bpk 205 midterm 2 review
What does light do photoreceptor cells
light hyperpolarizes photoreceptor cells
What is the stimulus for Pacinian corpuscles?
vibration
What do sensory receptors do
transduce/ convert a stimulus into an intracellular response
How do sensory neurons determine the location of a stimulus
use of receptive fields
What is a receptor potential
when a stimulus causes a change in membrane potential of the receptor cell; a graded potential/passive potential
What fraction of light is refracted by the cornea?
2/3
How many myosin molecules are there in one thick filament?
250
How many types of cones are there and what are they
3 types: red, blue, and green
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 45) essential to the process of blood clotting
: C Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.1
: B Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 78) pressure
: Cristae Section Title: The Ear: Equilibrium Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 97) ________ are raised sensory structures within the ampulla of semicircular canals that contain the hair cells.
two semilunar valves
Pulmonary valve and aortic valve
Main differences between upper and lower motor neurons?
Upper motor neurons are a part of the CNS and innervate lower motor neurons while lower motor neurons are a part of the PNS and innervate skeletal muscles
Name the 2 interneurons
amacrine cells and horizontal cells
what is proprioception
awareness of body movement and position in space
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 63) Capillary exchange involving movement through the cells is called ________ transport.
: transendothelial Section Title: Exchange at the Capillaries Learning Outcome: 15.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 66) The carrier protein that transports absorbed iron through the blood is ________.
: transferrin Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 47) The endothelium of the blood vessels and its adjacent connective tissue make up the ________, which is surrounded by layers of smooth muscle and connective tissue called ________.
: tunica intima or intima, tunica media Section Title: The Blood Vessels Learning Outcome: 15.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 106) An increase in blood vessel diameter is known as ________.
: vasodilation Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 114) The amount of blood returning to the heart is the ________.
: venous return Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 76) The chambers of the heart that pump blood into the arteries are the ________.
: ventricles Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 108) The period when blood is pushed into the arteries is called ________.
: ventricular ejection Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 39) Autonomic reflexes are also called ________ reflexes.
: visceral Section Title: Autonomic Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.2
True or False: Only autorhythmic cells can generate action potentials
False; both myocardial cells and autorhythmic cells can generate action potentials
What is difference between fine and coarse touch
in both fine and coarse touch the subject knows they are being touched, but in fine they know where the touch is and in coarse, they cannot tell where the touch is
What is found in the inner segment of cones and rods and what happens?
major organelles; metabolic operations like photopigment synthesis and ATP production
what is the perception threshold
minimum stimulus intensity required to activate higher neruons (2ndary, tertiary)
What are the 4 properties of a stimulus
modality, location, intensity, duration
What happens as the frequency of stimulation increases?
more APs, increased tension in motor units, larger motor units may be recruited to increase total muscle tension
Where does depolarization of the muscle fiber occur
motor end plate
what are the 2 examples of somatic stimuli
muscle length/ tension and proprioception
What happens after crossbridge formation
myosin head does power stroke pulling actin towards the M-line
Are special sense receptors mostly neurons or non-neurons
non-neurons
Most pathways pass through the thalamus, which pathway does not pass the thalamus?
olfactory pathway
Which special sense receptor is a neuron
olfactory receptors
Where must light be focused for clear vision?
on the retina
what is the name of he specialized cells in the retina that transduce light energy into electrical signals?
photoreceptors
What is the pathway for fine touch, proprioception and vibration up till reaching the thalamus
primary neuron synapses in medulla, secondary neuron crosses body midline, then synapses to tertiary neuron in thalamus
Which stimuli have the quickest conducting nerve fibers
proprioception (muscle)
Which neuron crosses the midline of the body for irritants, temp and coarse touch?
secondary; in both pathways the 2ndary neuron does the crossing
What does the modality of a stimulus say about it
shows what type of stimulus it is
if a certain area if sensitive what is size of the receptive fields found in that area
small
What size order does motor unit recruitment follow?
small motor units are recruited first
What are the 2 types of stimuli that are processed subconsciously
somatic and visceral stimuli
What are the 2 types of perceived stimuli
special and somatic senses
What is total muscle tension representative of?
sum of motor unit activation
what happens in muscle relaxation
tension in muscle is released
What is labeled line coding
the brain associating a signal coming a group of receptors with a certain modality
What is lateral inhibition
the enhancement of contrast between activated receptive fields to make a stimulus easier to perceive
What is difference between tonic and phasic receptors
tonic receptors adapt slowly and phasic receptors adapt quickly; tonic receptors are "always on" while phasic receptors turn off
Which sense is not considered a special sense
touch
give 3 examples of cutaneous somatic senses
touch (mechanoreceptors), pain+itch (nociceptors), temp (thermoreceptors)
What are the 5 somatic senses
touch, temp, itch, pain, proprioception
In which layer of the skin are free nerve endings found
dermis
How is the duration of a stimulus determined
determined by the duration of AP trains (burst duration)
What does DHP stand for
dihydropyridine ; DHP receptor= L-type Ca2+ channel
Semilunar valve leaflets
do not require tendons to prevent bloodflow
define a load
weight or force opposing contraction
When is there 2 point discrimination
when 2 stimuli each activate separate pathways to the brain
Synaptic transmission at the neuromuscular junction
1) Action potential arrives at the axon collateral 2) Membrane of the axon collateral is depolarized, voltage gated calcium channels open, Ca2+ flows in 3) Ca2+ promotes exocytosis of ACh 4) ACh is released into the neuromuscular junction 5) ACh bind to nicotinic ACh receptors on the motor end plate 6) Receptor potentials sum in the muscle fibers, EPSP produced 7) Muscles excite, action potential causes muscles to contract
excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac myocytes
1) Action potential enters from adjacent cells 2) Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels (L-type Ca2+ channels) open; Ca2+ enter cell 3) Ca2+ binds to Ryanodine receptor channels (RyR) on the sarcoplasmic reticulum 4) Calcium induced calcium release triggered, which causes Ca2+ spark 5)Summed Ca2+ sparks create a Ca2+ signal 6) Ca2+ binds to troponin to initiate contraction 7) Cardiac muscle relaxes when Ca2+ unbinds from troponin 8) Ca2+ pumped back into SR for storage 9) Ca2+ exchanged with Na+ by the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger (NCX antiporter) 10) Na+ gradient maintained by Na+-K+ ATPase
Differences between cardiac and skeletal muscles
1) Cardiac muscles are smaller and have 1-2 nuclei per fiber while skeletal muscles have more nuclei 2) Shape is more irregular and are connected by intercalated disks 3) T-tubules in cardiac muscles are larger 4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac muscles are smaller
Two types of structures found in intercalated disks
1) Desmosomes 2) Gap junctions
Put these myofibers in the order they would be recruited as the body moves from a weak to a strong stimulus: 1. glycolytic fast-twitch fibers 2. fatigue-resistant oxidative fast-twitch fibers 3. fatigue-resistant slow-twitch fibers 1, 2, 3 2, 3, 1 3, 2, 1 1, 3, 2 3, 1, 2
3, 2, 1
How many neurons are there typically in a pathway?
3; primary, secondary, and tertiary
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 85) Because the suffix "itis" means ________, swelling of the lower extremities due to blockage of lymph flow is NOT called ________-itis; rather it is called ________.
: "inflammation of", elephant, elephantiasis Section Title: The Lymphatic System Learning Outcome: 15.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 30) Myocardial cells can generate action potentials spontaneously because they have A) unstable ion channels. B) permanently open channels for Na+ and K+. C) a net influx of Na+. D) L-type Ca2+ channels. E) prolonged Ca2+ influx.
: A Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the following plasma proteins with the correct function. A. albumins B. globulins C. fibrinogen D. transferrin E. antibodies 43) contribute(s) significantly to osmotic pressure of plasma
: A Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 2) Plasma is mostly A) water. B) blood cells. C) proteins. D) organic molecules. E) ions.
: A Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 18) Diseases that involve the presence of too many white blood cells have been identified as well as diseases that involve too few white blood cells. A) True B) False
: A Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 26) Reactive hyperemia is triggered by A) local accumulation of paracrines due to reduced blood flow. B) reflex contraction of smooth muscle following a period of dilation. C) stress and the hormones released during stress. D) toxins or allergens, such as bee venom or pollen. E) None of the answers are correct.
: A Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.11
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 20) Increased blood volume ________ blood pressure. A) increases B) decreases C) has no effect on
: A Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.3
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 27) The elevated blood pressure that sometimes accompanies pregnancy is known as A) preeclampsia. B) vasovagal syncope. C) infarction. D) reactive hyperemia. E) orthostatic hypotension.
: A Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.3
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 48) After stretching an intrafusal fiber, the next event is A) an increase in action potentials along the associated sensory neuron. B) a decrease in muscle tension. C) a decrease in muscle tone. D) decreased sensitivity to stretching. E) All of the answers are correct.
: A Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 13) Motor neurons are sometimes inhibited by A) Golgi tendon organs. B) muscle spindle organs. C) joint receptors.
: A Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 71) atrial depolarization
: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 69) Fenestrated capillaries are present in A) skeletal muscles. B) cardiac muscle. C) the liver. D) the spleen. E) skin.
: C Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.1
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 173) Explain what is meant by the contractility of the heart. How is contractility controlled?
: Contractility is the intrinsic ability of a cardiac muscle fiber to contract at any given fiber length. Contractile force increases with ventricular end diastolic volume, which is determined by venous return. Both the endocrine and nervous systems regulate contractility. Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 50) Phagocytic, these cells make up the majority of WBCs.
: E Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 116) If blood pressure doubled at the same time that the peripheral resistance doubled, the blood flow through a vessel would be A) doubled. B) halved. C) 16 times greater. D) 1/16 as much. E) unchanged.
: E Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 150) In the autorhythmic cells, the ________ channels open when the cell membrane potential is -60 mV. These channels are permeable to ________ and ________.
: If ; K+, Na+ Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 38) ________ monitor the position of skeletal muscles and joints.
: Proprioceptors Section Title: The Integrated Control of Body Movement Learning Outcome: 13.8
One myosin molecule contains
A tail and two mobile heads
As ATP binds to the myosin head at the beginning of a muscle contraction cycle, the myosin head immediately A. detaches from actin. B. initiates binding with actin. C. tightens its bond to actin. D. swivels.
A. detaches from actin.
The "normal" contractile fibers of the muscle are also called the A. extrafusal fibers. B. intrafusal fibers. C. muscle spindle fibers.
A. extrafusal fibers.
Match the type of reflex to its description. A. somatic B. autonomic C. cranial D. innate E. acquired F. polysynaptic involves skeletal muscles
A. somatic
The sensory fibers of the muscle spindle organs synapse onto A. Golgi tendon organs. B. gamma motor neurons. C. alpha motor neurons. D. joint receptors.
C. alpha motor neurons.
Match the type of reflex to its description. A. somatic B. autonomic C. cranial D. innate E. acquired F. polysynaptic reflexes that one is born with; genetically determined
D. innate
Match the structures with the accurate description a. muscle fiber b. fascicle c. sarcolemma d. myofibril e. t-tubules highly organized bundles of contractile proteins within a skeletal muscle cell
d. myofibril
How is intensity of stimulus measured
# of receptors activated and the frequency of AP (population and frequency coding)
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 46) bind(s) with iron in the blood
: D Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 26) A normal adult hematocrit would be approximately ________%. A) 100 B) 75 C) 66 D) 45 E) 10
: D Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.3
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 22) reflexes that one is born with; genetically determined
: E Section Title: Neural Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 40) ________ reflexes involve skeletal muscles.
: Somatic Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.13
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 77) The chambers of the heart that receive blood from the veins are the ________.
: atria Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 36) Relaxation of skeletal muscle results from ________ input by the somatic motor neuron.
: the absence of excitatory Section Title: The Integrated Control of Body Movement Learning Outcome: 13.6
What is a sarcomere
A unit of myofibril between 2 Z-disks
Function of a myofibril
Act as contractile structures
Function of desmosomes in intercalated disks
As physical coupling; allows force to be transferred to neighbours
Where do axon collaterals branch out for a lower motor neuron?
At their distal end near their muscle targets
I-band
Band that is the length of thin filaments in between two thick filaments
Where do atrioventricular valves lie?
Between atria and ventricles
Where do semilunar valves lie?
Between ventricles and arteries
Function of veins
Bring blood back to the heart
Z-disk
Center of actin thin filaments (attachment site)
What type of neuron controls muscles?
Efferent neurons
Function of gap junctions in intercalated disks
Electrical coupling
What is the polymeric (filamentous) form of actin?
F-actin
Primary function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
For calcium ion storage
Major function of myocardial cells
Force production
Where does bicuspid valve lie?
From left atrium to left ventricle
Where does the aortic valve lie?
From the left ventricle to the aorta
A-band
Length of myosin thick filament
What activates rhodopsin and what changed it to being active
Light activates rhodopsin; 11-cis retinal is changed into all-trans retinal which is larger and pushes on the helices of opsin
Myosin
Motor protein that creates movement
Equivalent name for a muscle cell
Muscle fiber
Titin
Returns stretched muscle to resting length and stabilizes myosin
What do lower motor neurons innervate?
Skeletal muscles
What part of the nervous system do lower motor neurons belong to?
The PNS
Which ventricle has a thicker wall?
The left ventricle
Where is the base of the heart?
The side superior to the diaphragm (top of heart)
T-tubules associate with _________
The terminal cisternae of the SR
How are cardiac myocytes connected?
They are connected in series by intercalated disks
Role of the cardiovascular system
Transport of materials to and from all parts of the body
What is a triad in a myofibril?
Triad is where sarcoplasmic reticulums of two different myofibrils and a T-tubule meet
T or F: myosin is an ATPase
True! Myosin hydrolyzes ATP into ADP and Pi after it binds
Blood flow through the heart
Veins --> atria --> AV valve --> ventricles --> semilunar valves --> arteries
What does Ca2+ allow myosin heads to do
allows myosin heads to bind to actin by revealing binding sites
where are free nerve endings found
around hair roots and under the epidermis
What is the optic nerve made of
axons of ganglion cells
Match the structures with the accurate description a. muscle fiber b. fascicle c. sarcolemma d. myofibril e. t-tubules the muscle cell membrane
c. sarcolemma
what are the 4 main types of sensory receptors
chemoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, thermoreceptors, photoreceptors
Name the 4 neural cells of the retina
cone, rods, bipolar neuron, ganglion cells
are perceived stimuli processed consciously or subconsciously?
consciously
What type of lens is the lens in the eye?
convex lens; converges light rays
What are the 2 types of somatic senses
cutaneous (skin) and proprioceptive
what does cGMP stand for
cyclic guanosine monophosphate
What does CNG stand for
cyclic nucleotide gated
what is the H zone
distance between end of 1 thin actin filament and the beginning of another
What is the I band
distance between thick filaments
Do Pacinian corpuscles adapt fast or slow
fast
What conditions make rhodopsin inactive
having opsin and retinal tightly bound
Where are pacinian corpuscles found?
hypodermis
what does it mean for a stimulus to be an adequate stimulus
it's the stimulus that that sensory receptor is most responsive to
are sensory receptors all neurons?
no
What is rhodopsin made of
opsin and retinal
Is the lens relaxed or rounded for distant objects?
relaxed; it's shape is flat
what is a threshold stimulus
the minimum stimulus required to cause enough receptor potential which will then cause a intracellular response
What factors affect stimulus modality
the sensory receptor activated and the area of the brain that receives the sensory signal
Why do nerve fibers conduct so slowly for heat, cold and slow pain?
these fibers are small and unmyelinated
what do bipolar cells do
transmit information from photoreceptors to ganglion cells
What is blocking the binding sites on G-actin?
tropomyosin
What happens to the thin and thick filaments after Ca2+ is removed?
tropomyosin recovers the binding site and when myosin heads release, titin pulls filaments back into relaxed positions
What is name of the pathway that coarse touch, irritants, and temp follow
ventral spinothalamic tract
The size of motor units is proportional to its need for movement; how many motor units would be required for a very refined movement?
very few fibers per motor unit
What are the 5 special senses
vision, hearing, taste, smell, equilibrium
What is unfused tetanus
when multiple stimuli are far apart enough to allow the muscle to relax slightly in between stimuli
What happens in the contraction cycle
1) ATP binds to myosin; myosin head releases actin 2) myosin hydrolyzes ATP to ADP and Pi; myosin binds weakly to actin 3) Ca2+ signal comes causing tropomyosin to move off the binding site, then myosin strongly binds to actin, release of Pi causes the myosin head to move (doing the powerstroke) and moving along actin towards the M-line 4) Myosin then releases ADP once the power stroke is over
Name four major blood vessels
1) Superior+Inferior vena cava 2) Pulmonary arteries 3) Pulmonary veins 4) Aorta
What are the functions of titin
1) stabilizes the position of contractile filaments 2) returns muscles to their resting length
About what proportion of calcium involved in cardiac myocyte contraction is from the ECF / ICF?
10% ECF, 90% ICF
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 86) neutrophils
: A Section Title: Blood Cell Production Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 143) When a blood vessel dilates, blood viscosity is ________.
: C Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.3
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 101) What is jaundice? What substance is present in abnormal levels? What can cause jaundice to occur? What difference may impede a doctor's ability to diagnose jaundice between people of European compared to African ancestry?
: Jaundice simply means yellowing of skin and the whites of the eyes. It results when bilirubin levels in the blood become elevated (hyperbilirubinemia); superficial blood vessels allow the imparting of yellow color to skin and eyes. During erythrocyte breakdown, the heme is converted in the spleen and liver to a colored pigment called bilirubin. Bilirubin is carried by plasma albumin to the liver where it is metabolized and incorporated into bile (see Fig. 16.8 in the chapter). Bile is secreted into the digestive tract, and the bilirubin metabolites leave the body in the feces. Small amounts of other bilirubin metabolites are filtered from the blood into the kidneys, where they contribute to the yellow color of the urine. The accumulation of bilirubin can occur from multiple causes. Newborns, whose fetal hemoglobin is degraded and replaced with adult hemoglobin, are particularly susceptible to jaundice, so doctors closely monitor bilirubin levels in the first weeks of life. Another common cause of jaundice is liver disease, where the liver is unable to process and/or excrete bilirubin. People with darker skin don't display the yellowing to the same extent as lighter-skinned people, but the yellowing in the eyes should be about the same. Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 64) The turbulent flow of blood causes a noise called a ________ that can be heard through the stethoscope when taking blood pressure.
: Korotkoff sound Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.11
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 94) Give two morphological characteristics of erythrocytes. Why is each advantageous to the cell?
: Lack of a nucleus and the biconcave shape contribute to flexibility for moving through narrow capillaries and disk shape which aides in responding to osmotic changes. Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.2
: ascending Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 113) Nociceptors activate ________ pathways that provide for the conscious perception of the pain.
: Bipolar Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 102) ________ cells connect photoreceptors to ganglion cells.
: refraction Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 103) The bending of light as it passes through media of different densities is called ________.
: photon Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 105) A ________ is a single energy packet of visible light.
: Parvocellular, magnocellular Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 106) ________ ganglion cells transmit information about texture, while ________ ganglion cells transmit information about movement.
: myopia Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 107) For a person suffering from ________, the focal point of the object is focused in front of the retina leading to blurring of distant objects.
: Presbyopia Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 108) ________ is the loss of accommodation that occurs with age due to a loss of lens elasticity.
: Astigmatism Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 109) ________ is a condition that causes blurred vision due to the cornea and/or lens not being smoothly curved and symmetrical.
: Vallinoid (transient receptor potential V1 channels) Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 115) ________ receptors respond to damaging heat as well as capsaicin (chili peppers).
: B Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 116) A molecule that prevents substance P from binding to its receptor would A) stimulate a painful sensation. B) reduce the perception of pain. C) alter the perception of hot and cold stimuli. D) interfere with transduction from chemoreceptors. E) heighten the perception of touch.
What ions flow out and what ions flow in when the nAChR channel is open?
K+ flows out while Ca2+ and Na+ flow in; produces a net cation influx (always depolarize the muscle fibers)
: 400 to 750 nm Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 104) Human eyes are sensitive to light in the visible spectrum between the wavelengths of ________.
: contracts, thicker (more round) Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 111) As an object moves closer to the eye, the ciliary muscle ________ making the lens ________ in order to keep the object in focus.
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 72) The two main components of plasma are ________ and ________. Name two other components found in plasma.
: water, proteins; other components found in plasma include: dissolved organic molecules, ions, trace elements and vitamins, and dissolved oxygen and carbon dioxide. Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.1
What is the pericardium?
A fluid-filled sac that surrounds the heart
What is a motor end plate?
Specialized region of muscle membrane that contains high concentrations of nicotinic ACh receptors
Where are nebulin molecules located?
Along thin filaments; attaches to Z-disk but does not reach M-line
What molecule must be removed in order to rebuild ADP into ATP? A. A water molecule B. A ribose sugar C. A phosphate molecule
A. A water molecule
________ is composed of multiple globular molecules polymerized to form long chains or filaments. A. Actin B. Tropomyosin C. Troponin D. Myosin E. Titin
A. Actin
The cause of skeletal muscle fatigue during extended submaximal exercise is primarily a(n) A. depletion of glycogen stores. B. depletion of creatine stores. C. increased inorganic phosphate (Pi) concentration. D. depletion of K+ stores.
A. depletion of glycogen stores.
Which fibers fatigue sooner? A. fast-twitch fibers B. slow-twitch fibers
A. fast-twitch fibers
Which fibers generate more force? A. fast-twitch fibers B. slow-twitch fibers
A. fast-twitch fibers
Glucose is a major source of energy for synthesizing ATP. Glucose is available from the blood and from the breakdown of which of the following molecules? A. glycogen B. lipids C. protein
A. glycogen
Which of the following processes breaks down glucose, producing two ATP molecules and pyruvic acid? A. glycolysis B. Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation C. hydrolysis of creatine phosphate
A. glycolysis
the threshold stimulus must be reach to elicit a response. what are the possible responses?
AP firing (for neurons) or NT release (non-neuron receptors)
What causes myosin to detach from actin?
ATP binding
What valves are closed/open during ventricular contraction?
AV valves are closed, semilunar valves are open
What valves are open/closed during ventricular relaxation?
AV valves open, semilunar valves closed
About what percentage of cells in the heart are autorhythmic (pacemaker) cells?
About 1%
About what percentage of cells in the heart are myocardial cells?
About 99%
What is the neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction?
Acetylcholine
What is the neurotransmitter receptor present at a neuromuscular junction?
Acetylcholine nicotinic receptor
What happens to extra ACh at the neuromuscular junction?
Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) breaks down acetylcholine into acetyl and choline; acetyl diffuse out of the NMJ and choline gets taken up
Troponin
Acts as a gate-keeper to keep tropomyosin wrapped around actin
Generally how do non-neuron receptor cells work
After receiving stimuli, the specialized receptor released neurotransmitters onto a sensory neuron, then an AP is initiated in the sensory neuron
Striations in skeletal muscles are due to
Alternations between A-bands and I-bands arranged within a sarcomere
Two types of heart valves
Atrioventricular valves and semilunar valves
Type of neurons that specifically control cardiac muscles and smooth muscles
Autonomic neurons
Components of a neuromuscular junction
Axon terminals, motor end plates on the muscle membrane, Schwann cell sheaths
Which neurons in the pathway inhibit lateral neurons
secondary neuron collaterals
The nervous system avoids muscle fatigue during submaximal contraction by A. always recruiting slow-twitch motor units. B. asynchronous recruitment. C. synchronous recruitment. D. always recruiting fast-twitch motor units.
B. asynchronous recruitment.
Why do troponins have Ca2+ binding sites?
Because binding of Ca2+ triggers troponin to let loose of tropomyosin so tropomyosin can expose actin molecules for myosin heads to bind
Why are sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac muscles smaller?
Because there is Ca2+ contribution from both intracellular and extracellular sources so intracellular storage is not as required
Where do axons of upper motor neurons project to?
Down through brainstem and spinal cord
A change in smooth muscle cell tension in the absence of a change in electrical potential of the cells is described as a A. pacemaker potential. B. slow wave potential. C. pharmacomechanical coupling. D. electromechanical coupling.
C. pharmacomechanical coupling.
The contraction cycle is triggered by the rise in ________ released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). A. Na+ B. K+ C. Ca2+
C. Ca2+
Match the structure to its description A. muscle spindles B. Golgli tendon organs C. both have afferent neurons that bring information to the CNS
C. both
The molecular event that occurs immediately after the power stroke is the A. release of actin from the myosin head. B. hydrolysis of ATP by the myosin head. C. release of ADP from the myosin. D. binding of tropomyosin to the myosin. E. binding of actin to the myosin.
C. release of ADP from the myosin.
What are the 2 key molecules required for cross-bridge formation and cycling?
Ca2+ and ATP
M-line
Centre of myosin thick filaments (attachment sites)
What connects the ciliary muscle to the lens
ligaments
Where do the cell bodies of the lower motor neurons lie?
Cranial nerve nuclei (if originates in brain) and in the ventral horn of the spinal cord (if originating in spinal cord)
The relaxation of skeletal muscle relies on the activity of the ________, which decreases cytoplasmic calcium concentration. A. ryanodine receptor B. dihydropyridine (DHP) receptor (L-type calcium channel) C. acetylcholine receptor D. Ca2+ ATPase
D. Ca2+ ATPase
Which of the following is NOT a correct comparison of cardiac myocytes to other muscle cell types? A. Like smooth muscle cells, some cardiac myocytes have pacemaker potentials. B. Like some smooth muscle cells, cardiac myocytes are electrically coupled. C. Like skeletal muscle cells, actin and myosin are organized into sarcomeres. D. Like skeletal muscle, contraction of cardiac muscle is under autonomic nervous control. E. Like smooth muscle cells, cardiac muscle is under hormonal control.
D. Like skeletal muscle, contraction of cardiac muscle is under autonomic nervous control.
Which of the following is a characteristic of slow-twitch oxidative skeletal muscle fibers? A. long contraction duration only B. few mitochondria only C. high capillary density only D. long contraction duration and high capillary density E. long contraction duration, few mitochondria, and high capillary density
D. long contraction duration and high capillary density
Which of the following is NOT a property of single-unit smooth muscles? A. All smooth muscle cells are connected by gap junctions. B. Their contraction occurs in a coordinated manner. C. Electrical responses travel directly between cells. D. Only a proportion of the smooth muscle cells receive autonomic nervous input. E. Each cell functions independent of its neighbor.
E. Each cell functions independent of its neighbor.
Match the type of reflex to its description A. somatic B. autonomic C. spinal D. cranial E. innate F. acquired G. polysynaptic reflexes that one is born with; genetically determined
E. innate
Match the type of reflex to its description A. somatic B. autonomic C. cranial D. innate E. acquired F. polysynaptic several neurons involved in a pathway; can be complex
F. polysynaptic
T or F: EPP is not always suprathreshold
F; EPP is ALWAYS suprathreshold and then activates voltage gated Na+ channels which will then trigger an action potential
T or F: Nebulin is elastic
F; Nebulin in inelastic, the elastic protein is titin
T or F: the cerebral cortex does not have specific areas that correspond to specific receptive fields
F; it does, the cerebral cortex is highly organized
give an example of adequate stimulus
light is the adequate stimulus to the eyes as compared to a mechanical stimuli like poking your eye
What distance does a titin span?
From one Z-disk to the neighbouring M-line
Where does the tricuspid valve lie?
From right atrium to right ventricle
Where does the pulmonary valve lie?
From right ventricle to pulmonary artery
H-zone
From the end of one thin filament to the start of the next thin filament
What kind of protein is involved in light transduction that is found in disk membranes
GPCR rhodopsin
What is the monomeric form of actin?
Globular G-actin
Nebulin
Helps align actin
: B Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.1
Human Physiology: An Integrated Approach, 6e (Silverthorn) Chapter 10 Sensory Physiology 1) Which of the following would be an adequate stimulus for a mechanoreceptor? A) oxygen B) cell stretch C) photon of light D) cold temperature E) pH
during contraction which bands shorten
I and H bands shorter; sarcomere shortening which means Z lines are closer together
Transverse tubules (T-tubules)
Invaginations of the sarcolemma that contains ECF and bring action potentials into interior of muscle fibers (important for excitation)
What happens in the outer segment of cones and rods
light transduction using visiual pigments in membrane disks
Tropomyosin
Long protein dimer complex that attaches to actin, covering up myosin binding sites
What type of neurons do upper motor neurons innervate?
