CALE Biomedicine Question Bank

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Which of the following is considered a healthy BMI (body mass index)? A. 19-25 B. 29-35 C. 24-29 D. 16-18

A

Which of the following vitamin deficiencies are known to cause pernicious anemia? A. B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency B. B9 (folate) deficiency C. B12 (cobalamin) deficiency D. B1 (thiamine) deficiency

C

Which of the following vitamin deficiencies can lead to dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia? A. Vitamin B5 (pantothenic) deficiency B. Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) deficiency C. Vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency D. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency

C

Which of the following vitamins is fat-soluble? A. Vitamin B2 B. Vitamin B5 C. Vitamin K D. Vitamin B6

C

Converting enzyme for Angiotensin I → Angiotensin II A. Angiotensinogen B. Renin C. ACE D. Aldosterone

C

Elevated T4 levels may indicate all of the following except: A. Pregnancy B. Hyperthyroidism C. Hypothyroidism D. Use of oral contraceptives

C

All of the following immune cell types represent innate immunity EXCEPT: A. Mast cells B. Neutrophils C. B cells and T cells D. Monocytes

C

All of the following medications are used for the treatment of Hypertension EXCEPT? A. Diuretics (HCTZ) B. ACE inhibitors C. Tricyclics D. Beta blockers

C

Increased blood levels of ALT and AST typically indicate: A. Congestive Heart Failure B. Pancreatitis C. Liver disease D. Renal disease

C

What is the preferred treatment method for a female with profuse and malodorous genital discharge of frothy yellow-green hue? (Note: microscopy presents flagellated organisms) A. No treatment needed B. Treat patient only C. Treat patient and sexual partners D. Treat sexual partners only

C

What is the treatment of choice at the 28th week for a pregnant mother with blood type A with Rh(-) and a husband with Blood type O with Rh (+)? A. Blood O type type transfusion B. Blood AO type transfusion C. RHoGAM Shot D. Platelet-rich plasma injection

C

What would be a common cause of passive loss of ROM with absolute decrease in ROM in the shoulder? A. Lateral epicondylitis B. Medial epicondylitis C. Frozen shoulder D. T4 syndrome

C

When blood pressure falls, the kidneys release which of the following enzymes? A. Lipase B. Atrial natriuretic factor C. Renin D. Amylase

C

When should you ask about recreational drug use in the patient interview? A. At the end of the interview B. When asking about prescription drugs C. After asking about caffeine, cigarettes and alcohol use D. Only when you are alone with the patient

C

Which Immunoglobulin crosses the placenta? A. IgE B. IgM C. IgG D. IgA

C

Which of the following blood groups are universal recipients of any blood type? A. Blood group O B. Blood group B C. Blood group AB D. Blood group BAO

C

Which of the following burns involves the epidermis and superficial dermis which presents as red, wet, and painful with possible blisters? A. Fourth degree B. First degree C. Second degree D. Third degree

C

Which of the following immunoglobulins is involved in immediate hypersensitivity responses (allErgic rxn)? A. IgD B. IgA C. IgE D. IgM

C

Your neighbor brings her 7 year old son to your office concerned about a case of lice being spread among his classmates. What is the best advice to give your neighbor to prevent classroom epidemics of head lice? A. Avoid cursing B. Avoid kiss C. Avoid head-to-head (hair-to-hair) contact D. Avoid handshaking

C

Which of the following immunoglobulins is the first type of immunoglobulin to respond to an infection? A. IgD B. IgE C. IgA D. IgM

D

Which of the following is the average life span of a RBC? A. 6 months B. 1 day C. 1 week D. 4 months

D

Which of the following cranial nerves provides parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular, the sublingual salivary glands, and the lacrimal gland? A. Cranial Nerve VII B. Cranial Nerve IX C. Cranial Nerve XII D. Cranial Nerve III

A

Which of the following cranial nerves provides taste from the Anterior 2/3 of the tongue? A. Cranial Nerve VII B. Cranial Nerve VI C. Cranial Nerve IX D. Cranial Nerve X

A

Which of the following diseases is best represented by a lab score of AST: ALT = 2:1 or greater? A. Alcoholic liver disease B. Hepatitis D C. Hepatitis B D. Hepatitis A

A

Which of the following diseases shares many traits with Obstructive Pulmonary Disease? A. Sarcoidosis B. Emphysema C. Asthma D. Obesity hypoventilation syndrome

A

Which of the following hormones is responsible for raising body temperature during the luteal phase of menstruation? A. Progesterone B. Luteinizing hormone (LH) C. Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) D. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

A

Which of the following immune cells defends the body against helminthic (worm) infections? A. Eosinophil B. Monocyte C. Neutrophil D. Basophil

A

Which of the following immunoglobulins is an antigen receptor on B-lymphocyte surfaces with little known function? A. IgD B. IgE C. IgG D. IgA

A

Which of the following immunoglobulins provides local protection of mucous membranes? A. IgA B. IgM C. IgD D. IgE

A

Which of the following is a function of eosinophils? A. Allergic reactions B. Phagocytosis C. Inflammatory reactions D. Humoral and Cellular immunity

A

Which of the following is a primary responsibility that a health care provider has for all patients? A. Assess for alcohol and substance abuse B. Assess for colon cancer C. Assess for hepatitis D. Assess for mental health status

A

Which of the following is a significant risk factor for COPD? A. Cigarette smoking B. Sugar consumption C. Opiate use D. Acid reflux

A

Which of the following is an indication of right-sided Heart Failure? A. Jugular vein distension B. A slow heart beat C. Glucose in the urine D. A dry hacking cough

A

Which of the following is considered a "super-bug" that is resistant to antibiotics such as penicillins and cephalosporins? A. MRSA B. Streptoccus pyogenes C. Helicobacter pylori D. Staphylococcus aureus

A

Which of the following is not a cause of Secondary Hypertension? A. Dehydration B. Untreated Sleep Apnea C. Renal Disease D. Cushing's Disease

A

Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of Hypoglycemia? A. Dry and flushed skin B. Blurred vision C. Weakness D. Headache

A

Which of the following is not a symptom of Hyperthyroidism? A. Weight gain B. Tachycardia C. Increased appetite D. Nervousness

A

Which of the following is not associated with Addison's Disease? A. Hypersecretion of glucocoticoids B. weight loss C. hyperpigmentation D. Decrease in blood glucose levels

A

Which of the following is the average life span of a RBC in a patient with sickle cell anemia? A. Shorter (12-15 days) B. Longer (150-200 days) C. Extra longer (1500-2000 days) D. Shorter (110 days)

