue continues remodeling/reorganizing process 3. Dense collagen forms 4. Bone density decreases 5. Muscle atrophy
Examples of Gait Control Mechanism
1. Massage 2. Cryotherapy 3. E-Stim
Name 4 types of myofascial release
1. Myofascial release 2. Myofascial stretching 3. Strain-counterstrain 4. Rolfing
Tests for expanding intracranial lesions
1. Neurological control test (upper and lower limbs) 2. Romberg Test 3. Stand in tandem test 4. Walk in tandem test Normal Findings = minimal sway or drift Abnormal Findings = patient displays lateralizing indicating an expanding intracranial lesion of the contralateral side
7 Categories of the Objective Examination
1. Observation 2. Clearing Exam 3. Neurological Exam 4. Functional Exam 5. Special Tests 6. Special Measurements 7. Palpation
Objectives of Rehabilitation (2)
1. Prevent deconditioning of uninjured area 2. Rehab injury safely, efficiently, and effectively
What type of ACL tears are good candidates for ACL repair (2)
1. Proximal avulsion 2. Proximal tear
Precautions with stretching
1. Pt. apprehension 2. Stretch don't tear 3. No vigorous stretching early, work your way up 4. Muscle must be relaxed 5. Apply/Release stretch slowly
Goals of Rehabilitation (3)
1. Restore Function 2. Return to Play 3. Ensure Psychological Health Rehab goals should be objective and measurable. (ex: Minimize Swelling ROM, Strength)
How do you assess balance in an athlete with a suspected concussion (3)
1. Romberg's Test 2. Single Leg Balance 3. Tandem Stance Balance
One station in the examination requires the athletic trainer to take the athletes' blood pressure. What is the correct order of steps to obtain a blood pressure measurement?
1. Select adult cuff 2. Inflate bladder to 200 mmHG 3. Place stethoscope over brachial artery at cubital fossa 4. Deflate bladder at 3 mmHg per second 5. Listen for first sound 6. Note when sound disappears 7. Record blood pressure
Common tendon injuries youth may experience during growth spurts?
1. Sever's Disease 2. Osgood-Schlatter Disease 3. Little League Elbow
Treatment options for trigger points (3)
1. Spray/Ice and stretch 2. Ischemic Compression 3. Stripping
What muscles are in the anterior compartment of the leg?
1. Tibialis Anterior 2. Extensor Hallucis Longus 3. Extensor Digitorum 4. Peroneus Tertius
Precautions/Contraindications for foam rollers (6)
1. Vertigo 2. Light Headedness 3. Dizziness 4. Nausea 5. Joint Hypermobility
What are 3 signs and/or symptoms of HBV
1. abdominal pain 2. headache 3. jaundice
What are the 4 compartments of the leg
1. anterior 2. lateral 3. superficial posterior 4. deep posterior
What are the 3 levels of pain control
1. ascending influence 2. descending influence 3.B-endorphin mediated pain control
What are 3 upper motor neuron lesion tests
1. babinski 2. oppenheim 4. hoffman's
What are factors that limits an individuals flexibility (5)
1. bony structure 2. excessive fat 3. muscles and tendons 4. connective tissue 5. neural tightness
What are the 5 sensations of cold
1. burning 2. stinging 3. numbness 4. aching 5. cold
What organs are in the lower right quadrant
1. cecum 2. appendix
What causes muscle fatigue
1. decreased neural recruitment 2. decreased oxidative ability 3. increased plasma creatine kinase 4. leakage of Ca from sarcoplasmic reticulum
3 physical benefits of yoga
1. decreased reaction time 2. decreased DOMS 3. increased core stability and balance
What are the 3 mechanisms in which cryotherapy decreases muscle spasms
1. decreasing nerve conduction 2. breaking pain-spasm-pain cycle 3. Sympathetic nerve stimulation causes decrease in muscle spindle discharge
Purpose of inflammation (2)
1. defend the body against foreign substances 2. dispose of dead/dying tissue so viable tissue can take place
What are the 2 purposes of inflammation
1. defend the body against foreign substances 2. remove dead or dying tissue so that viable tissue can take its place
What are the 5 stages of grief
1. denial 2. anger 3. bargaining 4. depression 5. acceptance
What are examples of cognitive symptoms in a concussion (3)
1. difficulty concentrating 2. feeling slowed down 3. feeling in a fog
Benefits of Swiss Ball use (6)
1. diversify exercises 2. increase flexibility 3. increase strength 4. increase proprioception 5. increase balance 6. increase coordination
What are the four links on the cardiac chain of survival
1. early recognition 2. early cpr 3. early defibrillation 4. early advanced medical care
What are the 3 phases of plyometrics
1. eccentric 2. amortization 3. concentric
Results of poor Length-Tension Relationship (4)
1. efficiency of movement is impaired 2. stress on specific segments during sport activities increase 3. muscle must work harder to maintain posture, increasing fatigue 4. individual becomes more prone to injury
What are some examples of sleep symptoms in a concussion (2)
1. feeling drowsy 2. difficulty falling or staying asleep
What are some examples of emotional symptoms (3)
1. feeling more irritable 2. feeling more sad 3. feeling more nervous
What muscles are in the superficial posterior compartment of the leg?
1. gastrocnemius 2. soleus 3. plantaris
Rectal thermistor protocol (5)
1. glove up 2. cover tip of the thermistor with lubricant 3. place the athlete on his/her stomach 4. Spread the buttocks gently and insert the thermistor 8-10 cm 5. leave in place is monitoring for core body temperature decrease while athlete is in cold bath
Girth Measurement Thigh Protocol
1. have patient straighten their leg 2. measure mid patella 3. measure 2 sites above patella in increments of 3 inches 4. measure 2 sites below patella in measurements of 3 inches 5. measure each site 3 times and take the average
With a posterior view the Plumb Line should bisect which anatomical landmarks (2)
1. head 2. spinous processes
What are examples of physical symptoms in a concussion (3)
1. headache 2. sensitive to noise/light 3. numbness or tingling
What organs are protected by the ribs
1. heart 2. lungs 3. thymus
What 3 chemical mediators are important in limiting the amount of exudate post injury
1. histamine 2. cytokines 3. leukotrienes
What 5 fluids are modes of transmission for pathogens
1. human blood 2. semen 3. vaginal secretions 4. cerebrospinal fluid 5. synovial fluid
What modalities use conduction (5)
1. hydrocollator packs 2. paraffin baths 3. ice bags 4. game ready 5. whirlpool
B-endorphins are released from what 2 structures
1. hypothalamus 2. anterior pituitary gland
Conscious Choking Infant Protocol
1. if the infant cannot cough, cry or breathe, position the infant face down along your forearm 2. Support the infants head and neck with your hand 3. Lower your forearm with the infant onto your thigh keeping the head lower than the infants chest 4. perform 5 back blows with the heel of your hand 5. position the infant between both your forearms and rotate the infant so they are now supine on your forearm still keeping the head lower than the chest 6.place 2 fingers on the center of the chest just below the nipple line and perform 5 chest compressions 7. Continue cycles of back blows and chest thrusts until the object is force out, the infant shows signs of breathing or the infant becomes unconscious.
Why use foam rollers? (4)
1. improve proprioception 2. muscle reeducation 3. promote flexibility 4. promote strength 5. soft-tissue mobilization
What are the cellular effects of stable cavitation (2)
1. increase in cell membrane diffusion 2. increased cellular activity
Thermal effects of ultrasound: Vigorous Head (1)
1. increased collagen fiber extensibility
Thermal effects of ultrasound: Mild Heat (2)
1. increased metabolism 2. reduce mild inflammation
What are the 5 stages of pathogen infection
1. incubation stage 2. prodromal stage 3. acute stage 4. decline stage 5. recovery stage
What organs are in the lower left quadrant
1. inferior descending colon
Unconscious Chocking Adult Protocol "has a pulse is not breathing" (14)
1. is the scene safe 2. glove up 3. check LOC "are you ok?" x2 4. "HELP!" 5. assess vitals (breathing, circulation, severe bleeding) 6. tilt head and give 2 breaths (if breaths do not go in re-tilt and provide 2 more breaths) 7. If breaths do not go in open mouth and check for object that may obstruct airway 8. 30 chest compressions 9. look inside patients mouth 10.if there is an object in the mouth take it out using the finger scoop method 11. if there is not visible object provide 2 ventilations 12. if ventilations do not make the chest rise go back to chest compressions and recheck after 30 compressions. 13. If ventilations make the chest rise, reassess breathing and circulation. 14. breathing +pulse = monitor vitals 15. pulse + no breathing = rescue breaths 16. no pulse + no breathing = CPR
What is the cause of a ridging nail
psoriasis
Conscious chocking adult protocol (11)
1. is the scene safe 2. glove up 3. identify self to victim and obtain permission to help 4. position yourself behind the patient 5. place one arm diagonally across the chest of pt and have them bend forward to chest is parallel to ground 6. perform 5 back blows in between the patients scapula 7. have the patient stand up 8. locate the navel using fingers 9. create a fist and place it on the Pt's abdomen just above the navel 10.grasp fist with other hand and perform 5 upward abdominal thrusts. 11. continue cycle of back blows and abdominal thrusts until the object is forced out, the patient begins to breathe or cough forcefully on their own or becomes unconscious
Secondary Survey Physical Exam: Extremities (8)
1. is the scene safe 2. glove up 3. introduce self and obtain consent 4. carefully feel each extremity for pain/deformity 5. have patient wiggle hands/fingers/feet/toes 6. perform capillary refill 7. ask if patient has sensation of finger/toes 8. have patient squeeze fingers, and push both up and down on your hand with their feet
Secondary Survey Physical Exam: NECK (6)
1. is the scene safe 2. glove up 3. introduce self and obtain consent 4. check C-spine for pain/deformity 5. feel for generalized neck pain 6. if suspected spine injury immobilize immediately
Secondary Survey Physical Exam: CHEST/SHOULDER (7)
1. is the scene safe 2. glove up 3. introduce self and obtain consent 4. check the collar bone 5. have patient perform resisted shoulder shrug 6. Feel chest/ribs as patient takes a deep breath in and out 7. look at rise and fall of chest during breathing and listen for normal breathing sounds
Secondary Survey Physical Exam: Abdomen (5)
1. is the scene safe 2. glove up 3. introduce self and obtain consent 4. observation: discoloration, open wounds etc. 5. apply light pressure using finger press technique on each of the abdominal quadrants
Secondary Survey Physical Exam: Pelvis (4)
1. is the scene safe 2. glove up 3. obtain consent 4. preform squish and gapping tests
CPR Protocol no pulse no breathing
1. is the scene safe? 2. glove up 3. are you ok? are you ok? 4. "HELP!" 5. assess vitals (pulse, breathing, severe bleeding) 6. tell someone to call 911 7. 30 chest compressions 8. head tilt with 2 breaths 9. repeat steps 7-8 Use AED ASAP if available
Wound Care Protocol
1. is the scene safe? 2. glove up 3. obtain consent / what happened? 4. have victim sit down apply pressure to wound and elevate 5. have someone call 911 6. apply gauze and keep applying 7. apply pressure to relevant major artery 8. tourniquet as clise to wound site as possible (not over a joint) 9. write time on patients forehead
What organs are in the lower left quadrant (2)
1. large intestines 2. urinary bladder
3 Characteristic of youth thermoregulation compared to adults
1. less sweating than adults 2. higher convection rate 3. red skin
Vitals of Secondary Survey (8)
1. level of consciousness 2. Pulse 3. Respirations 4. Blood Pressure 5. Pupils 6. Skin Color 7. Nerve response 8. O2 carrying Capacity
What organs are in the upper right quadrant (2)
1. liver 2. gallbladder
What organs are in the upper right quadrant
1. liver 2. gallbladder 3. superior ascending colon
3 classifications of connective tissue
1. loose irregular 2. dense regular 3. dense irregular
What are the components of the pre-participation examination (6)
1. medical history 2. physical examination 3. cardiovascular screening 4. maturity assessment 5. orthopedic screening 6. wellness screening
what are the steps for using a mechanical peak flow meter (8)
1. movable indicator placed at bottom of the scale 2. patient stands or sits tall and straight 3. patient inhales maximally 4. patient places lips around mouth piece 5. patient is told to forcefully exhale as fast and hard as possible 6. value is recorded 7. steps 1-6 repeated 2 more times 8. highest number marked for that time period
Purpose of Neuromuscular electrical stimulation (4)
1. muscle reeducation 2. prevent atrophy 3. decrease muscle spasm 4. decrease edema
Contraindication of cryotherapy (4)
1. nerve palsy 2. raynaud disease (vasospasm of digital arteries) 3. cold hypersensitivity 4. urticaria (temporary allergic reaction)
With an anterior view the Plumb Line should bisect which anatomical landmarks (5)
1. nose 2. mouth 3. sternum 4. umbilicus 5. pubic bones
Symptoms of Thoracic Outlet Syndrome when arm is above the horizontal plane
1. numbness into arm, forearm, hand, fingers 2. heaviness into hand and fingers 3. impaired circulation 4. muscle weakness 5. pain in neck, shoulder, elbow, wrist, hand
What are the 7 components of the objective examination
1. observation 2. clearing examination 3. neurological eval 4. palpation 5. functional testing (A/P/RROM) 6. special tests 7. special measurements
Precautions with cryotherapy (5)
1. over a superficial main branch of a nerve 2. over an open wound 3. hypertension 4. Pt's with poor sensation 5. very young/old Pt's
Indications of therapeutic pools (8)
1. pain 2. edema 3. restricted weight bearing 4. Weakness 5. Low endurance 6. Spasm 7. Loss of motion 8. Maintain cardiovascular fitness
What muscles are in the lateral compartment of the leg?