Lower motor neurons
What is the bulk of the heart composed of?
Mycardial cells
What are the two types of cells of the heart?
Myocardial cells (striated muscle cells) and autorhythmic (pacemaker) cells
What type of binding site do G-actins have?
Myosin binding sites
If 2 stimuli fall within one receptive field, is there 2 point discrimination?
No, only one signal is sent to the brain so the brain cannot tell the difference between the 2
Where does the apex of the heart sit?
On the diaphragm
Where in the body is the heart located?
On the ventral side of the thoracic cavity; in between the lungs
How many lower motor neurons does a peripheral pathway consist of?
One
How many muscle fibers can one axon collateral of a lower motor neuron innervate?
One muscle fiber
Organization of skeletal muscle
One muscle is made up of multiple muscle fascicle and one muscle fascicle is made up of bundles of muscle fibers
T or F: DHP receptor in the t-tubule is voltage sensitive
T
Do ganglion cells in the fovea or periphery have a larger receptive field
Periphery has larger receptive fields
T or F: the amount of somatosensory cortex space dedicated to a body part is proportional to the sensitivity of that part
T
F-actin is formed through
Polymerization of globular G-actin
Where are cell bodies of upper motor neurons located?
Primary motor cortex
Name the four chambers of the heart
Right atrium, left atrium, right ventricle, left ventricle
Cell membrane is called __________ in muscles
Sarcolemma
Cytoplasm is called the ________ in muscles
Sarcoplasm
What ion primarily drives depolarization at an NMJ?
Sodium ions
What type of neurons control skeletal muscles specifically?
Somatic motor neurons
T or F: the larger the receptive field, the more convergence of neurons
T; convergence allows for the summation of stimuli at the 2ndary sensory neuron + initiate an AP
T or F: larger motor units generate more force when activated than smaller motor units
T; larger motor units innervate more muscle fibers, therefore they can generate a greater amount of force
Functions of arteries
Take blood away from the heart
What does an action potential in the t-tubule cause
The action potential (deplolarization) causes a conformational change in the DHP receptor. This conformational change physically opens RyR in the SR, which allows Ca2+ to flow out
Somatic peripheral pathway originates from either
The brain or the spinal cord
How is the nAChR different from the ones in the ANS?
They are nonselective, but general function is the same
What role do Schwann cells play at a neuromuscular junction?
They secrete chemical signals required for formation and maintenance of the neuromuscular junction
How many Ca2+ binding sites are there in a troponin molecule?
Two
Accessory proteins in myofibrils
Titin and nebulin
Why do ventricular muscles have a spiral arrangement?
To allow ventricular contraction to squeeze blood upward from the apex of the heart
Why are there many invaginations on the membrane surface of the motor end plate?
To increase surface area
Function of the pericardium
To reduce friction produced by muscle movements and to prevent inflammation
Two atrioventricular valves
Tricuspid valve and bicuspid valve
Regulatory proteins in myofibrils
Troponin and tropomyosin
True or false: upper motor neurons are a part of the CNS
True
What is presbyopia
loss of accommodation due to the lens losing its elasticity
what is complete tetanus
When the muscle reaches a steady tension and the muscle does not relax; fatigue will limit the amount of time this state can be maintained, tension will be lost
Can myosin heads bind to actin when tropomyosin is blocking the binding site on actin?
Yes, but only weakly
Do photoreceptors generate any type of potential (graded/action)?
Yes, they only produce graded potentials
define motor unit
a motor unit and the muscle fibers it innervates
Match the structures with the accurate description a. muscle fiber b. fascicle c. sarcolemma d. myofibril e. t-tubules a bundle of adjacent muscle cells
b. fascicle
Match the structures with the accurate description. a. muscle fiber b. fascicle c. sarcolemma d. myofibril e. t-tubules a bundle of adjacent muscle cells
b. fascicle
give 3 examples of visceral stimuli
blood pressure, internal body temp, lung inflation, blood glucose concentration, pH of CSF/blood
does a receptor potential cause depolarization or hyperpolarization
both
What is the M line
center of the thick myosin filament
What are the 2 types of photoreceptor cells
cones and rods
What type of vision are cones and rods responsible for
cones are for colour vision and sharp vision, rods are for low light/night vision
When the ciliary muscle is contracted, what is the shape of the lens
lens is rounded
chordae tendineae in AV valves
fibrous tissues that attach to papillary muscles to provide stability and prevent backflow of blood
Which receptors follow the dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway (DCML)?
fine touch, proprioception, vibration
define muscle tension
force created by muscle
Which area(s) in the eye produce the sharpest images when light is focused on it
fovea and macula
Name all 5 cutaneous sensory receptor types
free nerve ending, Meissner's corpuscles, Pacinian corpsucles, Ruffini corpuscles, Merkel receptors
Temperature, noxious stimuli and hair movement are all stimuli for which cutaneous sensory receptor?
free nerve endings
What is difference between the structure of free nerve ending receptors and Pacinian corpuscles?
free nerve endings are unmyelinated nerve endings whereas Pacinian corpuscles have nerves that are encapsulated in connective tissue
What activates troponin
increase in [Ca2+]
How does phototransduction work in rods in the dark (depolarization)
initially rhodopsin is inactive; cGMP levels are high inside the cell 1) CNG and K+ channels open (Ca2+, Na+ flowing in, K+ out) 2) rod cell depolarized to -40mV 3) voltage gated Ca2+ channels open and Ca2+ flow into cell 4) NT glutamate is released; bipolar cells turned off
how do you know how long 1 sarcomere is
it is the length from 1 z disc to another
What protein is the epidermis packed with?
keratin
How is stimulus modality determined by the brain
labeled line coding
What is the A band
length of thick myosin filament
Which is adjustable for bending light rays: cornea or lens?
lens
At which parts of the eye is light being bent the most?
lens + cornea
What does depolarization at the motor end place cause
release of Ca2+ from sarcoplasmic reticulum, which causes muscle contraction
How do bipolar cells communicate
releasing neurotransmitters
What causes the relaxation of a muscle fiber
removal of Ca2+
What does RyR stand for
ryanodine receptor
What is required for the sarcomere to contract with maximum force and why
sarcomere needs to be at its optimal resting length before contraction because this position provides the greatest number of possible cross-bridges
generally explain what a contraction is
the creation of tension in muscle
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 27) have afferent neurons that bring information to the CNS
: C Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.4
The potential energy stored in ATP is found in the A. terminal bonds of phosphate B. ribose C. adenine nucleotide
A. terminal bonds of phosphate
Why are smaller motor units recruited first?
smaller motor units have a motor neurons with a lower threshold for activation
How does phototransduction work in rods in the light (hyperpolarization)
1) retinal changes shape from cis to trans and gets released from opsin which makes rhodopsin activated 2) G protein transducin activated 3) transducin activates phosphodiesterase 4) phosphodiesterase breaks down cGMP 5) decreased cGMP causes CNG channels to close 6) Cell becomes hyperpolarized (Ca2+ and Na+ can no longer come in, but K+ is still flowing out) 7) voltage gated Ca2+ channels close 8) less glutamate released; bipolar cells turned on
About what volume do mitochondria occupy in cardiac muscles?
1/3
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 90) List the factors that influence arteriolar resistance, and give an example of each.
: 1. Sympathetic reflexes. Example: temperature regulation. 2. Local control of arteriolar resistance matches tissue blood flow to the metabolic needs of the tissue-Example: paracrines that respond to low oxygen, high carbon dioxide. 3. Hormones such as those that regulate salt and water excretion by the kidney. Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.5
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 170) Name four questions related to heart function that you could answer by examining an ECG and one abnormal condition that may be indicated by each function.
: 1. What is the heart rate? Abnormal values could indicate tachycardia or bradycardia. 2. Is the rhythm of the heartbeat regular or irregular? Abnormal rhythm could indicate fibrillation. 3. Are all normal waves present in recognizable form? Electrical disorders in atria or ventricles could be indicated. 4. Does a QRS complex follow each P wave, and is the PR segment constant in length? Heart block may be indicated. Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 46) The control of voluntary movement can be divided into what three steps?
: 1. decision-making and planning 2. initiating the movement 3. executing the movement Section Title: The Integrated Control of Body Movement Learning Outcome: 13.12
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 83) Name the three portal systems in the body.
: 1. hepatic portal system 2. renal portal system 3. hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.1
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 87) Name the two mechanisms and the factors involved that limit the extent of blood clotting within a vessel.
: 1. inhibition of platelet adhesion: protacyclin 2. inhibition of coagulation cascade: plasminogen and plasmin and anticoagulants Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 88) Name the five types of white blood cells. Which type develops into macrophages? Which white blood cells are collectively known as phagocytes and why?
: 1. lymphocytes 2. monocytes 3. neutrophils 4. eosinophils 5. basophils; monocytes develop into macrophages; neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages are collectively known as phagocytes because they engulf and ingest foreign particles such as bacteria. Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 54) What are the three levels of nervous system that control movement? Briefly describe their roles.
: 1. the spinal cord, which integrates spinal reflexes and contains the central pattern generators 2. the brain stem and cerebellum, which control postural reflexes and hand and eye movements 3. the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia, which are responsible for voluntary movements Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.13
: Level IV: Quantitative Problems (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 191) Using the figure below (Fig. 14.18 from your text), calculate the following values: A) Heart rate B) Stroke volume C) Cardiac output D) Mean Arterial Pressure
: A) (1 cycle/800 msec) × (1000 msec/sec) × (60 sec/min) = 60,000 cycles/800 min = 75 cycles (or beats)/min B) Stroke volume = EDV - ESV = 135 mL - 65 mL = 70 mL/beat C) Cardiac output = HR × SV = 75 beats/min x 70 mL/beat = 5250 mL/min or 5.25 L/min D) Mean Arterial Pressure = (DP + DP + SP)/3 = (85 + 85 + 120)/3 = 290/3 = 96.7 mm Hg or MAP = DP + 1/3 (SP-DP) = 85 + 1/3 (120-85) = 85 + 1/3 (35) = 85 + 11.7 = 96.7 mm Hg Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 121) Ivabrandine selectively blocks If channels in the heart. Which statement would be true concerning a patient who is taking this drug? A) The drug would slow down this individual's heart rate. B) This patient must have been suffering from bradycardia. C) This drug would decrease contractility of the patient's heart. D) This drug would raise the blood pressure of the patient. E) The amount of calcium entering the patient's heart cells would increase.
: A Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.6
: Level IV: Quantitative Problems (Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluation) 113) Sonja is 28 years old and weighs 132 lb (2.2 lb = 1 kg). Calculate the following values for her, assuming she is an average healthy adult. A. What is her approximate blood volume? B. What is her approximate plasma volume? C. Assuming a normal hematocrit, what is her volume of cellular elements? D. What is her typical RBC count? E. WBC? F. Differential count? G. Platelets? H. What hemoglobin level would you expect to find?
: A. 132 lbs = 60 kg. Blood volume is approximately 7% of body weight: 60 kg × 0.07 = 4.2 kg = 4.2 L. B. If her hematocrit were 40%, then her plasma volume = 60% of her blood volume = 0.6 × 4.2 = 2.5 L. Normal hematocrits may range from 37% to 47% in females. C. With a hematocrit of 40%, her packed cell volume would be 1.6 L. D. Values are found in Figure 16.3: RBC count = 3.9 to 5.6 × 106. E. WBC = 4,000 - 11,000. F. Ranges of normal are presented in Figure 16.3. G. Platelets = 200,000 - 500,000. H. Hemoglobin = 12 to 16 g/dL blood. Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.3
: Level IV: Quantitative Problems (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 190) Miguel is a 25-year-old jogger with a target heart rate of 125 bpm. His resting pulse is 70 bpm. His blood volume is approximately 6.8 liters. At rest, his cardiac output is 6.3 liters/min. A. What must his stroke volume be? B. What might his EDV and ESV be? C. During his workout, his heart rate increases to 125 bpm and his cardiac output to 12,500 mL/min. Do his SV, EDV, and ESV change with exercise?
: A. 90 mL CO = SV * HR; SV=CO/HR = 6.3 L/min/ 70 bpm. B. Combination where EDV minus ESV = 90 mL Average values are ESV = 44-60 mL, EDV = 134-150 mL. C. Yes, the SV changes to 100 mL; EDV probably increases proportionately, to 149-167 mL. Thus the ESV would be 49-67 mL. One would assume an increase in venous return would lead to atrial stretching and an increased EDV. Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level IV: Quantitative Problems (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 187) Using the appropriate equations, predict the effects in each scenario. A. Vessels X and Y have the same diameter. X is 5 cm long and Y is 10 cm long. Which has the faster velocity of flow for the same fluid? B. A blood vessel has a radius of 4 cm. Vasoconstriction reduces the radius to 1 cm. In order to maintain the same flow, by what factor must pressure increase? C. The blood vessel in B above dilates from 1 cm to 4 cm. Does the flow rate increase or decrease? D. A new subdivision is built between your house and the water storage tower. If the water company makes no adjustments, will the water pressure at your house change? If so, in which direction? Why?
: A. Assuming the same driving pressure, the velocity is the same. Length is not a factor (v = Q/A). B. 256. Q ΔP/R, so ΔP R. As R 1/r4, ΔP 1/r4. As Q does not change, ΔP1 × r14 = ΔP2 × r24. r14 = 44 = 256. C. increase D. Your water pressure would decline, owing its diversion to the new subdivision houses. Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 98) Define, compare, and contrast each of the pathologies listed below. Are the risk factors for each the same? Explain your answer. A. coronary artery disease B. atherosclerosis C. myocardial infarction D. hypertension E. congestive heart failure
: A. Coronary blood vessels become blocked by cholesterol or blood clots, causing reduced blood flow. B. Atherosclerosis is hardening of the arteries, which results from accumulation of cholesterol and other lipids, proliferation of vascular smooth muscle, and hardening due to calcification and fibrosis. The bulge that forms protrudes into the vessel lumen, reducing blood flow. C. Myocardial infarction is the death of heart cells as a result of blocked blood flow. D. Hypertension is high systemic blood pressure that develops as a result of increased peripheral resistance. E. Congestive heart failure occurs after prolonged hypertension, when the cardiac muscle can no longer generate the necessary cardiac output against the high peripheral resistance. As left cardiac output decreases, fluid backs up into the lungs. Oxygenation of the blood decreases, the heart becomes even weaker, leading to more fluid accumulation, and eventually death. Section Title: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 15.10
: Level IV: Quantitative Problems (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 188) A person has a total blood volume of 5 L. Of this total, 4 liters is contained in the systemic circulation and 1 L in the pulmonary circulation. If the person has a cardiac output of 5 L/min: A. how long will it take for a drop of blood leaving the left ventricle to return to the heart? B. how long will it take a drop of blood to go from the right ventricle to the left ventricle?
: A. SV = 5 L/min, volume = 4 L, which would be distributed in 4/5 min = 48 seconds. B. Volume in the pulmonary circuit = 1 L, which would require 1/5 min, or 12 seconds to return to the left atrium from the right ventricle. Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.2
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 112) Below are results of a blood analysis for a patient undergoing chemotherapy. The left two sets of bars, labeled "Min" and "Max," represent the target values for each cell type. The other sets of bars depict the results of blood counts done on the corresponding days after chemotherapy was administered. Please answer the following questions. A. According to the graph, which type of formed elements reached normal values first? B. Which kind came closest to its maximum value? C. On Day 10, which of the following sets of symptoms/characteristics would the patient most likely exhibit? 1. pale and easily fatigued 2. likely to bruise easily or bleed excessively 3. be at high risk for infections Explain your choice.
: A. platelets B. RBCs C. 3, because the WBC count is the most below minimum values, and it is the WBCs that fight infection. Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the following terms to the correct answer: A. tricuspid valve B. bicuspid valve C. aortic valve D. pulmonary valve 63) an AV valve that has three flaps
: A Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 39) Blood pressure and flow to the brain are monitored by receptors located in the wall of the A) carotid artery. B) aorta. C) venae cavae. D) cerebral arteries. E) cephalic arteries.
: A Section Title: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 15.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 5) Which organ is NOT known to include a special portal system for blood? A) heart B) kidney C) liver D) brain E) All of these organs have portal systems.
: A Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.2
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 180) Sonja is pregnant during the year she is taking human physiology. At each check-up, she expects to be told that her blood pressure has increased. Yet into the final weeks of her pregnancy, her blood pressure is unchanged from its pre-pregnancy value. Why did she expect her blood pressure to increase? Propose some explanations for why it didn't. (Hint: Sometimes women adopt healthier habits during pregnancy, there are large blood-filled sinuses in the maternal portion of the placenta, and there are many hormonal effects that are unique to pregnancy.)
: (Note to instructor: You may want to alter the hint, providing more or less help, depending on what you have covered in class.) Sonja assumes that her pressure will elevate with the increased blood volume and increased peripheral resistance that accompany the tissue growth she experiences. It is possible that she has adopted healthier diet and exercise habits during her pregnancy, offsetting an increase in pressure. It is also possible that the changing hormonal environment includes regulation of blood pressure so that it remains normal. It is also the case that the placenta forms a low-resistance reservoir for the maternal blood, offsetting the expected increase in total peripheral resistance and blood pressure. Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 179) Sonja is pregnant. Over the next 40 weeks, her uterus will enlarge as the placenta develops and the fetus grows, her abdomen will add skin to accommodate distension, her breasts will grow, her blood volume will increase, and many other changes will occur. Using what you have learned about basic cardiovascular physiology, predict how parameters such as blood pressure and cardiac output will change. (Note that the fetus has a separate cardiovascular system, which does not need to be considered.) Explain your answer.
: (Note to the instructor: These predictions are logical, but not all actually happen.) The growth of maternal tissues will require addition of blood vessels, thus total vessel length will increase. This would increase total peripheral resistance. Blood pressure may increase with increasing blood volume, and also to overcome the greater resistance and return the blood to the heart. Stroke volume should increase; cardiac output may increase as a result, or may remain the same if heart rate decreases. Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 151) The resting membrane potential is ________ for skeletal muscle and ________ for contractile myocardium. It is ________ for autorhythmic myocardium.
: -70 mV, - 90 mV; an unstable pacemaker potential (usually starts at -60 mV) Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 77) What are the three major steps of hemostasis?
: 1. vasoconstriction 2. temporary blockage of a break by a platelet plug 3. blood coagulation, or formation of a clot that seals the hole until tissues are repaired Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 73) Red blood cells in the circulation live for about ________. The short life span is due to ________.
: 120 days; increasing fragility of the older red blood cells, which may rupture as they squeeze through capillaries Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 60) Blood is approximately ________% plasma by volume.
: 55 Section Title: Blood Cell Production Learning Outcome: 16.3
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 4) Which reflex is NOT controlled by the brain stem? A) urination B) vomiting C) sneezing D) swallowing E) salivating
: A Section Title: Autonomic Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.2
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 82) Meghan thinks she has an abscessed tooth (a bacterial infection). If she does, what type of white blood cell would you expect to see in elevated numbers in a differential count? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) basophils D) lymphocytes E) monocytes
: A Section Title: Blood Cell Production Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 13) The mean arterial pressure (MAP) is important because A) it represents the driving pressure for blood flow. B) it reflects the difference in time that systole lasts compared to diastole. C) it forces the practitioner to do math, thus they must pay attention to the values obtained. D) it represents the driving pressure for blood flow and it reflects the difference in time that systole lasts compared to diastole. E) All of the answers are correct.
: A Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.3
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 118) Which statement is NOT true regarding cardiac muscle? A) Cardiac muscle cells must obey the all-or-none law of contraction. B) Cardiac muscle cells rely on a sarcoplasmic reticulum for storage of Ca2+ ions. C) Calcium-induced calcium release is the process by which extracellular Ca2+ triggers the release of stored Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. D) Intercalated disks contain both desmosomes for firm attachment and gap junctions to allow communication. E) The oxygen demand of cardiac muscle cells is high because they have many mitochondria.
: A Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 21) The action potential in a cardiac contractile cell causes A) opening of L-type calcium channels. B) opening of ryanodine receptor calcium channels. C) activation of sodium-potassium ATPase. D) activation of NCX transporters. E) opening of HCN channels.
: A Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 26) The action potentials of myocardial autorhythmic cells, are due to a combination of increasing Na2+ ________ and decreasing K+________. A) influx, efflux B) efflux, influx C) influx, influx D) efflux, efflux
: A Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 32) Autorhythmic cells A) are also called pacemakers because they set the rate of the heartbeat. B) are the same size as myocardial contractile cells. C) have organized sarcomeres. D) contribute to the force of contraction. E) None of the answers are correct.
: A Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 2) Capillaries are best described as A) microscopic vessels in which blood exchanges material with the interstitial fluid. B) thick walled vessels that convey blood away from the heart. C) thin walled vessels that convey blood toward the heart. D) thick walled vessels that carry blood rich in oxygen. E) thin walled vessels that carry blood deficient in oxygen.
: A Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 7) The hepatic portal vein carries blood away from the A) digestive tract. B) liver. C) kidneys. D) spleen. E) pancreas.
: A Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 52) Often called immunocytes, these cells direct the activities of the immune system.
: A Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 6) The cell that is the progenitor of all the types of blood cells is called the A) pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell. B) committed progenitor cell. C) megakaryocyte. D) reticulocyte. E) progenitor.
: A Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 42) Tissue factor is released in the A) extrinsic pathway. B) intrinsic pathway. C) common pathway. D) retraction pathway. E) fibrinolytic pathway.
: A Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.4
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 80) Persons who suffer from hemophilia A fail to produce a functional factor VIII; as a result, A) they do not have a functional intrinsic pathway. B) they do not have a functional extrinsic pathway. C) they do not have a functional common pathway. D) their clotting times are shorter than normal. E) All answers are correct.
: A Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 11) Which parameters are associated with increased resistance? A) reduced flow B) reduced friction C) increased blood vessel diameter D) decreased viscosity E) decreased length
: A Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 144) You suck milk through a 6-inch straw and through a 10-inch straw; the diameters are identical. Resistance is ________ in the 10-inch straw compared to the 6-inch straw.
: A Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 149) If total cross-sectional area of vessels in an organ remains the same but blood flow to that organ increases, what happens to velocity of blood?
: A Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 147) During fasting, some capillary beds in the digestive tract are closed and therefore have no blood flow. Others are open to meet the minimal need of the tract for blood flow. During eating and as long as food is present in the tract, all capillary beds open to flow. What happens to total cross-sectional area of vessels in the digestive tract?
: A Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 27) Under normal circumstances, aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by the A) spleen. B) yellow bone marrow. C) kidneys. D) digestive tract. E) thymus gland.
: A Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.3
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 24) The function of hemoglobin is to A) carry oxygen. B) protect the body against infectious agents. C) aid in the process of blood clotting. D) carry nutrients from the intestine to the body's cells. E) All of the answers are correct.
: A Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 54) a genetic condition where red blood cells have deficient cytoskeletons
: A Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 19) If cardiac output increases and resistance in arterioles does NOT change, what happens to arterial blood pressure? A) increases B) decreases C) is unchanged
: A Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.3
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 79) Which of the following is greater? A) blood pressure when sympathetic stimulation to the heart increases B) blood pressure when parasympathetic stimulation to the heart increases
: A Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 21) involves skeletal muscles
: A Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.13
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 28) excite both alpha and gamma motor neurons
: A Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 31) eventually synapses with alpha motor neurons that innervate extrafusal muscle fibers
: A Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the structure to its description. A. muscle spindles B. Golgi tendon organs C. both 26) maintain muscle tone at rest through tonic activity
: A Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 30) have gamma motor neurons that innervate internal fibers
: A Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 12) The "normal" contractile fibers of the muscle are also called the A) extrafusal fibers. B) intrafusal fibers. C) muscle spindle fibers.
: A Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 2) Perfusion is A) blood flow through an organ. B) the driving force behind blood flow. C) delivery of oxygen to cells. D) the connection between capillaries and other vessels. E) movement of blood through a shunt.
: A Section Title: The Blood Vessels Learning Outcome: 15.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 7) Differences between arterioles and metarterioles include the fact that arterioles A) have a continuous smooth muscle layer in their walls. B) allow blood to bypass capillary beds. C) have an endothelial lining. D) have a continuous smooth muscle layer in their walls and allow blood to bypass capillary beds. E) All of the answers are correct.
: A Section Title: The Blood Vessels Learning Outcome: 15.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 33) The depolarization of the pacemaker action potential spreads to adjacent cells through A) gap junctions. B) tight junctions. C) chemical synapses. D) desmosomes.
: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 34) The fibrous skeleton of the heart is important because it A) forces electrical activity to be conducted through the atrioventricular node. B) transmits electrical activity from the atria to the ventricles. C) helps guide the blood into the proper chambers in sequence. D) directs the flow of blood into the arteries.
: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 125) If a myocardial infarction results in the formation of scar tissue along the pathway of the left bundle branch, A) cardiac arrhythmias may occur. B) blood flow to the lungs will decrease. C) the ventricle will contract more forcefully. D) conduction through the left ventricle would remain normal. E) the right ventricle will fail to contract.
: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 39) Electrical shock to the heart is usually used to treat A) ventricular fibrillation. B) atrial fibrillation. C) heart block. D) heart murmur. E) myocardial infarction.
: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 41) The P wave of an ECG corresponds to A) the depolarization of the atria. B) the progressive wave of ventricular depolarization. C) the repolarization of the ventricles. D) atrial repolarization. E) None of the answers are correct.
: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 53) During ventricular ejection, A) the ventricles are in systole. B) the QRS complex is just starting. C) the semilunar valves are closed. D) the AV valves are open. E) blood is forced into veins.
: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 61) Stimulation of the beta receptors on heart muscle results in A) the formation of cAMP. B) decreased rate of contraction. C) decreased force of cardiac contraction. D) increased sensitivity to acetylcholine. E) All of the answers are correct.
: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 74) the volume of blood circulated by the heart in one minute
: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 57) The term that describes the volume of blood circulated by the heart in one minute is A) cardiac output (CO). B) heart rate (HR). C) end-diastolic volume (EDV). D) stroke volume (SV). E) end-systolic volume (ESV).
: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 138) Drugs known as calcium channel blockers can be used to A) decrease the force of cardiac contraction. B) increase blood pressure. C) constrict the coronary arteries. D) increase sympathetic stimulation of the myocardium. E) increase stroke volume.
: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 135) Sympathetic stimulation increases the heart rate by A) just increasing ion influx, thus increasing the rate of depolarization. B) just increasing the permeability to Ca2+. C) just increasing the permeability to K+. D) just decreasing the permeability to Ca2+. E) increasing the permeability to K+ and decreasing the permeability to Ca2+.
: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 136) In which situation would the stroke volume be the greatest? A) when venous return is increased B) when venous return is decreased C) when the force of contraction is decreased D) when the difference between the end-diastolic volume and the end-systolic volume is small E) when calcium channel blockers are present
: A Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 36) A parasitic condition resulting in extreme enlargement of one or both legs is called A) elephantiasis. B) elephantitis. C) elephantosis. D) ascites.
: A Section Title: The Lymphatic System Learning Outcome: 15.8
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 76) Malnutrition can cause edema because A) there are not enough nutrients for plasma protein synthesis. B) interstitial protein levels are lower than plasma protein levels. C) the resulting anemia increases blood pressure. D) there are not enough nutrients for plasma protein synthesis and interstitial protein levels are lower than plasma protein levels. E) All of the answers are correct.
: A Section Title: The Lymphatic System Learning Outcome: 15.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 19) Which valves have chordae tendineae? A) aortic and pulmonary valves B) bicuspid (mitral) and tricuspid valves C) valves in veins D) semilunar valves E) coronary valves
: B Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 40) When blood pressure is normal, the receptors in arterial walls fire action potentials A) very seldom. B) continuously.