A

Which of the following is the chain of blood pressure regulating hormones that certain class of inhibitor-type drugs affect? A. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system B. Sympathetic-parasympathetic system C. Nervous-endocrine system D. Hypothalamus-pituitary-thyroid system

A

Which of the following is the first step for hypertension treatment? A. Lifestyle modification B. Calcium Channel Blockers C. Thiazide diuretics D. Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors

A

Which of the following is the ideal solo first responder's Compression-Ventilation ratio without advanced airway for an adult? A. 30 compressions : 2 ventilations B. 20 compressions : 2 ventilations C. 30 compressions : 3 ventilations D. 15 ventilations : 20 compressions

A

Which of the following is the ideal solo two-person responder's Compression-Ventilation ratio without advanced airway for Infants? A. 15 compressions : 2 ventilations B. 10 compressions : 2 ventilations C. 15 compressions : 1 ventilations D. 2 compressions : 2 ventilations

A

Which of the following is the leading cause of cancer deaths among men in U.S.? A. Lung cancer B. Testicular cancer C. Prostate cancer D. Colorectal cancer

A

Which of the following is the most common cause of cancer among women in U.S.? A. Breast cancer B. Lung cancer C. Colorectal cancer D. Ovarian cancer

A

Which of the following is the only contraception proven effective in protecting against STDs? A. Male condom B. Mirena C. ParaGard D. Skyla

A

Which of the following medications would you be concerned about your 40 year old patient taking if you knew he had liver disease? A. Acetaminophen B. Acetyl-Co-A C. Glutathione D. Wellbutrin

A

Which of the following pathogens is the major cause of acute diarrhea in the U.S. during the winter months. (Note: It is found at high rates in daycare centers and kindergartens) A. Rotavirus B. Dengue virus C. Norovirus D. Cytomegalovirus

A

Which of the following concepts are considered the new essential priority for performing proper CPR? A. Circulation-Breathing-Airway B. Compressions-Airway-Breathing C. Breathing-Compressions-Airway D. Airway-Breathing-Circulation

B

Which of the following conditions are NOT part of the HAART therapy criteria? A. High viral load B. Blood tinged sputum C. Low CD4 cell counts (<500 cells/mm3) D. Infection by opportunistic infection

B

Which of the following conditions can be characterized by right lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, vomiting, constipation, and an increase in WBC count? A. Irritable Bowel Syndrome B. Appendicitis C. Cholecystitis D. Rectal Prolaps

B

Which of the following conditions is HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy) prescribed for? A. Cytomegalovirus B. HIV C. HPV D. Hepatitis

B

Which of the following conditions is best characterized by chills, high fever, fatigue, chest pain, cough, and mucus? A. Spontaneous pneumothorax B. Pneumonia C. Tension pneumothorax D. Pleural effusions

B

Which of the following conditions is characterized by hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, bizarre behaviors, lack of enjoyment in activities most people enjoy and a tendency to speak very little? A. Bipolar Disorder B. Schizophrenia C. Major Depressive Disorder D. Asperger syndrome

B

Which of the following conditions is characterized by insomnia, feelings of worthlessness, fatigue, inability to concentrate, and weight loss? A. Histrionic Personality Disorder B. Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) C. Bipolar Disorder D. Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)

B

Which of the following conditions is characterized by iron overload? A. Wilson's Disease B. Hemochromatosis C. Kayser-Fleischer rings D. ↓Serum Ceruloplasmin

B

Which of the following conditions is characterized by mild depressive symptoms that develop within a few days of delivery and resolve within 2 weeks? A. Postpartum depression B. Postpartum blues C. Postpartum remorse D. Postpartum psychosis

B

Which of the following conditions is characterized by substernal chest tightness and pain, SOB with a consistent amount of exertion; and relief experienced with rest or nitroglycerine? A. Myocardial Infarction B. Stable angina C. Acute coronary syndrome D. Unstable angina

B

Which of the following conditions is reflected by weakness, anemia, bruising, bleeding gums and loose teeth? A. Rickets B. Scurvy C. Juvenile Diabetes D. Pellagra

B

Which of the following conditions is represented by a systolic blood pressure greater than 160, diastolic blood pressure > 110, proteinuria, and possible seizure? A. Diabetes mellitus (DM) B. Eclampsia C. Severe preeclampsia D. Mild preeclampsia

B

Which of the following conditions is responsible for causing the most common STI? A. HIV B. HPV C. Chlamydia D. Gonorrhea

B

Which of the following conditions is responsible for causing the most common bacterial STI (sexually transmitted infections)? A. HPV B. Chlamydia C. Gonorrhea D. HSV

B

Which of the following conditions often occurs 4 weeks postpartum and is characterized by breast pain and redness along with a high fever, chills, and flu-like symptoms? (Note: there may also be focal breast erythema, swelling, and tenderness) A. Gynecomastia B. Mastitis C. Breast cancer D. Simple breast engorgement

B

Which of the following constituents of human blood help form blood clots to curtail bleeding A. Red blood cells B. Platelets C. Blood Plasma D. White blood cells

B

Which of the following contains a drug that is NOT a statin? A. Rosuvastatin Crestor, Simvastatin Zocor B. Haloperidol Haldol, Atorvastatin Lipitor C. Fluvastatin Lescol, Pravastatin Pravachol D. Pitavastatin Livalo, Ezetimibe Zetia

B

Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT contain Taste Fibers? A. Cranial Nerve IX B. Cranial Nerve III C. Cranial Nerve X D. Cranial Nerve VII

B

Which of the following cranial nerves provides Mixed Motor & Sensory Nerve? A. Cranial Nerve I B. Cranial Nerve V C. Cranial Nerve II D. Cranial Nerve VIII

B

Which of the following cranial nerves provides Vestibular (Position) Cochlear (Hearing) nerve? A. Cranial Nerve XI B. Cranial Nerve VIII C. Cranial Nerve IX D. Cranial Nerve VI

B

Which of the following cranial nerves provides motor function to the SCM and Trapezius muscle? A. Cranial Nerve IX B. Cranial Nerve XI C. Cranial Nerve XII D. Cranial Nerve X

B

Which of the following criteria are considered a major risk factor for cervical cancer? A. HSV infection, Tobacco use B. HPV infection, Tobacco use C. HPV infection, Alcohol use D. HSV infection, Alcohol use

B

Which of the following disorders causes altered speech, splenomegaly, liver dysfunction, involuntary movements, and Kayser-Fleischer rings around the corneo-scleral junction? A. Marfan syndrome B. Wilson Disease C. Hemochromatosis D. Macular degeneration

B

Which of the following doses of folate are the guidelines for pregnant women? A. For a woman planning a pregnancy (0.3 mg per day); for a woman with a history of neural tube defects (4 g per day). B. For a woman planning a pregnancy (0.4 mg per day); for a woman with a history of neural tube defects (4 g per day). C. For a woman planning a pregnancy (0.3 mg per day); for a woman with a history of neural tube defects (3 g per day). D. For a woman planning a pregnancy (0.4 mg per day); for a woman with a history of neural tube defects (3 g per day).