1. peroneus longus 2. peroneus brevis
In addition to general symptoms what are the 4 categories of symptoms to ask about in a concussion evaluation
1. physical symptoms 2. cognitive symptoms 3. emotional symptoms 4. sleep symptoms
nebulizer protocol (6)
1. plug in 2. connect tubing to compressor and bottom of medication cup 3. add medication to the inside perimeter of medication cup 4. place top on medication cup 5. place mouth piece on medication cup 6. turn power switch on
What are the 3 divisions of a macrocycle
1. pre-season 2. in season 3. off-season
What are the 4 phases of disc herniagion
1. protrusion 2. prolapse 3. extrusion 4. sequestration
Effects of remobilization
1. realign collagen fibers 2. absorption of hematoma 3. cartilage repair 4. prevent abnormal cross link formation 5. increase tensile strength 6. enhances recovery
Thermal effects of ultrasound: moderate heat (5)
1. reduction of muscle spasm 2. decrease in muscle stiffness 3. diminished pain perception 4. altered nerve conduction velocity 5. increased blood flow
With a lateral view were should the Plumb Line lay
1. slightly forward of lateral malleolus 2. slightly posterior to hip joint 3. slightly anterior to knee joint (behind patella) 4. line passes through external auditory meatus, earlobe, bodies of cervical spine, center of shoulder joint and greater trochanter
What are 3 effects of bad posture
1. slow changes over time lead to the adaptation to stresses applied 2. shortening of structures/lengthening of opposing structures 3. secondary weakness of both shortened and lengthened structures
What organs are in the upper left quadrant (2)
1. spleen 2. stomach
How do you assess concentration of an athlete with a suspected concussion
1. state the months backwards 2. repeat digits in reverse order
What are the cellular effects of microstreaming (5)
1. stimulates protein synthesis 2. increases capillary density 3. increases ion flux 4. stimulates serotonin release 5. pain control
What organs are in the upper left quadrant
1. stomach 2. spleen 3. superior descending colon
What are 3 true statements about a drug's ready state
1. the amount of the drug taken is equal to the amount that is excreted 2. a steady state is reached after 5 half lives of the drug have occured 3. drugs with long half-lives may take longer to reach their steady state
Second-order afferent fibers carry sensory messages from __________ to ____________
1. the dorsal horn 2. the brain
Situations in which you would stop CPR (7)
1. the scene becomes unsafe 2. obvious signs of life 3. AED is ready to use 4. more advanced medical personnel take over 5. presented with valid DNR 6. too exhausted to continue 7. another trained responder takes over
Name the water-soluble vitamins (6)
1. thiamin 2. riboflavin 3. niacin 4. B6 5. B12 6. Vitamin C
What are 5 common sites for skin fold measurements
1. thigh 2. triceps 3. suprailiac 4. abdomen 5. chest
What muscles are in the deep posterior compartment of the leg?
1. tibialis posterior 2. flexor hallucis longus 3. flexor digitorum longus 4. popliteus
What conditions make the scene unsafe (9)
1. traffic 2. unstable structures 3. downed electrical lines 4. leaking fluids/fuel 5. smoke or fire 6. broken glass 7. swift moving water 8. violence 9. toxic gas exposure
What are the important considerations of interval training
1. training period 2. recovery period 3. sets 4. repetitions 5. training time/distance
What modalities use conversion of energy (2)
1. ultrasound 2. short wave diathermy
Concussion Assessment (not including cranial nerves)
1. upper extremity dermatomes 2. upper extremity myotomes 3. symptom check list 4.. immediate memory recall (5 words in same order) 5. cognitive ability (months in reverse, number sequencing) 6. coordination (finger opposition, nose to finger, finger to nose, past pointing test) 7. balance (romberg, stand in tandem, single leg balance) 8. delayed memory recall
What are 4 true statements about applying elastic wrap to an athlete's thigh to support a groin or adductor strain
1. use a hip spica 2. use a double 6 inch wrap 3. limb is relaxed and internally rotated 4. wrap around the thigh and then across to lower abdomen to over the iliac crest on the opposite side of the body
Principles of Splinting
1. vitals (pulse, neuro, cap refill) 2. if applicable stabilizes joints above and below fracture 3. pad empty areas with extra fabric 4. reasses vitals after splinting and again after moving
What are some ways to assess orientation of an athlete with a suspected concussion (4)
1. what is the time 2. what is the day 3. what is the month 4. what is the year
What are 5 true statements of apophyses
1. young athletes are prone to apophyseal injuries 2. they are traction epiphyses rather than pressure epiphyses in long bones 3. they serve as origins and insertions for muscles 4. they provide bone shape, not length 5. common apophyseal avulsion conditions include Osgood Schlatters and Sever's Disease
What is the urine specific gravity of an individual that has minimal dehydration
1.010 - 1.020
What is the urine specific gravity of an individual that has significant dehydration
1.021 - 1.030
US rate of heating per minute Intensity = 2.0 Frequency = 3 Mhz
1.4 C
In normal fluid exchange how much fluid is reabsorbed by the lymph vessels
1/3
Hio extension ROM
10 degrees
How long does it take for the cardiovascular system to return to normal values in an athlete who has gone from sea level to high altitudes?
10 to 14 days
What is the "normal" distance between the head of the humerus and acromion in millimeters
10-12 mm
time between plyo sets for endurance
10-15 seconds
Which of the following best describes the recommended percentage of total calories from protein, fat, and carbohydrates for most physically active adults?
10-15% protein, 30% fat, 55-65% carbohydrates
How long do joint replacements typically last?
10-20 years
What temperature must the body be cooled to before transporting an athlete with heatstroke
102
A water temperature that exceeds what should not be used for full body immersion
104 degrees Fahrenheit
At what temperature does CNS dysfunction occur with heatstroke
104+
Breath rate per minute of an adult
12 breaths per minute
normal respiration rate per minute for adults
12 breaths per minute
An athlete has lost 5 pounds (~2.2 kg) during the course of a practice. How much fluid must the athlete consume in order to return to normal hydration status?
120 oz (~3.5 L)
What is prehypertension
120-139/80-89
Hip Flexion ROM
125 degrees
What temperature is a paraffin bath
126-130 degrees Fahrenheit
what is the normal q-angle for males?
13 degrees
A basketball player who weighs 250 pounds (114 kg) is eating a regular, balanced diet. He is trying to build muscle and has started supplementing his diet with a commercial protein shake. What is a good range of daily total protein intake for this athlete?
135-195 grams per day
What is the atmospheric pressure at the surface of water
14.7 PSI
Knee Flexion ROM
140 degrees
What is hypertension stage 1
140-159/90-99
Elbow Flexion ROM
145 degrees
what is the normal q-angle for females
15 degrees
What percentage of your diet should consist of protein
15-20%
What is the voltage range for High Volt Pulsed Current
150-500 Volts
What is hypertension stage 2
160+/100+
The water in a hydrocollator should be within what range
160-170 degrees Fahrenheit
How many fluid ounces should an athlete drink 2-3 hours before exercise
17-20 fluid ounces
Shoulder Flexion ROM
180 degrees
Shoulder Abduction ROM
180 degrees abd
What is the maximum heart rate for an athlete who is 25 years old?
195
When was the NATA founded a. 1940 b. 1945 c. 1950 d. 1955
1950
What is the appropriate bleach to water ratio in approved disenfectants
1:10 ratio
How far must the sternum be depressed in an adult to perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) effectively?
2 inches
Recommendation for increasing endurance
2 sets of 20+ reps of 70% 1 rep max
Recommendation for increasing strength
2 sets of 3-9 reps of high intensity (90% 1 rep max)
Recommendation for increasing strength & endurance
2 sets of 6-12 reps of 70-90% 1 rep max
You were just given permission to hire a new staff athletic trainer. What order should these components follow when conducting staff selection activities? 1. Retention 2. Hiring 3. Promotion 4. Performance evaluation 5. Demotion
2, 3, 1, 4, 5
What are the recommended values for gaining one pound of muscle and for losing one pound of fat?
2,500 calories to gain one pound of muscle; 3,500 calories to lose one pound of fat
What depth does 3MHz US penetrate?
2-3 cm
Where does the achilles tendon injury usually occur?
2-3 cm above the area where the tendon attaches the gastrocnemius to the calcaneus
How long during exercise will heart rate plateu
2-3 minutes
How many times should an athlete participate in glycogen supercompensation a year
2-3 times
How long til recovery between sets of isokinetic machines
2-4 minutes
The average adult requires a minimum of how much water per day (liters)
2.5 liters
In normal fluid exchange how much fluid is reabsorbed by the venous end of capillaries
2/3
Recommended parameters for Bone Growth Stimulators
20 % duty cycle 1.5 MHz 0.03 W/cm2 20 minutes
normal respiration rate per minute for children
20 breaths per minute
Radial Deviation ROM
20 degrees
Ankle DF ROM
20 degrees DF
Ankle EV. ROM
20 degrees Ev.
__% of genital injuries result in permanent damage
20%
emmetropia
20/20 vision
What is the average amortization phase when jumping?
23 ms
How long after a patient had failed a urine-specific gravity test can the patient retest?
24 hours
What percentage of your diet should consist of fats
25-30%
Ratio of Scapulohumeral rhythm and normal range of motion of scapula
2:1 ration of GH abduction to scapula movement Scapula ROM is typically 80-90 degrees with GH abduction
Glasgow Coma Scale total score ranges =
3 - 8 - coma 8 - severe head injury 9 - 12 - moderate head injury 13 - 15 - mild head injury
How long to splint PIP and DIP dislocations and in what position
3 weeks 30 degrees of flexion
How long to splint collateral ligament sprains and in what position
3 weeks 30 degrees of flexion
What is the minimum percentage of body fat that college-age males and females should have to provide a protective padding to their internal organs?
3% for males, 12 % for females
How long is the optimal time to hold a stretch
30 seconds
What is the ACSM recommendation for preserving bone health in adulthood?
30 to 60 minutes of weight-bearing cardiovascular activity three to five times per week along with resistance exercises two or three times per week
Most good running shoes support ____ - ____ miles of running
350 - 550
What is the incubation period for mononucleosis?
4 - 6 weeks
In order for superior displacement of the humerus to occur, the supraspinatus must retract by how much in centimeters
4-5 cm
In the wet room how high above the floor should the electrical outlets be
4-5 feet (1.2-1.5 meters)
Hip Adduction ROM
40 degrees
Shoulder Adduction ROM
40 degrees
Ankle INV. ROM
40 degrees Inv.
A patient with an infection or serious disease, such as leukemia, might demonstrate an abnormally raised white blood cell count. What is the normal leukocyte count? A. 200,000 to 400,000/cu mm B. 500 to 1500/cu mm C. 4000 to 10,000/cu mm D. 1000 to 40,000/cu mm E. 250 to 500 /cu mm
4000 to 10,000/cu mm
What is the wavelength for Blue Light
405
What % of ALC tears are surgically repairable
43%
Ulnar Deviation ROM
45 degrees
Ankle PF ROM
45 degrees PF
Hip I.R/E.R. ROM
45 degrees hip I.R./E.R.
Hip abduction ROM
45 degrees hip abd
What is the normal maximum aerobic capacity for most college athletes
45-60 ml/kg/min
time between plyo sets for power
45-60 seconds
The flu generally has an incubation period of how long
48 hours
time of rest between plyo sessions
48 hours
Functional Assessment of Strength dominant vs. non-dominant
5 - 10% difference between dominant & non-dominant sides
Approximated % of strength loss due to inactivity per day/per week
5% / day to 8% / week
Approximated % of strength restoration per week
5-12%
Shoulder Extension ROM
50 degrees
Most people replace only about _____ percent of the water they lose through sweating.
50%
What is the peak expiratory flow for the YELLOW zone
50-80% of personal best caution is warranted; use of medication is required
An athlete who is trying to gain weight should consume how many additional calories per day?
500 calories
What percentage of your diet should consist of carbohydrates
55-60%
During exercise what is the best-absorbed fluid and energy replacement formula?
6% carbohydrate-electrolyte solution with fructose and sucrose
what % carbohydrate solution is optimal when trying to replace fluids
6% solution
How many times do you repeat the process of dipping and withdrawing in a paraffin bath
6-12 times
How long to splint a Boutonniere Deformity and in what position
6-8 weeks PIP extension
How long to splint mallet finger and in what position
6-8 weeks slight DIP hyperextension
# of foot contacts for low intensity
60-100
What is normal fasting blood glucose levels for individuals w/out diabetes
60-100 mg/dL
About ___% of heat is lost through evaporation during exercise
65%
At what percent humidity is heat loss via evaporation severely impaired
65%
minimum % of 1 rep max needed to make strength gains
66%
What is the wavelength for Red light
660
In most states medical records must be maintained for how long
7 years
how long should medical records be kept and how should they be kept
7 years, in a secure locked location
A heat acclimatization program should include progressive exposure over how many days
7-10 days
How many fluid ounces should an athlete drink 10-20 minutes before exercise
7-10 fluid ounces
What is the "normal" thickness of the supraspinatus tendon in millimeters
7-10 mm
Wrist Extension ROM
70 degrees
At what percent humidity is heat loss via evaporation stopped
75%
Death is imminent when core body temperature drops to what range
77-85 degrees Fahrenheit
What is the anticipated return to play timeframe with an ACL repair with an internal brace
8-12 weeks
Forearm Pronation ROM
80 degrees
Wrist Flexion ROM
80 degrees wrist flexion
What is the peak expiratory flow for the GREEN zone
80-100% of personal best
What is the frequency range for high intensity E-stim
80-150 Watts
Recovery timeline of a concussion
80-90% resolve in 7-10 days 10-15% take longer than 10 days Recovery time is longer in children/adolescents
Forearm Supination ROM
85 degrees
What is the wavelength for Infra Red Light
880
How long to splint PIP and DIP fractures and in what position
9-11 weeks position is N/A
Shoulder I.R./E.R. ROM
90 degrees I.R./E.R.
To prevent overuse throwing injuries among high school baseball pitchers, what is the pitch limit per game?
90 per game, with a two-game limit per week
Loss of hand function accounts for what percentage of upper limb function
90 percent
Which of the following best trains an athlete for increased power?
90% of one-repetition maximum
What is the approximate temperature of therapeutic pools?
92-98 F
What is normal oxygen saturation of blood
95-100%
What values should blood oxygen levels be in a normal, fit athlete
95-99%
What is the CPT code for an evaluation?
97005
What is normal core body temperature
98.2-98.6
What is normal rectal temperature
99.6
What is the urine specific gravity of an individual that is well hydrated
< 1.010
What is the ideal duration of the amortization phase?
< 15 ms
What is the peak expiratory flow for the RED zone
< 50% of personal best emergency action is needed, including medications or hospital visit
signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia occur when blood glucose levels are ...
< 70 mg/dL
What is normal blood pressure
<120/<80
BMI classifications
<18.5 = underweight 18.5 - 24.9 = normal weight 25.0 - 29.9 = overweight 30 and > = obese
What is the urine specific gravity of an individual that has serious dehydration
> 1.030
What is the body weight change of an individual who has serious dehydration
> 5 %
7 Principles of Rehab Program
A = avoid aggravation T = timing, should begin ASAP without aggravation C = Compliance I = Individualization S = Specific Sequencing I = Intensity T = Total Patient (look at patient as whole)
What does AVPU stand for
A = patient is awake and alert V = patient reponds to voice P = patient responds to pain stimuli U = patient is unresponsive
Which is the best timing and composition for a pre-competition meal?