: B Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.9
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 73) Upon testing the knee jerk reflex during a routine physical, a nurse notices that the reflex is hyperactive. What could be the explanation for this? If instead the reflex was hypoactive, what may the nurse conclude?
: A hyperactive knee jerk reflex suggests a lack of descending inhibition. This could indicate injury or disease in the spinal cord above the reflex arc, or in a brain area involved in motor control. A hypoactive reflex could indicate damage to any of the components of the local reflex arc, including the muscle, the spinal nerve, or that level of the spinal cord. Alternatively it is possible the patient is deliberately inhibiting the reflex by descending inhibition. Reflexes can also be adversely affected by metabolic disorders. Section Title: The Integrated Control of Body Movement Learning Outcome: 13.12
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 105) Mike has classical hemophilia, a clotting disorder, but his case is considered "mild." His levels of factor VIII are 28% of normal. He is usually OK going about the activities of normal daily living. He plays slow pitch softball and enjoys swimming and horseback riding, and is an exceptionally active individual who believes "why walk when you can run?" He has noticed that once he has one injury, he will have "bleeds" more readily, and has to restrict his own activities to give himself time to heal. Why would he have to "slow down" longer than a person without hemophilia?
: A level of 28% suggests that Mike's body synthesizes factor VIII much more slowly than normal. Thus once he is injured, he depletes his limited supply more quickly and takes longer to replenish it. Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.6
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 103) In the disease mononucleosis ("mono"), the spleen enlarges because of increased numbers of cells, phagocytic as well as others. Common symptoms of this disease include pale complexion, a tired feeling, and a lack of energy sometimes to the point of not being able to get out of bed. What might cause these symptoms?
: A major function of the spleen is to destroy old, defective, and worn-out red blood cells. As the spleen increases in size, so does its capacity to eliminate red blood cells, and this produces anemia. The decreased number of red blood cells decreases the blood's ability to deliver oxygen to the tissues and thus metabolism is slowed down. This would account for the tired feeling and lack of energy. Because there are fewer red blood cells than normal, the blood circulating through the skin is not as red, and so the person has a pale skin coloration. Section Title: Blood Cell Production Learning Outcome: 16.3
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 157) Explain what a portal system is and give an example. How is a portal system different from the typical arrangement of vessels?
: A portal system is a special circulation in which a capillary bed connects to another capillary bed before returning to the general circulation. An example is the hepatic portal system, in which capillaries of the digestive tract are connected to capillaries of the liver by way of the hepatic portal vein. Typically blood in a capillary bed flows through the venous system and back to the heart. Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.2
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 183) What is a normal heart rate for healthy adults at rest, and what neural inputs contribute to the achievement of that range? How is heart rate affected when all nervous system input to the heart is blocked, and why is this effect seen?
: A typical adult heart rate is 70 beats per minute. This normal resting value results from the constant parasympathetic inhibition of the higher endogenous rate of the SA node. Without neural input, resting heart rate is higher, matching the intrinsic rate of the SA node, 90-100 beats per minute. Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 114) Brian, 53, finally visited his doctor, after 6 months of being winded after climbing the two flights of stairs to his apartment. He kept blaming himself for being "out of shape," and thought he would be OK after his spring yard work started, but he wasn't. The doctor wasn't surprised when Brian's blood pressure was 160/110 mm Hg. The doctor prescribed some beta blockers and more tests, including an ECG and blood tests. Why did the doctor want this additional information? What are some items he would check in the blood tests, and why?
: Abnormalities on the ECG would reveal evidence of scarring or damage to the heart and the myocardium; blood tests would be checked for electrolyte levels, especially calcium, sodium, and potassium, as well as for changes associated with volume fluctuation. Heart enzymes would not be elevated unless damage was very recent. Section Title: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 15.10
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 171) Acetylcholine is excitatory at the neuromuscular junction, but inhibitory at the SA node. Explain why this is true.
: Acetylcholine receptors in heart muscle are muscarinic, whereas they are nicotinic in skeletal muscle. These receptors are linked to different types of ion channels. At the nicotinic receptor, the response is excitatory due to a sodium influx. At the muscarinic receptor, the response is inhibitory due to a potassium efflux. Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.5
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 104) Baroreceptors have stretch-sensitive ion channels in their cell membrane. Increased pressure on the membrane opens the channels and allows ion flow that initiates action potentials. What kind of ion probably flows through these channels and in which direction?
: Action potentials are created when a cell depolarizes to threshold. Depolarization results from net influx of positive ions or efflux of negative ions. The most likely ion is Na+, moving into the receptor cell. Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 56) ________ is an increase in blood flow that accompanies an increase in metabolic activity.
: Active hyperemia Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.11
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 61) Explain alpha-gamma coactivation.
: Alpha motor neurons control the contraction of skeletal muscle fibers. Gamma motor neurons adjust the stretch sensitivity of the muscle spindle, so that the spindle is active even when the muscle shortens. Coactivation of both sets of fibers causes the tension on the muscle spindles to be maintained as the muscle shortens; thus sensitivity to stretch is maintained. Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.6
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 110) What nutrients are required for red blood cell synthesis and why? What is blood doping? How is it detected? How is blood doping different from simply good nutrition?
: Amino acids for globin synthesis, iron for heme synthesis, folic acid and vitamin B12 for DNA synthesis are among the nutrients required. Blood doping is using a treatment to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood, such as receiving a transfusion of red blood cells or administering hormones that stimulate red blood cell production. Hemoglobin concentration in the blood is elevated above normal in dopers, as is hematocrit. Reticulocyte count indicates an accelerated rate of red blood cell production, which would be expected with use of erythropoietin or similar drugs. These drugs/hormones can be detected in the blood. Good nutrition should ensure that hematocrit and hemoglobin are at their maximum, but nutrition is not sufficient to elevate these parameters above normal. Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.3
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 178) Amy is a premed student with a summer job as an animal research technician. One of her duties is to withdraw blood by syringe from the anterior vena cava of pigs, to be analyzed for various hormones. During her training she noticed that most blood samples were very dark in color, but occasionally a sample was bright red. Propose an explanation.
: Amy misdirected her needle to a nearby artery instead of withdrawing blood from the vena cava. Arterial blood is more oxygenated than venous blood, thus not as dark. Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.2
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 99) Define anemia, and explain how it is the same or different from hypoxemia. Give examples of three different types of anemia and a brief synopsis of each kind. Is sickle cell disease a true anemia? Explain your answer. When sickle cell disease is fatal, what is the cause of death?
: Anemia is a condition in which the blood's hemoglobin content is too low. Hypoxemia means low oxygen in blood, which could be due to an impaired respiratory system and can therefore occur independent of anemia. Because oxygen binds to hemoglobin, individuals with anemia cannot transport as much oxygen to the tissues, resulting in fatigue and weakness. This may be especially noticeable with exercise. Some major causes of anemia are summarized in Table 16.3 in the chapter. Sickle cell disease is considered an anemia because the amount of normal hemoglobin is low. Death is related to hypoxia-caused tissue damage. Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.5
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 55) List three ways that neural reflex pathways can be classified. Name one of the reflexes in each category. What additional information may be gained from the name of the reflex? Name a specific reflex and identify its classification in all of the categories you listed.
: Any three of the following four answers are correct classifications. Further, the effector or action is sometimes evident by the reflex name, e.g., flexor reflex. Answers to specific reflexes will vary, e.g., knee jerk reflex is somatic, spinal, innate, and monosynaptic. 1. by the efferent division of the nervous system that controls the response: somatic reflexes and autonomic reflexes 2. by the CNS location where the reflex is integrated: spinal reflexes and cranial reflexes 3. by whether the reflex is innate or learned: innate reflexes and learned or conditioned reflexes 4. by the number of neurons in the reflex pathway: monosynaptic reflexes and polysynaptic reflexes Section Title: Neural Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 79) ________ are blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart.
: Arteries Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.2
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 115) Siegfried experiences a hemorrhage in an artery, and now blood is leaking out of the resulting hole. His blood pressure decreases. Draw a flow chart illustrating the cardiovascular reflex responses that follow to compensate for the drop in blood pressure.
: As blood exits the vasculature, there is a loss in blood volume, which in turn causes the systemic blood pressure to decrease. Baroreceptors (stretch receptors) in the carotid and artery walls are less stretched, and therefore their action potential firing frequency decreases. The baroreceptors project to the cardiovascular control center in the medulla oblongata. In response to decreased baroreceptor input, the cardiovascular control center stimulates sympathetic output and inhibits parasympathetic output. Sympathetic activity causes vasoconstriction and consequent increases in peripheral resistance and blood pressure. Decreased parasympathetic activity causes the SA node firing rate to increase and therefore heart rate increases. Combined with the sympathetic stimulation of the ventricles and consequent increase in contraction force, cardiac output increases as a result, also helping to increase blood pressure. Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.9
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 100) A dead human body has been discovered in the woods near your home. No, you are not a homicide suspect; rather you are an expert hematologist, and the body is still warm. Implausibly, this adult corpse has no gender cues (no sexual organs, and skeletal features that are in between those expected for males or females). How can you assist the detectives in determining the gender of this person, using the hematology lab in your garage?
: Assuming you can collect and centrifuge the blood soon, prior to clotting and decay, a hematocrit may provide clues. While a differential white cell count is independent of gender, hematocrit, hemoglobin concentration, and red cell count are all slightly lower in females. See Figure 16.3 in this chapter. Section Title: Blood Cell Production Learning Outcome: 16.3
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 11) The values obtained when measuring blood pressure, such as 120/80, A) exactly match the pressures inside the ventricle during systole and diastole. B) reflect the pressure in the major arteries during ventricular systole and diastole. C) are the same on both the pulmonary and systemic circuits. D) exactly match the pressures inside the ventricle during systole and diastole and reflect the pressure in the major arteries during ventricular systole and diastole. E) All of the answers are correct.
: B Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.2
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 119) If the membranes of the cardiac muscle cells in the SA node become more permeable to potassium ions, A) the heart rate will increase. B) the heart rate will decrease. C) the membrane will depolarize. D) the stroke volume will increase. E) the intracellular concentration of calcium ion will increase.
: B Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 16) The function of the pericardial fluid is to A) provide oxygen to the heart. B) reduce friction between the heart and the pericardium. C) provide fuel to the heart. D) remove waste products from the heart. E) store calcium for the heart.
: B Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 65) also called the mitral valve
: B Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 45) Which of these does NOT increase the risk for cardiovascular disease? A) being a male over 30 but under 55 B) being a female over 30 but under 55 C) having a sister with coronary artery disease D) menopause without estrogen replacement therapy E) having diabetes mellitus
: B Section Title: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 15.10
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 33) Due to the differences in opposing forces, there is net ________ occurring at the arteriolar end of most capillaries, coupled with net ________ at the venous end. A) absorption, filtration B) filtration, absorption
: B Section Title: Exchange at the Capillaries Learning Outcome: 15.1
Human Physiology: An Integrated Approach, 6e (Silverthorn) Chapter 15 Blood Flow and the Control of Blood Pressure 1) Fainting is also known as A) eclampsia. B) vasovagal syncope. C) infarction. D) reactive hyperemia. E) orthostatic hypotension.
: B Section Title: Introduction Learning Outcome: 15.11
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 24) an example would be slowing or speeding the heart and other internal organs that are not consciously controlled
: B Section Title: Neural Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 3) Identify the FALSE statement. A) Adipose tissue is controlled by autonomic efferents. B) All reflexes require input from the brain. C) Some reflexes are genetically determined. D) Muscle spindles are stretch receptors. E) Proprioceptors detect limb position and movement.
: B Section Title: Neural Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 4) The purpose of having valves in the cardiovascular system is to A) provide sounds so that heart health can be monitored. B) ensure that blood flows in one direction. C) prevent blood from flowing too quickly. D) regulate blood pressure. E) provide the force for circulation.
: B Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 9) Which of the following statements about hydrostatic pressure is NOT true? A) If a fluid is not moving, the pressure that it exerts is called hydrostatic pressure. B) Force is not equal in all directions. C) The lateral pressure component of moving fluid represents the hydrostatic pressure. D) Hydrostatic pressure does not include the dynamic component of a moving fluid. E) All of the statements are true.
: B Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.3
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 47) a category that includes clotting factors and enzymes
: B Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 15) The primary organ where erythropoietin is produced is the A) liver. B) kidney. C) spleen. D) bone marrow. E) endothelial cells throughout the body.
: B Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 16) A unique aspect of hematopoiesis is that A) white blood cell production always results in the same proportion of leukocytes. B) white blood cell development varies with the specific needs of the body. C) neutrophils direct all development from the lymph nodes. D) lymphocytes never die.
: B Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 4) Mast cells in tissues are considered to be a type of A) eosinophil. B) basophil. C) lymphocyte. D) monocyte. E) neutrophil.
: B Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 39) The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of proenzyme exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor by a damaged endothelium. D) release of heparin from the liver. E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
: B Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 35) Which of the following are the two anticoagulants produced by the body? A) heparin and plasmin B) antithrombin III and heparin C) antithrombin III and plasmin D) tissue plasminogen activator and plasmin E) protacyclin and heparin
: B Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 14) When a quantity is expressed as "4 cm/sec," what is being described is the A) flow rate. B) velocity of flow. C) pressure. D) pressure gradient. E) volume.
: B Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.3
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 142) When a blood vessel dilates, resistance through that vessel is ________.
: B Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.3
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 141) Joey develops a medical condition that decreases his blood viscosity. Assuming no other change (e.g., no compensatory reflex), what happens to his blood pressure?
: B Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.3
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 10) Each of the following changes will result in increased blood flow to a tissue except one. Identify the exception. A) increased blood volume B) decreased vessel diameter C) increased blood pressure D) decreased peripheral resistance E) relaxation of precapillary sphincters
: B Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 13) Which of the following will increase flow in a vessel the most? A) decrease length by 1 unit B) increase radius by 1 unit C) decrease viscosity by 1 unit D) All have the same effect on flow.
: B Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 117) Which of the following conditions would have the greatest effect on peripheral resistance? A) doubling the length of a vessel B) doubling the diameter of a vessel C) doubling the viscosity of the blood D) doubling the turbulence of the blood E) doubling the number of white cells in the blood
: B Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 145) When a blood vessel dilates, velocity of blood is ________.
: B Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 146) Blood pressure decreases during sleep. How does this affect velocity?
: B Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 148) If total cross-sectional area of blood vessels in an organ increases, what happens to velocity of blood through that organ?
: B Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 29) Red blood cell production increases when A) oxygen levels in the blood increase. B) oxygen levels in the blood decrease. C) carbon dioxide levels in the blood increase. D) carbon dioxide levels in the blood decrease. E) protein levels in the blood increase.
: B Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 78) The usual treatment for neonatal jaundice is exposing the infant to certain wavelengths of light. The infant wears only a diaper and undergoes the light treatment continuously for several days, even at night. Why can the infant's treatement then be discontinued? A) because light treatment stimulates liver growth B) because the transition between fetal hemoglobin to adult is complete C) because the light generates additional RBCs D) because the digestive tract is then large enough to secrete bile E) All of the answers are correct.
: B Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 33) The carrier protein that transports absorbed iron through the blood is A) hemoglobin. B) transferrin. C) erythropoietin. D) thrombopoietin. E) intrinsic factor.
: B Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the following terms with the correct descriptions. A. lymphocytes B. erythrocytes C. eosinophils D. platelets E. neutrophils 48) These cells contain hemoglobin and iron.
: B Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 32) Excess iron in the body is A) stored in bones. B) eliminated in the feces. C) stored in fatty tissues. D) found in white blood cells. E) All of the answers are correct.
: B Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 56) a stem cell dysfunction that produces too many blood cells
: B Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 14) Blood flow to a tissue will increase if the A) level of oxygen at the tissue increases. B) level of carbon dioxide at the tissue increases. C) pH rises. D) vessels constrict. E) All of the answers are correct.
: B Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.11
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 25) Reactive hyperemia is A) lack of blood flow due to an allergic reaction. B) increased blood flow following a period of reduced blood flow. C) increased blood pressure after stress. D) reflex contraction of smooth muscle in response to stress. E) None of the answers are correct.
: B Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.11
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 80) Which of the following is greater? A) heart rate normally B) heart rate during circulatory shock
: B Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.3
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 82) Which of the following is greater? A) blood pressure when the peripheral vessels dilate B) blood pressure when the peripheral vessels constrict
: B Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.3
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 71) Which of the following conditions would have the greatest effect on peripheral resistance? A) doubling the length of a vessel B) doubling the diameter of a vessel C) doubling the viscosity of the blood D) doubling the turbulence of the blood E) doubling the number of white cells in the blood
: B Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.3
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 23) Myogenic autoregulation means that A) increased blood pressure in a vessel triggers relaxation in that vessel. B) stretched smooth muscle in a blood vessel constricts reflexively. C) blood vessel diameter is adjusted by centers in the brain through monitoring blood pressure in areas throughout the body. D) increased blood pressure in a vessel triggers relaxation in that vessel and blood vessel diameter is adjusted by centers in the brain through monitoring blood pressure in areas throughout the body. E) stretched smooth muscle in a blood vessel constricts reflexively and blood vessel diameter is adjusted by centers in the brain through monitoring blood pressure in areas throughout the body.
: B Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 41) When blood pressure receptors sense a loss of blood pressure, they ________ their firing rate. A) increase B) decrease
: B Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 14) Most reflex movements are integrated by A) the brain. B) the spinal cord. C) central pattern generators. D) proprioceptors. E) effectors.
: B Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 29) found at the junction of tendons and muscle fibers
: B Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 7) The reflex that prevents a muscle from exerting too much tension is the A) stretch reflex. B) tendon reflex. C) flexor reflex. D) crossed extensor reflex. E) reciprocal reflex.
: B Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 36) The medical term for heart attack is A) heart failure. B) myocardial infarction. C) heart murmur. D) fibrillation. E) heart block.
: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 37) In the condition known as complete heart block, what happens? A) Coronary arteries are blocked by plaques, preventing blood and oxygen from reaching the myocardial contractile cells. B) Electrical signals from the SA node never reach the ventricles, so the contraction of the atria is not coordinated with the contraction of the ventricles. C) The fibrous skeleton of the heart breaks down, interfering with the passage of blood from the atria to the ventricles. D) The mitral valve leaflets calcify and close, preventing blood from being pumped efficiently by the left side of the heart. E) Blood flow through the foramen ovale is blocked.
: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 35) The AV node is important because it A) directs electrical impulses from the ventricles to the atria. B) delays the transmission of the electrical impulses to the ventricles in order for the atria to finish contracting. C) serves as the pacemaker in a normal heart. D) electrically opens the AV valves. E) None of these answers are correct.
: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 122) Put these autorhythmic cells into the correct order for conveying electrical signals through a normal heart. 1. bundle of His 2. internodal pathway 3. Purkinje fibers 4. atrioventricular node 5. sinoatrial nodes 6. left and right bundle branches A) 5, 2, 1, 6, 4, 3 B) 5, 2, 4, 1, 6, 3 C) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3 D) 3, 6, 1, 4, 2, 5 E) 5, 4, 1, 6, 2, 3
: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 51) During the cardiac cycle, A) the P wave of the ECG occurs between the first and second heart sounds. B) the QRS complex of the ECG precedes the increase in ventricular pressure. C) the third heart sound occurs during atrial systole. D) the second heart sound coincides with the QRS complex of the ECG. E) the greatest increase in ventricular pressure occurs during the ejection phase.
: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the name of the wave with the correlated event. A. P wave B. QRS complex C. T wave D. PR segment E. ST segment 67) immediately followed by ventricular contraction
: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 42) The QRS complex of an ECG corresponds to A) the depolarization of the atria. B) the progressive wave of ventricular depolarization. C) the repolarization of the ventricles. D) atrial repolarization. E) None of the answers are correct.
: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 43) A heart rate of 125 beats per minute could be correctly termed A) bradycardia. B) tachycardia. C) an arrhythmia. D) fibrillation. E) a normal resting heart rate.
: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 46) In electrocardiography, a lead is a(n) A) electrode. B) pair of electrodes. C) cable that attaches between the ECG machine and the body.
: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 47) Which event happens at the start of a cardiac cycle? A) Blood is ejected from the atrium. B) The SA node fires. C) The P wave develops. D) Ventricular systole occurs. E) Atrial systole occurs.
: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 50) During the isovolumic phase of ventricular systole, A) the atria contract. B) the atrioventricular valves and semilunar valves are closed. C) blood is ejected into the great vessels. D) the ventricles are relaxing. E) the ventricles are filling with blood.
: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 70) ventricular depolarization
: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 49) Which of the following events result in the first heart sound? A) The AV valves open. B) The AV valves close. C) The semilunar valves close. D) The semilunar valves open. E) The atria contract.
: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 129) Left ventricular pressure is higher than pressure in the aorta during A) atrial systole only. B) ventricular diastole only. C) ventricular systole only. D) atrial systole and ventricular systole E) All of the answers are correct.
: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 124) If the connection between the AV node and bundle of His becomes blocked, A) the ventricles will beat faster. B) the ventricles will beat more slowly. C) the ventricular rate of contraction will not be affected. D) the stroke volume will increase. E) tachycardia will occur.
: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 56) The cardiac output is equal to A) the difference between the end-diastolic volume and the end-systolic volume. B) the product of heart rate and stroke volume. C) the difference between the stroke volume at rest and the stroke volume during exercise. D) the stroke volume less the end-systolic volume. E) the product of heart rate and blood pressure.
: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 62) Drugs known as beta blockers will A) increase heart rate. B) decrease heart rate. C) increase stroke volume. D) increase cardiac output. E) decrease the end-systolic volume.
: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 132) A certain drug decreases heart rate by producing hyperpolarization in the pacemaker cells of the heart. This drug probably binds to A) nicotinic receptors. B) muscarinic receptors. C) alpha adrenergic receptors. D) beta receptors.
: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 130) In which of the following situations would the end-systolic volume (ESV) be the greatest? A) when sympathetic stimulation of the heart is increased B) when parasympathetic stimulation of the heart is increased C) when the force of myocardial contraction is increased D) when the intracellular stores of calcium are increased E) when stroke volume is increased
: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 133) Under which set of circumstances would the diameter of peripheral blood vessels be the greatest? A) increased sympathetic stimulation B) decreased sympathetic stimulation C) increased parasympathetic stimulation D) decreased parasympathetic stimulation E) both increased parasympathetic and increased sympathetic stimulation
: B Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 17) Interneurons of the corticospinal tract synapse onto A) visceral efferents. B) somatic efferents. C) interneurons of central pattern generators.
: B Section Title: The Integrated Control of Body Movement Learning Outcome: 13.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 18) The structure whose abnormal function is associated with Parkinson's disease is the A) spinal cord. B) basal ganglia. C) cerebellum. D) primary motor cortex. E) skeletal muscle.
: B Section Title: The Integrated Control of Body Movement Learning Outcome: 13.12
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 74) ________, ________, and ________ are called granulocytes because ________.
: Basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils, they contain cytoplasmic inclusions that give them a granular appearance Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 109) The sympathetic nervous system will cause vasodilation in the arteries of many blood vessels, but vasoconstriction in the brain. Why does this occur?
: Because the brain needs a relatively constant flow of blood, whether the body is at rest or under stress, it will try to maintain a constant level of perfusion to the brain. Since the sympathetic nervous system increases heart rate, blood will flow to the brain faster than it does while at rest, so by constricting the arteries, it will decrease the amount of blood each beat that reaches the brain and thereby keeping a fairly constant amount of blood flowing to the brain. Section Title: Distribution of the Blood to the Tissues Learning Outcome: 15.5
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 102) By binding to the Ca2+ channel proteins, drugs known as calcium channel blockers have two main effects. Name them. Why are some cells unaffected by these drugs?
: Binding to calcium channels makes them less likely to open, effectively blocking the normal inward calcium current that would result from neural or endocrine stimulation. This causes vasodilation and a decrease in heart rate. Insensitive tissues have a different subtype of calcium channel. Section Title: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 15.5
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 174) Explain what is meant by the terms respiratory pump and skeletal muscle pump. Why are these important to the cardiovascular system?
: Both refer to pressure exerted on the blood in veins that assist in venous return. During the pressure changes in the thoracic cavity associated with normal breathing, pressure in the thoracic portion of the inferior vena cava fluctuates, resulting in blood being drawn upward in the vena cava during each inhalation. Contractile activity of normal skeletal muscle momentarily squeezes the veins within and near the muscles, also helping to propel the blood. These and other slight pressure changes are essential because the overall pressure gradient of the venous system is low. Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 87) ________ refers to the mass movement of fluid between the blood and the interstitial fluid as the result of ________ or ________ pressure gradients. If the direction of bulk flow is into the capillary, the fluid movement is called ________. If the direction of flow is out of the capillary, the fluid movement is known as ________.
: Bulk flow, hydrostatic, osmotic; absorption; filtration Section Title: Exchange at the Capillaries Learning Outcome: 15.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 5) Which is NOT true regarding autonomic reflexes? A) Vomiting, sneezing, and coughing are all examples of autonomic reflexes. B) Integrating centers for autonomic reflexes in the brain include the hypothalamus, brain stem, and limbic system. C) Autonomic reflexes are all monosynaptic, with their synapse in the central nervous system. D) Many autonomic reflexes are characterized by tonic activity, a continuous stream of action potentials.
: C Section Title: Autonomic Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.2
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 85) monocytes
: C Section Title: Blood Cell Production Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 17) All of the following would cause an increase in blood pressure EXCEPT A) an increase in arterial resistance. B) a decrease in arterial diameter. C) a decrease in cardiac output. D) sympathetic stimulation.
: C Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 16) The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the A) systemic pressure. B) mean arterial pressure. C) pulse pressure. D) blood pressure. E) circulatory pressure.
: C Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 15) Blood pressure is determined by A) measuring the size of the pulse pressure. B) measuring the pressure in the left ventricle. C) measuring the force exerted by blood in a vessel. D) measuring the degree of turbulence in a closed vessel. E) All of the answers are correct.
: C Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.3
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 29) The importance of the plateau phase of the action potential of myocardial cells is in A) preventing overstretching of the cells. B) enhancing the efficiency of oxygen use by the cells. C) preventing tetanus. D) preventing fibrillation. E) regulating Ca2+ availability to the cells.
: C Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 23) The rapid depolarization phase of the action potentials of myocardial contractile cells is due to which ion(s)? A) Ca2+ only B) K+ only C) Na+ only D) both Ca2+ and K+ E) both Na+ and K+
: C Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 15) The sac around the heart is the A) peritoneum. B) pleural sac. C) pericardium. D) myocardium. E) epicardium.
: C Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 66) has three cuplike leaflets and has the aorta on one side
: C Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 20) The term myogenic indicates that the heart muscle is the source of A) the contractile force for pumping. B) a hormone that indirectly regulates blood volume. C) the electrical signal that triggers heart contraction. D) receptors that trigger blood pressure reflexes. E) stem cells that repair damaged heart tissue.
: C Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 120) As a result of the long refractory period, cardiac muscle cannot exhibit A) tonus. B) treppe. C) tetany. D) recruitment. E) fatigue.
: C Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 78) Edema is likely to occur when A) the concentration of protein in the blood increases. B) hemorrhage occurs. C) the heart becomes an insufficient pump. D) blood hydraulic pressure at the capillary decreases. E) the blood hydraulic pressure in a capillary is equal to the blood osmotic pressure.
: C Section Title: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 15.11
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 22) The matching of blood flow to the changing metabolic needs of a tissue is due to A) neural control. B) hormonal control. C) local control.
: C Section Title: Distribution of the Blood to the Tissues Learning Outcome: 15.11
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 23) integrated in the spinal cord, often modulated by the brain
: C Section Title: Neural Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 115) Place these structures in the order that blood returning to the heart from the body would pass through them. 1. right ventricle 2. left atrium 3. right atrium 4. pulmonary artery 5. left ventricle 6. pulmonary vein A) 4, 2, 5, 6, 3, 1 B) 2, 5, 6, 4, 3, 1 C) 3, 1, 4, 6, 2, 5 D) 1, 3, 6, 4, 5, 2 E) 3, 2, 4, 6, 1, 5
: C Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 3) The most accurate definition of artery is a vessel that A) carries highly oxygenated blood. B) contains smooth muscle in its wall. C) transports blood away from the heart. D) transports blood toward the heart. E) contains internal valves.