B

Which of the following forms of hepatitis have abrupt onset? A. Hepatitis B, Hepatitis D B. Hepatitis A, Hepatitis E C. Hepatitis A, Hepatitis D D. Hepatitis E, Hepatitis D

B

Which of the following forms of hepatitis is transmitted along fecal-oral routes and presents the highest rate of mortality in prEgnant women? A. Hepatitis B B. Hepatitis E C. Hepatitis A D. Hepatitis C E. Hepatitis D

B

Which of the following genetic markers are found in Down syndrome? A. Trisomy 11 B. Trisomy 21 C. Trisomy 13 D. Trisomy 18

B

Which of the following hormones is produced by alpha cells of the pancreas and is capable of raising the concentration of glucose in the bloodstream? A. GnRH B. Glucagon C. Somatostatin D. Insulin

B

Which of the following imaging modalities can best evaluate muscle injury? A. X-Ray B. MRI C. CAT Scan D. DEXA Scan

B

Which of the following infections of the epidermis presents with honey-colored lesions and is caused by Staph aureus or Strep pyogenes? A. Vitiligo B. Impetigo C. Erysipelas D. Cellulitis

B

Which of the following injuries does the posterior drawer sign indicate? A. Medial meniscus injury B. PCL injury C. Lateral meniscus injury D. ACL injury

B

Which of the following instruments are used to examine the external ear canal and tympanic membrane? A. Stethoscope B. Otoscope C. Sigmoidoscope D. Bronchoscope

B

Which of the following is a MOA of drugs used for hypercholesterolemia? A. Alpha blockers B. HMG -CoA Reductase inhibitors C. ACE inhibtors D. Calcium Channel blockers

B

Which of the following is a first-line medication for the treatment of Diabetes Mellitus Type 2? A. Atorvastatin (Lipitor) B. Metformin C. Niacin D. Insulin

B

Which of the following is a precaution for the use of Cipro? A. Increase in vasodilation B. Decreased effectiveness of oral contraceptives C. Increase in effects of antihypertensive medications D. Increase in clotting times

B

Which of the following is not a symptom of Type 2 Diabetes? A. Increased thirst B. Lack of appetite C. Paresthesia D. Increased urination

B

Which of the following is not a symptom of Type 2 Diabetes? A. Paresthesia B. Lack of appetite C. Increased urination D. Increased thirst

B

Which of the following is not a typical symptom of Parkinson's Disease? A. Resting tremor B. Drooping facial appearance C. Shuffling gait D. Cogwheel rigidity

B

Which of the following is the MOA of Warfarin (Coumadin)? A. Inhibits the ACE pathway B. Inhibits synthesis of vitamin K C. Activates anti-thrombin pathways D. Increases parasympathetic tones

B

Which of the following is the average life span of a platelet? A. 2-4 days B. 5-10 days C. 3-4 months D. 4-6 months

B

Which of the following is the converting enzyme for Angiotensinogen → Angiotensin I? A. ADH B. Renin C. Aldosterone D. ACE

B

Which of the following is the correct order of movement of blood through the heart? A. Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary vein, pulmonary artery, left atrium, left ventricle B. Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery, pulmonary vein, left atrium, left ventricle C. Right atrium, left atrium, pulmonary vein, pulmonary artery, right ventricle, left ventricle D. Right atrium, left atrium, pulmonary artery, pulmonary vein, right ventricle, left ventricle

B

Which of the following is the ideal solo first responder's Compression-Ventilation ratio without advanced airway for Children A. 20 compressions : 2 ventilations B. 30 compressions : 2 ventilations C. 2 compressions : 15 ventilations D. 15 compressions : 1 ventilations

B

Which of the following is the most significant infectious risk for workers in the United States? A. Hepatitis E B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis A D. Hepatitis C

B

Which of the following is well regarded mnemonic for confirming an alcohol abuse disorder? A. SAD PERSONS B. CAGE C. MMSE D. SIG E CAPS

B

Which of the following lab scores reflects a positive diagnosis for hypertension? A. BP > 120/75 on 3 separate occasions B. BP > 130/90 on 3 separate occasions C. BP > 140/90 on 3 separate occasions D. BP > 160/90 on 3 separate occasions

B

Which of the following medications is a beta-agonist used for acute asthma exacerbations? A. Diphenhydraimine B. Albuterol C. Guaifenesin D. Loratadine

B

Which of the following organisms can cause diarrhea and life-threatening inflammation of the colon? A. Lactobacillus helveticus B. Colostrum difficile C. Basillus clausii D. Streptococcus bovis

B

Which of the following pathogens is the causative agent of Whooping cough? A. Epstein-Barr virus B. Bordetella pertussis C. Dengue virus D. Rhinovirus

B

Which of the following pharmaceuticals does not reflect the appropriate effect on the eyes? A. Opium : Contracted pupils B. Hypnotics : Flushed face, diaphoresis C. Stimulants : Dilated pupils D. Marijuana : Glassy, red eyes

B

Which of the following phases of sleep usually occurs 90 minutes after falling asleep? (Note: during this phase dreaming and penile/clitoral tumescence occur and this phase may serve a role in memory processing) A. Non-REM N1 B. REM C. Non-REM N2 D. Non-REM N3

B

Which of the following physiologic functions is associated with the parasympathetic system? A. Bronchi dilate B. Emission of bile C. Pupils dilate D. Increased heart beat

B

Your patient of ten years, a 55 year old female, enters the clinic frantically complaining that her HbA1c blood count scared her. You want to help her understand whether or not she has diabetes, but she left her lab work at home. For a diagnosis of diabetes to be rendered, what lab values for the HbA1c must there be? A. Between 6.0% - 6.4% B. Below 6.5% C. 126% or over D. 6.5% or over

D

Which of the following conditions presents pathology above pectinate line and is not painful? A. Pain in the ass B. Anal fissure C. Internal hemorrhoid D. External hemorrhoid

C

Which of the following contains a drug that is NOT a statin? A. Rosuvastatin Crestor, Simvastatin Zocor B. Fluvastatin Lescol, Pravastatin Pravachol C. Haloperidol Haldol, Ezetimibe Zetia D. Pitavastatin Livalo, Atorvastatin Lipitor