A bowl of wheat pasta with meat sauce, low-fat milk, and orange juice four hours before the game
What is hyponatremia
A condition involving a electrolyte disorder that results in an abnormally low concentration of sodium in the blood
What is Acute Exertional Rhabdomyolysis
A heat illness characterized by sudden catabolic destruction and degeneration of skeletal muscle
Which of the following findings on a female student athlete's pre-participation examination would most likely impact her ability to begin training with the cross-country team?
A hemoglobin level of 25%
What is the necking zone?
A period after the plastic region on the stress vs. strain graph in which if you don't stop applying stress, the tissue will rupture.
Which of the following provides the most cost-efficient and reliable support for an athlete with a history of ankle sprains?
A verified commercial ankle brace
The athlete's final profile lists the following deficits in her fitness: •Lacks upper-body strength •Lacks core strength Select all the exercises recommended for increasing core strength. a. Push jerk b. Front squat c. Hang clean d. Lat pulldown e. Abdominal crunch f. Shoulder press
A, B, C, F a. Push jerk b. Front squat c. Hang clean f. Shoulder press
The patient would like some recommendations for a low-fat diet. In the following list, select the sources of fat that are best to include as regular parts of this patient's diet. Choose all that apply. a. Olive oil b. Peanuts c. Salt pork d. Fish fat e. Whole milk f. Egg yolk g. Palm oil h. Pepperoni
A, B, D a. Olive oil b. Peanuts d. Fish fat
The athlete's final profile lists the following deficits in her fitness: •Lacks upper-body strength •Lacks core strength Select all the exercises that are best for increasing upper-body strength. a. Incline bench press b. Dumbbell alternating curl c. Lunge d. Seated row e. Back squat f. Triceps pushdown
A, B, D, F a. Incline bench press b. Dumbbell alternating curl d. Seated row f. Triceps pushdown
What factors are important for successful testing and administration of a fitness assessment? Select all that apply. a. Allow athletes to warm up. b. Allow athletes to ask questions about the testing. c. Encourage teammates to attend testing. d. Sequence testing so that aerobic testing is last. e. All tests should be done on the same day. f. Give test scores right after each trial g. Demonstrate the test.
A, B, D, F, G a. Allow athletes to warm up. b. Allow athletes to ask questions about the testing. d. Sequence testing so that aerobic testing is last. f. Give test scores right after each trial g. Demonstrate the test.
The athletic trainer plans to administer several tests of aerobic and anaerobic fitness. Of the following tests, which will evaluate the athlete's anaerobic capacity? Select all that apply. a. 40-yard (37 m) dash b. 12-minute run c. 300-yard (274 m) shuttle d. Hexagon test e. Bench press (1 repetition) f. Sit-and-reach test g. 1.5-mile (2.4 km) run
A, C, D, E, F a. 40-yard (37 m) dash c. 300-yard (274 m) shuttle d. Hexagon test e. Bench press (1 repetition f. Sit-and-reach
Which individuals are susceptible to heat-related illnesses? Select all that apply. a. Males b. Those with previous cold injury c. Young d. Those with febrile conditions e. Those with large muscle mass f. Those who weigh in g. Sleep-deprived individuals h. Those who have spinal cord injuries and are in wheelchairs
A, C, D, E, G, H a. Males c. Young d. Those with febrile conditions e. Those with large muscle mass g. Sleep-deprived individuals h. Those who have spinal cord injuries and are in wheelchairs
Which of the following fluids can transmit an infectious disease? Select all that apply. a. Placental blood b. Sweat c. Vaginal secretions d. Ear wax e. Blood f. Saliva g. Seminal fluid h. Nasal mucus
A, C, E, F, G a. Placental blood c. Vaginal secretions e. Blood f. Saliva g. Seminal fluid
A wrestler has a lesion on his arm. The area around the wound is red, painful, and swollen. Question 25 Select which information is important for the athletic trainer to know in order to determine the significance of the lesion. Select all that apply. Select which information is important for the athletic trainer to know in order to determine the significance of the lesion. Select all that apply. a. The athlete indicates the lesion occurred a few days ago. b. The athlete is not coughing. c. The athlete indicates he is feeling sick. d. The athlete does not have a headache. e. The athlete indicates that the lesion started small, but now it's really painful. f. The athlete indicates he has not had any treatment for this lesion. g. The athlete indicates he has not had anything like this before. h. The athlete indicates he has been in contact with other wrestlers since having the lesion.
A, C, E, F, H a. The athlete indicates the lesion occurred a few days ago. c. The athlete indicates he is feeling sick. e. The athlete indicates that the lesion started small, but now it's really painful. f. The athlete indicates he has not had any treatment for this lesion. h. The athlete indicates he has been in contact with other wrestlers since having the lesion.
What types of things might the athletic trainer do to prevent hyperthermia? Select all that apply. a. Have athletes wear breathable wicking fabrics. b. Monitor each athlete's body temperature periodically throughout practice. c. Have athletes eat food high in fiber. d. Have the athletes consume large amounts of protein, caffeine, and fluids. e. Sit out all athletes with prior heat or cold injuries. f. Have athletes acclimatize at least two weeks in advance of practices. g. Weigh athletes before and after practice.
A, F, G a. Have athletes wear breathable wicking fabrics f. Have athletes acclimatize at least two weeks in advance of practices. g. Weigh athletes before and after practice.
A 25-year-old female patient has asked the athletic trainer to design a comprehensive nutrition program for maintaining good health. She weighs 175 pounds (79.3 kg) and is 5 feet 10 inches (82.8 cm) tall. The client has a body mass index of 25.1. Question 13 Which of the following pieces of information are additional anthropometric baseline information that the athletic trainer needs in order to assess this patient? Choose all that apply. Which of the following pieces of information are additional anthropometric baseline information that the athletic trainer needs in order to assess this patient? Choose all that apply. a. The patient's waist-to-hip ratio is .60. b. The age at which the patient had her first menstrual cycle c. The family history of this patient includes a mother with high blood pressure and a father with diabetes. d. The patient runs three miles three times per week. e. The patient does not consume alcohol. f. The patient does not use tobacco products. g. The patient does not know her current blood pressure. h. The patient does not monitor her diet. i. The patient has no health issues. j. The patient is not familiar with any of her family members' heights and weights k. The patient's lean body mass is 122.6. l. The patient's waist circumference is 36 inches (91.4 cm)
A, K, L a. The patient's waist-to-hip ratio is .60. k. The patient's lean body mass is 122.6. l. The patient's waist circumference is 36 inches (91.4 cm
Which fibers require a shorter phase duration of E-Stim
A-beta fibers
What organization publishes CPT codes on an annual basis? A. AMA B. NATA C. CAATE D. BOC E. None of the above
A. AMA
Panner's disease is an osteochondrosis of which of the following? A. Capitellum B. Tibial tubercle C. Olecranon D. First ray of the foot E. Talus
A. Capitellum
Which of the following describes a neurapraxia? A. Demyelination of the axon sheath that leads to a conduction block. Usually heals in approximately 1 to 2 weeks B. Loss or disruption of the axon and myelin sheath. The epineurium is still intact C. An injury to the endoneurium, perineurium, and epineurium with a permanent neurological deficit D. A crush injury to a nerve causing damage to the epineurium. The perineurium is intact E. None of the above
A. Demyelination of the axon sheath that leads to a conduction block. Usually heals in approximately 1 to 2 weeks
The athlete may have difficulty performing what actions if the medial and lateral pectoral nerves are injured? A. Flexion, adduction, and internal rotation of the upper arm B. Shoulder shrugs C. Abduction and external rotation of the upper arm D. Extension, internal rotation, and adduction of the upper arm E. Flexion, abduction, and external rotation of the upper arm
A. Flexion, adduction, and internal rotation of the upper arm
Which of the following exercises should be avoided in the early stages (phase I) of anterior cruciate reconstruction rehabilitation? A. Full knee extension exercises B. Resisted hip abduction C. Toe raises D. Hamstring curls E. Isometric contraction of the quadriceps
A. Full knee extension exercises
A wrestler comes to the athletic training facility inquiring about a "drug that will make him lose weight quickly." He mentions a diuretic. Which of the following drugs has been banned by the International Olympic Committee and causes diuresis? A. Furosemide B. Salbutamol C. Caffeine (< 12 mcg/mL) D. Salicylates E. None of the above
A. Furosemide Furosemide (Lasix) is a potent diuretic and is banned by the International Olympic Committee.
What is a quick method of testing the motor ability of the sacroiliac nerve root? A. Have the athlete walk on his or her toes B. Manually resist ankle inversion C. Manually resist great toe extension D. Assess the athlete's ability to squat E. Resisted ankle eversion
A. Have the athlete walk on his or her toes innervates the posterior tibialis, plantaris, peroneus longus, and peroneus brevis muscles, which act to plantar flex the ankle and foot.
When is the best time to begin a rehabilitation program after an injury? A. Immediately B. After the injured part is "healed" C. After the inflammation is under control D. Once the pain subsides E. All of the above
A. Immediately
What is the best position for the patient to be in to muscle test the piriformis? A. Sitting B. Prone C. Supine D. Side-lying E. Standing
A. Sitting the patient should be sitting. The lower leg is resisted as the patient attempts to externally rotate the hip.
A female gymnast is complaining of symptoms of premenstrual syndrome, such as irritability, anxiety, depression, and bloating. Which of the following vitamins might be helpful in alleviating these symptoms? A. Vitamin B6 B. Vitamin B12 C. Vitamin K D. Vitamin A E. Vitamin C
A. Vitamin B6
What is a biphasic current?
AC curent the direction of current flow reverses itself once during each cyle
Anterior drawer and lachmans tests what structure
ACL
CN 6 and how to test
Abducens H pattern
Cranial Nerve 6
Abducens: Lateral eye movement (motor)
CN 11 and how to test
Accessory resisted shoulder shrug
Cranial Nerve 11
Accessory: Swallowing, Innervation of sternocleidomastoid muscle (motor)
When does a football helmet need to be reconditioned?
According to manufacturer's warranty
Rehab Program: Phase 2
Active Phase Proliferation Phase of Healing Goals: improve ROM/Flexibility, Begin strengthening exs, improve balance/proprioception
Type of tissue damage if finding is strong and painful
Acute tear of muscle or tendon
Who must be educated regarding infection-control policies and procedures?
Administration, coaches, athletes, and custodians
When putting together a fitness testing assessment, which tests should be done last?
Aerobic capacity tests
Which of the following nerve fibers transmit impulses from nociceptors toward the spinal cord?
Afferent
A sensory nerves afferent or efferent and where do they enter the spinal cord
Afferent, the dorsal horn
Which of the following is an intrinsic risk factor for injury?
Age
Spondylosis (Age, Severity of Symptoms, MOI)
Age: can begin at 25 years, effects 60% of population at 45 years, effects 85% of population at 60 years. Severity of symptoms ranges from mild to incapacitated MOI: Trauma, nerve stretch, chronic poor posture
Rehab Program: Phase 4
Aggressive Phase Exercises mimic stress of normal activity Flexibility, strength, endurance @ near normal Deficit = fnxl activity, performance level Goals: restore fnxl ability, sport specific activities to permit pre-injury participation
What are the ABC's of Proprioception
Agility, Balance, Coordination
Skill Related Components of Physical Fitness (ABCPRS)
Agility, balance, coordination, power, reaction time, speed
Airborne Direct Indirect Vector a. Coughing b. Mosquito bite c. Sexual intercourse d. Soiled gauze pads
Airborne = coughing Direct = sexual intercourse Indirect = soiled gauze pads Vector = mosquito bite
Who developed a system to change an individual's irrational ideas and beliefs
Albert Ellis
Which of the following is most likely to contribute to hypothermia?
Alcohol
Of the following drugs or substances, which predispose an athlete to heat illness?
Alcohol, caffeine, and asthma medications
Which items on a physical or health history form would be recognized as a concern for further investigation? a. Hemoglobinuria b. Blood pressure 160/70 Hgmm c. Anemia d. History of repeated episodes of diarrhea e. Absent testicle f. Controlled diabetes g. Furuncles
All except for F a. Hemoglobinuria b. Blood pressure 160/70 Hgmm c. Anemia d. History of repeated episodes of diarrhea e. Absent testicle g. Furuncles
What does the wet bulb globe temperature (WBGT) measure?
Ambient air temperature, humidity, and solar radiant energy
Sets the standards for eye protection for racquet sports as well as non-racquet sports to reduce the risk of eye injury.
American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM)
During the pre-participation physical examination, which of the following patients would the athletic trainer suspect has decreased joint stability?
An ectomorph
Which athlete is most likely to suffer a heat-related illness?
An overweight athlete who uses a wheelchair (from a spinal cord injury) wearing a cotton shirt and taking laxatives
Myotome L4
Ankle Dorsiflexion
Myotome S1
Ankle Eversion & Plantarflexion
Which of the following eating disorders is characterized by a distorted body image and concern about weight gain, but without the self-starvation practices?
Anorexia Athletica
Which medical conditions are exacerbated by cold environments?
Anorexia, exercise-induced bronchos
Tissue evaluated in Anterior Apprehension Sign (Crank test)
Ant. GH joint capsule (Injury: sub or dislocation)
Tissue evaluated in Rockwood test
Ant. GH joint capsule (Injury: sub or dislocation)
Tissue evaluated in Rowe Test (most extreme)
Ant. GH joint capsule (Injury: sub or dislocation)
During a high school basketball training camp, a young boy complains of knee pain after landing from a jump shot. He reports hearing a popping sound when the injury occurred. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear
Where is center of gravity on the body?
Anterior to S2 Vertebrae
Abnormal response to muscle strength grading
Anything less than a 5
What methods or procedures can be undertaken to prevent skin irritation of an athlete's ankle as part of preventive taping?