: C Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 6) Which artery/arteries branch(es) is/are most proximal to the beginning of the aorta at the heart? A) hepatic B) renal C) coronary D) carotid E) pulmonary
: C Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 3) The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are A) globulins. B) transport proteins. C) albumins. D) lipoproteins. E) fibrinogens.
: C Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.1
Human Physiology: An Integrated Approach, 6e (Silverthorn) Chapter 16 Blood 1) The total volume of blood in the body of a 70-kg man is approximately ________ liters. A) 25-30 B) 10-15 C) 5-6 D) 2-4 E) 1-2
: C Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 9) Which of the following statements about colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) is FALSE? A) CSFs are required to induce both cell division and cell maturation. B) CSFs regulate leukopoiesis. C) CSFs are made by epithelial cells. D) CSFs regulate leukopoiesis and CSFs are made by epithelial cells.
: C Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 11) ________ regulates the growth and maturation of megakaryocytes. A) Erythropoietin B) Interleukin C) Thrombopoietin D) Colony-stimulating factor E) None of the answers are correct.
: C Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 14) In normal adults, red blood cells are formed in A) the liver. B) the spleen. C) red bone marrow. D) yellow bone marrow. E) lymph nodes.
: C Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 19) The average life span of a red blood cell is A) 1 week. B) 1 month. C) 4 months. D) 6 months. E) 1 year.
: C Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 51) A type of granulocyte, these have red granules.
: C Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 12) Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone A) thymosin. B) angiotensin I. C) erythropoietin. D) M-CSF. E) cobalamin.
: C Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 20) The function of red blood cells is to A) remove carbon dioxide from the lungs. B) remove nitrogenous wastes from active tissues. C) carry oxygen from the lungs to the body's cells. D) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells. E) defend the body against infectious organisms.
: C Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 22) The porphyrin ring of heme contains an atom of A) magnesium. B) calcium. C) iron. D) sodium. E) copper.
: C Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 23) The majority of the protein inside a red blood cell is A) albumin. B) porphyrin. C) hemoglobin. D) immunoglobulin. E) fibrinogen.
: C Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 41) The process of fibrinolysis A) activates fibrinogen. B) draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together. C) dissolves clots. D) forms emboli. E) forms thrombi.
: C Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 38) The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor by a damaged endothelium. D) release of heparin from the liver. E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
: C Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 8) The driving force for blood flow is a(n) ________ gradient. A) osmotic B) volume C) pressure D) gravity
: C Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.3
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 140) The blood pressure in a vessel is 20 units at point A and 10 units at point B. One minute later, the pressure is 15 units at point A and five units at point B. Flow between those points is ________.
: C Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 57) Caused by a dietary deficiency, this condition results in red blood cells that are small and pale.
: C Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 31) Sinusoids are modified vessels that replace ________ in some tissues. A) arteries B) veins C) capillaries
: C Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 44) If a person is bedridden for several days, the baroreceptor reflex may fail upon standing. Why? A) Blood pools in the feet and legs. B) There is reduced blood flow to the brain. C) The kidneys have reduced the blood volume. D) Blood pools in the feet and legs and there is reduced blood flow to the brain. E) All of the statements are correct.
: C Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.11
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 18) The vessels that are the main site of variable resistance in the circulatory system, and that contribute more than 60% of the total resistance, are the A) muscular arteries. B) elastic arteries. C) arterioles. D) venules. E) veins.
: C Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.3
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 72) Each of the following factors would increase peripheral resistance except one. Identify the exception. A) increased sympathetic stimulation B) elevated levels of epinephrine C) vasodilation D) irregularities in the vessel walls caused by plaques E) factors that cause increased hematocrit
: C Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.3
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 73) If a person has a blood pressure of 120/80, her mean arterial pressure would be A) 200 mm Hg. B) 100 mm Hg. C) 93 mm Hg. D) 80 mm Hg. E) 40 mm Hg.
: C Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.3
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 29) Several blood-borne chemicals affect the lumen size of arterioles. Which are NOT paired correctly? A) kinins — vasodilation B) histamine — vasodilation C) serotonin — vasodilation D) sumatriptan — vasoconstriction E) epinephrine — vasoconstriction with alpha receptors
: C Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 24) Each of the following paracrines may cause vasodilation EXCEPT A) nitric oxide. B) H+ ions from metabolic acids. C) Ca2+. D) K+. E) CO2.
: C Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 37) The integrating center for neural control of blood pressure resides in the A) cerebrum. B) cerebellum. C) medulla oblongata. D) pons variolli. E) hypothalamus.
: C Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 38) Stretch-sensitive mechanoreceptors known as ________ are located in some artery walls. A) nociceptors B) chemoreceptors C) baroreceptors D) elasticeptors
: C Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 8) The flexion reflex A) prevents a muscle from overstretching. B) prevents a muscle from generating damaging tension. C) moves a limb away from a painful stimulus. D) makes adjustments in other parts of the body in response to a particular stimulus. E) is an example of a monosynaptic reflex.
: C Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 6) The sensory fibers of the muscle spindle organs synapse onto A) Golgi tendon organs. B) gamma motor neurons. C) alpha motor neurons. D) joint receptors.
: C Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 9) Angiogenesis is A) an examination of the arteries and veins. B) having blood drawn into a tube for tests. C) the growth of new blood vessels. D) surgical restructuring of the coronary arteries. E) being able to detect a pulse in arteries.
: C Section Title: The Blood Vessels Learning Outcome: 15.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 4) The inner lining of blood vessels is called A) endocardium. B) endoangium. C) endothelium. D) basal lamina. E) endostatin.
: C Section Title: The Blood Vessels Learning Outcome: 15.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 59) According to Starling's law of the heart, the cardiac output is directly related to the A) size of the ventricle. B) heart rate. C) venous return. D) thickness of the myocardium. E) end-systolic volume.
: C Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.10
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 17) At an intercalated disc, A) the cell membranes of two cardiac muscle fibers are completely separated by a synapse. B) the myofibrils are loosely attached to the membrane of the disc. C) two cardiac muscle cells are connected by gap junctions. D) t-tubules unite the membranes of the adjoining cells. E) All of the answers are correct.
: C Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 52) During ventricular systole, A) the atria are contracting. B) blood is entering the ventricles. C) the AV valves are closed. D) the pressure in the ventricles declines. E) the ventricles are relaxed.
: C Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 38) When the heart is in fibrillation, A) the myocardial cells may become damaged from contracting too fast. B) the myocardial cells deplete their oxygen supply because they are contracting too fast, and the lactic acid produced damages the myocardial cells. C) effective pumping of the ventricles ceases because the myocardial cells fail to work as a team, and the brain cannot get adequate oxygen. D) the myocardial cells are contracting together as they should; fibrillation indicates a normal sinus rhythm of 75 beats per minute. E) there is no contraction of the myocardium.
: C Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 40) ECGs A) provide direct information about the heart function. B) are most useful in diagnosing heart murmurs. C) show the summed electrical potentials generated by all cells of the heart. D) have two major components: waves and nodes. E) measure the mechanical activity of the heart.
: C Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 44) Ventricular contraction A) begins during the first part of the P wave. B) begins just after the T wave. C) begins just after the Q wave. D) begins during the latter part of the P wave. E) None of the answers are correct.
: C Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 69) ventricular repolarization
: C Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 126) Abnormally slow conduction through the ventricles would change the ________ in an ECG tracing. A) P wave B) T wave C) QRS complex D) PR interval E) RT interval
: C Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 128) Put these phases of the cardiac cycle in the correct order. 1. opening of the semilunar valves 2. isovolumic contraction 3. beginning of atrial systole 4. closure of the AV valves 5. completion of ventricular filling 6. beginning of ventricular systole 7. ventricular relaxation 8. ventricular ejection A) 4, 5, 1, 2, 7, 8, 3, 6 B) 3, 2, 6, 1, 4, 5, 8, 7 C) 3, 5, 6, 4, 2, 1, 8, 7 D) 3, 5, 6, 1, 8, 4, 2, 7 E) 3, 2, 6, 4, 5, 8, 7, 1
: C Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 127) If there is a blockage between the AV node and the AV bundle, how will this affect the appearance of the electrocardiogram? A) The PR interval will be smaller. B) The QRS interval will be longer. C) There will be more P waves than QRS complexes. D) There will be more QRS complexes than P waves. E) The T wave will disappear.
: C Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 54) The term used to describe the amount of blood in the ventricle available to be pumped out of the heart during the next contraction is A) cardiac output (CO). B) heart rate (HR). C) end-diastolic volume (EDV). D) stroke volume (SV). E) end-systolic volume (ESV).
: C Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 55) The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the A) end-diastolic volume. B) end-systolic volume. C) stroke volume. D) cardiac output. E) cardiac reserve.
: C Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 73) the amount of blood in the ventricle available to be pumped out of the heart during one contraction
: C Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: reflexive Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 114) Nociceptors activate ________ pathways that provide protection by allowing rapid responses to noxious stimuli.
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 131) If the EDV is 140 mL, which other values are most likely to occur in a healthy, normal person? A) The ESV could be 70 mL and the SV could be 90 mL. B) The ESV could be 90 mL and the SV could be 50 mL. C) The ESV could be 50 mL and the SV could be 90 mL. D) The cardiac output could be 90 mL. E) Diastolic pressure would be equal to EDV.
: C Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 137) Manganese ions block the calcium channels in the cardiac muscle membrane. How would the presence of manganese in the extracellular fluid affect the contraction of the heart muscle? A) The plateau phase of contraction would be longer. B) The refractory period would be shorter. C) The heart would beat less forcefully. D) The heart rate would increase. E) The contraction phase would be prolonged.
: C Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 15) Which class of movement can be considered a combination of the other two? A) reflex B) voluntary C) rhythmic
: C Section Title: The Integrated Control of Body Movement Learning Outcome: 13.11
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 34) Restoring lost fluid from the capillaries back to the circulatory system is one of the major functions of the ________ system. A) urinary B) thirst-quenching C) lymphatic D) immune E) digestive
: C Section Title: The Lymphatic System Learning Outcome: 15.8
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 74) The lymphatic system A) has heart-like pumps called lymph nodes. B) stores blood when circulatory demand is low. C) empties the lymph vessels into the veins near the clavicles. D) can be removed without health consequences. E) All of the answers are correct.
: C Section Title: The Lymphatic System Learning Outcome: 15.8
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 94) What effect does a calcium channel blocker have on the heart, the blood pressure, and cardiac output? Why?
: Calcium channel blockers inhibit the opening of calcium channels and ensuing calcium current. Vascular smooth muscle dilates, and heart rate decreases. Vasodilation will result in a decrease in systemic blood pressure, and the decrease in heart rate will decrease cardiac output. Section Title: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 15.5
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 162) Explain how Ca2+ levels inside myocardial cells are altered.
: Calcium enters the cell through voltage-gated calcium channels in the cell membrane. Calcium ions then open ryanodine receptor channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, resulting in calcium-induced calcium release. Calcium ions are transported back into the SR by a calcium ATPase, or removed from the cell by a sodium-calcium antiport protein. Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.5
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 160) Discuss the attachments between adjacent cardiac muscle cells. What features are important anatomically and physiologically? Is there a disadvantage to this arrangement?
: Cardiac muscle cells are joined by structures called intercalated disks. Abutting cells both have desmosomes, to tightly hold the cells together to withstand the physical force of contraction, and gap junctions, which act as tiny tunnels for ions to cross between cells. In this way, action potentials flow across cardiac muscle cells without disruption, as if the cells were one. One disadvantage of gap junctions is that they can be shut down, promoting fibrillation, which occurs when the cardiac muscle cells contract independently. Rather than producing useful pumping, the heart is only quivering as the teamwork of these millions of cells ceases. Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 90) Define, compare, and contrast "clot busters" and anticoagulants; describe how each works.
: Clot busters are enzymes that destroy clots that have already formed, while anticoagulants prevent clots from forming in the first place. Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.6
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 107) One of the most common signs of polycystic kidney disease is hypertension in an otherwise seemingly healthy individual. Why would cysts on the kidney lead to higher blood pressure?
: Cysts developing on the kidney will put pressure on the kidneys and decrease the ability of the blood vessels in the kidney to filter out urine, causing an increase in plasma in the blood and higher blood pressure. Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.11
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 84) eosinophils
: D Section Title: Blood Cell Production Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 21) Which organ is NOT part of the cardiovascular system and plays an important role in regulating blood pressure? A) liver B) spleen C) lung D) kidney E) skin
: D Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 28) A typical action potential of a myocardial contractile cell lasts ________ millisecond(s). A) less than 1 B) 1-5 C) 50-100 D) at least 200 E) at least 500
: D Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 31) If channels are permeable to A) Na+ only B) K+ only C) Ca2+ only D) Na+ and K+ E) Ca2+ and K+
: D Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 25) The flattening of the action potentials of myocardial contractile cells, called the plateau phase, is due to a combination of ________ K+ permeability and ________ Ca2+ permeability. A) increasing, increasing B) decreasing, decreasing C) increasing, decreasing D) decreasing, increasing
: D Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 24) During the plateau phase of the action potentials of myocardial contractile cells, which ion(s) is/are crossing the membrane? A) Ca2+ only B) K+ only C) Na+ only D) both Ca2+ and K+ E) both Na+ and K+
: D Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 27) The end of the plateau phase is due to the ________ of Ca2+ channels and ________ of K+ channels. A) opening, opening B) closing, closing C) opening, closing D) closing, opening
: D Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 18) In the heart, valves are located A) just between the atria and the ventricles. B) just between the ventricles and the arteries. C) just between the great veins and the atria. D) between atria and ventricles and between ventricles and arteries. E) just between the right and left ventricles.
: D Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 64) a semilunar valve that has the right ventricle on one side
: D Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 84) Tom suffers from hypertension (high blood pressure). Which of the following might help deal with his problem? A drug that A) stimulates α1 receptors in cardiac muscle tissue. B) blocks α2 receptors in cardiac muscle tissue. C) stimulates cAMP formation in cardiac muscle tissue. D) blocks beta receptors in cardiac muscle tissue. E) blocks muscarinic receptors in cardiac muscle tissue.
: D Section Title: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 15.10
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 32) Compared to arteries, the velocity of flow of the blood through the capillaries is A) at least 10 times faster. B) at least twice as fast. C) about the same. D) much slower. E) impossible to predict without more information.
: D Section Title: Exchange at the Capillaries Learning Outcome: 15.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 35) Osmotic pressure resulting from presence of plasma proteins in blood is called ________ pressure. A) oncotic B) colloid osmotic C) hydrostatic D) oncotic and colloid osmotic E) colloid osmotic and hydrostatic
: D Section Title: Exchange at the Capillaries Learning Outcome: 15.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the type of reflex to its description. A. somatic B. autonomic C. spinal D. cranial E. innate F. acquired G. polysynaptic 19) integrated in the brain
: D Section Title: Neural Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.1
Human Physiology: An Integrated Approach, 6e (Silverthorn) Chapter 14 Cardiovascular Physiology 1) In the 16th century, William Harvey discovered evidence that A) the cardiovascular system transports blood and air. B) the cardiovascular system is an open system. C) arteries and veins are linked by capillaries. D) blood is recirculated instead of consumed. E) the liver manufactures blood.
: D Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 17) The primary stimulus for the release of erythropoietin is A) hypoxemia only. B) low oxygen levels in the tissues only. C) low blood pressure only. D) hypoxemia and low oxygen levels in the tissues. E) hypoxemia, low oxygen levels in the tissues, and low blood pressure.
: D Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 5) Monocytes leave the circulation to go to the tissues, where they are called A) eosinophils. B) basophils. C) lymphocytes. D) macrophages. E) neutrophils.
: D Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 10) ________ are a group of diseases characterized by the abnormal growth and development of white blood cells, and ________ are diseases where patients have too few white blood cells. A) Neutropenias, leukemias B) Anemias, leukemias C) Neutropenias, anemias D) Leukemias, neutropenias E) Leukemias, anemias
: D Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 49) These are fragments of a megakaryocyte.
: D Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 21) A hemoglobin molecule is composed of A) just two protein chains. B) just three protein chains. C) just four protein chains and nothing else. D) four protein chains and four heme groups. E) four heme groups but no protein.
: D Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 40) The common pathway of coagulation begins with the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor by a damaged endothelium. D) activating of a clotting factor that converts prothrombin to thrombin. E) activation of a clotting factor that converts fibrinogen to fibrin.
: D Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.4
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) Match the change with the cardiovascular event described. A. increased B. decreased C. unchanged D. stopped 139) The blood pressure in a vessel is 10 units at point A and 10 units at point B. Flow between those points is ________.
: D Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.3
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 12) As blood vessel length increases, A) resistance increases only. B) flow decreases only. C) friction decreases only. D) resistance increases and flow decreases. E) both resistance and flow increase.
: D Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 30) The process of red blood cell production is called A) erythrocytosis. B) erythropenia. C) hemocytosis. D) erythropoiesis. E) hematopenia.
: D Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 7) The percentage of cells in blood-producing tissues that become white blood cells is about ________%. A) 90 B) 10 C) 50 D) 25 E) 75
: E Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 31) Each red blood cell is shaped as a biconcave disk. This allows it to A) change its shape to squeeze through narrow openings. B) shrink or swell slightly in response to osmotic conditions. C) synthesize new proteins and membrane components readily. D) change its shape to squeeze through narrow openings and shrink or swell slightly in response to osmotic conditions. E) change its shape to squeeze through narrow openings, shrink or swell slightly in response to osmotic conditions, and synthesize new proteins and membrane components readily.
: D Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 25) A hematocrit is used to indicate A) only the ratio of red blood cells to the total blood volume. B) only the packed cell volume. C) only coagulation time. D) the ratio of red blood cells to the total blood volume and the packed cell volume. E) All of the answers are correct.
: D Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.3
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 28) The percentage of whole blood occupied by red blood cells is the A) viscosity. B) specific gravity. C) pH. D) hematocrit. E) differential cell count.
: D Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.3
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 55) genetic condition resulting in crescent moon-shaped red blood cells
: D Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.5
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 83) Increased levels of carbon dioxide in the blood will result in A) decreased heart rate. B) decreased cardiac output. C) decreased blood flow to the lungs. D) decreased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart. E) All of the answers are correct.
: D Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.11
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 75) The cardiovascular control center in the brain can directly cause A) arterioles to dilate or constrict. B) the heart rate to increase or decrease. C) the contractility of the heart to increase or decrease. D) arterioles to dilate or constrict and the heart rate to increase or decrease. E) All of the answers are correct.
: D Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.11
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 30) ________ capillaries are very porous and allow high volumes of fluids to pass through them, whereas ________ capillaries consist of more tightly joined cells that allow a high degree of selective materials to pass. A) Fenestrated, transcytotic B) Continuous, fenestrated C) Transcytotic, continuous D) Fenestrated, continuous E) Transcytotic, fenestrated
: D Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 43) When the baroreceptor reflex is triggered by a decline in blood pressure, A) sympathetic activity increases. B) cardiac output increases. C) peripheral resistance decreases. D) sympathetic activity increases and cardiac output increases. E) sympathetic activity increases, cardiac output increases, and peripheral resistance decreases.
: D Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 9) The reflex that complements a withdrawal reflex by making compensatory adjustments on the opposite side of the body receiving the stimulus is the A) stretch reflex. B) tendon reflex. C) flexor reflex. D) crossed extensor reflex. E) reciprocal reflex.
: D Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.10
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 10) It is the middle of winter and you walk over an icy patch and lose your balance. As you begin to fall, you react by extending your arms to catch yourself. In this instance, what type of reflex is occurring? A) stretch reflex B) tendon reflex C) flexor reflex D) crossed extensor reflex E) reciprocal reflex
: D Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.10
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 11) Spinal interneurons prevent muscle antagonists from interfering with an intended movement by A) initiating a crossed extensor reflex. B) initiating a stretch reflex. C) initiating a tendon reflex. D) the process of reciprocal inhibition. E) activating reverberating circuits.
: D Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.10
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 5) Smooth muscle is present in the walls of A) veins only. B) arteries only. C) muscular arteries only. D) all vessel types except capillaries. E) all vessel types.
: D Section Title: The Blood Vessels Learning Outcome: 15.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 6) The highly branched contractile cells that regulate capillary permeability are called A) podocytes. B) vascular smooth muscle. C) endothelial cells. D) pericytes. E) epitheliocytes.
: D Section Title: The Blood Vessels Learning Outcome: 15.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 10) Angiostatin and endostatin may be useful in the treatment of A) myocardial infarction. B) hypertension. C) hypotension. D) cancer. E) vasovagal syncope.
: D Section Title: The Blood Vessels Learning Outcome: 15.11
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 48) In order for blood to enter the heart, A) the atria must be in diastole. B) the pressure in the atria must be lower than in the veins. C) the AV valves must be open. D) the atria must not only be at rest but the atrial pressure must be lower than the veins. E) All of the answers are correct.
: D Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 68) atrial contraction
: D Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 45) Atrial contraction A) begins during the first part of the P wave. B) begins just after the T wave. C) begins just after the Q wave. D) begins during the latter part of the P wave. E) None of the answers are correct.
: D Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 60) Which of these will increase the heart rate? A) only sympathetic stimulation to the SA node B) only the application of epinephrine to the SA node C) only the application of acetylcholine to the SA node D) both sympathetic stimulation and application of epinephrine to the SA node E) both sympathetic stimulation and application of acetylcholine to the SA node
: D Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match each term with its definition. A. cardiac output (CO) B. heart rate (HR) C. end-diastolic volume (EDV) D. stroke volume (SV) E. end-systolic volume (ESV) 72) the amount of blood pumped out of the heart during one contraction
: D Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 181) You are constructing working models of the heart for extra credit. Your first attempt failed because the cells separated from each other during beating. What structures did you omit, and why did this allow the heart to fall apart? You omitted the gap junctions in your second attempt. How would a real heart fail to function normally without gap junctions?
: Desmosomes were omitted. Without desmosomes, the contractile force of the heart would be large enough to separate the cells from each other. Without the gap junctions, the electrical currents that stimulate contraction would not be propagated from cell to cell, and the heart would fail to beat. Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 76) What is a differential white cell count and when is it used?
: Differential white cell count estimates the relative numbers of the five types of white blood cells. It is used by clinicians for diagnosis. See discussion under "Colony-Stimulating Factors Regulate Leukopoiesis." Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluation) 117) Describe what a nurse hears through the stethoscope while using a blood pressure cuff, and explain the significance of the sounds.
: During a normal reading, the first thing the nurse hears is the absence of sound, because there is no blood flowing through the brachial artery; she has successfully compressed the artery with the inflated cuff. As soon as she has released enough pressure to allow blood to flow again, she hears the rumbling sounds of turbulent blood flow through a partially compressed artery. As she continues to release pressure, eventually the blood flows smoothly again as the artery is no longer compressed. The cuff pressure at the initial sound is the systolic blood pressure, and the cuff pressure when the sounds then disappear is the diastolic blood pressure. Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.3
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 182) Vern, suffering from cardiac arrhythmias, is brought into the emergency room of a hospital. He begins to exhibit tachycardia and as a result loses consciousness. His anxious wife asks you why he has lost consciousness. What would you tell her?
: During tachycardia, the heart beats at an abnormally fast rate. The faster the heart beats, the less time there is between contractions for it to fill with blood again. As a result, over a period of time the heart fills with less and less blood and thus pumps less blood out. The stroke volume decreases, as does the cardiac output. When the cardiac output decreases to the point where not enough blood reaches the central nervous system, loss of consciousness occurs. Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match each leukocyte to its normal percentage in a differential cell count. A. 50-70% B. 20-40% C. 2-8% D. 1-4% E. < 1% 83) basophils
: E Section Title: Blood Cell Production Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 12) Which of the following is occurring during systole? A) blood pressure increases B) pulse pressure decreases C) more stress is placed on arterial walls D) blood pressure increases and pulse pressure decreases E) blood pressure increases and more stress is placed on arterial walls
: E Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 22) Stretching a myocardial cell A) only decreases the force of a contraction. B) only allows more Ca2+ to enter. C) only increases the force of contraction. D) decreases the force of a contraction and allows more Ca2+ to enter. E) allows more Ca2+ to enter and increases the force of a contraction.
: E Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 46) For a diagnosis of hypertension, a patient must have A) a systolic pressure above 120 mm Hg. B) a systolic pressure above 140 mm Hg. C) a diastolic pressure above 90 mm Hg. D) a diastolic pressure below 80 mm Hg. E) a systolic pressure above 140 mm Hg or a diastolic pressure above 90 mm Hg.
: E Section Title: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 15.10
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 81) Which of the following is/are (a) possible treatment(s) for hypertension? A) calcium channel blockers B) ACE inhibitors C) ANP blockers D) chloride leak channel blockers E) calcium channel blockers and ACE inhibitors
: E Section Title: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 15.10
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 2) A polysynaptic reflex has at least ________ in the reflex pathway. A) one synapse B) two synapses C) two neurons D) three neurons E) two synapses and three neurons
: E Section Title: Neural Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.1
Human Physiology: An Integrated Approach, 6e (Silverthorn) Chapter 13 Integrative Physiology I: Control of Body Movement 1) The effector in a reflex is the A) control center. B) afferent neuron. C) efferent neuron. D) sensory receptor. E) muscle or gland.
: E Section Title: Neural Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 44) help(s) defend the body against germs
: E Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 13) Thrombopoietin is produced in the A) liver only. B) kidney only. C) spleen only. D) bone marrow only. E) liver and kidney.
: E Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 8) Colony-stimulating factors are cytokines made by A) endothelial cells. B) fibroblasts from bone marrow. C) white blood cells only. D) endothelial cells and fibroblasts from bone marrow. E) endothelial cells, fibroblasts from bone marrow, and white blood cells.
: E Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 81) Tom suffers from a severe liver disease. Which of the following symptoms would you expect to see as a result of this condition? A) decreased clotting ability B) decreased blood osmotic pressure C) increased levels of bilirubin in the blood D) accumulation of fluid in the tissue spaces of the extremities E) All answers are correct.
: E Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 37) Platelets are A) large cells that lack a nucleus. B) small cells that lack a nucleus. C) large cells with a prominent, indented nucleus. D) small cells with a many-shaped nucleus. E) fragments of large cells.
: E Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 36) Platelets function in A) transporting chemicals important for clotting. B) forming temporary patches in injured areas. C) contraction after clot formation. D) initiating the clotting process. E) All of the answers are correct.
: E Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 34) Which of the following is/are vasoconstrictors? A) platelet-activating factor B) serotonin C) adenosine diphosphate D) thromboxane A2 E) serotonin and thromboxane A2
: E Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 79) How would a decrease in the concentration of iron in the blood affect the process of hemostasis? A) Platelet plugs would fail to form. B) Coagulation would proceed more rapidly. C) Coagulation would proceed more slowly. D) Retraction would occur prematurely. E) There would be no effect.
: E Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the name of the pathological condition with its description. A. hereditary spherocytosis B. polycythemia vera C. iron-deficiency anemia D. sickle cell disease E. anemia 53) general term for the condition of low hemoglobin in the blood
: E Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 68) Compensation for decreased blood volume includes increases in A) sympathetic stimulation to blood vessels. B) sympathetic stimulation of the heart. C) water conservation by the kidneys. D) sympathetic stimulation to blood vessels and water conservation by the kidneys. E) sympathetic stimulation to blood vessels, sympathetic stimulation of the heart, and water conservation by the kidneys.
: E Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.11
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 70) Regarding the cardiovascular system, the main role(s) of the kidneys is/are to A) restore lost fluid to the blood and therefore raise blood pressure. B) minimize fluid loss from the blood and therefore maintain blood pressure. C) reduce blood volume and therefore reduce blood pressure. D) restore lost fluid to the blood and therefore raise blood pressure and minimize fluid loss from the blood and therefore maintain blood pressure. E) minimize fluid loss from the blood and therefore maintain blood pressure and reduce blood volume and therefore reduce blood pressure.
: E Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.11
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 42) Blood pressure and cardiac output can be altered according to A) body temperature. B) emotional responses. C) blood oxygen levels. D) body temperature and emotional responses. E) body temperature, emotional responses, and blood oxygen levels.