C

Which of the following cranial nerves are responsible for pupillary reactions? A. Cranial nerve VI and VII B. Cranial nerve I and II C. Cranial nerve II and III D. Cranial nerve VII and IX

C

Which of the following cranial nerves do NOT contain taste fibers? A. CN9 IX B. CN10 X C. CN2 II D. CN7 VII

C

Which of the following deficiencies are caused by inadequate or defective mineralization of the skeleton? (Hint: This same condition is called rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults.) A. Vitamin E Deficiency B. Vitamin K deficiency C. Vitamin D deficiency D. Vitamin C deficiency

C

Which of the following deficiencies are caused by inadequate or defective mineralization of the skeleton? (Hint: This same condition is called rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults.) A. Vitamin K deficiency B. Vitamin C deficiency C. Vitamin D deficiency D. Vitamin E Deficiency

C

Which of the following forms of hepatitis are Bloodborne? A. Hepatitis A, Hepatitis D B. Hepatitis D, Hepatitis E C. Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis A, Hepatitis C

C

Which of the following hemorrhages are berry aneurysms characteristic of __________________? A. Subdural hemorrhage B. Intracranial hemorrhage C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Epidural hemorrhage

C

Which of the following herbs are used for liver diseases? A. Saw Palmetto B. Eleuthrococcus C. Milk thistle D. Valerian

C

Which of the following herbs are used in treatment of enlarged prostate? A. Valerian B. Milk thistle C. Saw Palmetto D. Eleuthrococcus

C

Which of the following hormones are produced by the Anterior Pituitary gland? A. ACTH, LH, FSH, Melatonin B. ACTH, ADH, LH, FSH C. ACTH, LH, FSH, TSH D. ADH, LH, FSH, TSH

C

Which of the following hormones are synthesized by the hypothalamus and are released from Posterior Pituitary? A. GH & Prolactin B. LH & FSH C. ADH & Oxytocin D. TSH & ACTH

C

Which of the following hormones do ovulation kits detect? A. Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) B. Progesterone C. Luteinizing hormone (LH) D. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

C

Which of the following immune cells is primary target of the human immunodeficiency virus? A. Major histocompatibility cells B. Beta cells C. CD4 helper T cells D. CD8 cytotoxic T cells

C

Which of the following immunoglobulins is the most common and crosses the placenta? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgG D. IgM

C

Which of the following indicate the adverse effects of Ibuprofen (eg. Motrin, Advil)? A. Constriction of the large bronchioles B. Pupil constriction C. GI bleeding D. Loss of fine motor skills

C

Which of the following infections of the dermis and subcutaneous fat is warm erythematous and tender? (Note: This condition may be associated with an identifiable portal of entry such as a cut, tinea pedis, animal or insect bite, ulcer, or injection site.) A. Necrotizing fasciitis B. Erysipelas C. Cellulitis D. Impetigo

C

Which of the following injuries is found to be painful on external rotation during the McMurray test? A. PCL injury B. ACL injury C. Lateral meniscus injury D. Medial meniscus injury

C

Which of the following is a known side effect of Lipitor (atorvastatin)? A. Weight gain B. Long term memory loss C. Myalgia (muscle pain) D. Tachycardia (rapid heart beat)

C

Which of the following is the most common cause of cancer among men in the U.S.? A. Colorectal cancer B. Throat cancer C. Prostate cancer D. Lung cancer

C

Which of the following is the only type of antibody that can cross the placenta in a preGnant woman to help protect the fetus? A. IgA B. IgM C. IgG D. IgE

C

Which of the following medical interventions are capable of being teratogenic for a pregnancy? A. Pantothenic acid B. Class B drugs C. Abdominal CT D. Class A drugs

C

Which of the following metastases is the leading cause of cancer death? A. Prostate cancer B. Throat cancer C. Lung cancer D. Colorectal cancer

C

Which of the following organs is the Central Nervous System (CNS) composed of? A. Sympathetic & Parasympathetic B. Somatic & Autonomic C. Brain & Spinal Cord D. Brain & Eyes

C

Which of the following orthopedic tests is commonly used to test for an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury? A. Posterior drawer test B. Removal drawer test C. Anterior drawer test D. Valgus stress

C

Which of the following represents a normal and average DTR (deep tendon reflex) response? A. 1+ B. 4+ C. 2+ D. 3+ E. 5+

C

Which of the following sex chromosome variations is indicated by: 45, XO ? A. Facet syndrome B. Marfan syndrome C. Turner syndrome D. Fragile X syndrome

C

Which of the following statements about Portal Hypertension is not true? A. It can lead to ascites. B. It can cause Caput Medusae or purple veins that can be seen around the umbilicus. C. It is due to an increase in pressure in the Hepatic Portal artery. D. It can be caused by cirrhosis of the liver.

C

Which of the following suffixes represents the generic name of cholesterol lowering drugs? A. -ine B. -ol C. -statin D. -afil

C

Which of the following symptoms is NOT a characteristic of Parkinson's disease? A. Writing changes B. Cogwheeling rigidity C. Tremor during voluntary movements D. Pill rolling tremor

C

Which of the following tests is the standard imaging for ruling out a patient at risk for an Abnormal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)? A. CT Scan B. Angiography C. Ultrasonography D. MRI

C

Which of the following urinalysis methods indicate the presence of bacterial infection somewhere along the urinary tract? A. Ketones B. Urobilinogen C. Nitrites D. Bilirubin

C

Which of the following vitamin deficiencies are known to cause megaloblastic anemia? A. B1(thiamine) deficiency, B3 (niacin) deficiency B. B3 (niacin) deficiency, B5 (pantothenic acid) deficiency C. B9 (folate) deficiency, B12 (cobalamin) deficiency D. B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency, B7 (biotin) deficiency

C

Which of these inflammatory bowel diseases presents with oral ulcers, involves portions of the terminal ileum, colon, abdominal pain, non-bloody diarrhea, and perirectal abscess/fistula? A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Diverticular disease C. Crohn's disease D. Ulcerative colitis

C

Which type of anemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor and an inability to absorb vitamin B12? A. Thalassemia B. Sickle Cell Anemia C. Pernicious Anemia D. Aplastic Anemia

C

Which types of HPV account for the majority of cervical cancers? A. HZV 16 and 11 B. HPV 6 and 11 C. HPV 16 and 18 D. HPZ 6 and 18

C

Which valve separates the left atrium and the left ventricle? A. Cardiac valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Mitral valve D. Pulmonary valve