Apply lace and heel pads, then put on underwrap
The knee joint capsule thickens medially to form the posterior oblique ligament and laterally to form the:
Arcuate ligament
It has been determined that this is a first-degree ankle sprain. The athletic trainer elects to use this injury as an opportunity to teach a student how to tape an ankle. For this closed basketweave ankle taping, match each pattern of tape application with the correct number of pieces of tape and the direction in which they should be placed. Check your answers for feedback. As many strips as it takes anterior to posterior Three inferior to superior Two in a circular pattern Two laterally and anterior to posterior a. Stirrups b. Heel locks c. Figure eights d. Closing strips
As many strips as it takes anterior to posterior = d Three inferior to superior = a Two in a circular pattern = c Two laterally and anterior to posterior = b
SOAP Note (A)
Assessment: A summary based on the subjective and objective findings. Primary goal is to determine the cause, type and severity of the injury
Which eye condition is improved by wearing contact lenses?
Astigmatism
The golgi tendon organs respond to increased tension in muscles after what amount of time
At least 6 seconds
In the proper fitting of shoes, the break of the shoe should occur where
At the ball joint / Metatarsal Phalangeal Joint
Cervical Spine Movement: Greatest Rotation
Atlanto-axial joint C1-C2
Cervical Spine Movement: Nodding Motion
Atlanto-occipital joint: C0-C1
Cauliflower Ear
Auricular Hematoma, deformity of the outer ear
using a stethoscope to listen to movement of air or fluid within the body and characterizing the sound according to intensity, frequency, and quality. Commonly used to assess heart and lung function, circulatory impairment and bowel sounds
Auscultation
Why do we immobilize?
Avoid aggravation
How can an athlete who participates in an outdoor sport and is prone to anaphylactic shock brought on by bee stings help to prevent bee stings?
Avoid using deodorants and perfumes.
How long should the abdomen be auscultated before the athletic trainer decides if the bowel sounds are absent? A. 30 to 60 seconds B. 2 to 3 minutes C. 60 to 90 seconds D. At least 5 minutes per region E. None of the above
B. 2 to 3 minutes
The pre-event meal should be eaten ____ before competition to ensure proper digestion. A. 2 to 3 hours B. 3 to 4 hours C. 5 to 6 hours D. 6 to 8 hours E. 1 to 2 hours
B. 3 to 4 hours
A type V Salter-Harris fracture involves what kind of fracture through the physeal plate? A. The epiphysis and metaphysis separate without fragmentation B. A crush injury to the epiphysis C. The epiphysis and metaphysis separate with fragmentation D. The epiphysis, metaphysis, and physis all separate from each other E. The metaphysis is separated with fragmentation
B. A crush injury to the epiphysis
What are cost-based providers contracted by the federal government and charged with reviewing Medicare claims made by hospitals called? A. An intermediary B. An insurance "carrier" C. A joint review board D. An insurance network E. Business manager
B. An insurance "carrier"
Which of the following would help an athletic trainer determine space needs when planning to build a sports medicine center? A. Enlisting the help of a doctor who is in private practice B. Developing a traffic pattern chart C. Buying the equipment first and then determining space needs D. Performing site visits at various gyms to get ideas E. All of the above
B. Developing a traffic pattern chart
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the athletic trainer? A. Counsel and advise the athlete about health care B. Diagnose and treat illnesses C. Administer first aid as necessary D. Supervise proper equipment fitting E. Organize and set up preparticipation physical exams
B. Diagnose and treat illnesses
Which organization must certify facemasks that are used in ice hockey helmets? A. CSA B. HECC C. NOCSAE D. ASTM E. NCAA
B. HECC
Which of the following describes a grade III joint mobilization technique? A. Small amplitude movement at the end range B. Large amplitude movement throughout the full available range of motion of the joint C. Small amplitude movement in the beginning of the range of motion D. Thrusting movement done at the anatomical limits of the joint E. None of the above
B. Large amplitude movement throughout the full available range of motion of the joint
When rehabilitating a patient with a recent herniated lumbar disc, which of the following exercises are most appropriate? A. Williams' flexion exercises B. McKenzie extension exercises C. Lumbar stabilization exercises D. Posterior pelvic tilts and knee-to-chest exercises E. PNF stretching exercises
B. McKenzie extension exercises they encourage the mechanical movement of the disc anteriorly away from the nerve root.
Which of the following stages of disease prevention focuses on early detection and appropriate referral? A. Primary stage B. Secondary stage C. Initial stage D. Tertiary stage E. None of the above
B. Secondary stage
_____, _____, and _____ must be taken into consideration when developing a risk management plan. A. Security, liability, competence B. Security, fire safety, management of emergency injuries C. Insurance procedures, policies/procedures, materials D. Licensing, certifications, administrative policy E. Employees, liability, security
B. Security, fire safety, management of emergency injuries
What would be a functional skill for a patient in an ankle rehabilitation program? A. Gastrocnemius flexibility B. Single-leg hopping C. Lifting tolerance D. Anterior tibialis strengthening E. All of the above
B. Single-leg hopping
During your examination of an athlete who has been complaining of weakness when using the rowing machine in the weight room, you notice his right latissimus dorsi muscle appears atrophied. Which nerve is affected? A. Trigeminal B. Thoracodorsal C. Dorsal scapular D. Thoracic spinal E. None of the above
B. Thoracodorsal
The flexor pollicis longus is responsible for which of the following action(s)? A. Great toe flexion B. Thumb flexion C. Thumb flexion and adduction D. Thumb flexion and abduction E. None of the above
B. Thumb flexion
Which of the following medications is not an antihistamine drug? A. Dimetapp B. Ultram C. Benadryl D. Claritin E. Allegra
B. Ultram Ultram is a centrally acting analgesic drug used to control moderate to severe pain.
what is the formula to determine BMI?
BMI = (weight in lbs x 703)/heigh in inches squared
what components should be included in the cardiac assessment to identify risks of complications or sudden deaths
BP to determine if it is elevated pulse rate - pulse rates less than 60 (sometimes as low as 48) are common in athletes who are physically fit and exercise regularly Auscultation of the heart for evidence of murmurs or abnormal beats
What activity is likely to create chronic posterior instability in the shoulder
Backstroke Swimming
Lyme Disease
Bacterial infection primarily transmitted by ticks
What are 4 prerequisites to Coordination
Balance Precision of Motion Speed of motion Strength
What is the correcting sequencing of the ABC's
Balance, Coordination, Agility
In which sport(s) are athletes allowed to wear a padded fiberglass cast?
Baseball, softball, football, and soccer
When making a psychosocial referral, what are the most important personal characteristics to identify in a mental health caregiver?
Being open or receptive, encouraging, and action oriented
Match each athletic ability with the corresponding assessment. Check your answers for feedback. Bench press (1 repetition) Hexagon test Partial curl-up (75-max repetition) Sit-and-reach test Standing long jump 12-minute run 40-yard (37 m) dash 300-yard (274 m) shuttle a. Aerobic capacity b. Agility c. Anaerobic capacity d. Endurance e. Flexibility f. Muscular power g. Muscular strength h. Speed
Bench press (1 repetition) = muscular strength Hexagon test = agility Partial curl-up (75-max repetition) = endurance Sit-and-reach test = flexibility Standing long jump = muscular power 12-minute run = aerobic capacity 40-yard (37 m) dash = speed 300-yard (274 m) shuttle = anaerobic capacity
Radio-humeral joint (location, type of joint, supporting structure)
Between capitulum of humerus and head of radius Uniaxial hinge joint Supported by radial collateral ligament (LCL)
Superior radio-ulnar joint (location, type of joint, supporting structure)
Between radius and ulna Uniaxial pivot joint Supported by annular L
Ulnar-humeral (trochlear) joint (location, type of joint, supporting structure)
Between trochlea of humerus and trochlear notch of ulna Uniaxial hinge joint Supported by ulnar collateral ligament (MCL)
Tissue evaluated in Ludington's test
Biceps (rupture)-long head
Muscles Tested in Resisted Shoulder Flexion
Biceps long head (*) Coracobrachialis Ant. Deltoid Pectoralis major
Tissue evaluated in Speeds test
Biceps long head (tendinitis)
Tissue evaluated in Yergason's test
Biceps long head (tendinitis)
After WW1, the development of athletic trainers as specialist in preventing and managing athletic injuries resulted from the work of this physician
Bilik
What does BAPS Board stand for
Biomechanical Ankle Platform System
Orbital Hematoma
Black Eye
Hyphema
Blood built up in the eye
Olecranon Bursitis
Blow or fall on olecranon process characterized by an acute injury that produces extreme swelling
Health Related Components of Fitness
Body composition Muscular Strength Muscular Endurance Cardiovascular Endurance Flexibility
Oxygen Tank Preparation
Body composition, cardiovascular fitness, flexibility, muscular endurance, strength
Lisfranc
Bones in the midfoot are broken or ligaments that support the midfoot are torn.
If a person were to represent herself as an athletic trainer before passing her BOC certification examination, what national standard has this person violated?
Both the BOC Standards of Professional Practice and NATA Code of Ethics
Which of the national standards prohibits an athletic trainer from gambling on an athletic activity in which he or she has direct influence?
Both the BOC Standards of Professional Practice and NATA Code of Ethics
A deformity caused by a rupture of the extensor tendon over the middle phalanx is called what
Boutonniere Deformoty
Test Objective/Target: Shoulder Depression Test
Brachial Plexus Lesion
Test Objective/Target: Tinnel's Sign (Neck)
Brachial Plexus Lesion
Pathway of efferent nerves and are the motor or sensory
Brain > Ventral Horn > tissue motor
Coup Injury
Brain injury that occurs on the ipsilateral side
Countercoup Injury
Brain injury that occurs to the opposite side of the head from the site of impact
What form of mental health therapy works best for a patient who is highly resistant and has low motivation for intervention?
Brief therapy, solution focused
Match the skin color with the likely condition. Use each skin color only once. check your answers when you've finished.
Bright red = Carbon monoxide poisoning or heatstroke Pallor = Decreased circulation White translucent waxy = Frozen skin Dark red pupil = High blood pressure Jaundice = Liver disease Cyanotic = low oxygen levels
What instructions should an athletic trainer give to educate patients on the prevention of periodontal disease?
Brush and floss daily and have teeth professionally cleaned
C.A.U.T.I.O.N.
C = changes in bowel movement A = a sore that doesnt heal U = unusual bleeding or discharge T = thickening of tissue (testes/breasts) I = indigestion O = obvious change in size, color, texture of mole or wart N = nagging cough
Which fibers require a longer phase duration of E-stim
C fibers
As the athletic trainer begins the assessment of this patient, which pieces of information are health information that the athletic trainer needs to know? Choose all that apply. a. The patient's goal is to be healthy. b. The age at which the patient had her first menstrual cycle. c. The family history of this patient includes a mother with high blood pressure and a father with diabetes. d. The patient runs three miles three times per week. e. The patient does not consume alcohol. f. The patient does not use tobacco products. g. The patient's current blood pressure is 136/84. h. The patient does not monitor her diet. i. The patient has no health issues. j. The patient does not take any medications. k. The patient does not use any illegal drugs. l. The patient's total cholesterol level is 220 (borderline high) m. The patient's blood glucose tolerance level is 144mgdL.
C, D, F, G, I, J, K L, M c. The family history of this patient includes a mother with high blood pressure and a father with diabetes. d. The patient runs three miles three times per week. f. The patient does not use tobacco products. g. The patient's current blood pressure is 136/84. i. The patient has no health issues. j. The patient does not take any medications. k. The patient does not use any illegal drugs. l. The patient's total cholesterol level is 220 (borderline high) m. The patient's blood glucose tolerance level is 144mgdL.
Joints to clear when evaluating the shoulder
C-Spine, TMJ and Elbow
A torus fracture is the result of what kind of force? A. Shearing B. Traction C. Compressive D. Twisting E. Bending
C. Compressive
Drop wrist results in palsy of which nerve
radial nerve palsy
Proliferation
rapid increase in numbers
What is the treatment for freeze injuries?
rapid rewarming with warm water bath (104-106 degrees), 10-30 minutes or until the frostbitten area is erythematous (red) and pliable
What is Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
reaction to medication or infection that causes a full body rash that can increase temperature, affect thermoregulation, and cause death
After an acute musculoskeletal injury, such as a shoulder dislocation, the body releases a natural opiate-like substance that provides temporary pain relief. What is this substance called? A. Prostaglandins B. Substance P C. Endorphins D. Insulin E. Histamines
C. Endorphins
When rehabilitating a patient with patellofemoral pain syndrome, which muscle groups should be strengthened? A. Quadriceps, hamstrings B. Hip abductors, hamstrings C. Hip adductors, quadriceps D. Hip flexors, hip external rotators E. Iliotibial band, hip external rotators
C. Hip adductors, quadriceps
An athlete informs the athletic trainer that he is taking tetracycline for a respiratory infection. Tetracycline will bind with which of the following 2 minerals to form a nonabsorbable complex (and therefore should not be taken before meals)? A. Potassium and zinc B. Sodium and magnesium C. Iron and calcium D. Iron and phosphorus E. Folic acid and niacin
C. Iron and calcium
After an athlete has suffered a ruptured spleen, he or she may experience pain that radiates down the left shoulder and approximately one-third of the way down the upper left arm. What is this pain called? A. Visceral pain B. Radicular pain C. Kehr's sign D. Angina E. Radiation
C. Kehr's sign
What is "No-Man's Land" of the Hand
region between the distal palmar crease and the mid-portion of the middle phalanx of the fingers.