: E Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.3
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 28) In order to cause vasodilation of most vascular smooth muscle, A) acetylcholine combines with nicotinic receptors. B) acetylcholine combines with muscarinic receptors. C) norepinephrine combines with alpha receptors. D) norepinephrine combines with β1 receptors. E) sympathetic stimulation is removed.
: E Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.5
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 50) Ten-year-old Tina falls while climbing a tree and lands on her back. Her frightened parents take her to the local emergency room where she is examined. Her knee jerk reflex is normal and she exhibits a negative Babinski reflex. These results suggest that A) Tina has injured one of her descending nerve tracts. B) Tina has injured one of her ascending nerve tracts. C) Tina has a spinal injury in the lumbar region. D) Tina has a spinal injury in the cervical region. E) Tina suffered no damage to her spinal cord.
: E Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.12
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 49) When there is a resistance to the movement produced by a given limb muscle, A) gamma motor neurons are inhibited by higher brain centers. B) there is a decrease in the amount of force generated by extrafusal muscle fibers. C) the muscle involved in the movement immediately shortens when stimulated. D) intrafusal fibers receive fewer action potentials from the gamma motor neurons. E) muscle tone is increased and more motor units are recruited to the contraction.
: E Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 8) The only blood vessels whose walls permit exchange between the blood and the surrounding interstitial fluids are the A) arterioles. B) venules. C) capillaries. D) arterioles and capillaries. E) venules and capillaries.
: E Section Title: The Blood Vessels Learning Outcome: 15.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 3) ________ are also known as the pressure reservoir of the cardiovascular system. A) Veins B) Venules C) Capillaries D) Arterioles E) Arteries
: E Section Title: The Blood Vessels Learning Outcome: 15.1
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 123) The ECG of a person suffering from complete heart block would show A) an increased PR interval. B) an inverted P wave. C) no visible T wave. D) a smaller QRS complex. E) more P waves than QRS complexes per minute.
: E Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 58) Epinephrine and norepinephrine increase ion flow through ________ channels. A) Na+ only B) K+ only C) Ca2+ only D) If only E) If and Ca2+
: E Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 75) the amount of blood left in the ventricle after it contracts
: E Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 134) Acetylcholine slows the heart rate by A) just increasing ion influx, thus increasing the rate of depolarization. B) just increasing the permeability to Ca2+. C) just increasing the permeability to K+. D) just decreasing the permeability to Ca2+. E) increasing the permeability to K+ and decreasing the permeability to Ca2+.
: E Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 16) Most reflexes are regulated by A) the brain. B) the spinal cord. C) ganglia. D) positive feedback. E) negative feedback.
: E Section Title: The Integrated Control of Body Movement Learning Outcome: 13.12
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 77) The continual movement of fluid through the interstitial space functions to A) accelerate the distribution of nutrients and hormones. B) assist the transport of insoluble substances that cannot enter the capillaries. C) help carry toxins and bacteria to cells of the immune system. D) flush hormones and wastes from the interstitial space. E) All of the answers are correct.
: E Section Title: The Lymphatic System Learning Outcome: 15.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 25) our experiences tell us how to behave; bracing yourself in anticipation would be an example
: F Section Title: Neural Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 47) A muscle at rest exerts no tension. Is this statement true or false? Explain your answer.
: False. Normal muscles maintain a resting tension known as muscle tone. Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 45) ________ allows the body to anticipate a stimulus and begin the response, whereas negative feedback results in the ________ of a response.
: Feedforward, cessation Section Title: Control of Movement in Visceral Muscles Learning Outcome: 13.2
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 159) Distinguish between blood flow rate and blood flow velocity. When an expert in the field uses the term blood flow, does that term usually mean rate or velocity?
: Flow rate is the volume of blood passing by a point per unit time. Velocity is how quickly a given amount of blood passes a point per unit time. Flow rate is usually what the expert is discussing. Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4
: Level IV: Quantitative Problems (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 123) Using the appropriate formula, what effect does changing the following vessel diameters have on blood flow? A. diameter = 8 mm, decreasing to 6 mm B. diameter = 8 mm, increasing to 12 mm C. diameter = 10 mm, decreasing to 5 mm D. diameter = 10 mm, increasing to 20 mm
: Flow ΔP/R and R 1/r4. A. Radius changes from 4 to 3, 44 = 256, 34 = 81, 256/81 = 3.16, so flow decreases by a factor of 3.16. B. Flow increases by a factor of 5.06. C. Flow decreases by a factor of 16. D. Flow increases by a factor of 16. Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.2
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 72) A. Ernie, an experienced batter, steps up to the plate, looks off into the distance, and plans where to hit the baseball. He then swings the bat, connects with the ball, sends it into the air, and follows through the swing with his arms, hips, and knees, and shifts his weight from one leg to the other. He watches the ball fly away, and takes off for first base. Explain what areas of the central nervous system are working during each phase of the action outlined, and which step is controlled by each part. B. Continue to integrate this with information from other topics as the action continues: Ernie hears the umpire yell "Infield fly! Batter's out!" He remembers the rules of the game, slows his pace, and leaves the baseline before arriving at first base.
: For part A, see "The Integrated Control of Body Movement" section of the chapter. For part B, students can include information learned in Chapters 9 and 10. Section Title: The Integrated Control of Body Movement Learning Outcome: 13.12
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 113) The rule that states "Within limits, the heart pumps all of the blood that returns to it" is known as the ________.
: Frank-Starling Law of the Heart Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.10
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 20) several neurons involved in a pathway; can be complex
: G Section Title: Neural Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.1
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 164) Explain why a heart can keep beating after it has been removed from a living body.
: Heart tissue is autorhythmic; thus it does not require stimulation by nerves. Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 108) An individual who becomes dehydrated will have an elevated hematocrit. Explain how dehydration leads to an elevated hematocrit although blood cell production is normal.
: Hematocrit = packed red blood cell volume/total blood volume. A dehydrated person will have a lower plasma volume, but red blood cell volume will remain constant. This results in an elevated hematocrit and the condition known as relative polycythemia. Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.3
: C Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 126) If a person's cornea is flatter than normal, this person is A) presbyopic. B) myopic. C) hyperopic. D) hypopic. E) astigmatic.
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 98) What is the difference between hemostasis and homeostasis, or are they the same?
: Hemostasis is the process that minimizes blood loss from the body. Homeostasis is the process that maintains normal physiology. Hemostasis is a type of homeostasis. Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.6
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 119) While a nurse takes a blood pressure measurement on a patient, what determines how much the pressure cuff should be inflated? How would the nurse determine if he inflated the cuff too much? Too little?
: How much to inflate the cuff is determined from what systolic pressure is expected. Therefore, factors such as age and weight, BP history, and suspected cardiovascular pathology are relevant. The higher the cuff pressure, the greater the chance of causing a patient pain. The nurse would not know for certain he had inflated the cuff too much until he opened the valve to reduce pressure, and determined the systolic blood pressure, at which point he could conclude that he inflated the cuff more than necessary. If he had inflated the cuff insufficiently, he would hear sounds associated with flowing blood as soon as he begins to listen through the stethoscope. Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.3
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 168) Why is it necessary to direct the electrical signals in the heart through the AV node instead of allowing them to spread directly from the atria to the ventricles?
: If electrical signals from the atria were conducted directly into the ventricles, the ventricles would start contraction at the top. The blood would be squeezed downward and would be trapped in the bottom of the ventricles. Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 67) Explain how an animal with a paralyzing spinal injury can be induced to walk, though it can't walk on its own. Diagram and label the structures involved. (Hint: Keep it simple; for example, you could draw a rectangle and label it "right leg muscle" and another for the left, and don't worry about drawing all neurons involved, just enough to show you understand the basics. You may wish to start with a simple sketch of a muscle reflex then add on to it as necessary.)
: If the animal is supported on a moving treadmill, the central pattern generators involved in walking will become active and will produce coordinated contraction and relaxation of limb muscles. Diagram should include a cross section of the spinal cord with an area labeled "central pattern generator," a sensory afferent, and a motor efferent as in any sketch of a reflex. Section Title: The Integrated Control of Body Movement Learning Outcome: 13.11
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 113) Millie's grandfather suffers from congestive heart failure. Whenever she visits him, she notices that his ankles and feet appear to be quite swollen. She knows that you are an avid student of anatomy and physiology, and she asks you why this occurs. What would you tell her?
: In heart failure, the heart is not able to produce enough force to circulate the blood properly. The blood tends to pool in the extremities and as more and more fluid accumulates in the capillaries, the blood hydraulic pressure increases. This results in a fluid shift from the blood to the interstitial space. The fluid accumulation exceeds the ability of the lymphatics to drain it and as a result, edema occurs and produces the obvious swelling. Section Title: The Lymphatic System Learning Outcome: 15.8
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 112) Tom loves to soak in hot tubs and whirlpools. One day he decides to raise the temperature in his hot tub as high as it will go. After a few minutes in the very warm water, he feels faint, passes out, and nearly drowns. Luckily he is saved by an observant bystander. Explain what happened.
: In response to the high temperature of the water, Tom's body shunted more blood to the superficial veins to decrease body temperature. The dilation of the superficial veins caused a shift in blood to the arms and legs and resulted in a decreased venous return. Because of the decreased venous return, the cardiac output decreased and less blood (and less oxygen) was delivered to the brain. This caused Tom to feel light-headed and faint, nearly causing his demise. Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.11
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 93) Blood clotting is considered to be an example of a positive feedback situation. Explain why this is so, and demonstrate the appropriate steps or areas of hemostasis as part of your explanation.
: In the blood clotting process, each step triggers a new step(s), by activating enzymes or putting components together that were previously separated. Some of the products formed "feed back" to enhance earlier reactions, sustaining the cascade until some components are completely consumed. See Figure 16.9 in the chapter. Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 96) Why is there a loss of blood volume when a patient is confined to bed for two or three days? What symptoms commonly follow this confinement?
: Inactivity causes edema, because of the lack of skeletal muscle pump. The accumulated fluid of edema represents loss from the blood capillaries. This decreased blood volume causes decreased blood pressure, which may give the patient a sense of light-headedness upon standing. Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.7
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 175) A chronotropic agent is one that affects the heart rate. Compare and contrast this term with an inotropic agent. Give specific examples of each.
: Inotropic agents affect contractility. Catecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine) and drugs such as digitalis are positive inotropic agents, meaning they increase contractility. Heart rate is increased by epinephrine (a positive chronotropic agent) and decreased by acetylcholine (a negative chronotropic agent); there is also a variety of drugs that affect heart rate. Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: C Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 65) A blind spot in the retina occurs where A) the fovea is located. B) ganglion cells synapse with bipolar cells. C) the optic nerve leaves the eye. D) rod cells are clustered to form the macula. E) amacrine cells are located.
: D Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 5) Opening a Na+ channel in a non-neural sensory receptor cell would cause that cell to A) depolarize. B) hyperpolarize. C) generate an action potential. D) decrease neurotransmitter release.
: E Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 69) Which of the following cells involved in processing visual information in the retina synapse with the rods? A) horizontal cells only B) ganglion cells only C) bipolar cells only D) horizontal and bipolar cells only E) horizontal, ganglion, and bipolar
: B Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 10) The larger the receptive field, the A) stronger the stimulus intensity required to activate a sensory receptor. B) more primary sensory neurons synapse on a secondary sensory neuron. C) fewer primary sensory neurons are involved. D) larger the area of the somatosensory cortex in the brain that perceives the sensation.
: Sensorineural Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 101) ________ hearing loss occurs because of damage to the structure of the inner ear.
: D Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 11) The perception threshold describes the A) intensity of stimulus required to generate a receptor potential. B) intensity of stimulus required to generate an action potential. C) convergence of information from multiple primary sensory neuron onto a single secondary neuron. D) concept that neurons higher in the sensory pathway can dampen the intensity of a stimulus.
: hypothalamus and limbic system Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 112) Because of involvement of the ________, pain may be accompanied by emotional distress and nausea or sweating.
: A Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 12) A decrease in ones perception of a stimulus whose intensity has not changed due to higher neural inhibition is A) habituation. B) convergence. C) divergence. D) adaptation.
: A Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 16) Phasic receptors A) are quick to adapt to a particular stimulus intensity. B) slowly decrease the frequency of action potentials generated to a constant stimulus. C) are attune to parameters that the body must continuously assess. D) once threshold is reached by a stimulus will always generate action potentials.
: C Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 18) Which of the following is NOT a somatosensory modality? A) proprioception B) touch C) vision D) nociception E) temperature
: D Section Title: Chemoreception: Smell and Taste Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 31) When Golf is activated, which of the following steps in the olfactory cells contribute to their depolarization? A) increases in adenylate cyclase only B) increases in cAMP concentrations only C) increases in the closure of cAMP gated cation channels only D) increases in adenylate cyclase activity and cAMP concentrations E) increases in adenylate cyclase activity, cAMP concentrations and closure of cAMP gated cation channels
: D Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.3
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 4) A graded change in membrane potential within a sensory receptor cell is always called a(n) A) depolarization. B) hyperpolarization. C) action potential. D) receptor potential.
: D Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 50) Louder noises result in action potentials in the sensory neuron that are A) taller. B) shorter. C) broader. D) more frequent. E) less frequent.
: D Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 51) Collateral pathways take vestibular receptor signals from the medulla to the A) reticular formation only. B) thalamus only. C) cerebellum only. D) reticular formation and cerebellum. E) thalamus and reticular formation.
: B Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 6) With the exception of olfaction, all sensory pathways first travel to the ________, which acts as a relay and processing station. A) cerebrum B) thalamus C) cerebellum D) hypothalamus E) medulla oblongata
: labeled line coding Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 86) The brain's association of activation of a receptor with the perception of a particular sensation is called ________.
: Phasic receptors Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 88) ________ are sensory receptors that respond to changes in a stimulus by altering their firing which rapidly stops as the stimulus is maintained.
: nociceptor Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 89) Activation of a ________ leads to the perception of pain and itch.
: gustducin; ion channels Section Title: Chemoreception: Smell and Taste Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 93) The initial response to sweet and umami involves the bind to a receptor, which activates the protein ________ whereas salty and sour stimulate ________.
: E Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 17) Which of the following are responsible for a receptor adapting to a stimulus? A) K+ channel inactivation only B) Na+ channel inactivation only C) opening of Na+ channels only D) opening of K+ channels only E) Na+ channel inactivation or K+ channel opening
: B Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 20) The tactile receptor whose nerve endings are surrounded by concentric connective tissue layers is the A) Ruffini corpuscle. B) Pacinian corpuscle. C) Meissner's corpuscle. D) Merkel disc. E) root hair plexus.
: C Section Title: Chemoreception: Smell and Taste Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 32) Gustatory cells that respond to sour via release of serotonin are called A) type I taste cells. B) type II taste cells. C) type III taste cells. D) basal taste cells.
: B Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 60) The vitreous chamber of the eye A) contains the lens. B) helps to stabilize the structure of the eye and the retina. C) contains blood vessels that nourish the retina. D) is located between the lens and the iris.
: C Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 21) Sensory receptors that respond when body temperature is below normal are called A) warm receptors. B) photoreceptors. C) cold receptors. D) All receptors respond to temperatures above and below body temperature (no unique name).
: A Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 25) Chronic pain is A) only pathological. B) only treated by analgesic drugs. C) only the result of short-term changes in the nervous system. D) pathological and treated by analgesic drugs.
: A Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 29) Beta-endorphin is produced from the same prohormone as A) adrenocorticotropin (ACTH). B) insulin. C) aldosterone. D) thyroxine. E) glucagon.
: B Section Title: Chemoreception: Smell and Taste Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 33) Gustatory cells that respond to sweet, bitter or umami are called A) type I cells. B) type II cells. C) type III cells. D) type IV cells.
: C Section Title: Chemoreception: Smell and Taste Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 37) There are ________ primary taste (gustation) sensations. A) 2 B) 4 C) 5 D) 20 E) 400
: A Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 41) The ion channels that transduce the vibration of the cochlea into receptor potentials are located on the A) stereocilia. B) tectorial membrane. C) helicotrema. D) cochlear duct. E) basilar membrane.
: D Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 45) A structure that allows the middle ear to communicate with the nasopharynx is the A) pinna. B) membranous labyrinth. C) bony labyrinth. D) eustachian tube. E) auditory meatus.
: C Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 49) The highest frequency sound is detected by A) unique hair cells located anywhere along the basilar membrane. B) hair cells located near the middle of the basilar membrane. C) hair cells located near the oval window end of the basilar membrane. D) hair cells located near the helicotrema end of the basilar membrane. E) the frequency at which the stereocilia vibrate.
: D Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 53) ________ between hair cell stereocilia ensure that when the largest stereocilia is bent, all of the sterocilia are bent thereby gating more ion channels. A) Kinocilia B) Otoliths C) Utricles D) Tip links
: D Section Title: The Ear: Equilibrium Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 57) The hair cells of utricle and saccule are clustered in A) ampullae. B) cristae. C) cupulae. D) maculae. E) otoliths.
: C Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 61) The central opening in the eye through which the light passes on to the retina is the A) conjunctiva. B) cornea. C) pupil. D) lens. E) fovea.
: Endolymph Section Title: The Ear: Equilibrium Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 98) ________ is the fluid contained in the membranous labyrinth (vestibular apparatus).
: B Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the specific receptor to its typical stimulus. A. free nerve ending B. Merkel receptor C. Meissner's corpuscle D. Ruffini corpuscle E. Pacinian corpuscle 79) texture
: A Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the stimulus to the type of receptor that typically responds to it. A. chemoreceptor B. mechanoreceptor 75) oxygen
: B Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) Match the type of receptor with the appropriate description. A. chemoreceptors B. touch receptors C. thermoreceptors D. nociceptors 71) The most studied examples of this type are phasic receptors called Pacinian corpuscles.
: Conductive Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 100) ________ hearing loss results from conditions that affect the ability of sound wave that have entered the external ear from generating/transmitting a vibration that will reach the cochlea.
: ciliary muscle Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 110) The ________ adjusts the shape of the lens to keep objects in focus.
: D Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 14) The modality of a stimulus can be determined within the central nervous system by A) population coding. B) lateral inhibition. C) frequency coding. D) adequate stimulus for the sensory receptor cell.
: B Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 15) Tonic receptors A) are quick to adapt to a particular stimulus intensity. B) slowly decrease the frequency of action potentials generated to a constant stimulus. C) are attune to changes in a parameter, not the extent of that change. D) will always decrease to the point where no action potentials are generated.
: D Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 19) Which of the following statements regarding pathways for somatic perception projection is correct? A) The tertiary sensory neurons cross-over the body's midline. B) The synapse for the secondary to tertiary sensory neuron is within the medulla. C) The longest of the secondary sensory neurons transmit fine touch and proprioceptive information. D) Primary sensory neurons from the hands project to a specific region of the somatosensory cortex. E) Primary sensory neurons that respond to cold sensation project to the same region of the somatosensory cortex.
: A Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 2) Which of the following would be an adequate stimulus for a chemoreceptor? A) oxygen B) cell stretch C) photon of light D) cold temperature E) vibration
: D Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 22) Nociceptors are responsible for the perception of A) pain only. B) skin stretch only. C) itch only. D) pain and itch. E) pain and skin stretch.
: B Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 23) Sharp, localized (fast) pain is rapidly transmitted to the central nervous system along A) large, unmyelinated C fibers. B) small, myelinated A-delta fibers. C) small, unmyelinated C fibers. D) large, myelinated A-beta fibers.
: D Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 26) Chemicals such as histamine, prostaglandins, serotonin, and substance P A) only sensitize nociceptors. B) only activate nociceptors. C) only inhibit nociceptors. D) only sensitize and activate nociceptors. E) sensitize, activate and inhibit nociceptors.
: A Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 27) In addition to temperature, cold receptors respond to A) menthol. B) capsaicin. C) alcohol. D) water.
: C Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 3) Identify the FALSE statement regarding sensory receptor cells. A) Threshold is the minimal stimulus intensity required to generate an action potential. B) Sensory transduction converts stimulus energy into a receptor potential. C) Each type of sensory receptor responds only to the stimulus that defines the receptor. D) A graded potential is referred to as a receptor potential. E) Many sensory receptor cells are NOT nerve cells.
: D Section Title: Chemoreception: Smell and Taste Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 30) Neuronal cells that are short-lived and therefore are frequently replaced are A) gustatory receptors. B) nociceptors. C) Pacinian corpuscles. D) olfactory receptors. E) retinal cells.
: E Section Title: Chemoreception: Smell and Taste Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 34) ________ is released from type II cells to stimulate primary gustatory neurons. A) Serotonin B) Gustducin C) Acetylcholine D) Glutamine E) ATP
: B Section Title: Chemoreception: Smell and Taste Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 35) Umami is A) another name for salty taste. B) a taste receptor cell activated by glutamate and nucleotides. C) a flavor enhancer that is part of olfaction. D) the name of the ion channel activated by glutamate.
: A Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 38) The loudness or intensity of a sound wave is related to its A) amplitude. B) frequency. C) duration. D) pitch.
: B Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 39) The pitch of a sound wave is related to its A) amplitude. B) frequency. C) duration. D) decibels.
: D Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 42) The external auditory canal ends at the A) vestibule. B) cochlear oval window. C) malleus. D) tympanic membrane. E) pinna.
: A Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 43) The bones within the middle ear connect the A) tympanic membrane to the oval window. B) tympanic membrane to the round window. C) oval window to the round window. D) cochlea to the tympanic membrane. E) cochlea to the oval window.
: C Section Title: The Ear: Equilibrium Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 46) The receptors of equilibrium and hearing are the A) utricles. B) saccules. C) hair cells. D) supporting cells. E) ampullae.
: B Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 47) The structure that overlies the organ of Corti and is attached to the tips of the hair cells is the A) basilar membrane. B) tectorial membrane. C) stapedius. D) perilymph. E) endolymph.
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 59) The decrease in blood pressure upon standing is known as ________.
: orthostatic hypotension Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.11
: A Section Title: The Ear: Equilibrium Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 54) Which structures monitor rotational acceleration of the head? A) cristae of the semicircular canals B) maculae of the saccule only C) maculae of the utricle only D) maculae of the utricle and saccule
: D Section Title: The Ear: Equilibrium Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 55) Sensations of the forces of gravity and linear acceleration are detected in the A) semicircular canals. B) cochlea. C) ossicles. D) saccule and utricle. E) organ of Corti.
: C Section Title: The Ear: Equilibrium Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 58) Our perception of the pull of gravity and linear acceleration is the result of A) changes in the pressure exerted by the cupula on hair cells. B) vibrations of the tectorial membrane striking hair cells. C) the pressure exerted by the otolithic organ on hair cells of the maculae. D) the movement of the otolithic organ within the ampullae of the semicircular canals.
: C Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 59) The hair cell of the semicircular canal hyperpolarize when the stereocilia are bent A) in any direction. B) towards the kinocilium. C) away from the kinocilium. D) towards the longest stereocilia. E) Hair cells are not hyperpolarized by bending of the sterocilia.
: B Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 62) The ciliary muscle helps to A) control the amount of light reaching the retina. B) control the shape of the lens. C) control the production of aqueous humor. D) move the eyeball.
: C Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 63) An area of the retina that contains only cones and is the site of sharpest vision is the A) outer segment. B) inner segment. C) fovea. D) optic disc. E) tapetum lucidum.
: B Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 66) Which of the following cells is NOT localized to the retina? A) rods B) vertical C) bipolar D) cones E) amacrine
: A Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 67) The photosensitive pigment synthesized from vitamin A is A) retinal. B) opsin. C) rhodopsin. D) transducin. E) cGMP.
: B Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.3
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 7) A receptor potential is A) an action potential. B) a graded potential. C) the resting membrane potential of a receptor cell. D) always converted to an action potential in sensory receptor cells.
: C Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 70) Photoreceptors secrete the neurotransmitter A) acetylcholine. B) norepinephrine. C) glutamate. D) dopamine.
: D Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 73) These receptors respond to stimuli that are harmful or potentially harmful to body tissues and lead to the perception of pain.
: A Section Title: Chemoreception: Smell and Taste Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 74) These are probably the oldest sensory receptors as evidenced by their existence in primitive animals that do not have formalized nervous systems.
: A Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 76) pH
: B Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 77) stretch
: C Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 8) The two-point discrimination test A) is used to determine clarity of vision. B) provides information about olfactory receptors. C) provides a measure of receptive field size for touch receptors. D) is used to test for hearing disorders. E) monitors the activity of taste buds.
: C Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 80) flutter
: D Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 81) stretch
: E Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 82) vibration
: A Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 83) temperature
: perceptual threshold Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 85) A stimulus below the ________ will activate sensory neurons, but the signal will not reach the conscious brain because higher neurons dampen it.
: tonic receptors Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 87) Sensory neurons that maintain their firing as long as the stimulus is present are called ________.
: taste buds Section Title: Chemoreception: Smell and Taste Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 90) Gustatory receptors are clustered in individual ________.
: cAMP gated cation channels, increase Section Title: Chemoreception: Smell and Taste Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 92) Activation of Golf in the olfactory receptor cells causes ________ to open, which causes the frequency of action potentials to ________.
: ATP; serotonin Section Title: Chemoreception: Smell and Taste Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 94) Primary sensory neurons transmitting information on sweet and umami are activated by release of ________ whereas salty and sour are activated by release of ________.
: Perilymph Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 95) ________ is the fluid within the vestibular and tympanic duct of the cochlea.
: potassium, sodium Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 96) Endolymph is a unique fluid in the cochlear duct that contains more ________ and less ________ than the typical extracellular fluid.
: organ of Corti Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 99) The hair cells of the cochlear duct are located in the ________.
: D Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 13) The intensity of a stimulus can be determined within the central nervous system by A) population coding only. B) labeled line coding only. C) frequency coding only. D) population coding and/or frequency coding. E) labeled line coding and/or frequency coding.
: transducer Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 84) A sensory receptor is a ________ that converts a stimulus into electrical graded potentials.
: C Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 9) Convergence describes A) the reason why receptive fields are so small. B) how one primary sensory receptor neurons synapses with a secondary neuron. C) how multiple primary sensory neurons synapse on a single secondary neuron. D) how receptive fields can overlap with one another.
: dendrites (cilia) Section Title: Chemoreception: Smell and Taste Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 91) Each olfactory receptor cell extends a(n) ________ into the mucus layer.
: C Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 24) Visceral pain is poorly localized and can be perceived to originate from a region of the body that is different from it's actual location; this is called A) analgesia. B) adaptation. C) referred pain. D) tonic reception. E) latency.
: B Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 28) The gate control theory of pain modulation states that pain transmission can be blocked by A) cold stimulation of the A-delta fibers. B) mechanical stimulation of A-beta fibers. C) stimulation of C-fibers. D) tonic activity of the inhibitory neurons in the dorsal horn.
: C Section Title: Chemoreception: Smell and Taste Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 36) Signal transduction in the type II taste cells relies on the G protein A) Golf. B) Ggus. C) gustducin. D) transducin.
: B Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 40) The primary purpose of the middle ear bony structures (maleus, incus and stapes) is to A) equalize pressure in the middle ear. B) amplify the vibration as it conducts to the cochlea. C) dampen the vibration as it conducts to the cochlea. D) transmit otitis media to the cochlea. E) transduce the sound waves into vibration.
: E Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 44) Sound waves are converted into mechanical movements (vibrations) by the A) malleus. B) cochlea. C) oval window. D) round window. E) tympanic membrane.
: B Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 48) The structure that separates the cochlear duct from the tympanic duct is the A) tectorial membrane. B) basilar membrane. C) membranous labyrinth. D) bony labyrinth. E) stapedius.
: B Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 52) The hair cell of the cochlea is depolarized when the stereocilia are bent A) in any direction. B) towards the smallest stereocilia. C) towards the tallest stereocilia. D) towards the middle stereocilia. E) Hair cells are not depolarized by bending of the sterocilia.
: E Section Title: The Ear: Equilibrium Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 56) The cilia of the hair cells of the semicircular canals are embedded in the A) saccule. B) ampullae. C) cristae. D) utricle. E) cupula.
: A Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 64) Accomodation describes the focusing of light on the retina by changing A) the shape of the lens. B) pupillary diameter. C) the shape of the cornea. D) distance of the retina from the lens.