C

You have a patient that comes to the clinic with severe diarrhea 6-7 times a day causing weakness and lethargy. You ask the patient what the trigger was and they state that they had eaten at a new restaurant which made their whole family sick. During this visit the patient has had two more bouts of diarrhea. What should you do? A. Refer the patient to their primary care and tell them to take pedialyte B. Give the patient water and herbs then refer them to their primary care C. Refer the patient to the ER and report the incident to the local FDA D. Refer the patient to the ER and report the incident to the local CDC

C

Your 57 year old female patient was told by her physician that she would like to schedule her for a Cystoscopy. What organ is this scan used for? A. Small Intestine B. Gall Bladder C. Bladder D. Ovary

C

Which condition is characterized by peripheral ipsilateral facial paralysis with an inability to close the eye on the involved side: A. Dysfunction of the Cranial Nerve VI B. Dysfunction of the Cranial Nerve I C. Dysfunction of the Cranial Nerve XII D. Dysfunction of the Cranial Nerve VII

D

Which cranial nerves are involved in extraocular movements? A. Optic, Oculomotor, Abducens B. Oculomotor, Abducens, Accessory C. Trochlear, Oculomotor, Accessory D. Trochlear, Oculomotor, Abducens

D

Which disorder best describes a patient who presents with paresthesias, ataxic gait, facial twitching, heat intolerance, and difficulty concentrating with symptoms that remit then relapse at separate intervals: A. Systemic Lupus Erythematous (SLE) B. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) C. Guillian-Barre Syndrome D. Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

D

Which imaging method would NOT be used to determine the size of a tumor in the abdomen? A. CT scan B. Ultrasound C. MRI D. X-Rays

D

Which muscle can be associated with sciatica symptoms? A. Gluteus Maximus B. Gluteus Minimus C. Iliopsoas D. Piriformis

D

Which muscles comprise the rotator cuff? A. Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Subscapularis, Deltoid B. Teres Major, Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Subscapularis C. Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Trapezius, Subscapularis D. Teres Minor, Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Subscapularis

D

Which of the follow mean corpuscle values represents one of Normocytic anemia? A. MCV >1000fL B. MCV >110fL C. MCV < 70fL D. MCV 80-100fL

D

Which of the following BP rates are considered to be pre-hypertension? A. SBP 90-119 and 60-79 B. SBP 100-119 and 66-80 C. SBP 140-159 or DBP 90-99 D. SBP 120-129 or DBP 80-89

D

Which of the following Cranial Nerves controls the tongue? A. CN VII B. CN VI C. CN IX D. CN XII

D

Which of the following TWO blood vessels contain oxygenated blood? A. Vena Cava / Pulmonary Artery B. Aorta / Vena Cava C. Pulmonary artery / Superior Vena Cava D. Pulmonary vein / Aorta

D

Which of the following best represents the correct order of steps in the cell cycle? A. G1 - S - G2 - Mitosis B. G1 - G2 - S2 - Mitosis C. G1 - Mitosis - G2 - S D. S - G1 - G2 - Mitosis

D

Which of the following clinical findings represent Prostate cancer? A. Increased GnRH B. Increasing Glucose followed by decreasing Glucose C. Increasing FSH followed by decreasing FSH D. Increased PSA

D

Which of the following conditions causes loss of urine with exertion (such as when running) or straining (i.e. coughing, laughing)? A. Total incontinence B. Urgent incontinence C. Overflow incontinence D. Stress incontinence

D

Which of the following conditions follows an exposure to a near death experience or serious injury? (Note: this condition often evokes intense fear, helplessness, or horror) A. Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) B. Panic Disorder C. Avoidant Personality Disorder (APD) D. Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

D

Which of the following conditions is characterized by euphoric and irritable mood, insomnia, grandiosity, flight of ideas, and sexual indiscretions? A. Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) B. Histrionic Personality Disorder C. Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) D. Bipolar Disorder

D

Which of the following conditions is possible to be the cause of LLQ (left lower quadrant) pain? A. Cholecystitis B. Pancreatitis C. Appendicitis D. Diverticulitis

D

Which of the following conditions is responsible for causing patients to experience koplik spots, descending maculopapular rashes, cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis? A. Mumps B. Rabies C. Rubella D. Measles

D

Which of the following conditions is the #1 cause of death for those between 15 and 24 years of age in the U.S.? A. Urogenital disorders B. Methamphetamine use C. Joyriding D. Unintentional injury

D

Which of the following cranial nerves are involved in the sense of taste? A. Cranial nerve IV B. Cranial nerve III C. Cranial nerve X D. Cranial nerve IX

D

Which of the following cranial nerves provides motor function to the intrinsic and extrinsic of the tongue? A. Cranial Nerve IX B. Cranial Nerve XI C. Cranial Nerve VII D. Cranial Nerve XII

D

Which of the following cranial nerves provides taste from the Posterior 1/3 of the tongue? A. Cranial Nerve VI B. Cranial Nerve X C. Cranial Nerve IV D. Cranial Nerve IX

D

Which of the following directives should be taken when a patient is observed to have a blood pressure of 220/140 with a headache and blurred vision? A. Refer to Family physician B. Treat with acupuncture and herbs C. Walk the patient through self-care over the phone D. Refer to ER immediately

D

Which of the following hormones influences human Circadian Rhythms and when taken orally can treat sleep-wake disorders (often secondary to jet lag or shift work)? A. Valerian B. Hops C. T3 D. Melatonin

D

Which of the following imaging techniques are capable of diagnosing both epidural and subdural hematomas? A. X-ray B. Ultrasonography C. MRI D. CT Scan

D

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of meningitis? A. Neck stiffness B. Fever C. Mental status change D. Sulcus sign

D

Which of the following is a commonly known adverse effect of ACE inhibitors? A. Productive cough B. Petechia C. Muscle ache D. Dry cough

D

Which of the following is a small contraceptive device, often 'T'-shaped, containing either levonorgestrel or copper, which is inserted into the uterus? (Note: this method is long-acting and reversible). A. Diaphragm B. Female condom C. DUI + Rhythm method D. IUD

D

Which of the following is an alpha-beta blocker? A. Vasotec (enalapril) B. Cardizem (diltiazem) C. Calan (verapamil) D. Trandate (labetalol)

D

Which of the following is best described as painful vesicles evolving into crusted lesions in a dermatomal distribution? A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. Acne vulgaris (Common acne) C. Bullous pemphigoid D. Herpes Zoster (Shingles)

D

Which of the following is the MOA of Warfarin (Coumadin)? A. Inhibits the ACE pathway B. Activates anti-thrombin pathways C. Increases parasympathetic tones D. Inhibits synthesis of vitamin K