What is autogenic inhibition?
relaxation of antagonist muscle during contractions
What is the treatment for heat stress?
remove from heat, cool, hydrate, and replace lost sodium
According to program management theory, which of the following is defined as a decision-making process in which a course of action is determined in order to bring about a future state of affairs? A. Vision statement B. Mission statement C. Planning D. Program evaluation E. Implementation evaluation
C. Planning
Which of the following muscles does not extend the trunk? A. Semispinalis (thoracic) B. Erector spinae C. Quadratus lumborum D. Multifidi E. Gluteus maximus
C. Quadratus lumborum It functions to laterally flex the trunk.
When rehabilitating a shoulder, in what area should strengthening exercises be initiated first? A. Rotator cuff musculature B. Cervical musculature C. Scapular musculature D. Shoulder abductors, flexors, and internal rotators E. A and D
C. Scapular musculature
What is a type of athletic insurance that pays for covered medical expenses only after all other insurance policies have reached their limits? A. Self B. Primary coverage C. Secondary coverage D. Catastrophic E. Liability coverage
C. Secondary coverage
How do you assess immediate memory recall and delayed memory recall of an athlete with a suspected concussion
repeat 5 words
Hysteresis
repetitive stretches heat tissue to decrease it's viscosity which increases tissue length
Which of the following PNF techniques is not a strengthening technique? A. Slow reversal B. Rhythmic stabilization C. Slow-reversal-hold-relax D. Rhythmic initiation E. All of the above
C. Slow-reversal-hold-relax Slow-reversal-hold-relax is a PNF stretching technique.
What type of analysis would be considered a useful tool in the strategic planning of an existing athletic training program? A. The HCFA analysis B. The strengths/weaknesses analysis C. The WOTS UP analysis D. The Samson analysis E. Flow chart analysis
C. The WOTS UP analysis
Describe ronchi breathing sounds
resembles snoring
what is viscosity
resistance to movement
what is the treatment for plantar fasciitis?
rest until symptoms subside night splints orthotics stretching exercises for achilles tendon/plantar fascia strengthening exercises for lower leg for stabilization
What is hypovolemic shock
results from large-scale blood loss
What nerve roots make up the cervical plexus
C1-C4
Cervical Myotomes
C1: Neck Flexion C2: Neck Flexion C3: Neck Lateral Flexion C4: Shoulder Elevation C5: Shoulder Abduction C6: Elbow Flexion / Wrist Extension C7: Elbow Extension / Wrist Flexion C8: Thumb extension, Ulnar deviation and finger flexion T1: Finder abduction and adduction
Biceps Brachii Reflex
C5
Biceps Reflex Spinal Level
C5
Where does the brachial plexus arise from?
C5, C6, C7, C8 & T1
Which facet joint of the C-Spine allows for the greatest flexion
C5-6
Cervical Spine Movement: Greatest Flexion
C5-C6
Which nerve roots make up the brachial plexus
C5-T1
Brachioradialis Reflex
C6
Brachioradialis Reflex Spinal Level
C6
Extensor Digitorum Reflex
C6
Triceps Brachii Reflex
C7
Triceps Reflex Spinal Level
C7
7 Signs of Cancer
CAUTION Changes in bowel or bladder movements, A sore that doesn't heal, Unusual bleeding or discharge, Thickened areas in the breast, testicles or elsewhere (lumps), Indigestion or difficulty swallowing, Obvious changes in the size, color, shape, or thickness of a wart or mole, Nagging cough or hoarsness that doesn't go away
A patient needs a diet to prevent the trigger of diarrhea. What substances and foods should be eliminated from the patient's diet?
Caffeine, fructose, lactose, and sorbitol
Severs Disease
Calcaneal apophysistis, painful bone disoreder that results from inflammation of the growth plate of the heel
Patients with large waist circumference are at a higher risk for what type of disease?
Cancer
What is the name of the lateral humeral condyle
Capitulum
A painful node that is covered by tight, reddish skin that later becomes very thin and in a few days emerges into a lesion that discharges yellowish-red pus from a number of places is a:
Carbuncle
Emetics are agents that:
Cause Vomiting
Stages of Inflammation: Permeability Changes
Chemical mediators cause an increase in permeability of small blood vessels increasing leukocytes in extracellular space allowing protein rich fluid to escape the extracellular space
Which of the following best describes the areas of a female's body that are used during skinfold measurement?
Chest, thigh, abdomen, triceps, suprailium, midaxilla, subscapula, and calf
Clarke's sign tests for what and what functional movements cause pain with an individual with the condition
Chondromalacia, kneeling, squatting and walking downstairs
What condition is a progressive degenerative disease of brain tissue that also involves the accumulation of tau protein within the tissue
Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy
Type of tissue damage if finding is weak and painful
Chronic, significant tear of muscle or tendon
What is the color of urine when an athlete is hydrated properly?
Clear to light yellow
What is one major flaw with the decreased blood flow theory?
Clotting occurs within minutes after injury, hemorrhaging stops long before blood vessels are constricted
A wrist fracture resulting from the radius and ulna being forced backward and upward (hyperextension) is called a:
Colle's Fracture
What is the medical term that describes a dangerous increase in pressure within the muscles?
Compartment syndrome
Ulnar Nerve (C7-8, T1) (injury)
Compressed or stretched in cubital tunnel
Radial Nerve (C5-8, T1) (injury)
Compressed with humeral fracture
Median Nerve (C6-8, T1) (Injury)
Compression by: Ligament of Struthers, Anterior interroseous (branch of median) pinched between 2 heads of pronator teres
Purpose of Compression
Compression increases pressure outside the capillaries which decreases capillary filtration pressure which helps control edema formation
Spurling's Test
Compression with lateral flexion Positive test: radiating pain down extremity to specific dermatome Suggested pathology: stenosis, disc herniation, osteophytes, spondylosis
Concave (on) Convex Rule
Concave surface slides in the same direction as bone movement
What is NOT a response seen in people just beginning to become acclimitized to high alititudes
Conservation of glucose
Convex (on) Concave Rule
Convex surface slides in the opposite direction of bone movement
Breast protective devises should support:
Cooper's ligaments
What drug is not banned by both the NCAA and USOC
Corticosteroids
How can the distance of a lightning strike be determined if a lightning detector is not available?
Count the number of seconds from the strike to the sound of thunder. The number of seconds divided by 5 equates to the number of miles.
What nutritional supplements is synthesized by the kidneys, liver, and pancreas
Creatine Supplements
What are 2 supplements that are band by the NCAA
Creatine and Ephedrine
What sport can an athlete participate in if he or she has an acute venous thromboembolism and is taking anticoagulants?
Cross country
What are the 5 C risk factors for CA-MRSA?
Crowding Contact Compromised skin Contaminated surfaces Cleanliness
What modalities to use to moderate pain?
Cryokinetics, Cryostretch, TENS
Which type of glenohumeral shoulder stabilizer is best for a football player in hot, humid weather?
Cuff-type stabilizer
A patient with a forearm contusion requires a hard-shell pad. What is the best way to construct this pad to ensure pressure is taken off the area of the contusion during competition?
Cut a felt piece the size of the contusion. Heat the thermoldable plastic, place the malleable plastic over the felt, and wrap in place. Once it cools, remove the felt and cut a doughnut hole of softer foam; place it over the edges of the contusion. Cut foam to cover the plastic shell.
Name 4 Proprioceptors
Cutaneous Muscles Tendons Joints
What recommendations should the athletic trainer make to prevent the spread of skin diseases? Select all that apply. a. Athletes must shower before practices. b. Apply antibiotic ointment to lesions. c. All clothing and equipment should be disinfected weekly. d. Clean all locker rooms, showers, and practice facilities daily. e. Athletes must take supplements. f. Athletes must shower after practice. g. Cover all lesions.
D, F, G d. Clean all locker rooms, showers, and practice facilities daily. f. Athletes must shower after practice. g. Cover all lesions.
If an athlete needs to lose weight for health reasons, how many calories must his or her daily diet be reduced by in order to lose 1 to 2 pounds per week? A. 250 to 500 calories/day B. 1000 to 2000 calories/week C. 1000 to 2000 calories/day D. 500 to 1000 calories/day E. None of the above
D. 500 to 1000 calories/day
If an athlete with sickle cell disease experiences chest or abdominal pain and pain in the joints, he or she may be at immediate risk for which of the following complications?
rhabdomyolysis
this drug is commonly referred to as the date rape drug or roofie
rohypnol
You have been given the opportunity to assist in hiring a new team physician. What type of agreement should be drawn up between the school and the physician? A. School emergency systems agreement B. A noncompete agreement C. A medical consent agreement D. A physician's letter of agreement E. Liability contract agreement
D. A physician's letter of agreement
Which of the following organisms is one of the most common causes of vaginitis in women? A. AIDS B. Genital herpes C. Chlamydia trachomatis D. Candida E. Gonorrhea
D. Candida
What is the most common and devastating mechanism of injury seen in neck injuries sustained during football? A. Cervical hyperextension B. Forceful cervical lateral flexion C. Cervical hyperflexion and rotation D. Cervical hyperflexion and axial compression E. Cervical hyperextension and lateral compression
D. Cervical hyperflexion and axial compression
All of the following are functions of the liver except: A. Carbohydrate metabolism B. Detoxification of blood C. Protein synthesis D. Detoxification of urine E. Bile production
D. Detoxification of urine
During a lower extremity D1 flexion PNF pattern, what movements are taking place at the hip? A. Extension, abduction, internal rotation B. Flexion, abduction, internal rotation C. Extension, adduction, external rotation D. Flexion, adduction, external rotation E. Flexion, abduction, external rotation
D. Flexion, adduction, external rotation
Of the following pieces of equipment, which is not an NCAA-mandated piece of equipment? A. Wrestling—ear guards B. Men's lacrosse—protective gloves C. Baseball—double ear flap helmet for batting D. Gymnastics—palm protectors for the uneven parallel bars E. Women's lacrosse—protective eyewear
D. Gymnastics—palm protectors for the uneven parallel bars
Pain between 70-90 degrees of hip flexion during a straight leg raise is indicative of what
sacroiliac joint pathology
High-voltage pulsed monophasic generators deliver current to deep tissues without damaging superficial tissues and are used for pain modulation. What type of waveform is used with this type of stimulator? A. Asymmetrical biphasic spiked pulse B. Monophasic squared pulse C. Symmetrical biphasic pulses D. Monophasic spike delivered in pairs E. None of the above
D. Monophasic spike delivered in pairs
What guidelines does the athletic trainer have to follow regarding maintaining proper hygiene and sanitation in the athletic training facility? A. JCAHO B. AMA C. CARF D. OSHA E. CAATE
D. OSHA
All of the following are risk factors for osteoporosis except: A. Early menopause B. High consumption of alcohol, cigarettes, and caffeine C. Sedentary lifestyle D. Obesity E. Lack of folic acid in the diet
D. Obesity
How is mononucleosis spread?
saliva and airborne droplets (occurs most often in teenagers and young adults)
A drug that is used to increase the effect of another, such as aspirin when used in combination with codeine, is known as what? A. Synergistic B. Cumulative C. Paradoxical D. Potentiating E. Titrating
D. Potentiating
Balance and coordination are critical for athletic performance. Feedback from the muscles as to what they are doing during a particular activity is known as _______. The area of the brain that assists in controlling movement is the _______. A. Proprioception, brain stem B. Muscle perception, medulla C. Kinesthesia, cortex D. Proprioception, cerebellum E. Kinesthesia, cerebrum
D. Proprioception, cerebellum
What is monophasic current
DC current flow sin one direction only form the postive pole to the negative pole
Homan's sign is used to detect what
DVT
How often should weight room equipment be inspected for damage, loose screws, and cables?
Daily
Stenosing tenosynovitis of the first tunnel of the wrist through which the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus move is characteristic of:
DeQuervain's Disease
What exercise most likely needs the support from a weight belt?
Deadlift with heavy load
This condition can be induced by sitting for long periods of time without activity.
Deep Vein Thrombosis
An athlete playing which football position is most likely to have a cervical spine injury resulting from head-down contact?
Defensive back
Which of the following football players should wear cantilevered shoulder pads?
Defensive linemen
Myositis Ossificancs
Develops after multiple muscle contusions w/out proper healing. Causes calcification of some muscle tissue. Indicated by pain in muscle during exercise, restricted ROM, hard lump may be felt in the muscle belly.
Test Objective/Target: Spurlings Test
Disc, stenosis, osteophyte
Female Athlete Triad
Disordered eating, amenorrhea (infrequent or absent menstrual periods), and osteoporosis (low bone mass)
Which best describes the female athlete triad?
Disordered eating, amenorrhea, and osteoporosis
Of the following, which is most likely to cause an increased frequency of muscle twitches to potentially cause muscle cramps?
Diuretics
What is the best way to determine medical history and the nature of the current emergency of an unconscious patient?
Do a head-to-toe examination checking for grimaces or moans and a medical alert tag.
A patient asks the athletic trainer to modify a piece of equipment that does not fit properly. What should the athletic trainer do to limit liability?
Do not modify the equipment and do not allow the patient to play with the improperly fitted equipment.
Shoulder Depression Test
Downward pressure applied to shoulder with head moved in opposite direction. Positive Test: increase in pain with stretch Test used to evaluate: brachial plexus lesions Suggests: Stenosis, osteophytes
What is the most recent and the most accurate technique of assessing body composition?
Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry
Volkmann's Contracture
Due to compartment syndrome following elbow fracture or dislocation
Which of the following is an indication that an athlete is suffering from a chronic injury instead of an acute injury?
Dull ache when the body is at rest
Which form of stretching has been found to improve running performance?
Dynamic
Definition of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation?
E-stim that stimulates sensory (afferent) nerves with pulsed current via surface electrodes to decrease pain
What is the normal dosage for one tablet of aspirin? A. 200 mg B. 400 mg C. 500 mg D. 375 mg E. 325 mg
E. 325 mg
The NATA's position statement on exertional heat illness recommends which of the following? A. Ensure that the appropriate medical care is available and the rescue personnel are familiar with exertional heat illness prevention, recognition, and treatment B. Plan rest breaks to match environmental conditions and the intensity of the activity C. Weigh high-risk athletes (in high-risk conditions, weigh all athletes) before and after practice to estimate the amount of body water lost during practice and to ensure a return to prepractice weight before next practice D. Allow athletes to practice in shaded areas or use electric or cooling fans to circulate air when feasible E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Which of the following drugs must the athletic trainer determine the athlete is not allergic to prior to administering a NSAID? A. Famotidine B. Acetaminophen C. Sulfa D. Sudafed E. Aspirin
E. Aspirin
What would be the most appropriate type of roentgenogram for a possible tibial stress fracture? A. X-ray B. PET scan C. MRI D. CT scan E. Bone scan
E. Bone scan
When rehabilitating a patient who has undergone an anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction, which of the following muscle groups must be strengthened to support the graft? A. Triceps surae B. Hip adductors C. Quadriceps D. Gluteals E. Hamstrings
E. Hamstrings hamstrings are the main secondary stabilizers for the anterior cruciate ligament.
Type 1 diabetes is characterized by an impaired capacity to secrete insulin due to a beta cell defect. This type of diabetes is commonly seen in what type of individual? A. Obese, geriatric B. Lean, insulin dependent C. Noninsulin dependent, obese D. Noninsulin dependent, juvenile E. None of the above
E. None of the above juvenile-onset diabetes or insulin-dependent diabetes
An athlete has been kicked in the low back area during a soccer game. He is complaining of significant flank pain, is having difficulty voiding, and there is blood in his urine. What should the athletic trainer suspect is injured? A. The spleen B. The large intestine C. The lumbar fascia D. The testicles E. The kidney
E. The kidney
What are the most appropriate exercises for a diagnosis of lumbar spinal stenosis? A. Kegel exercises B. McKenzie extension exercises C. Lumbar stabilization exercises D. Postural awareness exercises E. Williams' flexion exercises
E. Williams' flexion exercises encourage a position of lumbar flexion, which opens the vertebral foramina, taking the pressure off the nerve root.