: C Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 68) On a dark night, the rods have a high concentration of A) opsin. B) cAMP. C) cGMP. D) kinase.
: C Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 72) These receptors slowly adapt, and would be activated when the skin is between 20-40° C.
: B Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 118) After an injury, Paul has difficulty recognizing and interpreting certain sounds. These symptoms imply damage to the A) external ear. B) auditory cortex. C) middle ear. D) cochlea.
: D Section Title: The Ear: Equilibrium Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 119) The release of neurotransmitter from a vestibular hair cell into the synapse with a sensory neuron would increase A) in response to any mechanical stimulation of the hair cell. B) when the stereocilia of the hair cell are displaced away from the kinocilium. C) when the stereocilia are equally displaced to either side of the kinocilium. D) when the stereocilia of the hair cell are displaced toward the kinocilium.
: C Section Title: The Ear: Equilibrium Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 123) A viral infection involving the vestibular nuclei may result in A) loss of hearing. B) loss of sight. C) a sense of dizziness. D) local paralysis. E) high blood pressure.
: C Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 124) A decrease in the release of neurotransmitter from the photoreceptor would indicate a(n) A) decrease in light intensity. B) lack of light reaching the retina. C) increase in light intensity. D) change in focus of the lens onto a distant object.
: D Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 130) Damage to the fovea of the eye would interfere with the ability to A) focus an image. B) regulate the amount of light striking the retina. C) detect objects in the periphery of ones field of vision. D) detect the detailed image of objects in the middle of ones field of vision. E) detect color images.
: D Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 131) When a rod located in the retina is stimulated by light, A) the cell depolarizes. B) the inactive form of retinal associates with bleached opsin. C) the activity of transducin decreases. D) the release of neurotransmitter increases. E) the intracellular concentration of cGMP decreases.
: lesser (fewer) Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 135) Greater visual acuity results from convergence of ________ numbers of photoreceptors onto retinal ganglion cells.
: Pain is a perception, not a type of stimulus. Nociceptors (the correct term) respond to particular types of potentially damaging stimuli, such as abnormally high or low temperatures, or abnormally high pressure or chemical concentrations. Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.1
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 150) Explain why calling receptors for noxious stimuli "pain receptors" is inaccurate. What is the more accepted term for these receptors?
: Chemoreceptors respond to the binding of chemical ligands. Mechanoreceptors respond to mechanical energy (pressure, vibration, acceleration: usually by alterations in membrane stretch). Thermoreceptors respond to temperature. Photoreceptors respond to light. Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.1
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 153) List and define the four major receptor groups.
: C Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 117) Inhibiting adenyl cyclase in olfactory sensory neurons would A) increase the sensitivity of these receptors. B) expand the range of sensitivity of these receptors. C) reduce the sensitivity of these receptors. D) convert the olfactory receptors from phasic to tonic receptors. E) have no effect on these receptors.
: C Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 125) If the sodium pump in the membranes of the photoreceptors were completely blocked, the result would be A) bright white light as all cones would be activated. B) an increase in visual acuity. C) darkness (blindness). D) grey images as only rods would function. E) the cells would not be able to produce glutamate.
: B Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 132) Put these structures of the visual system in the order that they transmit light to the retina. 1. lens 2. aqueous humor 3. cornea 4. vitreous humor A) 3, 4, 1, 2 B) 3, 2, 1, 4 C) 1, 2, 3, 4 D) 1, 4, 3, 2 E) 2, 3, 4, 1
: B Section Title: The Ear: Equilibrium Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 122) For astronauts in space, the otoliths in the macula would respond to A) head position only. B) linear acceleration only. C) rotational acceleration only. D) linear acceleration and head position.
: C Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 133) Put these structures of the visual system in the order that they transmit visual information from the retina. 1. optic disk 2. visual cortex of the occipital lobe 3. optic chiasm 4. lateral geniculate body of the thalamus A) 3, 1, 2, 4 B) 3, 1, 4, 2 C) 1, 3, 4, 2 D) 1, 3, 2, 4 E) 1, 2, 3, 4
: An adequate stimulus is the form of energy to which a receptor is most responsive. A threshold stimulus is the minimum depolarization required to trigger an action potential in a sensory neuron. Perceptual threshold is the minimum stimulus required for a person to be aware that peripheral receptors were stimulated, which can be greater than the threshold stimulus for the sensory neuron. Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.1
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 148) Distinguish between adequate stimulus, threshold stimulus, and perceptual threshold.
: The most notable difference between the two is the timing. Fast pain is sharp and localized. It is rapidly transmitted by myelinated A-δ fibers to the CNS, while slow pain is carried on unmyelinated C fibers. Slow pain is described as duller and more diffuse. Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 152) Aside from the obvious, describe the differences between slow and fast pain.
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 95) Make a map using the following terms: bile, bilirubin, ferritin, heme, hemoglobin, intestine, iron in diet, kidney, plasma, spleen, transferrin. You may also add additional terms.
: Maps will vary. See Figure 16.6c in the chapter. Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.2
: The cells that respond to sensation from a particular body part are organized as a map of the body surface. Thus, cortex cells that respond to sensation from the elbow are located near cells that respond to sensation from the proximal forearm. Furthermore, the number of cortex cells devoted to a sensation is proportional to the sensitivity of that part-there are many more cells for sensation from fingers and lips than from the back or thighs. Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.5
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 156) Describe the topographic organization of the somatosensory cortex.
: Stimulation of a receptor is not sufficient to produce sensation that is perceived by the individual. The signals must be enough to allow a photoreceptor to alter neurotransmitter release enough to generate an action potential in the ganglion cell (which a single photon is not). In addition, even if there is a change in release of neurotransmitter, there is processing of visual signals within the retina (amacrine, horizontal and bipolar cells) and in the different brain areas to which that information travels. Thus, not all signals make it to the conscious brain—that is, a single photon is below the perceptual threshold of the visual system. Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 163) While a photoreceptor responds to a single photon of light, a person cannot see a single photon. Explain.
: B Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the ganglion cell response to the location of the light stimulus. A. fully excited B. fully inhibited C. weak response 142) Light only shines on the center of an off-center visual field.
: D Section Title: The Ear: Equilibrium Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) Match the symptoms to the problem. A. damage to the cerebral cortex B. degeneration of hair cells C. ringing in the ears D. dizziness and nausea E. problems with structures of the middle ear 137) Ménière's disease
: B Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 120) Low frequency sound waves create the maximum displacement of the basilar membrane ________, where that membrane is ________. A) near the helicotrema , stiffer B) near the helicotrema, flexible C) near the oval window, stiffer D) near the oval window, flexible E) in the middle, stiffer
: B Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 127) The following steps occur in rods when they are excited by a photon of light. Place them in the correct sequence. 1. Membrane sodium channels close. 2. cGMP is broken down. 3. The membrane hyperpolarizes and the rate of neurotransmitter release declines. 4. Transducin is activated. 5. Opsin is activated. A) 1, 5, 2, 4, 3 B) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3 C) 3, 5, 2, 1, 4 D) 4, 5, 2, 1, 3 E) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
: C Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 129) Why do objects viewed underwater with a mask appear closer and larger than they really are? A) Water is denser than the lens of the eye. B) Light moves more slowly through the water. C) The mask provides additional refraction of light before it reaches the retina. D) The cornea does not function in water, and the light is not refracted as much. E) Light traveling through the water scatters more than it does when moving through the air.
: decrease (reduction) Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 134) With the photoreceptor already stimulated with a moderate light intensity, a(n) ________ in light intensity is required to open more sodium channels.
: C Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 138) tinnitus
: A Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 139) central hearing loss
: B Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 140) sensorineural hearing loss
: A Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 143) Light only shines on the center of an on-center visual field.
: B Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 144) Light only shines on the surround of an off-surround visual field.
: A Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 145) Light only shines on the surround of an on-surround visual field.
: C Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 146) Diffuse light illuminates both center and surround of on-center cell.
: The area of the brain that is stimulated by activity in a particular receptor always perceives the same sensation, regardless of the true nature of the stimulus. For example, a primary auditory cortex neuron interprets as sound both a sound stimulus and an artificial electrical stimulus to a cochlear neuron. In this example, the label is "sound" (the adequate stimulus for the receptor) and the line is all of the neurons involved in the pathway from cochlea to auditory cortex. Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.4
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 149) Explain labeled line coding and provide a specific example. What exactly is the "label" and the "line" in your example?
: In the gate control theory, pain is lessened by an integrated response that reduces the signal sent along the pain pathway. In the region where the noxious/painful stimulus is applied, the C fibers are activated. In this same region of the body, the mechanical rubbing of the site where the pain was initiated activates A-beta fibers to increase the activity of the inhibitory interneuron, which reduce the frequency of the pain signal transmitted to the central nervous system. Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 155) Discuss the gate control theory of pain modulation.
: Pitch is a function of the frequency of sound waves, measured in waves per second (hertz). High frequency waves are interpreted as high-pitched sounds. Loudness is the perception of sound intensity and varies within each individual. The intensity is a function of wave amplitude, measured on a logarithmic scale (units are decibels). The perception of sound frequency is related to the specific hair cell along the basilar membrane that is stimulated: high frequency vibrates the membrane (and thereby hair cells) near the oval window whereas low frequency vibrates hair cell towards the helicotrema. The intensity of sound is communicated by the frequency of action potential that are generated in the cochlear nerve cell (Primary sensory neuron) by the extent of release of neurotransmitter from the hair cell: the more the hair cell depolarizes, the greater the release of neurotransmitter and thereby greater depolarization of the cochlear nerve resulting in a greater frequency of action potentials. Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 158) Describe pitch and loudness and how these are properties of sound are processed by the cochlea.
: The retina consists of layers of cells, with the posterior layer containing the photoreceptors (rods and cones). Photoreceptors synapse onto bipolar cells, which in turn synapse onto an anterior layer of retinal ganglion cells, whose axons comprise the optic nerve. Also present are horizontal cells, which synapse with photoreceptors and bipolar cells, and amacrine cells, which synapse with bipolar and ganglion cells. Cones are sensitive to color and are most concentrated in a spot called the fovea. Another spot is the optic disk or blind spot, where the axons of all ganglion cells merge into the optic nerve, and where there are no photoreceptors. Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 160) Discuss the structure of the retina, including any distinguishing "regions."
: Light-on bipolar cells are inhibited in the dark (due to photoreceptor release of glutamate) and released from this inhibition in the light. Light-off bipolar cells are the opposite. They are activated by the glutamate released in the dark and inhibited in the light. The difference between these cell types is the type of glutamate receptor. ON bipolar cells have metabotropic glutamate receptor (mGluR6) that hyperpolarize the cell in the dark when glutamate release is highest. OFF bipolar cells have an ionotropic glutamate receptors that open channels in the presence of glutamate to depolarize the cell. Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 161) List and describe the two types of retinal bipolar cells and how they respond differently to the same neurotransmitter?
: The cochlea is made up of the vestibular duct, cochlear duct, and tympanic duct. The vestibular and tympanic ducts are continuous at the helicotrema (found at the tip of the cochlea). Their fluid, perilymph, is similar to plasma. The cochlear duct is filled with endolymph, which is similar in composition to intracellular fluid and is secreted by epithelial cells in the duct. The cochlear duct contains the organ of Corti, which sits on the basilar membrane and is partially covered by the tectorial membrane. These membranes move in response to fluid waves in the vestibular duct and bend the hair cells found in the organ of Corti. When the hair cells move, the stereocilia bend as well and cause the opening of more ion channels and depolarization. Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 159) Discuss the structure and function of the cochlea.
: C Section Title: The Ear: Equilibrium Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 121) Movement of the cupula in the ampullae of the semicircular canals allows detection of A) high frequency sound. B) low frequency sound. C) rotational movements. D) a change in body position with respect to gravity. E) linear acceleration.
: A Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 128) A sudden flash of bright light would cause A) parasympathetic activation to contract the pupillary constrictor muscles. B) sympathetic activation to contract the pupillary constrictor muscles. C) parasympathetic activation to contract the pupillary dilator muscles. D) sympathetic activation to contract the pupillary dilator muscles. E) contraction of the ciliary muscle.
: D Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 136) Which two sensory systems contain structures called maculae? A) gustatory and olfactory B) olfactory and auditory C) auditory and vestibular D) vestibular and visual E) visual and somatosensory
: E Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 141) conductive hearing loss
: C Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 147) Diffuse light illuminates both center and surround of on-surround cell.
: Lateral inhibition increases the contrast between receptive fields with the greater extent of activation and the nearby, lesser stimulated, fields. If a stimulus activates three primary neurons with the one in the middle receiving the strongest stimulus, each will activate their secondary neurons. However, the secondary neuron with the strongest stimulus suppresses the response of the other two activated secondary neurons while allowing its own signal to proceed on its pathway without interference. This allows for a greater contrast between the center and sides of the receptive field and a more precise localization of the stimulus. Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.4
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 151) Describe how lateral inhibition allows for localization of a stimulus.
: Level IV: Quantitative Problems (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 124) Place these organs in order of descending percentage of blood flow received at rest: bones and other connective, brain, digestive organs and liver, heart, kidneys, lungs, skeletal muscle, skin.
: Lungs (100%) > liver and digestive (27%) > skeletal muscle (21%) > kidneys (20%) > brain (14%) > bone and other (9%) > skin (5%) > heart (4%). Section Title: Distribution of the Blood to the Tissues Learning Outcome: 15.11
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 177) Diagram at least seven different factors that affect the components of the equation that relates cardiac output to heart rate and stroke volume. Explain each factor involved.
: See Figure 14.22 in the chapter. Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: The four properties of a stimulus are modality, location, intensity, and duration. Modality, or nature of the stimulus, is indicated by which neurons are activated and where their associated sensory pathways terminate. As each receptor type has an adequate stimulus and labeled line coding ensures that whenever that receptor is activated, the adequate stimulus will be perceived independent of what activated the sensory receptor associated with a particular region of the body. The cerebrum and other brain areas are highly organized into topographic maps of the receptive fields of their sensory receptors, ensuring that location of a stimulus is accurately detected. The number of receptors activated and the frequency of action potentials along the sensory pathway both increase as stimulus intensity is increased. The information on duration depends upon the adaptive properties of the receptor: tonic provide continuous information on a particular parameter whereas phasic provide information that a parameter has changed. Section Title: General Properties of Sensory Systems Learning Outcome: 10.5
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 154) Explain how sensory coding and processing allow the central nervous system to communicate information on the four properties of a stimulus.
: Sweet (sugar), sour (acid), salty (certain chemical salts), bitter (alkaloid), and umami (savory: glutamate and some nucleotides) are the five sensations. The sweet and umami are type II cells that involve receptor-mediated (T1R) activation of the G protein gustducin and subsequent increase in intracellular calcium, which releases ATP. The other type II cells are bitter, which is similar to those above but requires the T2R receptor to initiate the response. For salty and sour (type I cells), there is direct activation of ion channels to stimulate the release of serotonin. The salty activate the apical ENaC (epithelial sodium channel) to increase the influx of sodium whereas acidic environment alters the gating of ion channels. Section Title: Chemoreception: Smell and Taste Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 157) List the five taste receptors, what they respond to and describe how each of these receptors transduce that response.
: First, the density of photoreceptive cones is highest at the fovea. Second, each photoreceptor is associated with a single bipolar cell, which prevents the convergence of information within this region of the retina. Third, light does not have to pass through the layers of cells (amacrine, horizontal, etc) before reaching the photoreceptors within the fovea. Less diffraction of light means greater visual acuity. Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 162) Provide three reasons for the greater visual acuity at the fovea.
: It is true that a brain is required to feel pain. Pain is a perception triggered by potentially damaging stimuli to peripheral receptors. Just as we are deaf or blind if auditory or visual brain areas do not function (or are not present), we feel no pain without brain processing of noxious stimuli. Cutting into the brain without anesthetizing is possible because the brain lacks the receptors that respond to noxious stimuli, thus there are no painful inputs for the brain to process. Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 166) "No brain, no pain" is a cute phrase, but is it true that a brain is required to feel pain? Explain. Brain surgery can be performed on awake patients with anesthesia only to the overlying tissues. Does this indicate that "no brain, no pain" is just a rhyme with no scientific basis? Explain.
: Aspirin inhibits prostaglandins (anti-inflammatory) and slows the transmission of pain signals from the site of injury to the brain. Opiates like morphine act on a special class of receptor molecules in the CNS called opioid receptors. Opiates decrease the secretion of neurotransmitter from the primary sensory neurons and post-synaptic inhibition of secondary sensory neurons. The discovery of the mode of action of opiates, that is, the discovery of specific receptors for opiate drugs, led scientists to search for and discover naturally occurring opiates in the CNS-enkephalins and endorphins. Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 170) Describe the action of aspirin and opiates in pain relief. What does your answer suggest about opiates?
: Brain plasticity is the reorganization of synapses according to how much different parts of the brain are used. An advantage is that people who lose a sensation, such as vision, may develop greater sensation in another area, such as the fingertips of a blind person who uses Braille to read. A disadvantage is that the process is imperfect, and sensations may persist from a body part that is no longer there, such as phantom pain from an amputated limb. Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 167) Explain brain plasticity, and give an advantage and a disadvantage of this process.
: Olfactory pathways branch off from the olfactory cortex pathway and lead to parts of the limbic system (amygdala and hippocampus) involved with emotion and memory. It is not clearly understood, but because odors are processed through the limbic system, olfactory memories are created. When the smell is encountered again, it acts as a stimulus for both the olfactory pathway as well as the memory pathway (via the limbic system). Section Title: Chemoreceptor: Smell and Taste Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 169) Why does there seem to be a link between smell and memory?
: Olfactory receptors are phasic. They fire rapidly when they are initially exposed to the smell, but they quickly adapt and cease firing when stimulus (smell) remains constant. They adapt to the new steady state and then turn off so that you don't notice the smell after a little while. Section Title: Chemoreceptor: Smell and Taste Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 168) You work in a paper mill. The smell is horrible every day when you get to work, but by the end of the day, you hardly notice it. Why?
: Level IV: Quantitative Problems (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 121) Calculate the mean arterial pressure (MAP) for each example listed. A. a person with a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg B. a person with a blood pressure of 130/95 mm Hg
: MAP = diastolic P + 1/3 (systolic P - diastolic P) A. MAP = 80 + 1/3 (40) = 93 mm Hg B. MAP = 95 + 1/3 (35) = 107 mm Hg Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.2
: Level IV: Quantitative Problems (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 122) Arthur's peripheral resistance has increased by 10%. To prevent his mean arterial pressure from changing, what factor must change to compensate, and by how much?
: MAP CO × R Arthur's cardiac output will have to decline by 10%. Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.2
: A map of the somatosensory cortex would show that the area corresponding to the phantom hand and forearm is adjacent to the area corresponding to the face. What has happened is the hand cortex has been invaded by the sensory fibers that normally only activate the face area of the cortex. Since the territory for the hand is vacated (not receiving any stimulation), those facial sensory fibers have begun to activate cells there causing the phantom limb sensation. Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 173) Months after the accident, your amputee uncle's phantom limb pain subsides. One afternoon he is sleeping and you see a fly walk across his upper lip. He wakes up and tells you he just had the funniest feeling. It was as if someone was touching his missing index finger. You decide to experiment with your uncle and you blindfold him. As you touch his cheek he tells you that you are touching his cheek and his missing thumb! As you move around his face you map out his fingers and forearm on his face. Hypothesize how this could be possible.
: Your uncle still has the surviving parts of the sensory pathway that once served the entire arm. This may include the primary sensory neurons, since the severed axons could have regenerated (but even if these cells degenerated, the remainder of the pathway did not). Anything that stimulates the sensory nerve in the stump may cause signals to go to the area of the cerebral cortex that once received inputs only from the hand. Your uncle is not crazy, rather he is experiencing phantom limb pain, which is very real. This phenomenon illustrates labeled line coding and coding of stimulus location. Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 172) In a recent accident, your favorite uncle lost one of his arms just below the elbow; he sustained no other injuries. The wound has completely healed, yet he is plagued by pain he claims is coming from a hand that is no longer there. Afraid to confide in his doctor, he asks you if he is going insane. What should you tell him? What principles are illustrated by this phenomenon?
: There are a large number of structures involved in normal vision; damage to nearly any one of them may result in partial or complete blindness. Starting from the beginning, there must be healthy cornea, lens, retina (including rods and three types of cones, bipolar and ganglion cells, horizontal and amacrine cells), normal pressure in the eye chambers, intact optic nerve, and the remainder of the visual pathway through the visual cortex. Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 171) Based on your knowledge of the structures of the eye and visual pathway, propose several possible causes for blindness. How does the disease glaucoma fit in this scheme?
: Results will vary. This is discussed in "The Spinal Cord" section of the chapter. Exceptions to the basic plan include: receptor structure is non-neural for most of the special senses, lack of receptive fields for all special senses except vision, lack of routing through the thalamus in the olfactory pathway, lack of stimulus localization by auditory receptors, hydrogen ion or calcium current depolarization in taste cells, oscillating response in auditory hair cells, cessation of ion influx in photoreceptors in response to light. Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 164) Create a concept map explaining the basic structure and function of sensory systems, starting with a receptor cell and ending with the primary sensory cortex. Be sure to include the general properties such as receptive fields, stimulus location, and so on. Consider each sensory system in turn and identify exceptions to your basic map, indicating how they are different.
: The overlap between the visual fields is required for assessment of depth (three-dimensional assessment). Thus, individuals who have lost an eye would have issues with depth perception. Binaural hearing provides for accurate sound localization. People who have lost hearing in one ear are poorer at sound localization. Comparable losses of sensory tissues for taste or smell would have far less impact on those sensations because there is no similar central comparison of inputs from the two sides. Section Title: The Eye and Vision Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 165) Explain how vision is affected by the loss of one eye. Explain how hearing is affected by the loss of one ear. In reality, how disadvantaged are people who are blind in one eye or deaf in one ear? Would loss of half the tongue or half the olfactory epithelium have comparable effects on those systems? Explain.
: Receptors adapt to stimuli at very different rates that are characteristic of a particular type of adaptation. Tonic receptors change very little over the duration of the stimulus. The extent of the change in membrane potential decreases a bit over time. Tonic receptors provide continuous information about a particular parameter. Phasic receptors adapt very quickly such that they turn off shortly after having been activated. A change in membrane potential over resting is quickly returned back to resting. These types of receptors provide information on regarding change in a parameter (not how much but just that they have changed). Graphs should resemble those in Figure 10.6 in the chapter. Section Title: Somatic Senses Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 174) Briefly describe the difference between tonic and phasic receptors, and illustrate this difference by sketching graphs showing any type of stimulus (as a rectangular wave), the receptor potentials generated by each type of receptor, and the resulting action potentials in the neurons that respond to each type of receptor. You do not need to put numbers on your axes; rather you are to demonstrate you understand the relative differences in the responses.
: Graphs should resemble those in Figure 10.19 in the chapter. Section Title: The Ear: Hearing Learning Outcome: 10.6
: Level IV: Quantitative Problems (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 175) Sketch graphs illustrating the electrical response of auditory hair cells and cochlear neurons to sound. You do not need to be precise on the amplitudes or durations; just show you understand the general trend.
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 89) A person who goes from sea level to a city that is 5000 feet above sea level will show an increased hematocrit within 2 to 3 days. Draw the reflex pathway that links the hypoxia of high altitude to increased red blood cell production.
: Low atmospheric at high altitude → low arterial → sensed by kidney → erythropoietin synthesized and released → acts on bone marrow to increase production of red blood cells. Section Title: Blood Cell Production Learning Outcome: 16.3
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 64) The growth and maturation of megakaryocytes is regulated by the glycoprotein ________.
: thrombopoietin (TPO) Section Title: Blood Cell Production Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 110) Many drugs used to treat migraine headaches contain caffeine. What mechanism does caffeine have that can help with migraine headaches?
: Migraine headaches are caused by dilation of blood vessels in the brain. Caffeine is a drug that mimics the sympathetic nervous system. Since the sympathetic nervous system causes vasoconstriction in the brain, it will counteract the effects of migraine headaches. Section Title: Distribution of the Blood to the Tissues Learning Outcome: 15.5
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 91) Define and describe the mechanism of myogenic autoregulation.
: Myogenic autoregulation is the self-regulation by the vascular smooth muscle in response to an increase in blood pressure. The mechanism responsible for the intrinsic response of vascular smooth muscle is stretch that opens mechanically gated Ca2+ channels in the muscle membrane. Calcium entering the smooth muscle cell combines with calmodulin and activates myosin light chain kinase, which in turn increases myosin ATPase activity and crossbridge activity. Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.5
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 152) The rising phase of the action potential is a result of ________ for skeletal muscle, ________ for contractile myocardium, and ________ for autorhythmic myocardium.
: Na+ entry, Na+ entry, calcium entry Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.5
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 108) Nitroglycerine is a medication taken by people who experience chest pain known as angina. One of the major side effects of the medication is that the patient will notice a severe headache. What causes this side effect?
: Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator that is non-specific (the nitric oxide content causes all blood vessels it contacts to dilate). When it is ingested it will cause dilation of the coronary arteries, reliving the chest pain and preventing myocardial infarction, but it will also cause dilation of cerebral blood vessels, causing a headache. Section Title: Distribution of the Blood to the Tissues Learning Outcome: 15.5
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 53) Are relaxation of a muscle and inhibition of a muscle the same thing? Explain your answer.
: No. Relaxation is a passive process that normally follows contraction and occurs in the absence of further activity in the motor neurons. Inhibition involves prevention of muscle stimulation and consequent contraction by activity in interneurons that inhibit motor neurons. While in both cases the motor neuron is not producing signals, the reason is lack of stimulation in one case, inhibition in the other. Section Title: Neural Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.12
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 155) List and explain the three types of substances transported by the blood. What is the source of each type?
: Nutrients, water, and gases from the external environment, substances moving from cell to cell, and waste products to be eliminated from the body. Nutrients and water are absorbed from the digestive tract, gases are absorbed from the lungs, cells secrete substances such as hormones to communicate with other cells, and cells produce waste products as a consequence of metabolism. Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.1
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 106) Mike has classical hemophilia, a clotting disorder, but his case is considered "mild." Contrary to popular belief, Mike doesn't usually have problematic bleeding episodes related to cutting himself; a more severe problem for him would be brought on by a sprained ankle or by having a full body impact, like falling off a horse and landing hard on the ground, injuries considered "closed." With what you have learned about blood coagulation, can you explain how this could be so? Assuming Mike is lacking factor VIII, which pathways does he depend on?
: Only the intrinsic pathway requires factor VIII for activation; the extrinsic pathway and the common pathway are unaffected by the lack of factor VIII. The extrinsic pathway is activated by tissue damage, so even in a person with hemophilia, these may function at close to normal levels. Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 101) List the steps and briefly explain what happens in orthostatic hypotension. What reflex counteracts it?
: Orthostatic hypotension is the decrease in blood pressure upon moving rapidly from a stable reclining position to standing. While reclining flat, gravity is distributed equally and so is blood. When moving to a standing position, blood initially pools in the lower extremities and cardiac output drops from about 5 L/min to about 3 L/min. Arterial blood pressure then decreases. The baroreceptor reflex should counteract orthostatic hypotension. Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.9
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 184) Atropine inhibits parasympathetic activity. Discuss the effects of atropine on the heart and describe common expected side effects.
: Parasympathetic stimulation of the heart has an inhibitory effect, slowing the heart rate. This inhibition is constant under normal circumstances, and without it the heart beats at the rate set by the pacemaker cells, which is higher than normal. Thus atropine, by removing the inhibition, increases heart rate. Other organs affected by atropine include any with muscarinic receptors. For example, atropine would inhibit intestinal motility, resulting in constipation. Atropine also inhibits the pupillary reflex, resulting in dilated pupils. Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 156) What are the primary components of a cardiovascular system? What diffusion-related problem is solved by having a cardiovascular system?
: Primary components are the heart (a pump), the blood, and the vessels, which include arteries, capillaries, and veins. The cardiovascular system solves the problem of inefficient diffusion over large distances by providing a force for the blood and a system of vessels leading to capillaries, which are distributed at a high density throughout all the organs. No living cell is more than a short distance from a capillary. Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.2
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 163) Draw a diagram of the excitation-contraction coupling and relaxation in cardiac muscles.