D

Which of the following is the leading cause of cancer death for both males and females? A. Throat Cancer B. Colorectal Cancer C. Stomach Cancer D. Lung cancer

D

Which of the following is the leading cause of cancer deaths among women in U.S.? A. Breast cancer B. Colorectal cancer C. Ovarian cancer D. Lung cancer

D

Which of the following is the most important measure to preventing cross-infection? A. Wearing a gown B. Wearing gloves C. Wearing a mask D. Hand washing

D

Which of the following metastases is the leading cause of cancer death? A. Colorectal cancer B. Throat cancer C. Prostate cancer D. Lung cancer

D

Which of the following new techniques is used in conjunction with mammography specifically because it is very sensitive and specific in evaluating the female breast? A. Self-exam B. X-ray C. Ultrasonography D. MRI

D

Which of the following organisms is NOT one of the common pathogens for UTI in women? A. Pseudomonas B. E Coli C. Klebsiella D. Serratia

D

Which of the following regions does an upper endoscopy not visualize? A. Stomach B. Duodenum C. Esophagus D. Heart

D

Which of the following regions of the GI tract are the sites of enzyme release for Carbohydrate digestion? A. Stomach & Small Intestine B. Small Intestine & Sigmoid colon C. Mouth & Stomach D. Mouth & Small Intestine

D

Which of the following signs are present in the feces when bile production is reduced? A. Mucous strands B. Blood C. Very small stones D. Fat streaks

D

Which of the following signs is indicated when the neck is flexed, the knee and hip flex along with it involuntarily? A. Murphy's sign B. Sulcus sign C. Kernig sign D. Brudzinski sign

D

Which of the following statements about Multiple Sclerosis is not true? A. An electrical sensation down the back with neck flexion is often a symptom. B. It may cause increased sensitivity to temperature changes. C. Its first sign is often unilaterally blurred vision. D. It typically affects men more frequently than women.

D

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding suicide risk? A. 2/3 of completed suicides are Caucasian males B. Those >75yo account for 25% of completed suicides C. Men complete suicide 3 times more than women D. Men attempt suicide 4 times more than women

D

Which of the following types of cancer grow slowly and rarely metastasize? A. Actinic keratoses B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Melanoma D. Basal cell carcinoma

D

Which of the following types of hemorrhage occur with an abrupt "thunder clap-like" type of headache? A. Subdural hemorrhage B. Intracranial hemorrhage C. Epidural hemorrhage D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

D

Which of the following types of hypersensitivity is represented by asthma, hay fever (allergic rhinitis), food allergies, eczema and anaphylaxis? A. Type 4 hypersensitivity B. Type 3 hypersensitivity C. Type 2 hypersensitivity D. Type 1 hypersensitivity

D

Which of the following types of leukemia is most common in children? A. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML) B. Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML) C. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) D. Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)

D

Which of the following viruses that can spread quickly in closed places such as daycare centers, nursing homes, schools, and cruise ships? A. Dengue virus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Yellow fever virus D. Norovirus

D

Which of the following vitamin deficiencies is characterized by poor night vision, damage to cornea, and dry or cracked skin? A. Vitamin C deficiency B. Vitamin B deficiency C. Vitamin D deficiency D. Vitamin A deficiency

D

Which of the immune cells performs the activity of engulfing WBCs via phagocytosis? A. Basophils, Monocytes B. Neutrophils, Lymphocytes C. Eosinophils, Monocytes D. Neutrophils, Monocytes

D

Which type of nerves delivers motor commands from the central nervous system to the body? A. Systemic nerves B. Autonomic nerves C. Peripheral Afferent nerves D. Peripheral Efferent nerves

D

You ask your patient to place her palms together in front of her with fingers pointing up. After about ten seconds, she reports numbness and tingling in her left hand and wrist. Which structure is most likely involved? A. Radial nerve B. Extensor carpi ulnaris C. Flexor digitorum profundus D. Median nerve

D

You place your hands on your patient's abdomen just below the right costal margin at the midclavicular line. You ask your patient to take a deep breath in as you firmly press on the abdomen. If your patient experiences pain from this action, the most likely diagnosis is: A. Duodenal ulcer B. Splenomegaly C. Pancreatitis D. Cholecystitis

D

You test the biceps reflex on your patient. The reflex appears to be diminished. Which spinal nerve(s) is most likely affected? A. C7 B. C5 C. C6 D. C5 and C6

D

Your 67 year old female patient of 10 years comes into the office describing her new diagnosis of osteoporosis. She desires a dietary plan going forward. Which of the following is considered a risk factor for osteoporosis? A. Soy products B. Read Meat C. Colas D. Smoking

D

Which of the following conditions can be determined in the most robust way by an X-ray? A. Scoliosis B. Kyphosis C. Swayback D. Lordosis

A

13. Finish the following mnemonic • Suicide risk assessment = "SAD PERSONS" 1. S: Male sex 2. A: Age (<19 or >45 years) 3. D: ______________ 4. P: Previous attempt 5. E: Excess alcohol or substance use 6. R: Rational thinking loss 7. S: Social supports lacking 8. O: Organized plan 9. N: No spouse 10. S: Sickness A. Depression B. Dysthymia C. Dementia D. Down Syndrome

A

A patient with pin point pupils most likely would be on what type of medication? A. Anti-Cholinergics B. Statins C. Opioids D. Proton Pump Inhibitors

C

35 year old male patient enters the clinic complaining of chronic dry flaking skin. His hands are tender to the touch and slightly swollen. Upon questioning, you discover that he washes his hands over 50 times a day. A. OCD: Obsessive-Complusive Disorder B. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder C. Avoidant Personality Disorder D. Anxiety

A

A 34-year-old male comes into your office. Before treatment commences he begins to vomit. He complains of hardness on the lower right side of his abdomen. Upon palpation you notice rebound tenderness on the same side. Which of the following physical exams did you observe to be positive? A. McBurney sign B. Oppenheim sign C. Murphy sign D. Sulcus sign

A

A product designed to kill microbial life on living tissue is called a(n): A. Sterilizer B. Bleaching agent C. Antiseptic D. Disinfectant

C

All of the following statements about Crohn's disease are correct, except: A. It affects only partial thickness of bowel tissue. B. It may cause significant weight loss. C. It can cause fistulae and abscesses. D. It can produce cramping and severe abdominal pain.