What is the best way to prevent infectious diseases among athletes?
Each athlete has his or her own water bottle.
What is the best way to prevent hyponatremia?
Eat foods with sodium.
A motor nerves afferent or efferent and where do they exit the spinal cord
Efferent, the ventral horn
Myotome C7
Elbow Extension & Wrist Flexion
Myotome C6
Elbow Flexion & Wrist Extension
Goniometry ROM Degrees for Elbow flexion and extension, pronation, supination, wrist flexion and wrist extension
Elbow Flexion = (140-150) Elbow extension = (0 - -10) Pronation = (90) Supination = (80-90) Wrist Flexion = (80-90) Wrist Extension = (70-90)
How to get optimal work from a biarticulate muscle at the injured joint
Elongate the muscle at the unaffected joint
How can athletic trainers assist in reducing the risk of overuse injuries in youth?
Encourage youth to participate in a variety of sports.
What is Force
Energy form that causes movement, has a direction and magnitude
the form of alcohol found in alcoholic beverages, flavorings and some medications. It is a multi system toxin and CNS depressant
Ethanol
Which heat-loss mechanism is the most effective in warm, humid weather?
Evaporation
What condition would create a higher incidence of reinjury in the case of hamstring muscle strain
Excessive fibrous scar tissue
What must the athletic trainer check before administering an OTC medication?
Expiration date of medication
Vertebral Artery (Cervical Quadrant Test)
Extend, side bend & rotate neck hold for 30 seconds Positive test: dizziness, nystagmus (due to compression of vertebral A.)
Mallet finger:
Extensor tendon rupture at distal phalanx. (Affects index or third finger)
Signs of a Stroke
FAST (Face, Arms, Speech, Time)
Scaphoid Fracture
FOOA, pain in anatomical snuff box
Which form of communication is best for interaction because it has the lowest risk of interference?
Face-to-face
Cranial Nerve 7
Facial: facial expression, taste, control of tear ducts, nasal, salivary gland (sensory and motor)
True or False: A tear or detachment of the fibrocartilage labrum on the posterior lateral aspect of the humeral head is called a Bankhart Lesion
False
True or False: In a typical vertical alignment, a plumb line hanging from the ear should pass just in front of the knee joint and patella.
False
True or False: Sugars are carried to the gallbladder, where they are converted into either glycogen or glucose
False
True or False: Supplemental oxygen should be delivered at a rate of 15-20 liters per minute as indicated by a flow rate meter
False, 10-15
FERPA
Family Education Rights Privacy Act
In aging populations, which type of muscle fibers are lost most frequently?
Fast-twitch type IIa and type IIx fibers
What is the Specific Gravity of Fat, Bone and Lean Muscle
Fat = 0.8 Bone = 1.5-2.0 Lean Muscle = 1.0
A patient who is 18 years of age chooses to participate in athletics against medical advice. What law, act, or statute gives the patient the legal right to participate?
Federal Rehabilitation Act
Athletes in which of the following sports are required by the NCAA and NFHS to wear mouth guards?
Field hockey, tackle football, ice hockey, and lacrosse
Myotome T1
Finger Abduction/Adduction
Swan Neck Deformity
Flexed DIP Joint and Hyperextend PIP Joint
Degrees of Motion of Atlanto-Axial Joint for flexion, extension, lateral flexion and rotation
Flexion/Extension = 10 Lateral Flexion = 5 Rotation = 50
Volkmann's ischemic contracture
Fracture or dislocation of elbow causes compartment syndrome. Compression of brachial A causes decrease in blood flow to wrist and hand
Smiths and Colles Fracture
Fracture to the distal radius
Osteochondritis Dissecans
Fragmentation of cartilage common among baseball pitchers
Which of the following would NOT contribute to the development of a heat-related illness during exercise?
Frequent water breaks
Divides the body or parts into anterior (front) and posterior (rear) sections - example: arm during backstroke in swimming
Frontal (coronal)
Functional vs. Activity Specific Exercises
Functional: triplanar motions of muscles used in normal activities that are used to prepare patient to advance to activity specific exercise Activity-Specific: Includes specific activities and requirements of normal performance that utilizes tools and equipment used in sport
Which of the following is a new screening tool that assesses global movement quality to identify injury risk and athletic performance ability?
Fushionetics
Which condition is likely to result from a sedentary lifestyle along with high intake of sugar?
Gallbladder problems
What is the Gate Control Theory
Gate mechanism (T-cells) located in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord allows only one sensation at a time to pass through to the brain. When certain sensory sensations pass through the gate, they block pain from passing through to the brain.
What is the insertion of the IT Band
Gerdy's Tubercle
Tissue evaluated in Clunk test
Glenoid labrum (Injury: tear)
CN 9 and how to test
Glossopharyngeal swallow
Cranial Nerve 9
Glossopharyngeal: Swallowing, salivation, gag reflex, sensation from tongue and ear (sensory and motor)
A patient with insulin dependency is moving to a high-altitude area to exercise. What must the patient know about glycemic control at high altitudes?
Glucose monitors have problems with reliability at high altitude.
This muscle originates below the iliac crest and inserts at the top of the greater trochanter
Gluteus medius
For an athlete competing in endurance events, what nutritional practice can maximize the amount of glycogen that can be stored?
Glycogen supercompensation
what is the common name for inflammation of the medial epicondyle on the inside of the elbow?
Golfer's elbow little leaguers elbow thrower's elbow
What disease has an incubation period of 2 to 10 days, in men, with the onset marked by a tingling in the urethra followed in 2 to 3 hours by a greenish-yellow discharge of pus and painful urination?
Gonorrhea
caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae and should be suspected with urinary infections
Gonorrhea
Myotome L5
Great Toe Extension
What is the largest nerve in the body?
Greater Sciatic Nerve
An athlete with known diabetes mellitus has a hypoglycemic reaction during an athletic event. What should be done to begin treatment?
Have the athlete drink 4 ounces of juice or soda, then reassess in 15 minutes
During soccer practice, a player falls against the goal post and has a large laceration on his arm that is bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate treatment of the injury?
Have the goalie apply pressure to the wound using a clean cloth while retrieving a pair of gloves
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate step to take when initiating treatment for cold injury to the feet?
Have the individual place the feet near a space heater to help gradually thaw the feet
Which exposed body part is most likely to lose body heat more quickly?
Head
HIPAA
Health Insurance Portability Accountability Act
What is an adverse effect of using growth hormones?
Heart disease
What are the three types of heat-related illnesses?
Heat stress Heat exhaustion Heat stroke
A moderate amount of swelling that occurs immediately following injury and that is caused by synovial fluid and by blood in the joint is called:
Hemarthrosis
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) mandates that any employee who is at risk for exposure to blood-borne pathogens must be offered a vaccination for which of the following conditions?
Hepatitis B
what are symptoms of tinea cruris?
scaly, itching, erythematous rash that may contain papule or vesicle ad is usually bilateral and symmetrical
What is H.A.C.E.
High Altitude Cerebral Edema
What is H.A.P.E.
High Altitude Pulmonary Edema
Pes Cavus
High Arch
How can tendons, ligaments, and fascia be encouraged to improve net growth?
High-intensity loading
Myotome L2
Hip Flexion
What is the examiner looking for during the PPE when a client does the duck walk?
Hip, knee, and ankle motion
Lower Extremity D1 Extension
Hip: extension, abd, med rotation Ankle: PF, eversion Toes: Flexion
Lower Extremity D2 Extension
Hip: extension, add, lat rotation Ankle: PF, inversion Toes: flexion
Lower Extremity D2 Flexion
Hip: flexion, abd, med rotation Ankle: DF, eversion Toes: extension
Lower Extremity D1 Flexion
Hip: flexion, add, lat rotation Ankle: DF, inversion Toes: extension
What chemical mediator is a vasodilator released from injured mast cells?
Histamine
Stages of Inflammation: Chemical Mediation
Histamine, Bradykinin, Cytokines are activated by the ultrastructural changes. These chemicals signal to the rest of the body that cells have been damaged and the body sends resources to the area in response
What positive test identifies a deep vein thrombosis?
Homan's sign
Cauda Equina is Latin for what
Horses Tail
To prevent the spread of infectious disease, what type of cleaning agent should be used on wrestling mats?
Hospital broad-spectrum disinfectant
A condition in which cold exposure causes vasospasm of the digital arteries is know as
Hunting Response
What are myofascial trigger points and name/describe 2 types of trigger points
Hyperirritable points that refer pain Active Trigger Point: refers pain without activity Latent Trigger Point: Refers pain when palpated
Cranial Nerve 12
Hypoglossal: Tongue movement, speech, swallowing (motor)
What are the 12 cranial nerves (in order)
I. Olfactory II. Optic III. Oculomotor IV. Throchlear V. Trigeminal VI. Abducens VII. Facial VIII. Vestibulocochlear IX. Glossopharyngeal X. Vagus XI. Accessory XII. Hypoglossal
What cranial nerve would you assess for smell?
I. Olfactory (ask athlete to close their eyes and identify the smell)
What cranial nerve would you assess for vision?
II. Optic (test visual acuity and ability to recognize color)
What cranial nerve would you assess for eye muscles and pupil response?
III. Oculomotor (use penlight, assess size, shape, reaction to light and accommodation of pupils)
Noble Compression test is positive for
IT Band Syndrome
Ober's test assess what
IT band tightness
What cranial nerve would you assess for upward movement of the eye?
IV. Trochlear (have person follow your finger in a vertical plane)
Pseudo Tumor Cerebri
Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (false brain tumor) Primary Intracranial Hypertension most commonly in obese women 20-25 Secondary Intracranial Hypertension related to drug use
contagious itchy bacterial infection of the skin, commonly on the face or hands causing clusters of blisters or sores
Impetigo
Damage to the Ulnar Nerve can result in...
Inability to flex wrist, ulnar deviate, abduct and adduct fingers, extend 4th and 5th digits (bishops deformity), abduct thumb
Rehab Program: Phase 1
Inactive Phase Inflammatory phase of healing Goals: Decrease pn/edema/swelling, maintain conditioning on non-affected body parts Modalities: US,ES,massage
What is Ultrasound
Inaudible, acoustic vibrations of high frequency that may produce thermal and/or non-thermal physiologic effects
Types of Wounds (7)
Incision = sharp straight wound Avulsion = part of skin loose or torn Puncture = deep, narrow wound Abrasion = top layer of skin scraped off Laceration = irregular cut from tearing Amputation = part of body detached Burns = chemical or thermal
Which of the following best explains the increased dietary protein needs for a training athlete?
Increased need for tissue repair
What are the health risks associated with drinking sugared soft drinks at least twice per day?
Increased risk of insulin resistance and diabetes
What is the glycemic index?
Indicates how a carbohydrate-containing food affects blood glucose levels
Tissue evaluated in Feagin test
Inf. GH joint capsule (Injury: sub or dislocation)
Muscles Tested in Resisted Shoulder External Rotation
Infraspinatus (*) Teres minor (*)
Burners and Stingers
Injury to the nerve supply of the upper arm, either at the neck or shoulder. Occurs with lateral flexion of the neck
Mallet Finger
Injury to the tendon that straightens the DIP of a finger.
What athletic training domain includes explaining the importance of diet and lifestyle choices
Injury/Illness prevention and wellness protection
Test Objective/Target: Dizziness Test
Inner ear vs. Vertebral Artery
Forces that work on the body (2)
Internal (muscles) External (gravity)
When wrapping a hip flexor strain, what is the position of the patient who is being wrapped?
Involved leg is in a neutral position with the knee slightly bent
All of the following are signs of sudden exercise abstinence syndrome EXCEPT: Depression, Sleep disorders, Irregular heartbeat, Irregular respiratory rate
Irregular Respiratory Rate
What happens to ATP storage with aerobic endurance training?
It increases.
What is not true of an MRI
It is inexpensive
What is true about a drug's steady state
It is reached when the amount of a drug that is taken is equal to the amount that is excreted
What happens to connective tissue when it is replaced & reorganized?
It shortens
Why can a high-carbohydrate meal be counterproductive?
It stimulates the brain to produce hunger signals
How long does it take for a strenuously exercising athlete to deplete the glycogen content of the liver?
It takes about 2 hours.
Which of the following results from a rupture of the flexor digitorum profundus tendon?
Jersey Finger
Hematuria in an athlete participating in contact or collision sports is a sign or symptom of:
Kidney Contusion
Myotome L3
Knee Extension
Myotome S2
Knee Flexion
Which nerve roots make up the lumbar plexus
L1-L4
Patellar Tendon Reflex
L3-L4
The sciatic nerve arises from?
L4, L5, S1, S2, & S3
Which nerve roots make up the sacral plexus
L4-S4
75% of back flexion occurs at what spinal level
L5-S1
Varus stress tests (knee) assess what structure
LCL
Epicondylitis (types and MOI)
Lateral = Tennis Elbow (35 years +) Medial = Pitchers / Golfers Elbow MOI: Repetitive wrist flexion, extension, pronation and supination
Which is the best condom to use for preventing the spread of sexually transmitted diseases (also known as sexually transmitted infections)?
Latex with a reservoir tip
What are the classifications of Le Fort Fractures?
Le Fort I - horizontal (low downward force) Le Fort II - pyramidal (low or mid maxilla force) Le Fort III - transverse (force to bridge of nose or upper maxilla)
Using the abdominal quadrants shown in the photo as a guide, choose one of the four quadrants for each of the organs listed.
Left kidney = ULQ appendix = LRQ gall bladder = URQ stomach = ULQ spleen = ULQ left ureter = LLQ right ureter = LRQ
Which of the following is considered an open kinetic chain exercise?
Leg (knee) extension on a machine
What is a hip problem that occurs in males children ages 4-10
Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
What does LASER stand for?
Light Amplification Stimulation by Emission of Radiation
Impingement Syndrome (location, tissue, MOI)
Location = space under acromion archway Tissues Impinged = supraspinatus, subacromial bursa, long head of biceps tendon MOI = narrowing of archway, overuse of supra or biceps, bursitis, hypertrophied deltoid
In training room design, it is important to have signage. Which of the following signs need to be in the training room?