: See Figure 14.9 in the chapter. Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.5
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 96) Name the process of red blood cell production, the hormone that controls it, the source of that hormone, and the stimulus for its production. Why was the hormone so difficult to isolate and identify?
: Production of red blood cells is called erythropoeisis. It is stimulated by the kidney-produced hormone erythropoietin, in response to hypoxia. It was difficult to isolate and identify because it is made on demand rather than stored, and thus is not present all the time. Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 97) Children who suffer from protein starvation have bloated bellies of ascites (an accumulation of fluid in the tissue spaces of the abdomen). How would a shortage of protein in the diet cause this condition?
: Protein is needed by the body for proper growth, maintenance, and reproduction. If there is a shortage of protein in the diet, the body must turn to itself for a source of amino acids. One of the first proteins to be dismantled for amino acids is plasma albumin. As the level of albumin in the plasma decreases, so does the osmotic pressure. Fluid that has leaked from the capillaries to the interstitial spaces does not return to the blood because of the decreased plasma osmotic pressure; because of the large vascular network in the abdominal viscera, the majority pools in this region. Section Title: The Lymphatic System Learning Outcome: 15.7
: Level IV: Quantitative Problems (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 125) Colloid osmotic pressure in plasma is fairly constant in a healthy person. How would protein starvation affect this pressure? How may a very high-protein diet affect this pressure? Suppose a person is suffering from an imbalance that causes an increase in colloid osmotic pressure from the typical 25 mm Hg to 30 mm Hg. Calculate the effect on net fluid flow across the capillary. What negative health consequences could result?
: Protein starvation would reduce this pressure whereas excess protein would increase this pressure. Absorption would be affected in this way: πin = πIF - πcap. Assuming πIF = 0 mm Hg, πin = -30 mm Hg, favoring absorption. This is a 20% increase in absorption pressure. This would raise blood volume and blood pressure over normal. Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.2
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 120) Calculate the pulse pressure for each example listed. A. a person with a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg B. a person with a blood pressure of 130/95 mm Hg
: Pulse pressure is systolic P minus diastolic P. A. 40 mm Hg B. 35 mm Hg Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.2
: Level IV: Quantitative Problems (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 186) Compare the flow rates (Q) of tubes one and two, assuming the following parameters: Tube one: ΔP = 30, r = 3, L = 20. Tube two: ΔP = 60, r = 4, L = 10.
: Q ΔP/(L/r4) ∙ Q1 30/(20/34) = 121. Q2 60/(10/44) = 1535. Flow rate in the second tube is about 12 times higher than that in the first tube. Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 102) How would the process of red blood cell production be affected by constricting the arteries that supply blood to the kidney? Explain your answer. Name three other situations that would similarly affect the process of red blood cell production.
: Red blood cell production would be increased. Constricting arteries would reduce blood flow; thus, the kidney would experience hypoxia. The kidney produces the hormone erythropoietin, which stimulates red blood cell production, in response to hypoxia. Increased red blood cell production would also result from anemia, extended presence at high altitude, and following hemorrhage. Section Title: Blood Cell Production Learning Outcome: 16.3
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 161) What are ryanodine receptors? What type of tissue are they present in? Are all ryanodine receptors regulated in the same way? Explain your answer.
: Ryanodine receptors are calcium channels, present in cardiac and skeletal muscle tissue. In cardiac muscle they are regulated by calcium, resulting in calcium-induced calcium release from the SR. In skeletal muscle, they are regulated by mechanical linkage to voltage-sensing receptors in SR, thus they are indirectly voltage-regulated. Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.5
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 176) Explain how Ca2+ levels inside myocardial cells are important to cell function.
: See Figs. 14.9 and 14.21 in the chapter. Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 58) Name the components of a reflex pathway, and describe generally how a reflex works.
: See Figure 13.1 in the chapter. Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.1
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 65) Draw a monosynaptic reflex and a polysynaptic reflex. Label each part of the reflex pathway. Briefly explain how the two reflexes differ.
: See Figure 13.1 in the chapter. The answer should include each component of the reflex pathway as in Figure 13.1. Monosynaptic reflex has a single synapse between the afferent and efferent neurons; polysynaptic reflexes have two or more synapses. Section Title: Neural Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.9
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 75) Draw two graphs that represent the alpha-gamma coactivation: 1. muscle length as a function of time 2. action potentials of spindle sensory neuron as a function of time
: See Figure 13.4 in the chapter. Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 59) Compare and contrast the structures and functions of the Golgi tendon organ and the muscle spindle.
: See Figure 13.5 in the chapter. Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.7
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 63) Make a map of the integration of muscle reflexes. Include the following terms: brain stem, cerebellum, cerebral cortex, feedback, muscle contraction and movement, sensory receptors, signal, spinal cord, and thalamus.
: See Figure 13.8 in the chapter. Section Title: The Integrated Control of Body Movement Learning Outcome: 13.12
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 172) Compare and contrast the effects of cholinergic and adrenergic fibers on the heart. Include a comparison of the various types of receptors they interact with, and their location on the heart.
: See Figure 14.19 in the chapter. Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 93) Draw a map of the baroreceptor reflex, starting with decrease in blood pressure. Indicate on the map the following: stimulus, receptor, afferent pathway, integrating center, efferent pathway, effector, tissue response, systemic response.
: See Figure 15.14 in the chapter. Section Title: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 15.9
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 95) Diagram the components and interactions of the baroreceptor reflex.
: See Figure 15.14 in the chapter. Section Title: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 15.9
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 92) Compare and contrast the structure and location of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, and veins. How do these differences contribute to the differences in function of each?
: See Figure 15.2 in the chapter for a summary of structural differences in vessel walls. Arteries contain relatively more smooth muscle, for active regulation of vessel diameter. Large, elastic arteries have more elastic fibers, so that the vessel can stretch and recoil with ventricular contraction and relaxation, thereby minimizing fluctuation in blood pressure. Capillaries are thin and porous, reflecting their role in exchange of substances with the interstitial fluid. Veins contain valves to prevent backflow of blood, which is especially important in leg veins. Section Title: The Blood Vessels Learning Outcome: 15.1
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 89) Map the following terms: blood distribution, blood volume, cardiac output, diameter of the arterioles, diameter of the veins, fluid intake, fluid loss, heart rate, mean arterial pressure, passive, regulated at kidneys, resistance to blood flow, and stroke volume.
: See Figure 15.8 in the chapter. Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.11
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 92) Summarize the steps of the coagulation cascade.
: See Figure 16.10 in the chapter. Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 91) Summarize the steps of hemostasis.
: See Figure 16.8 in the chapter. Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.6
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 56) Design a concept map that shows the types of reflexes, the basis for their classification, and their functions.
: See Table 13.1 and Figure 13.1 in the chapter. Section Title: Neural Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.1
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 62) Compare and contrast the three categories of movement described in the text and give an example of each.
: See Table 13.2 in the chapter. Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.11
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 165) Compare and contrast the appearance of cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells under the microscope. Continue with an explanation of their similarities and differences in the initiation of their excitation-contraction coupling mechanisms. Finally, end your discussion by comparing their metabolic needs.
: See Table 14.3 in the chapter. Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.5
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 167) Compare and contrast the action potentials in the skeletal muscle, contractile myocardium, and autorhythmic myocardium.
: See Table 14.3 in the chapter. Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 75) Name two cytokines involved in hematopoiesis. What is the name of the cytokine that plays an important role in the immune system?
: See Table 16.2 in the chapter. Interleukins play an important role in the immune system. Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 166) Compare and contrast cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle.
: See the "Cardiac Muscle and the Heart" section and Table 14.3 in the chapter. Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.5
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 107) Cancer chemotherapy is designed to destroy cancer cells, but adversely affects healthy tissues as well; thus the oncologist has the difficult task of killing the cancer without killing the patient. What side effects are expected from destruction of blood cells?
: Side effects include anemia from loss of red blood cells, impaired immune function from loss of white blood cells, and impaired coagulation from loss of megakaryocytes. Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 105) Nicotine stimulates cholinergic receptors of the autonomic nervous system. Based on this information, how would cigarette smoking affect the cardiovascular system?
: Since cholinergic receptors are found in all of the ganglia of the autonomic nervous system, you would expect nicotine to stimulate both sympathetic and parasympathetic responses in the cardiovascular target tissues. In response to increased sympathetic stimulation the heart would beat faster and more forcefully. At the same time, however, increased parasympathetic stimulation would decrease the blood flow to the heart muscle. The increased heart rate and force of contraction would contribute to increased blood pressure as would vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels as a result of sympathetic stimulation. Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.5
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 64) Make a map of the following terms: alpha motor neurons, CNS, contractile fibers, extrafusual muscle fibers, Golgi tendon organs, integrating center, joint receptors, muscle spindles, proprioreceptors, sensory neurons, sensory receptors and somatic motor neurons.
: Skeletal muscle reflexes have the following components: Sensory receptors known as proprioreceptors-the three types are: muscle spindles, Golgi tendon organs, and joint receptors. Sensory neurons carry input from proprioreceptors to the CNS, the integrating center. Somatic motor neurons carry the output signal from the CNS; alpha motor neurons are somatic motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscle contractile fibers, known as extrafusual muscle fibers. Section Title: The Integrated Control of Body Movement Learning Outcome: 13.12
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 104) Erythropoietin (EPO) was first isolated from the urine of anemic patients who had high circulating levels of the hormone. Despite the presence of the hormone that stimulates red cell production, however, these patients were unable to produce adequate amounts of hemoglobin or red cells. Give some possible reasons that the patients' own EPO was unable to correct their anemia.
: Some other factor that is essential for red blood cell synthesis must be lacking. These would include iron for hemoglobin production, folic acid, and vitamin B12. Section Title: Blood Cell Production Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 111) How does altitude affect blood composition and why? How would athletes' performance be affected if they live, train, and compete at different altitudes? Explain your answer, using different scenarios. Is such training a type of doping? Explain.
: Spending several days at higher than normal altitude will stimulate erythropoiesis, due to the lower oxygen concentration in the air, which when breathed would result in hypoxemia. Athletes would be less competitive if they competed at a higher altitude than that in which they lived or trained, and more competitive if they lived and trained at a higher altitude than that in which they competed, at least in theory. While students may not know this, experimental results support the best regimen for maximizing performance at a low-altitude competition to be living at high altitude but training at low altitude. Neither living and training high nor living and training low achieved the same results. High-altitude training is necessary, however, for high-altitude competition. This is a matter of opinion, but most people would probably argue that these training regimens are natural, and therefore not a type of doping. Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.4
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 57) How does the stretch reflex protect a muscle?
: Stretching activates the stretch reflex, which in turn contracts the muscle, thereby preventing overstretching. Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.5
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 116) Compare and contrast the types of pressure and flow in systemic, pulmonary, glomerular, and peritubular capillaries using simple diagrams or tables. Be as complete and specific as possible. You do not need to provide values for the pressures, but you should indicate the relative strength of the different pressures.
: Systemic and pulmonary blood flow is equal to the cardiac output, which is about 720 L/day, or 0.5 L/min. The glomerular and peritubular capillaries receive about 180 L/day, or 0.13 L/min, which represents about 25% of the cardiac output. Blood pressure (in mm Hg) is highest in the systemic circulation (120/80). Blood pressure in the pulmonary circulation is 25/8, in glomerular circulation is 55, and in peritubular capillaries is 10. Section Title: Distribution of the Blood to the Tissues Learning Outcome: 15.3
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 97) List any five nutrients important for blood cell synthesis and briefly explain the role of each.
: Table 16.3 in the chapter lists B12, folic acid, and iron and a brief explanation of each one's role. The student savvy in metabolism will also note the need for the amino acids for the protein chain synthesis, and energy nutrients in order to supply adequate ATP for these synthetic reactions to occur, as well as the vitamins necessary for the TCA cycle and other aspects of metabolism, including niacin, riboflavin, and pantothenic acid. Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 103) While you study blood vessel structure in your dorm room, your roommate prepares to bike to his favorite fishing hole. You absent-mindedly watch as he puts on his bike shorts, which look absurdly small in his hands but stretch easily then snap back to fit tightly. His fishing shirt is a nonstretchy cotton weave that fits loosely, with open mesh panels across the back and armpits for ventilation. Considering only the basic structural differences in arteries, veins, and capillaries, which of the types of fabrics resemble which vessels, and why?
: The bike shorts stretch and recoil like elastic arteries, the cotton weave is floppy and nonstretchy like veins, and the mesh is porous like capillaries. Section Title: The Blood Vessels Learning Outcome: 15.1
: Level IV: Quantitative Problems (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 114) A study was done in 1998 by Dr. Benjamin Levine to explore the role of altitude training in athletic performance. First he trained athletes at low altitude, then measured their finish times in a 5 kilometer run. Then the athletes were placed into one of the following groups: I, living and training at high altitude; II, living at high altitude and training at low; or III, living and training at low altitude. The athletes were then retested in another low-altitude 5 K race. In this study, what are the control and experimental data? What are the dependent and independent variables? The results are expressed as average change in speed of each group. I: -3.4 sec., II: +13.4 sec., III: -26.7 sec. Graph and interpret the results. Did the results surprise you? Why or why not? Propose some explanations for the lower performance by the live high-train high group. Why wasn't there a live low-train high group?
: The control data are the running times of the athletes after baseline training at low altitude. The experimental data are the running times of the athletes after the additional training at various altitudes. The independent variable is altitude; the dependent variable is running time. A bar graph showing the baseline and postaltitude training results as a pair of bars for each group would be appropriate. The best training regimen was living high and training low, and the worst was living low and training low. Many would probably predict the best performance by the group that both lived and trained high, because they were constantly in a relatively hypoxic environment, which may have produced the greatest increase in hematocrit. Training at high altitude clearly did not allow for the best performance, possibly because the lower oxygen environment limited the ability to train at maximum potential. Living low and training high would likely show the worst performance, because even sedentary living at high altitudes produces an increase in hematocrit; only training at high altitude would be insufficient to produce an altitude-related increase. Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.3
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 69) Draw a diagram of the cerebral motor cortex and descending input to spinal motor neurons. Voluntary suppression of the knee jerk reflex originates in the motor cortex, which can send inhibitory signals to the motor neurons. If the left motor cortex is active, is the left or right knee jerk reflex suppressed or are both suppressed? Explain your answer. If the left side of the spinal cord at the level of leg muscle control is damaged, is it the left or right knee jerk reflex that is suppressed or are both suppressed?
: The diagram should resemble Figure 13.11 in the chapter. The left motor cortex controls the right spinal motor neurons and therefore the right knee reflex. The left side of the spinal cord controls the reflex on the left side. Section Title: The Integrated Control of Body Movement Learning Outcome: 13.12
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 68) Diagram and label the knee jerk reflex. What is the physiological function of this reflex? Explain how this reflex may be important during walking, if you didn't notice a dip in the sidewalk and stepped into it. What is the role of reciprocal inhibition? How would the reflex be affected if reciprocal inhibition failed? Describe the effects on the reflex of severing each structure involved in the reflex, considering one structure at a time. Describe the effects of damaging the opposite side of the spinal cord, or areas higher or lower on the spinal cord.
: The diagram should resemble Figure 13.6 in the chapter. The function of the reflex is to control movement at the knee joint. If you stepped down farther than you expected, your opposite knee may bend more than it would have, activating the reflex and straightening that leg to prevent you from falling. Reciprocal inhibition allows muscles opposing extension of the leg to be inhibited. If this inhibition failed, leg extension would not occur; instead, the knee would be "locked." Severing the afferent or efferent nerve, the spinal cord at the level of the reflex, or the muscle would all prevent the reflex from occurring. Damage to the opposite side of the spinal cord or areas above or below the cells involved in the reflex should have no effect on the basic reflex. (Note to instructor: In reality, it is not so simple, but the point is to get the students to consider the basic mechanics of the reflex.) Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.9
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 111) Josie is in her last weeks of pregnancy. During a routine check-up, she asks why she is suddenly experiencing swollen feet when she wears knee-high stockings (with a tight elastic band just below the knee). She is confused because an elderly relative wears support stockings to prevent swollen feet, an apparent contradiction. Speculate on a logical explanation for her swelling feet and the difference between support hose and knee-high stockings.
: The elastic band in one of Josie's stocking is so tight that it constantly compresses her veins just in the area under the elastic. This reduces venous return, increasing pressure below that area and causing fluid to exit her blood. Support stockings are medical devices that apply uniform pressure along their entire length, and so produce no constriction. They increase pressure slightly, continuously aiding venous return much like a muscle pump does intermittently. Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.8
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 169) List the four types of autorhythmic cells that drive the heartbeat. Draw a sketch of the heart and indicate the location of each type of cell.
: The four areas for the autorhythmic cells are SA node, internodal pathway, AV node, and Purkinje Fibers. See Figure 14.14 in the chapter. Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 109) Explain how anticoagulant drugs can be useful to heart attack or stroke patients.
: The ischemia that accompanies a "heart attack" or stroke may be prevented by the administration of anticoagulants, which prevent clot formation. Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.6
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 71) Bowel and bladder control involve spinal reflex pathways that are located in the sacral region of the spinal cord. In both instances, two sphincter muscles, an inner sphincter of smooth muscle and an outer sphincter of skeletal muscle, control the passage of waste out of the body. How would completely severing the spinal cord at the lumbar level affect an individual's bowel and bladder control?
: The person would still exhibit a defecation (bowel) and micturition (bladder) reflex because the spinal reflex is processed at the local sacral level of the spinal cord, which is intact at that level. Efferent impulses from the organs would stimulate specific interneurons in the sacral region that would synapse with the motor neurons controlling the sphincters, thus bringing about emptying when organs began to fill. This is the same situation that exists in a newborn infant who has not yet fully developed the descending tracts necessary for conscious control. The individual with the spinal cord transection would lose voluntary control of the bowel and bladder because these functions rely on impulses carried by motor neurons in the brain that must travel down the cord and synapse with the interneurons and motor neurons that are involved in the reflex. With a lumbar transection, these impulses no longer reach the reflex control center. Section Title: Control of Movement in Visceral Muscles Learning Outcome: 13.13
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 118) Given what you know about blood pressure at various locations in the circulatory system, what pressure is actually determined during a standard blood pressure measurement? Why is the arm the chosen location for determining blood pressure? Is there a more accurate way to determine blood pressure?
: The pressure in the brachial artery is what is determined, but it is assumed to be very close to the pressure in the aorta, which is the desired information. The arm is chosen for proximity to the heart and convenience; farther from the heart in linear distance, the systolic pressure will be lower and the difference between systolic and diastolic will be less. A more accurate way to determine blood pressure in the aorta would be to place pressure sensors inside the vessel, though this is an invasive and unnecessary procedure given the reliability of the brachial pressure. Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.3
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis) 74) You are a technician in a neuroanatomy lab, and it's your first day of training to learn a technique of labeling neurons. Your boss tells you that you will fill individual motor neurons, by injecting horseradish peroxidase (HRP) conjugated to tetanus toxin, into a skeletal muscle. How could this possibly label the neurons?
: The process of labeling neurons by HRP was introduced in Chapter 9; this enzyme is taken up by axon terminals and transported retrogradely, filling most or perhaps all dendrites, as well as the axon and soma. When the substrate of the enzyme is added to tissue slices, a dark reaction product is formed, and this is how the details of the cell are visualized. Toxins such as tetanus and cholera toxin, which are also taken up and transported by axon terminals, enhance the uptake of HRP, if they are attached (conjugated) to the HRP. Section Title: Control of Movement in Visceral Muscles Learning Outcome: 13.13
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 54) A rupture of a blood vessel in the brain is called ________ and may cause the loss of neurological function commonly called ________.
: a cerebral hemorrhage, a stroke Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.3
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 66) List and describe the three categories of movement. Explain why these categories are NOT always distinct.
: The three categories are reflex, voluntary, and rhythmic. Reflex movements are initiated by sensory input and are integrated primarily in the spinal cord. Voluntary movements are integrated in the cerebral cortex and require no external stimuli. Rhythmic movements are a combination of reflex and voluntary. Voluntary movements improve with practice as do reflexive, voluntary movements can become reflexive once learned, and voluntary movements depend upon input from postural reflexes. Section Title: The Integrated Control of Body Movement Learning Outcome: 13.11
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 106) The condition known as shock is characterized by a decreased return of venous blood to the heart. How could an upsetting situation such as the sight of a tragic accident or very bad news produce shock?
: The upsetting stimuli would be processed by the higher centers of the central nervous system and relayed to the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus could suppress the vasomotor center of the medulla, resulting in fewer sympathetic impulses to peripheral blood vessels. This would cause a decrease in sympathetic tone in the smooth muscle of the blood vessels, resulting in vasodilation. The vasodilation would cause blood to pool in the extremities, decreasing the amount of blood returning to the heart and producing shock. Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.5
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 185) How many liters of blood are distributed between the pulmonary and systemic circuits in a "typical" person? Assume 20% of the blood is in the lungs at any moment. If the cardiac output is 5 L/min, how long will it take a drop of blood to flow from the right ventricle to the left ventricle?
: There are about 5 liters of blood in a 70 kg man. If 20% of the blood is in the lungs, then 5 × 0.2 = 1 liter of blood in the lungs. 1 L × 1 min/5 L × 60 sec/1 min × 1 min/60 sec = 12 seconds. Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.2
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 100) Outline the relationship between hypertension and the development of congestive heart failure.
: This is discussed in the "Cardiovascular Disease" section of the chapter. Section Title: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 15.10
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 99) What are some dangers of having coronary artery disease? What are some dangers of having hypertension?
: This is discussed in the "Cardiovascular Disease" section of the chapter. Section Title: Cardiovascular Disease Learning Outcome: 15.10
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 80) ________ are blood vessels that carry blood toward the heart.
: Veins Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.2
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 158) Veins are said to carry deoxygenated blood. Does this mean that there is no oxygen in venous blood? Explain your answer. Are there veins that carry highly oxygenated blood? Again, explain your answer. What color is most venous blood compared to most arterial blood?
: Venous blood has some oxygen, but usually less that arterial blood, so it is only relatively deoxygenated. Pulmonary veins are an example of veins carrying highly oxygenated blood. Venous blood is usually dark red, arterial blood is usually bright red. Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.2
: Level III: Problem Solving (Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis) 70) While watching Olympic weight lifters on television, Carl notices that on several occasions an athlete would lift the weight to his chest and then suddenly drop it. Can you offer an explanation for what might be happening?
: What Carl is observing is an example of the stretch reflex in action. As the weight lifter lifts the weight, he is contracting the biceps brachii and brachialis muscles and at the same time stretching the triceps brachii muscle. If the mass is great, the amount of flexion necessary to move the mass could begin to overstretch the triceps that is being relaxed so as not to interfere with flexion. Stimulation of the muscle spindles in the triceps produces a reflex arc that brings about the relaxation of some of the motor units in the muscles involved in flexion, like the biceps. When the tension produced by the flexing muscles decreases to a point where they can no longer work against the resistance of the mass, the weight lifter will drop the weights involuntarily. Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.7
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 60) You are studying for your physiology test with your lab partner. She insists that the purpose of the knee jerk reflex is to test for neural or muscular damage. State whether or not you agree with her, and why.
: While reflexes can be exploited by medical personnel as a means to assess neural and muscular function, that is not their "purpose" in the sense of why they occur. Each reflex has a function; for example, the knee jerk reflex helps control movement at the knee joint. Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.1
: Level IV: Quantitative Problems (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 189) If the stroke volume of the left ventricle is 65 mL/beat and the stroke volume of the right ventricle is 68 mL/beat, what will happen to the relative distribution of blood in the systemic and pulmonary circulation after 15 beats?
: With each heartbeat, the left side will get "behind" by 3 mL, with this volume contributing to congestion in the pulmonary circuit; after 15 beats, the deficit will total 45 mL of extra fluid in the pulmonary circuit. This could be the beginning of congestion that sets the stage for congestive heart failure. Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level IV: Quantitative Problems (Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluation) 76) Two of your physiology classmates are trying to figure out if cross country skiing is a voluntary activity or a rhythmic activity. They come to you to determine who is correct. What do you tell them?
: You explain that they are, to some degree, both correct. While learning to cross country ski, you would set up central pattern generators that would help you repeat predictable orders of movement. Since those movements would be automatic with your brain being responsible for starting and stopping the central pattern generators, it would be a rhythmic activity. However if there is a change in terrain or slope where you are skiing, your brain would have to alter the patterns and adapt to the changing terrain, requiring voluntary motions. Most athletic endeavors would involve a combination of voluntary and rhythmic movements. Section Title: The Integrated Control of Body Movement Learning Outcome: 13.11
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 48) Capillaries lack smooth muscle and elastic or fibrous tissue reinforcement. Instead, their walls consist of ________, supported on a cellular matrix called ________.
: a flat layer of endothelium, the basal lamina. Section Title: The Blood Vessels Learning Outcome: 15.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 50) Venules are similar to capillaries: they have ________ epithelium and little ________. They are distinguished from capillaries by ________.
: a thin exchange, connective tissue (Fig. 15.2); their convergent pattern of flow Section Title: The Blood Vessels Learning Outcome: 15.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 32) The motor neurons that innervate the normal contractile fibers of the muscle are the ________.
: alpha motor neurons Section Title: The Integrated Control of Body Movement Learning Outcome: 13.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 91) The inferior point of the heart is called the ________.
: apex Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 103) Abnormal patterns of cardiac activity are known as ________.
: arrhythmias Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 51) Blood pressure is highest in the ________ and decreases continuously as blood flows through the circulatory system, due to ________.
: arteries, the energy lost as a result of the resistance to flow offered by the vessels. Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.3
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 95) The opening between each atrium and its ventricle is guarded by the ________, which connects the ventricular side to collagenous tendons, called ________. ________ muscles provide stability for these tendons.
: atrioventricular valve, chordae tendineae; Papillary Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 109) Listening to the heart through the chest wall is called ________.
: auscultation Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 67) Receptors that monitor blood pressure are called ________.
: baroreceptors Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 90) The superior portion of the heart where the major blood vessels enter and exit is the ________.
: base Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 68) The condition where the skin and the whites of the eyes appear slightly yellow is due to high blood levels of the substance ________.
: bilirubin Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 104) A resting heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute is identified as ________.
: bradycardia Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 102) The period of time from the beginning of one heartbeat to the beginning of the next is termed the ________.
: cardiac cycle Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 58) Plasma consists of blood minus ________ and ________.
: cells, platelets Section Title: Plasma and the Cellular Elements of Blood Learning Outcome: 16.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 37) Rhythmic reflexive motor activities, such as breathing or walking, are controlled by networks of neurons in the central nervous system called ________.
: central pattern generators Section Title: The Integrated Control of Body Movement Learning Outcome: 13.11
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 58) The osmotic pressure created by the presence of proteins is known as ________, which is (higher/lower) in the plasma than in the interstitial fluid.
: colloid osmotic or oncotic pressure, higher Section Title: Exchange at the Capillaries Learning Outcome: 15.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 61) Hormones called ________ are involved in regulation of white blood cell populations.
: colony-stimulating factors Section Title: Blood Cell Production Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 82) The most proximal arteries to branch from the aorta are the ________.
: coronary arteries Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 87) The term for reduced blood flow to the cardiac muscle is ________.
: coronary ischemia Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 44) The ________ is essentially a group of interneurons that run from the motor cortex to the spinal cord.
: corticospinal tract Section Title: The Integrated Control of Body Movement Learning Outcome: 13.12
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 61) Loss of pericytes around retinal capillaries is a hallmark of the disease ________.
: diabetic retinopathy Section Title: Blood Vessels Learning Outcome: 15.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 55) Mean arterial pressure is (indirectly/directly) proportional to ________ and (indirectly/directly) proportional to ________.
: directly, cardiac output, directly, resistance of arterioles Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 99) The cells responsible for establishing the rate of a cardiac contraction are the ________.
: nodal cells Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 86) The pressure created in the ventricles is called the ________ pressure because ________.
: driving, it is the force that drives blood through the blood vessels Section Title: Pressure, Volume, Flow, and Resistance Learning Outcome: 14.3
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 66) The accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space is called ________.