A

Which of the following blood groups contains an A antigen on RBC surface and an Anti-B antibody in plasma? A. Blood group A B. Blood group O C. Blood group AB D. Blood group B

A

A 20-year-old female enters your office complaining of bilateral swelling and tenderness of the fingers. Upon history taking you learn that this has been persisting for several weeks. Which of the following conditions is mostly likely? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Lateral epicondylitis C. Osteoarthritis of the metacarpals D. Osteoarthritis of the metatarsals

A

A 25 year old female walks into your clinic complaining of recurrent sores in the oral region (also known as "cold sores"). She explains in a roundabout kind of way that she thinks she has had it all her life but she has been eating a lot of dates for the past three days. Which of these is the virus most likely causing these sores? A. HSV-1 B. VZV (varicella zoster virus) C. HSV-2 D. Epstein-Barr Virus

A

A 27 year old male enters your clinic with red and itchy skin. He reveals silvery and scaly plaques on his knees, elbows, gluteal cleft, and scalp. He also has unusual pitting in his fingernails. Which of the following conditions are most likely what he suffers from? A. Psoriasis B. Zinc deficiency C. Matrix dermatitis D. Atopic dermatitis

A

A 29-year-old Rh(-) mother is having her 2nd pregnancy. She is concerned about hemolytic anemia in the fetus caused by transplacental transmission of maternal antibodies to fetal RBCs. Could have been prevented by? A. Rho(D) Immunoglobulin B. B12 Vitamin shots C. Water birth D. Blood group O transfusion

A

A 32-year-old woman wants to be treated for chronic mastitis but her doctor warned her that she should continue the full regimen of the antibiotics. She is concerned about the antibiotics affecting the infant and wants you to clear up the situation for her. Which of the following are standard of care for a breast-feeding woman with mastitis? A. Antibiotics + Continue breast-feeding B. Antibiotics + Discontinue breast-feeding C. Antibiotics + Baby formula D. Begin herbs + Continue breast-feeding

A

A 48 year old man enters your office complaining of severe pain and redness in his big toe. You notice that he is significantly overweight and very red in the face. He has been reinventing himself by pursuing a second career as a chef. He has noticed that anytime he consumes lots of alcohol, large amounts of oysters, or mushrooms his toe gets worse. Which is the likely condition? A. Gout B. Pseudogout C. Chronic Liver obstruction D. Cystic Fibrosis

A

A 48 year-old patient presents with nausea, vomiting, and hardness on the lower right side of the abdomen. Rebound tenderness can be seen with which of the following signs? A. McBurney sign B. Murphy sign C. Oppenheim sign D. McMurray sign

A

A 60 year old male comes into your clinic with a tremor. Which of the follow types of tremors are pathognomonic for Parkinson's disease? A. Tremor at rest B. Tremor with activity

A

A colonoscopy is used to visualize: A. Large intestine B. Large Intestine + Small Intenstine C. Large Intestine + Small Intestine + Stomach D. Esophagus + Stomach + Duodenum

A

Which of the following statements is not true about Systemic Lupus Erythematosus? A. It commonly presents with unilateral joint pain. B. It affects people of African and Asian descent more commonly than those of European descent. C. It commonly presents with a 'butterfly' facial rash pattern. D. Symptoms commonly worsen during menstruation.

A

Which of the following substances during intoxication causes restlessness, insomnia, diuresis, muscle twitching, arrhythmias, and psychomotor agitations? (Note: during withdrawals this same substance causes headache, lethargy, depression, irritability, and cravings) A. Caffeine B. Alcohol C. Barbiturates D. Nicotine

A

During which phase of the female reproductive cycle does a surge of LH and FSH take place? A. Follicular phase B. Corpus luteum secretion C. Luteal phase D. Ovulation

D

All of the following are true about T lymphocytes EXCEPT that they: A. Help T cells express CD4 B. Mature in the bone marrow C. Mediate cellular immune response D. Allow cytotoxic T cells to express CD8

B

All of the following can cause an increase in blood pressure except: A. Coronary artery disease B. Anemia C. Steroid use D. Pain

B

Ergotamine are a class of drugs used to treat migraines. What is added in order to facilitate absorption? A. Calcium B. Simethicone C. Omeprazole D. Caffeine

D

A 14-year old comes to your practice for herbs and acupuncture for severe epigastric pain. Which of the following actions should you take? A. Have the patient sign an informed consent form B. Contact the parents to get informed consent C. Use only herbs until the parents reply to text notification D. Use ear acupuncture only

B

A 23 year old female enters your office complaining of fatigue. Upon further questioning you discover that she has symmetrical joint pain, morning stiffness lasting 60 minutes, and difficulty putting on a normal amount of weight. Which of the following conditions are most likely? A. Septic arthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) C. Chronic fatigue syndrome D. Gout

B

A 24-year-old male patient enters your office. He is of northern European ancestry, and complains of chronic diarrhea with fatty streaks in his stools. He seems quite thin and complains of being tired. He claims his doctor gave him a diagnosis of dermatitis herpetiformis for his skin rash. A biopsy of his intestines revealed a flattening and loss of villi. Which condition best represents this patient? A. Duodenal ulcers B. Celiac disease C. Carcinoid syndrome D. Irritable bowel syndrome

B

A 35 year-old female complains of exquisite pain and swelling at the base of the big toe, first metatarsal interphalangeal joint. She also has pain on the in-step of the foot at the ankle, knees, and elbows. This pain emerged suddenly last Sunday night after excessive food and alcohol intake at a party. The most likely diagnosis is? A. Toe-jam d/t poor foot wear B. Acute gouty arthritis C. Polymyalgia rheumatica D. Osteoarthritis

B

A 45 year old male comes into your clinic complaining of RUQ pain, nausea that comes and goes, and a strange tenderness in his costovertebral region. Which of the following conditions presents clinically as such? A. Pyelonephritis B. Cholecystitis C. Unstable Angina D. Esophageal spasm

B

ALS (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis) is defined by neurologic dysfunction signs in which of the following nerve branches? A. Brain stem signs B. UMN signs + LMN signs C. UMN signs D. LMN signs

C

Achilles reflex is primarily associated with A. L4 nerve root B. L5 nerve root C. S1 nerve root D. L3 nerve root

C

30% of adults between the ages of 65 and 75 have this type of sensorineural hearing loss, which can create difficulty for them to distinguish voices in a crowd and is often misinterpreted as memory loss: A. Stapes dysfunction B. Otitis externa C. Presbycusis D. Meniere syndrome

C

66 year old male enters your clinic wanting to use holistic medicine to treat his breathing troubles. He has recently received a diagnosis for COPD. What are two common diseases that precede Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease? A. Asthma & Emphysema B. Asthma & Chronic bronchitis C. Emphysema & Chronic bronchitis D. Sarcoidosis & Pulmonary fibrosis