Location of the AED
Pes Planus
Low Arch
The gonadotropin that stimulates corpus luteum development is:
Lutenizing Hormone
Valgus stress test (knee) assess what structure
MCL
MOI and tissues affected in Thoracic Outlet Syndrome (T.O.S.)
MOI: compression or entrapment of neurovascular bundle Tissue: Brachial Plexus, Subclavian Artery, Subclavian Vein
What herb contain ephedrine and was banned from use in dietary substances by the FDA in 2003
Ma Huang
What is the name of a developmental abnormality of the wrist characterized by anatomic changes in the radius, ulna and carpal bones leading to palmar and ulnar wrist subluxation
Madelung Deformity
At what age is peak strength most likely attained in untrained males and females?
Males between 20 and 30 and females by 20
What condition is characterized by diffuse brain swelling in children resulting from hyperemia or vascular engorgement with little or no injury to the brain
Malignant brain edema syndrome
A genetic disorder of the connective tissue that may put athletes at risk. Connective tissues such as tendons, ligaments, heart valves, and blood vessels, are often defective and weak
Marfan's Syndrome
When leukocytes line up along the wall of a blood vessel, it is called:
Margination
What modalities to use to promote lymphatic drainage?
Massage, Cryokinetics, Compression
Height of Depth Jumps
Max = 48 inches Range = 16-42 inches Norm 30-32 inches if Pt is >220 lbs. range = 20-30 inches
What types of meals cause dehydration?
Meals high in protein and low in carbohydrate
Blood is supplied to each meniscus by the:
Medial genicular artery
divides the body or parts into right and left sections - example: movement of criterion arm during serve in tennis pulling arms upward
Median (mid-sagittal)
This nerve branches from the brachial plexus, travels down the arm and forearm through the carpal tunnel.
Median Nerve
Ape Hand Deformity
Median Nerve Palsy Atrophy of the thenar eminence, cannot oppose or flex the thumb
Phalen's Test
Median Nerve Pathology suggests carpal tunnel syndrome Hold test position for 1 minute Positive test = pain/paresthesia into hand-fingers
Claw Fingers
Median and ulnar nerve palsy Loss of intrinsic muscle action with over action of the extrinsic extensor muscle of the proximal phalanges
Torg Ratio
Midsagittal diameter of spinal canal to vertebral body diameter. Used to define stenosis New threshold ratio of an average of .80 over entire spinal column to help define stenosis
What foods have a low glycemic index (less than 55)?
Milk and grapefruit
Grades 3-4 of Joint Mobilization are used for what?
Mobility
Fusidic acid is a powerful counterirritant mostly used to treat:
Molluscum contagiosum
Regardless of sex, which intrinsic characteristics predispose a patient to overuse injury?
More explosive strength, tall stature, less static strength, ligamentous laxity, and large Q angle
At what point on the body mass index (BMI) scale is there often an increased risk of health problems associated with excess body fat?
More than 25
What is the most and least common types of GH luxations
Most = anterior Least = inferior
Which type of nerves are more excitable? Sensory or motor
Motor nerves are more excitable
Peripheral Nerve Evaluation for Musculocutaneous Nerve (Motor and Sensory)
Motor: Elbow Flexion Sensory: Lateral forearm (C6)
Peripheral Nerve Evaluation for Axillary Nerve (Motor and Sensory)
Motor: Shoulder Abduction Sensory: Lateral Arm (C5)
Peripheral Nerve Evaluation for Median Nerve (Motor and Sensory)
Motor: Thumb pinch with index finger, thumb opposition, thumb abduction Sensory: Distal, medial aspect of index finger (C7)
Peripheral Nerve Evaluation for Radial Nerve (Motor and Sensory)
Motor: Wrist and thumb extension Sensory: Dorsal web space between thumb and index finger (C6-7)
Which technique combines passive accessory joint mobilization with active physiological movement to correct position faults
Mulligan Technique
What type of insurance do most institutions offer their athletes
secondary insurance
Peripheral nerve injuries can cause muscle weakness. An injury to which nerve would cause weakness in the biceps and coracobrachialis muscles?
Musculocutaneous C5-C7
The _______ is a nongovernmental, nonprofit organization that gathers injury data from a number of sources including educational institutions. A. NSC B. NOCSAE C. ACSM D. OSHA E. ISS
NSC The National Safety Council
What organization is responsible for establishing minimum safety requirements for football helmets, face masks, batting helmets, baseballs, softballs and lacrosse helmets / face masks
National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment
This committee researches and establishes standards regarding protective equipment.
National Operating Committee on Standards of Athletic Equipment (NOCSAE)
Myotome C1-2
Neck Flexion/Extension
Myotome C3
Neck Side Flexion
What is cervical radiculopathy
Nerve root injury of the cervical nerves
When can a multiple adaptor be used safely with electrical modalities?
Never
To prevent overuse injuries in pediatric patients, how much of a weekly increase in training should occur?
No more than a 10% increase in training time, distance, repetitions, and intensity per week
How often should an athlete who participates in wrestling have weigh-ins in the off-season?
No more than once per week
A patient has a mild form of congenital heart disease. What limitations will this patient have in athletic participation?
No sport restrictions
Which sport, if any, should an athlete with an active case of herpes be disqualified from?
No sports with mats or contact sports until not contagious
Type of tissue damage if finding is strong and pain free
Normal, no damage
Epistaxis
Nose Bleed
During the PPE, what is the predictability of future cardiac events if an electrocardiogram is performed?
Not likely to detect future events regardless of the use of the electrocardiogram.
What professional can be involved in medical history review for the PPE?
Nurse
O.I.A. of the peroneus brevis
O = I = base of the 5th metatarsal A= plantarflexion, eversion
O.I.A. of the Subscapularis
O = subscapular fossa I = lesser tubercle of bumerus A = internal rotation and add
what test identifies a positive it band friction syndrome?
Ober's test Noble's test
SOAP Note (O)
Objective: Information the examiner obtains during an assessment from 7 subcategories
What are the training guidelines when the temperature is 80 to 90 °F (26.6-30 °C) with humidity less than 70%?
Observe overweight athletes for signs of heat illness.
A coach has requested information about the status of an athlete's injury. What should the athletic trainer do with such a request?
Obtain written authorization from the athlete to disclose the information.
What is OSHA
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Cranial Nerve 3
Oculomotor: Eye Movement, Pupil Constriction (Motor)
What is the plastic range?
section on the stress vs. strain graph in which the tissue is stretched and will not return to its original length. 5-10%)
Cranial Nerve 1
Olfactory: Smell (Sensory)
How often should coaches review film of football games to educate athletes regarding their head contact position?
Once a week
An athletic trainer who has been convicted of a felony can apply for reinstatement of membership after what period of time?
One year after final ruling, court decisions, or completion of sentence or parole
Which muscle fibers experience adaptation in response to resistive exercise?
Only those involved in the resistive exercise
Cranial Nerve 2
Optic: Visual Acuity (Sensory)
What is the origin and the cutaneous innervations for the Musculocutaneous nerve of the brachial plexus
Origin: Lateral cord: C5-C7 Innervation: Lateral surface of the forearm
What is the origin and the cutaneous innervations for the Ulnar nerve of the brachial plexus
Origin: Medial Cord: C8-T1 Innervation: Medial 1/3 of hand, little finger, & medial 1/2 of ring finger
What is the origin and the cutaneous innervations for the median nerve of the brachial plexus
Origin: Medial and lateral cord: C8-T1 Innervation: lateral 2/3 of palm of hand, lateral 1/2 of ring finger
What is the origin and the cutaneous innervations for the Axillary nerve of the brachial plexus
Origin: Posterior cord: C5-C6 Innervation: inferior lateral shoulder
What is the origin and the cutaneous innervations for the Radial nerve of the brachial plexus
Origin: Posterior cord: C5-T1 Innervation: Posterior surface of arm and forearm, lateral 2/3 of dorsum of the hand
an enlarged tibial tuberosity can indicate what condition
Osgood Schlatters
Weight-bearing forces on bone cause which type of cells to activate to increase bone size?
Osteoblasts
Which of the following strengthening exercises requires a spotter?
Overhead triceps extension
What condition is associated with adrenal exhaustion?
Overtraining
Hypoxia
Oxygen Deficiency
What is the PICO Model
P: Patient, Probability, Population I: Intervention C: Comparison O: Outcome
Posterior drawer, sag sign, and recurvatum tests what structure
PCL
Which of the following diagnostic imaging techniques can help distinguish between living and dead tissue or between benign and malignant tissue?
PET Scan
Swan Neck Deformity
PIP hyperextension with DIP flexion
Grades 1-2 of Joint Mobilization are used for what?
Pain
Painful Arc Assessment
Pain Occurs at 45 to 60 - 120 degrees of GH abduction Pain within that range is associated with subacromial bursitis, calcium deposits, rotator cuff tendonitis Pain at 180 degrees suggests AC pathology Pain at 120 degreees suggests clavicular pathology
What is another name for elbow osteochondritis dissecans
Panner's Disease
Bells Palsy
Paralysis or weakness on one side of the face
Of the following, which best describes an effective asthma management plan based on the NATA position statement?
Patient goals, proper use of peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) monitoring, guidelines on medications based on peak flow meter (PFM) readings, emergency contact numbers, and avoidance of triggers
What is not a symptom shock
Patient has a very slow pulse
What does the P.IC.O. format stand for when developing a clinical question
Patient, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome
Boutonniere Deformity
Patients finger exhibits pathological flexion at the PIP joint and hyperextension at the DIP joint
Muscles Tested in Resisted Shoulder ADD
Pectoralis major (*) Lat. dorsi Teres major
Which of the following training activities is the best implementation of the SAID principle (specific adaptation to imposed demands) for a high jumper?
Performing plyometric depth jumps
What is the treatment of choice for lice?
Permethrin 1% (Nix)
This nerve branches from the sciatic nerve and travels down the leg.
Peroneal Nerve
condition characterized by a very high arch, which can be genetic or acquired through trauma or neuromuscular disease
Pes cavus or claw foot
According to the BOC Standards of Professional Practice, under whose medical direction is an athletic trainer?
Physician
What is the proper technique for cleaning medical instruments?
Place instruments in approved instrument-cleaning solution for a minimum of 10 minutes.
Which is the best instruction for using crutches to go down stairs?
Place the crutches on the first step down. The injured leg remains over the crutch tips, and then the non-injured leg swings through to the step down.
SOAP Note (P)
Plan: Develop a treatment plan and a course of action
The main supporting ligament of the medial longitudinal arch is the:
Plantar Calcaneonavicular Ligament
A condition in which the pleural cavity becomes filled with air that has entered through an opening in the chest is called:
Pneumothorax
What piece of equipment is most likely to be carried by an athletic trainer to be used in conjunction with cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)?
Pocket mask
Tissue evaluated in Posterior Apprehension Sign
Post. GH joint capsule (Injury: sub or dislocation)
What is the strongest cruciate ligament of the knee
Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)
What muscle helps to support the medial longitudinal arch?
Posterior Tibialis
PPO
Preferred Provider Organization
What is hydro-static pressure
Pressure from fluid exerted = on all surface @any given depth
The method of relaxation characterized by recognizing muscular tension and consciously releasing that tension is the _____ method.
Progressive Muscle Relaxation
What is the primary method for developing both speed and agility?
Proper mechanics
Of the following braces, which is most appropriate for preventing medial collateral ligament sprains in collision sports?
Prophylactic lateral knee brace
What is the role of nutrition in tissue synthesis?
Proteins are basic building blocks of bones, muscles, and skin.
A patient with sickle cell trait requires recommendation for preseason training and conditioning. What recommendations or accommodations are necessary to ensure the safety of this patient?
Provide gradual progression of exercise and longer recovery time between bouts.
Plyometric Program Design Considerations (8)
Pt's should not be <16 Pt's should not be >220 lbs. Level of competition Surface Footwear Technique Progression Goals
What is the best way to determine maturation of pediatric patients?
Puberty
When taping an ankle to prevent inversion, what is the direction of the heel lock on the lateral side of this ankle?
Pulled posteriorly from the inferior portion of the calcaneus going toward the Achilles tendon
What does P.E.A.R.R.L stand for
Pupils Equal Round and Reactive to Light
Purpose of Joint Mobilization and types of joint movements a.k.a. Arthrokinematics (5)
Purpose: Relieve pain and restore mobility 1. Roll 2. Slide 3. Spin 4. Compression 5. Distraction
This nerve branches from the brachial plexus and enervates the dorsal surface of the arm and hand, including the thumb and fingers, 2, 3, and 4.
Radial Nerve
Which nerve controls extension of the fingers, wrist, and thumb?
Radial Nerve
The relaxation of the antagonist muscle in response to an agonist contraction is known as:
Reciprocal Inhibition
A patient with a suspected eating disorder comes to the athletic trainer for assistance. What is the best course of action to care for this patient?
Refer the patient to a disordered-eating specialist for assessment.
Kehr's Sign
Referred pain for ruptured spleen. Occurrence of acute pain in the tip of the left shoulder due to the presence of blood or other irritants in the peritoneal cavity when a person is lying down and legs are elevated
Test Objective/Target: Distraction Test
Relieves radicular symptoms
Test Objective/Target: Shoulder Abduction (Relief) Test
Relieves radicular symptoms
Tissue Repair: Replacement
Replacing dead/damaged cells with simpler cells such as scar tissue
Rehab Program: Phase 3
Resistive Phase ROM near/complete normal Pain and Edema not present Strength/endurance improved, but deficient Goals: Maintain/Restore strength, agility and endurance
Claw Hand
Result from compression of the median and ulnar nerves. Hyperextension of the MP joint and flexion of DIP and PIP
Ape Hand
Results from palsy of the median nerve and atrophy of the thumb
Aspirin should be avoided in febrile illnesses for all individuals under 18 years of age because of:
Reye's Syndrome
The administration of aspirin to a child during chickenpox or influenza can induce:
Reye's Syndrome
Nystagmus
Rhythmic movement of the eyes with an abnormal slow drifting away from fixation and rapid return
Tinnitis
Ringing sensation in the ears
This drug is a CNS depressant that causes muscle relaxation, slurred speech and reduces inhibitions. The effects occur within 20 - 30 minutes of ingestion but may persist for 8 - 12 hours
Rohypnol
2 tests to evaluate balance
Romberg, Stork Standing
Age of patient when they begin to typically experience 1. rotator cuff degeneration 2. Calcium deposits 3. Frozen Shoulder
Rotator Cuff Degeneration = 40-60 Calcium Deposits = 40 Frozen Shoulder = 45-60
What is the joint mechanoreceptor that is most active in the end ranges of motion.