: edema Section Title: The Lymphatic System Learning Outcome: 15.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 101) A tracing of the electrical activity of the heart, monitored by electrodes placed on the skin, is called a(n) ________.
: electrocardiogram Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 111) The ________ is the amount of blood in a ventricle at the beginning of systole.
: end-diastolic volume Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 112) The ________ is the amount of blood in a ventricle after it has contracted and before it begins to refill.
: end-systolic volume Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 88) During the fight-or-flight reaction, ________ is released from the adrenal medulla and binds to ________ receptors, found on the vascular smooth muscle of heart, liver, and skeletal muscle arterioles and results in (increased/decreased) blood flow to these organs; the same hormone binds to ________ receptors on other tissues, causing (increased/decreased) blood flow to these organs.
: epinephrine, β2, increased, α, decreased Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 65) The hormone that regulates the production of red blood cells is ________.
: erythropoietin Section Title: Blood Cell Production Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 153) The duration of the action potential is ________ in contractile myocardium, ________ in autorhythmic contractile, and ________ in skeletal muscle.
: extended: 200+ msec, variable: generally 150+ msec, short: 1-2 msec Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 100) A heart with cells contracting rapidly in a disorganized manner, with no effective pumping action, is said to be in ________.
: fibrillation Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 71) The dissolution of fibrin by plasmin is known as ________.
: fibrinolysis Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 33) The motor neurons associated with intrafusal muscle fibers are referred to as ________ motor neurons.
: gamma Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 59) Active bone marrow is red because of the presence of ________ whereas inactive marrow is ________ because of an abundance of adipocytes.
: hemoglobin, yellow Section Title: Blood Cell Production Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 60) The term for chronically elevated blood pressure is ________.
: hypertension Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.10
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 154) Sympathetic stimulation to the pacemaker cells ________ heart rate by ________ ion flow through ________ and ________ channels.
: increases, increasing, If , calcium Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 96) Cell junctions in contractile cells are called ________, which consist of two components: ________ and ________.
: intercalated disks, desmosomes, gap junctions Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 63) The term used for a cytokine that is released by one white blood cell that acts on another is ________.
: interleukin Section Title: Blood Cell Production Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 67) The condition where the skin and the whites of the eyes appear slightly yellow is called ________.
: jaundice Section Title: Red Blood Cells Learning Outcome: 16.4
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 41) In a ________ reflex, a sensory neuron synapses directly on a motor neuron.
: monosynaptic Section Title: Neural Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 34) The tension maintained in a muscle at rest is known as ________.
: muscle tone Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 93) The muscle layer of the heart wall is the ________.
: myocardium Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 52) The collection of pathways controlling a single joint is known as ________. The simplest reflex in this collection of pathways is the ________, which involves only two neurons: ________ neuron from the ________ and the ________ neuron to the muscle.
: myotatic unit; monosynaptic stretch reflex, sensory, muscle spindle, somatic Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 43) Most reflexes are regulated by ________.
: negative feedback Section Title: Neural Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.12
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 62) Capillary exchange involving movement between the endothelial cells is called the ________ pathway.
: paracellular Section Title: Exchange at the Capillaries Learning Outcome: 15.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 89) The heart is enclosed in the ________.
: pericardial membrane Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 94) The heart is encased in a tough membranous sac called the ________. The heart is composed mostly of ________ muscle tissue, called the ________.
: pericardium, cardiac, myocardium Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 49) Cerebral capillaries are surrounded by ________ and glial cells and have tight junctions that create the ________.
: pericytes, blood-brain barrier Section Title: The Blood Vessels Learning Outcome: 15.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 70) In hemostasis, vasoconstriction is rapidly followed by mechanical blockage of the hole by a ________.
: platelet plug Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 42) A ________ reflex has at least one interneuron placed between the sensory and motor neuron.
: polysynaptic Section Title: Neural Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 65) The structures that regulate blood flow into single capillaries within a tissue are ________.
: precapillary sphincters Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.11
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 84) The ________ circuit carries blood to and from the alveoli of the lungs.
: pulmonary Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 88) The ________ directs blood from the ________ of the heart to the lungs. Backflow of blood to the heart is prevented by ________. Blood from the lungs returns to the heart via ________.
: pulmonary trunk, right ventricle; pulmonary valves; pulmonary veins Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 52) The rapid pressure increase that occurs when the left ventricle pushes blood into the aorta can be felt as ________.
: pulse Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 35) In order to flex a limb, the extensors must first be relaxed and vice versa. This is done by a process called ________.
: reciprocal innervation Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.5
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 62) In healthy adults, blood cell production occurs only in the ________.
: red bone marrow Section Title: Blood Cell Production Learning Outcome: 16.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 97) The ________ are calcium channels in cardiac contractile cells. Opening them causes ________.
: ryanodine receptors; calcium-induced calcium release Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 92) The ________ is a wall that separates the two sides of the heart.
: septum Section Title: Cardiac Muscle and the Heart Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 110) Narrowing of the opening of a heart valve is referred to as ________.
: stenosis Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.7
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Application) 51) Muscle spindles are ________ receptors and cause reflex ________, whereas Golgi tendon organs respond primarily to ________ and cause a ________ reflex.
: stretch, contraction, tension, relaxation (Golgi tendon organs are relatively insensitive to muscle stretch.) Section Title: Skeletal Muscle Reflexes Learning Outcome: 13.7
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 85) The ________ circuit carries blood to and from all parts of the body except the alveoli of the lungs.
: systemic Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 107) The contraction phase of the cardiac cycle is termed ________.
: systole Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 105) A resting heart rate above 100 beats per minute is identified as ________.
: tachycardia Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.9
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 98) The AV node delays the transmission of action potentials slightly to allow ________.
: the atria to complete their contraction before ventricular contraction begins Section Title: The Heart as a Pump Learning Outcome: 14.8
: Level II: Reviewing Concepts (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 86) Three tissues-________, ________, and ________-do NOT have traditional capillaries. Instead, they have modified vessels called ________ that are (wider/narrower) than a capillary.
: the bone marrow, the liver, the spleen; sinusoids, wider Section Title: Distribution of the Blood to the Tissues Learning Outcome: 15.11
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 81) The cardiovascular system is made up of ________, ________, and ________.
: the heart, blood vessels, blood (Answers can be in any order.) Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.2
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension) 53) Venous return to the heart is aided by ________ and the ________.
: the skeletal muscle pump, respiratory pump Section Title: Blood Pressure Learning Outcome: 15.3
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 69) Plasminogen is activated by an enzyme called ________.
: tissue plasminogen activator Section Title: Platelets and Coagulation Learning Outcome: 16.6
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 78) The primary function of the cardiovascular system is ________.
: to transport material to and from all parts of the body Section Title: Overview of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 14.1
: Level I: Reviewing Facts and Terms (Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge) 57) Norepinephrine binding to alpha receptors on vascular smooth muscle causes ________ and epinephrine binding to alpha receptors on vascular smooth muscle causes ________.
: vasoconstriction, vasoconstriction Section Title: Resistance in Arterioles Learning Outcome: 15.11
Which fiber type is the fastest and which is the slowest
A-alpha (type 1) is the fastest and C (type 4) is the slowest
Motor neurons are sometimes inhibited by A. Golgi tendon organs. B. muscle spindle organs. C. joint receptors.
A. Golgi tendon organs.
Which of the following processes produces the most ATP? A. Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation B. glycolysis C. hydrolysis of creatine phosphate
A. Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation
The reactions of glycolysis occur in the cell's _____________; the reactions of the Krebs (citric acid) cycle occur in the ___________. A. cytoplasm, mitochondria B. cytoplasm, cytoplasm C. mitochondria, mitochondria D. mitochondria, cytoplasm
A. cytoplasm, mitochondria
In order for the bicep muscle to shorten, the force applied by the muscle must be ________ the load applied at the hand. A. greater than B. less than C. equal to
A. greater than
The potential energy in ATP is released during a process called: A. hydrolysis B. dehydration synthesis
A. hydrolysis
Which of the following processes provides an immediate source of energy for rebuilding ATP? A. hydrolysis of creatine phosphate B. Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation C. glycolysis
A. hydrolysis of creatine phosphate
The force generated by a single muscle fiber can be increased by A. increasing frequency of action potentials only. B. increasing muscle length beyond optimal only. C. increasing the asynchrony of recruitment only. D. increasing frequency of action potentials and increasing muscle length beyond optimal only.
A. increasing frequency of action potentials only.
The calcium release channel in the smooth muscle sarcoplasmic reticulum that is opened by increases in phospholipase C activity is the A. inositol trisphosphate (IP3) receptor channel. B. ryanodine receptor. C. dihydropyridine (DHP) receptor. D. voltage-gated Ca2+ channel. E. Ca2+-ATPase.
A. inositol trisphosphate (IP3) receptor channel.
In the lever system that characterizes the interaction between bones and muscle, the bones act as the ________ whereas the joints form the ________. A. lever, fulcrums B. fulcrum, levers C. lever, pulleys D. fulcrum, pulleys
A. lever, fulcrums
The origin is the end of the skeletal muscle that attaches to the A. more stationary bone. B. more mobile bone. C. tendon. D. ligament.
A. more stationary bone.
Match the structure to its description A. muscle spindles B. Golgli tendon organs C. both maintain muscle tone at rest through tonic activity
A. muscle spindles
An important difference between single-unit and multiunit smooth muscle is the A. numerous gap junctions in single-unit smooth muscle, which allow many cells to work together as a sheet. B. longer actin and myosin filaments in multiunit smooth muscle, which allow coordination of contraction. C. ability of single-unit fibers to change into multiunit fibers when advantageous. D. closely controlled individual fibers in single-unit smooth muscle to allow fine control and graded contractions by selective activation.
A. numerous gap junctions in single-unit smooth muscle, which allow many cells to work together as a sheet.
A motor unit consists of A. one neuron and all the skeletal muscle fibers it controls. B. one skeletal muscle fiber and all the neurons that control that fiber. C. one skeletal muscle fiber and the neuron that controls that fiber. D. one axon terminal branch and the myofibrils it controls.
A. one neuron and all the skeletal muscle fibers it controls.
The factor(s) that determine the duration of a twitch in various types of fibers is the speed of the A. removal of Ca2+ ions from the sarcoplasm only. B. hydrolysis of ATP only. C. movement of Na+ across their membranes only. D. removal of Ca2+ ions from the sarcoplasm and hydrolysis of ATP. E. removal of Ca2+ ions from the sarcoplasm and hydrolysis of ATP and movement of Na+ across their membranes.
A. removal of Ca2+ ions from the sarcoplasm only.
Aerobic metabolism of glucose A. requires oxygen and produces more ATP per glucose than anaerobic pathways B. requires oxygen C. produces more ATP per glucose than anaerobic pathways D. is the fastest way to produce glucose
A. requires oxygen and produces more ATP per glucose than anaerobic pathways
The function of the titin protein is to A. stabilize the position of the contractile filaments. B. pull Z lines together during contraction. C. interact with actin during contraction. D. release calcium during contraction. E. cover the myosin binding site on the actin molecule.
A. stabilize the position of the contractile filaments.
The H zone contains A. thick filaments. B. thin filaments only. C. actin only. D. thick and thin filaments.
A. thick filaments.
Which reflex is NOT controlled by the brain stem? A. urination B. vomiting C. sneezing D. swallowing E. salivating
A. urination
Where does energy required for a powerstroke come from?
ATP hydrolysis
Contractile proteins contained in myofibrils
Actin and myosin
Put these events in the correct chronological sequence: 1. End-plate potentials trigger action potentials. 2. Transverse tubules convey potentials into the interior of the cell. 3. Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the motor end plate. 4. Ca2+ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 3, 1, 2, 4 C. 2, 1, 4, 3 D. 3, 1, 4, 2 E. 4, 3, 2, 1
B. 3, 1, 2, 4
Identify the FALSE statement. A. Adipose tissue is controlled by autonomic efferents. B. All reflexes require input from the brain. C. Some reflexes are genetically determined. D. Muscle spindles are stretch receptors. E. Proprioceptors detect limb position and movement.
B. All reflexes require input from the brain.
When comparing complete tetanus with unfused (incomplete) tetanus, which is true? A. Complete tetanus involves some relaxation between twitches. B. Complete tetanus involves development of maximum tension. C. Complete tetanus occurs at a lower frequency of stimulation than unfused tetanus. D. Complete tetanus would occur when there is more time between twitch contractions.
B. Complete tetanus involves development of maximum tension.
Match the structure to its description A. muscle spindles B. Golgli tendon organs C. both found at the junction of tendons and muscle fibers
B. Golgli tendon organs
Match the type of reflex to its description A. somatic B. autonomic C. spinal D. cranial E. innate F. acquired G. polysynaptic an example would be slowing or speeding the heart and other internal organs that are not consciously controlled
B. autonomic
The structure whose abnormal function is associated with Parkinson's disease is the A. spinal cord. B. basal ganglia. C. cerebellum. D. primary motor cortex. E. skeletal muscle.
B. basal ganglia.
Most of the time, the parallel thick and thin filaments of the myofibrils are connected by ________ that span the space between myosin and actin molecules. A. tropomyosin molecules B. crossbridges C. nebulin molecules D. sarcomeres E. calcium ions
B. crossbridges
The action potential traveling along the t-tubule is detected by the A. ryanodine receptor. B. dihydropyridine (DHP) receptor (L-type calcium channel). C. acetylcholine receptor. D. Ca2+ ATPase.
B. dihydropyridine (DHP) receptor (L-type calcium channel).
Motor units that control skeletal muscles involved with fine motor movements (eye muscles or the hands) have ________ muscle fibers than motor units that control more gross movements (gastrocnemius muscle of the lower leg). A. more B. fewer C. the same number of
B. fewer
The brief period of time between the beginning of the action potential in the muscle and the beginning of contraction is referred to as the A. refractory period. B. latent period. C. relaxation phase. D. depolarization period. E. repolarization period.
B. latent period.
Within a single fiber, the tension developed during a twitch depends upon the A. amplitude of the action potential. B. length of the sarcomeres prior to contraction. C. length of the thick filament. D. duration of the stimulus.
B. length of the sarcomeres prior to contraction.
Skeletal muscle fibers with the greatest endurance rely on ________ for energy. A. anaerobic glycolysis B. oxidative phosphorylation C. lactic acid accumulation D. ketone body degradation
B. oxidative phosphorylation
The function of transverse tubules is to A. store Ca2+ ions inside the muscle fiber. B. rapidly conduct action potentials to the interior of the muscle fiber. C. ensure a supply of glycogen throughout the muscle sarcoplasm. D. conduct ATP molecules out of the mitochondria throughout the sarcoplasm.
B. rapidly conduct action potentials to the interior of the muscle fiber.
For antagonistic muscle groups to move a limb, flexor contraction occurs coincident with A. contraction of the extensor. B. relaxation of the extensor. C. no changes in the extensor. D. contraction of the tendon.
B. relaxation of the extensor.
The reflex that prevents a muscle from exerting too much tension is the A. stretch reflex. B. tendon reflex. C. flexor reflex. D. crossed extensor reflex. E. reciprocal reflex.
B. tendon reflex.
The I band contains A. thick filaments only. B. thin filaments only. C. myosin only. D. thick and thin filaments.
B. thin filaments only.
A flexor is a skeletal muscle whose shortening moves attached bones A. away from one another. B. towards one another. C. medially D. laterally.
B. towards one another.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the motor units and their activation? A. A motor unit in muscles of gross movement can have thousands of muscle cells. B. All muscle fibers in a single motor unit are of the same fiber type. C. A weak contractile stimulus activates fast-twitch motor units. D. The metabolic capacity of muscle fibers within a motor unit can be altered. E. At its peak intensity, a contractile stimulus will activate muscle fibers that are easily fatigued.
C. A weak contractile stimulus activates fast-twitch motor units.
A contraction that generates enough force to move a load is known as ________, whereas one that generates force that equals the load is known as ________. A. isotropic, isometric B. isometric, eccentric C. isotonic, isometric D. isometric, isotonic E. isotonic, eccentric
C. isotonic, isometric
During heavy exercise, the ATP requirements of active muscle are likely to be met by metabolism of A. protein. B. fatty acids. C. carbohydrates. D. nucleotides.
C. carbohydrates.
Which of the following would cause the crossbridge to transition from a high force state to a low force state? A. increasing myosin ATPase activity B. increasing intracellular calcium C. decreasing intracellular calcium D. energizing the myosin head E. decreasing myosin ATPase activity
C. decreasing intracellular calcium
Muscle fatigue arises primarily from failure in A. neuromuscular transmission. B. initiation of contraction by the motor cortex. C. excitation-contraction coupling. D. signal relay from brain to spinal cord. E. calcium pumps in the skeletal muscles.
C. excitation-contraction coupling.
The tension generated in a skeletal muscle fiber is directly proportional to the number of A. thick and thin filaments present. B. nebulin and titin molecules present. C. high energy crossbridges formed. D. low energy crossbridges formed. E. active sarcomeres.
C. high energy crossbridges formed.
The flexion reflex A. prevents a muscle from overstretching. B. prevents a muscle from generating damaging tension. C. moves a limb away from a painful stimulus. D. makes adjustments in other parts of the body in response to a particular stimulus. E. is an example of a monosynaptic reflex.
C. moves a limb away from a painful stimulus.
The speed with which force is developed by skeletal muscles is determined by the A. Ca2+ ATPase activity. B. sarcoplasmic calcium concentration. C. myosin ATPase isoform. D. Ca2+ ATPase activity and sarcoplasmic calcium concentration. E. Ca2+ ATPase activity, myosin ATPase isoform, and sarcoplasmic calcium concentration.
C. myosin ATPase isoform.
This protein is activated by the Ca2+-calmodulin complex to phosphorylate the myosin light chain protein. A. tropomyosin B. myosin heavy chain C. myosin light chain kinase D. myosin light chain phosphatase
C. myosin light chain kinase
Which is NOT true regarding autonomic reflexes? A. Vomiting, sneezing, and coughing are all examples of autonomic reflexes. B. Integrating centers for autonomic reflexes in the brain include the hypothalamus, brain stem, and limbic system. C. reflexes are all monosynaptic, with their synapse in the central nervous system. D. Many autonomic reflexes are characterized by tonic activity, a continuous stream of action potentials.
C. reflexes are all monosynaptic, with their synapse in the central nervous system.
Which class of movement can be considered a combination of the other two? A. reflex B. voluntary C. rhythmic
C. rhythmic
Before the entire muscle can change length, the force generated by the muscle must stretch the A. eccentric contractile elements. B. parallel elastic elements. C. series elastic elements. D. contractile elements.
C. series elastic elements.
When a skeletal muscle cell contracts and the muscle shortens, A. myosin heads generate a single power stroke. B. the position of an actin molecule relative to a myosin molecule does not change. C. some myosin heads are forming crossbridges as others are releasing them. D. the actin ATPase allows the actin molecule to swivel. E. the actin molecule swivels during the power stroke.
C. some myosin heads are forming crossbridges as others are releasing them.
Match the type of reflex to its description A. somatic B. autonomic C. spinal D. cranial E. innate F. acquired G. polysynaptic integrated in the spinal cord, often modulated by the brain
C. spinal
Skeletal muscle cells are usually attached to bone by A. fascicles. B. ligaments. C. tendons. D. flexors.
C. tendons.
After death, when metabolism stops, in which step of the contractile cycle must skeletal muscles remain? A. It depends on what part of the contractile cycle they were in at the time of death. B. the power stoke phase C. the rigor state D. a weak binding state
C. the rigor state
Smooth muscle cells lack which protein(s)? A. actin only B. myosin only C. troponin only D. tropomyosin only E. troponin and tropomyosin
C. troponin only
Once Ca2+ is released from SR, cytosolic [Ca2+] levels increase; where does the Ca2+ bind to cause initiate muscle contraction?
Ca2+ binds to troponin, allowing formation of the actin-myosin crossbridge
What is the DHP receptor physically connected to?
Ca2+ channels (RyR) in the SR
How is Ca2+ removed?
Ca2+-ATPase (SERCA) in the SR starts pumping Ca2+ back into the SR, a decrease in free Ca2+ in the cytosol causes Ca2+ to unbind from troponin
________ is the backup energy molecule that can be rapidly converted to ATP in active skeletal muscle. A. Protein B. Glucose C. Fatty acid D. Phosphocreatine
D. Phosphocreatine
Match the type of reflex to its description A. somatic B. autonomic C. spinal D. cranial E. innate F. acquired G. polysynaptic integrated in the brain
D. cranial
It is the middle of winter and you walk over an icy patch and lose your balance. As you begin to fall, you react by extending your arms to catch yourself. In this instance, what type of reflex is occurring? A. stretch reflex B. tendon reflex C. flexor reflex D. crossed extensor reflex E. reciprocal reflex
D. crossed extensor reflex
The reflex that complements a withdrawal reflex by making compensatory adjustments on the opposite side of the body receiving the stimulus is the A. stretch reflex. B. tendon reflex. C. flexor reflex. D. crossed extensor reflex. E. reciprocal reflex.
D. crossed extensor reflex.
The hydrolysis of ATP causes myosin to immediately A. swivel, moving the actin molecule. B. release of ADP. C. release from the actin. D. rotate into a position (cocked) to bind to actin. E. bind more tightly to the actin (rigor).
D. rotate into a position (cocked) to bind to actin.
Striated muscles are so-called because of a repeating pattern of light and dark bands. One repeating unit of the banding pattern is called a A. myofilament. B. myomere. C. sarcofibril. D. sarcomere. E. crossbridge.
D. sarcomere.
Spinal interneurons prevent muscle antagonists from interfering with an intended movement by A. initiating a crossed extensor reflex. B. initiating a stretch reflex. C. initiating a tendon reflex. D. the process of reciprocal inhibition. E. activating reverberating circuits.
D. the process of reciprocal inhibition.
When a skeletal muscle generates enough force during contraction to shorten, A. only the sarcomere will shorten. B. only the A band will shorten. C. only the I band will shorten. D. the sarcomere and the I band will shorten. E. the sarcomere, the A band and the I band will shorten.
D. the sarcomere and the I band will shorten.
The hydrolysis of ATP causes myosin to immediately A. swivel, moving the actin molecule. B. release of ADP. C. release from the actin. D.rotate into a position (cocked) to bind to actin. E. bind more tightly to the actin (rigor).
D.rotate into a position (cocked) to bind to actin.
Where does the action potential from Na+ channels travel?
Down the muscle fiber and into the t-tubule
Ten-year-old Tina falls while climbing a tree and lands on her back. Her frightened parents take her to the local emergency room where she is examined. Her knee jerk reflex is normal and she exhibits a negative Babinski reflex. These results suggest that A. Tina has injured one of her descending nerve tracts. B. Tina has injured one of her ascending nerve tracts. C. Tina has a spinal injury in the lumbar region. D. Tina has a spinal injury in the cervical region. E. Tina suffered no damage to her spinal cord.
E. Tina suffered no damage to her spinal cord.
Match the type of reflex to its description. A. somatic B. autonomic C. cranial D. innate E. acquired F. polysynaptic our experiences tell us how to behave; bracing yourself in anticipation would be an example
E. acquired
Each myosin head has a binding site for A. calcium only. B. actin only. C. ATP only. D. calcium and ATP. E. actin and ATP.
E. actin and ATP.
In order for high force crossbridges to form in contracting skeletal muscle, calcium must A. bind to calmodulin to phosphorylate the myosin. B. phosphorylate the tropomyosin which moves it. C. phosphorylate the troponin to move the tropomyosin. D. bind to tropomyosin which moves the troponin. E. bind to troponin which moves the tropomyosin.
E. bind to troponin which moves the tropomyosin.
The effector in a reflex is the A. control center. B. afferent neuron. C. efferent neuron. D. sensory receptor. E. muscle or gland.
E. muscle or gland.
When there is a resistance to the movement produced by a given limb muscle, A. gamma motor neurons are inhibited by higher brain centers. B. there is a decrease in the amount of force generated by extrafusal muscle fibers. C. the muscle involved in the movement immediately shortens when stimulated. D. intrafusal fibers receive fewer action potentials from the gamma motor neurons. E. muscle tone is increased and more motor units are recruited to the contraction.
E. muscle tone is increased and more motor units are recruited to the contraction.
Most reflexes are regulated by A. the brain. B. the spinal cord. C. ganglia. D. positive feedback. E. negative feedback.
E. negative feedback.
A polysynaptic reflex has at least ________ in the reflex pathway. A. one synapse B. two synapses C. two neurons D. three neurons E. two synapses and three neurons
E. two synapses and three neurons
Relative to skeletal muscle, smooth muscle A. only uses less energy to generate a given amount of force. B. only can sustain contractile force without fatigue. C. only uses calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and extracellular space. D. uses less energy to generate a given amount of force and can sustain contractile force without fatigue. E. uses less energy to generate a given amount of force, can sustain contractile force without fatigue and uses calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and extracellular space.
E. uses less energy to generate a given amount of force, can sustain contractile force without fatigue and uses calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and extracellular space.
What is calcium induced calcium release?
ECF calcium entering cardiac cell through L-type calcium channels opens Ryanodine recptor Calcium release channels (RyR) to release stored calcium in the SR
T or F: somatic sense receptors are mostly non-neurons
F; many somatic sense receptors are neurons
Major function of autorhythmic cells
Generating spontaneous, rhythmic action potentials to signal myocardial cells to contract
Structure of cardiac myocytes
Irregularly shaped striated muscle fibers with sarcomeres; similar to that of skeletal muscles
Composition of a muscle fiber
Sarcolemma, sarcoplasm, sarcoplasmic reticulum, myofibrils, T-tubules
How does the muscle fiber get depolarized? (first step to excitation-contraction coupling)
The axon terminal of a somatic motor neuron releases acetylcholine, then they bind to ACh gated receptor-channels on the motor end plate allowing Na+ and K+ to flow into the muscle fiber; this depolarization creates an end-plate potential (EPP)
One thin filament is composed of
Two chains of F-actin intertwining like double strand of beads
Can stimuli be summed in skeletal muscle?
Yes; but not possible in cardiac muscle
What is opsin
a GPCR
What is the ciliary muscle
a ring of smooth muscle around the lens of the eye; contraction/ relaxation of this muscle changes the shape of the lens
What is retinal
a visual pigment
Match the structures with the accurate description. a. muscle fiber b. fascicle c. sarcolemma d. myofibril e. t-tubules a single muscle cell
a. muscle fiber
Each myosin head has a binding site for ______ and a binding site for ________
actin; ATP
Approximately how many myofibrils are present in a muscle fiber?
at least 1000
What does troponin do
binds calcium and pulls tropomyosin away from the binding site on actin
What are ganglion cells responsible for
carrying info to the optic nerve, which will travel to the brain
Match the structures with the accurate description a. muscle fiber b. fascicle c. sarcolemma d. myofibril e. t-tubules inward extensions of the muscle cell membrane
e. t-tubules
Which type of cell in the retina can produce action potentials
ganglion cells
For fine touch, proprioception and vibration somatosensory pathways where does the primary neuron synapse
in the medulla
Define a muscle twitch
muscle response to 1 action potential; 1 contraction-relaxation cycle
What is the pathway for vision from eye to visual cortex in the occipital lobe
optic nerve, optic chiasm (crossover to thalamus happens), optic tract projecting to lateral geniculate body in thalamus, then travels to visual cortex
As motor units begin to fatigue, what can be done to maintain tension?
other motor units will be recruited to take over
what is the main difference between pain/temperature receptors and pressure receptors
pain/temperature receptors have free nerve endings and pressure receptors have enclosed nerve endings (pacinian corpsucle)
What is the purpose of having pigment epithelium at the back of the retina
pigment epithelium contains melanin which can absorb light; this absorption prevents light from reflecting back and distorting vision
explain the ventral spinothalamic tract up till the tertiary neuron
primary neuron synapses to secondary neuron in dorsal horn of spinal cord, then the 2ndary neuron crosses the midline of the body also in the spinal cord, then the 2ndary neuron synapses onto the tertiary neuron in the thalamus
Modified endoplasmic reticulum in muscles are called _____________
sarcoplasmic reticulum