Ruffini's Corpuscles
Boutonniere deformity:
Rupture of PIP extensor tendon
4 Principles of Strengthening Program
S.N.A.P. S = specific exercises N= no pain A = attainable goals P = progressive overload
Achilles Tendon Reflex
S1
Hamstrings Reflex
S2
these fractures involve the cartilaginous epiphyseal plate near the ends of long bones in children who are growing
Salter-Harris fractures
What condition is characterized by wedge fractures, disk space abnormalities, and degeneration of the vertebral epiphyseal end plates
Scheuermann's Disease
Vertigo
Sensation that the environment is spinning
What is anaphylactic shock?
Severe allergic reaction
Which muscles are stronger, shortened or lengthened muscles?
Shortened
Myotome C5
Shoulder Abduction
Myotome C4
Shoulder Shrug
What joints should be cleared in an elbow evaluation.
Shoulder, Wrist, TMJ and C-Spine
Upper Extremity D1 Extension
Shoulder: extension, med rotation, abd. Forearm: pronation Wrist: ulnar extension Fingers: extension
Upper Extremity D2 Extension
Shoulder: extension, med rotation, add Forearm: pronation Wrist: ulnar flexion Fingers: flexion
Upper Extremity D1 Flexion
Shoulder: flexion, add, lat rotation Forearm: supination Wrist: radial deviation fingers: flexion
Upper Extremity D2 Flexion
Shoulder: flexion, lat rotation, abd Forearm: supination Wrist: radial extension Fingers: extension
Signs and Symptoms of impingement of a peripheral nerve
Signs = Unilateral, Decrease in muscle tone, muscle atrophy, decreased deep tendon reflex response Symptoms = Unilateral, muscle weakness, decrease in sensory perception
Signs and Symptoms of impingement of a motor nerve root.
Signs = unilateral muscle atrophy, signal fails to reach muscle Symptom = unilateral weakness that is not painful
S.A.M.P.L.E
Signs and Symptoms Allergies Medications Pertinent past medical history Last oral intake events leading up to incident
What does S.A.M.P.L.E. stand for
Signs and Symptoms Allergies Medications Pertinent past medical information Last oral intake Events leading up to incident
Which of the following is the best description of static neck stretching of the sternocleidomastoid muscles?
Sitting with the head and neck upright, turn the head to the right and then left using submaximal concentric muscle action.
A pre-participation exam should occur no more than how many weeks before the start of the season?
Six weeks before the start of season training
For which of the following sports does NATA neither endorse nor discourage use of helmets or headgear?
Soccer
What does the SAID principle stand for?
Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands
What is cervical myelopathy
Spinal cord injury of the C-spine
Which of the following is a sociocultural factor for disordered eating?
Sport type
A patient with limited range of motion in the hamstring muscle needs a stretch to perform at home to improve flexibility. Which of the following best describes an effective hamstring stretch?
Standing with affected leg on a table that is hip height, then leaning forward toward elevated leg
The extent of the deformation of tissue when it is loaded is referred to as:
Strain
Pre-Plyometric Considerations (3)
Strength Flexibility Proprioception
What does the S.W.O.T. analysis stand for
Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
Tissue evaluated in Allan, Adson, Halstead Maneuvers
Subclavian artery (entrapment)
SOAP Note (S)
Subjective: History of the complaint/condition from the patient's perspective. The patient's perception of his/her condition
Muscles Tested in Resisted Shoulder Internal Rotation
Subscapularis (*) Pectoralis major (*) Lat. dorsi Teres major
Which of the following conditions has a genetic component?
Substance abuse
Which nerves innervates the tensor fasciae latae muscle?
Superior Gluteal (L4-S1)
SO4LR6R3
Superior Oblique CN4, Lateral Rectus CN6, Rest 3
What is the sensory fused tissue response to E-Stim
sensory response that feels like pins and needles caused by moderate-amplitude, high frequency pulsed or AC stimulation
Tissue evaluated in Impingement Sign
Supra, subacromial bursa, biceps long head
Tissue evaluated in Drop Arm test
Supra/rotator cuff (tendinitis)
Tissue evaluated in Empty Can Test
Supra/rotator cuff (tendinitis)
Muscles Tested in Resisted Shoulder ABD
Supraspinatus (*) Middle deltoid
Rotator Cuff Muscles
Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Minor, Subscapularis
Which of the following is an example of a complex carbohydrate?
Sweet potato
McBurnery Point
Symptoms of appendicitis. point over the right side of the abdomen that is 1/3 of the distance from the ASIS to the umbilicus. Location corresponds to the most common location of the base of the appendix where it attaches to the cecum
caused by the spirochete Treponema palladium. has an incubation period of 3 weeks
Syphilis
What joints should be cleared when examining the C-Spine
TMJ, Shoulder, Elbow, Wrist, Hand, Fingers
A patient with iron-deficient anemia will require what form of nutrition?
Taking oral iron supplements with vitamin C
A fracture caused by severe inversion and dorsiflexion would occur to which of the following bones?
Talus
What is the most common assessment tool for sexual maturity?
Tanner's 5 stages of assessment
Tinel's Sign
Tap over nerve trunks Positive test: Increased pain and/or tingling sensations distal to the tap. Local pain: cervical plexus pathology Radiating pain to extremity: brachial plexus pathology
Subdural hematoma
Tearing of bridging VEINS between brain and cavernous sinus (seen with some concussions). Slow bleed up to 30 days.
Epidural Hematoma
Tearing of one of the meningeal ARTERIES. DEATH can be rapid....to a few days
Neuropaxia
Temporary loss of motor and sensory function due to blockage of nerve conduction
By sport-specific rules, which sport(s) have bleeding time-outs?
Tennis and wrestling
inflammation of the lateral epicondyle is known as ____ and affects the extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle
Tennis elbow
What is known as the strongest ligament in the body
the Y ligament of Bigelow
Define Cold
the absence of kinetic energy in atoms and molecules
symptoms of frostnip are:
the affected parts feel numb and aches/throbs becomes hard and insensate as the tissue freezes results in circulatory impairment, necrosis of tissue, and gangrene
What is the recovery stage of pathogen infection
the apparent recovery from the invading pathogen
Hemostasis
the arrest or stoppage of bleeding
Stages of Inflammation: Ultrastructural Changes
the breakdown and disruption of cellular membranes and organelles these changes occur directly from primary injury and indirectly from secondary injury
This are of the football helmet should be equal distance from the center of the helmet
the chin strap
Hypothermia occurs when:
the core body temperature falls below 95 degrees
Kleiger's tests what structure
the deltoid ligament
This are of the football helmet should match on each side
the ear holes
This area of the football helmet should be three fingers width from the nose
the face mask
Which nerve branches to supply the thigh and lower leg
the femoral nerve
What is the decline stage of pathogen infection
the fist signs of recovery appear, patient can still relapse if they over exert themselves
What is US Cavitation
the formation of gas-filled bubbles that expand and contract as a result of US induced pressures in the tissue fluid
This area of the football helmet should be 3/4 inch or 2 fingers width above the players eyebros
the front of the helmet
How to calculate peak watts using BNR ration
the highest number in the BNR ration multiplied by the watt usage
What is cardiogenic shock
the inability of the heart to pump enough blood to the body
What is Ultrasound Spatial Average Intensity
the intensity of the US beam averaged over the area of the sound head measured in W/cm2
What 2 structures in or around the shoulder share nerve innervation
the labrum and the acromioclavicular joint
f a patient suffers an elbow dislocation, which of the following nerves can be compromised
the median and ulnar nerves
McMurray's and Thessaly's test what structure
the meniscus
What is the stretch reflex
the muscle spindle produces a reflex resistance to stretch, and the golgi tendon organ causes a reflex relaxation of the muscle in response to stretch
This are of the football helmet should cover the base of the skull
the occiput
What is phagocytosis
the process of digesting cellular debris and other foreign material into pieces small enough to be removed from the injury site via the lymphatic system
Collagenization
the process of manufacturing and laying down collagen in the wound space
Which of the following nerves innervates the main elbow extensor?
the radial nerve
What organ has a increased risk of rupturing with a sickle-cell trait reaction at high altitudes
the spleen
What is a severe danger with a ruptured spleen
the spleen can splint itself a then produce delayed hemorrhage
What is liability
the state of being legally responsible for the harm that one causes another person
Bright red frothy blood being vomited may indicate injury to what structures
the stomach or esophagus
How does ultrasound reduce muscle spasms
the thermal effects increase the blood flow to the area which helps wash away irritants, increase oxygen delivery, and alters nerve conduction
What is the incubation stage of pathogen infection
the time from when a pathogen enters the body until it multiples to the point where signs and symptoms begin to appear
Which structure in the elbow is known to reinforce the elbow capsule
the ulnar collateral ligaments supports the capsule
What is phonophoresis
the use of ultrasound to help move a topical medication into the tissues by increasing cell membrane permeability
which special test is the best for assessing the integrity of the meniscus
thessaly's test
Morton's Neuroma
thickening of the tissue that surrounds the digital nerve leading to the toe
An athlete who has been identified as having a rigid pes cavus is likely to be more susceptible to what type of fracture?
tibial stress fractures
When fitting shoulder pads, the inside shoulder pad should cover the:
tip of the shoulder in a direct line with the lateral aspect of the shoulder
Pathway of afferent nerves and are they sensory or motor
tissue > dorsal horn > brain sensory
How does edema occur
tissue debris from primary injury and inflammatory factors cause an increased in tissue oncotic pressure. Increased TOP causes more fluid to move out of the capillaries and into the tissue resulting in edema
Define Inflammation
tissue response of the body to an injury or irritant
What is a main advantage of ultrasound compared to other thermotherapy modalities
tissues high in collagen can be heated without causing significant temp increase in fat and skin
What is the primary purpose of the pre-participation examination
to identify individuals who may be predisposed to injury by participating in sport
What is the most important principle in transporting an individual on a spine board
to maintain head and neck alignment with the long axis of the body
What are protective knee braces used for
to prevent injuries to the medial collateral ligament
What are functional knee braces used for
to provide support during functional activities
what is the leading preventable cause of death?
tobacco use
What is the treatment for tinea cruris?
topical antifungal ointment 2x daily for 4 weeks
What does T.E.N.S. stand for
transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation
What is Iontophoresis
transdermal drug delivery system that delivers drug ions though the skin using electrical current
T.I.A.
transient ischemic attack
when assessing body fat using the skin fold measurement component, where should measurements be taken?
triceps biceps suprailiac subscapular areas
What is the most common running-induced bursitis?
trochanteric bursitis
characterized by pain in the lateral hip that radiates down the lateral thigh.
trochanteric bursitis
CN 4 and how to test
trochlear H pattern
this injury occurs in runners who push off the foot or athletes who jump frequently, engage in martial arts or play on artificial turf
turf toe
What is the definition of High Volt Pulsed Current
twin-peak monophasic pulsed current driven by a large electomotive force
Symptoms of impingement of a sensory nerve root
unilateral decrease in sensory perception. sensory information cannot get into spinal cord, produces numbness and tingling
What depth does 1MHz US penetrate?
up to 6 cm
When transporting an athlete with a suspected spinal or pelvic injury:
use a scoop stretcher or a vacuum mattress
Recommendation for WBGT reading 82-86.9
use discretion for intense prolonged exercise watch at risk players 3, 4 minute breaks each hour
What is the function of rehabilitative braces
used following surgical repair or reconstruction of the knee joint to allow for controlled progressive immobilization
What steps can you take to prevent heat loss?
utilize WBGT provide adequate hydration 16 fl oz before/8 fl oz every 20 mins during/ and 16 fl oz for every 1 lb lost during activity Allow time for acclimatization (7-10 days) Monitor for signs of hypothermia 10 min break every hour Promote evaporation (change wet t-shirts) Provide shelter
What is the prodromal stage of pathogen infection
variety of signs and symptoms briefly develop and the host is now capable of transferring the pathogen to a new host
what test would be positive for a LCL injury?
varus stress test
should be the first part of any training exercise, performed for 15 - 30 minutes to increase circulation and muscle elasticity and prevent injury
warm-up exercises
Warming the air next to the body Exhaled moisture Loss of heat to the environment because the body is hotter than the air Transfer of heat when there is a temperature difference between the body and an outside surface a. Evaporation b. Conduction c. Radiation d. Convection
warming the air next to the body = convection exhaled moisture = evaporation loss of heat to the environment because the body is hotter than the air = radiation Transfer of heat when there is a temperature difference between the body and an outside surface = conduction
What symptoms may a person with mononucleosis present with?
weakness, headache, fever, persistent sore throat, enlarged lymph nodes in neck and axillae, enlarged tonsils, generalized red macular rash, enlarged spleen
What safety measures can be taken against hypothermia?
wearing appropriate clothing warm-ups to increase circulation begin exercises slowly & avoid slippery surface remove wet clothing promptly avoid accumulation of moisture in clothing wearing clothes in layers ensure head and neck are well covered wearing mittens/gloves moisture wicking socks (wool/polupropylene) avoid alcohol
Which direction of travel seems to cause more problems with jet lag?
west to east
2 types of cupping
wet and dry cupping
When does shock occur
when a diminished amount of blood is available to the circulatory system
What is nonfeasance
when an individual fails to perform a legal duty
What does the SAID principle state?
when the body is subjected to stresses and overloads of varying intensities, it will gradually adapt over time to overcome whatever demands are placed on it
What is an allograft
when the graft is taken from a cadaver
What is an autograft
when the graft is taken from your own body
What is respiratory shock
when the lungs are unable to supply enough oxygen to the circulating blood
When should emergency medical treatment be initiated for a person who has ingested ethanol?
when the person exhibits an altered mental status, nausea and vomiting, semi-conscious or unconscious
When does frostbite occur?
when the tissue begins to freeze, usually signaled by burning pain and numbness in the affected area
Tightening of the plantar fascia during dorsiflexion, thus shorting the longitudinal arch, has been described as the _________ mechanism.
windlass
Who is typically more buoyant men or women?
women
When fitting an athletic shoe, what is the recommended distance between the longest toe and the front of the shoe?
½ to ¾ inch
How does cryotherapy help reduce/prevent swelling?
↓ temp. > ↓ secondary metabolic injury > ↓ decreases free protein > decreased edema and swelling