C

If a patient with lung cancer has a condition which worsens, where would the next signs or symptoms be most likely found? A. colon B. skin C. spleen D. brain

D

A 30 year-old male presents to you with severe flank pain that radiates to the low back and genital areas. The pain started about an hour ago, and comes and goes. When the pain comes on, he has spontaneous sweating and feels nauseated. CBC is normal and a urinalysis detected RBCs. What is this patient's most likely diagnosis? A. Syphilis B. Renal failure C. Kidney stones D. Appendicitis

C

A 34 year old female enters your clinic complaining of menorrhagia. Which of the following conditions can be developed as a result of this condition persisting for a long period? A. Hemochromatosis B. Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) anemia C. Iron-deficiency anemia D. Vitamin B9 (folic acid) anemia

C

A 43-year-old male complains of erectile dysfunction. Upon questioning you discover that he has normal nocturnal penile tumescence. Which of the following is most likely the etiology of his condition? A. Endocrine B. Neurologic C. Psychological D. Vascular

C

Myxedema is the presentation of a patient as a result of an underactive: A. Kidneys B. Adrenals C. Pancreas D. Thyroid

D

At what level will a CD4-cell count indicate that an HIV- infected person will develop AIDS? A. >500 cells/mm3 B. <500 cells/mm3 C. >100 cells/mm3 D. <200 cells/mm3

D

A 22 year old African-American woman enters your office with a butterfly shaped rash on her face centered across the nose. She complains of bilateral arthritis. Upon further questioning you find that she is ANA (+). Which is the most likely condition? A. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) B. Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) C. Parkinson disease D. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

D

A 22 year old female walks into the office complaining about facial hair. You measure her BMI: 29 and notice excessive hair growth in other parts of the body. Upon questioning you discover that she has irregular menstruation. What is the best option for further evaluation? A. Low Blood Pressure B. Tenesmus C. White blood cell count D. Blood glucose level

D

A 25 year old female walks into your clinic complaining of recurrent sores in the oral region (also known as "cold sores"). She explains in a roundabout kind of way that she thinks she has had it all her life but she has been eating a lot of dates for the past three days.This same patient comes back into your office 35 years later. She complains about an extremely painful eruption of vesicles. They are located unilaterally on her ribs and stop at the midline of her chest. Which virus is involved? A. Human papillomavirus B. Cytomegalovi C. Rhinovirus D. Varicella-Zoster

D

A 26-year-old female enters your office complaining of fatigue. She remembers that her doctor told her that her waxy face look was due to a condition called Myxedema. This condition is related to which organ? A. Pancreas B. Adrenals C. Kidneys D. Thyroid

D

A 36-year-old female has come to your clinic because she has been diagnosed with Cachexia and fatigue. She wants you to make her feel better at any cost. What condition does she have? A. Trichimoniasis B. Norovirus C. Epstein Barr Virus D. Wasting syndrome

D

A 4 y/o male patient comes to your clinic with white spots in their mouth, a low grade fever and a rash on their face. What would you suppose this could be? A. Rubella B. Mumps C. Varicella Zoster D. Measles

D

Which of the following skin conditions is considered flat and less than 0.5 cm in diameter? A. Bullae B. Papule C. Plaque D. Patch E. Vesicle F. Macule

F

Which of the following blood cells help protect the body from pathogens? A. Leukocytes B. Erythrocytes C. Thrombocytes D. Basal membranocytes

A

Which of the following conditions occurs in infants but more commonly in adult males. (Note: The location is lateral to the inferior epigastric artery) A. Direct inguinal hernia B. Indirect inguinal hernia C. Femoral hernia D. Hiatal hernia

A

Which of the following cranial nerves provides parasympathetic innervation to most of the abdomen? A. Cranial Nerve X B. Cranial Nerve II C. Cranial Nerve V D. Cranial Nerve III

A

Which of the following classification of drugs contain the suffix of "-olol?" A. ACE Inhibitors B. Beta blockers C. Calcium channel blockers D. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

B

If a patient presents with a fever and 'the worst headache of her life,' which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Cerebrovascular Accident (stroke) B. Bacterial Meningitis C. Intracranial mass D. Migraine

B

Which of the following conditions would be a result of inflammation to Cranial Nerve VII? A. Paralysis of one side of the face B. Paralysis of the upper part of one side of the face C. Paralysis of both sides of the face D. Paralysis of the lower lip

A

Which of the following correctly represents the brachial plexus pathway? A. Roots - Trunks - Divisions - Cords - Branches B. Cords - Branches - Trunks - Roots - Divisions C. Branches - Cords - Trunks - Divisions - Roots D. Trunks - Roots - Divisions - Branches - Cords

A

In the United States, a college of TCM is accredited by: A. AAAOM B. ACAOM C. Federal Office of Education D. NCCAOM

B

A new 54 year old female patient enters your office complaining of double vision, jaw pain, and tenderness in the scalp. Upon further questioning, she recalls being diagnosed with Temporal arteritis last year while in Germany. What is the most feared manifestation of this disease? A. Blindness B. Deafness C. Aphasia D. Weight loss

A

A patient comes to your clinic with pain in their knee after a basketball game where they heard a loud pop and weakness when extending their leg, causing more pop and pain with flexion where there isn't a continuous pop. What can you deduce this knee problem could be? A. Patellar ligament tear B. Medial meniscus tear C. Anterior cruciate tear D. Posterior cruciate tear

A

Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT have a parasympathetic function? A. Cranial Nerve II B. Cranial Nerve X C. Cranial Nerve VII D. Cranial Nerve IX

A

A patient takes a lot of laxatives and mineral oil so that they can lose weight quickly. What vitamins would they be deficient in? A. Vitamin E B. Vitamin B6 C. Vitamin B3 D. Iron

A

Which immunoglobulin is the first to respond to an antigen? A. IgM B. IgE C. IgG D. IgA

A

Which of the following blood types are universal donors of blood and RBCs? A. Blood group B B. Blood group O C. Blood group A D. Blood group AB

B

Which is the most common cause of right-sided heart failure? A. Left-sided heart failure B. Hypercholesterolemia C. Hypertension D. Pulmonary embolism

A

A Reticulocyte Count (aka Retic Count) blood test: A. Evaluates the RBC production by the bone marrow B. Measures the number of circulating platelets C. Measures the number of circulating WBCs D. Evaluates the age of RBCs

A

A decrease in white blood cells may indicate ALL of the following EXCEPT: A. Pneumonia B. Bone marrow pathology C. HIV infection D. Chemotherapy side effects

A

A male patient, 38 years old, calls your office stating that he believes that he may have Addison's disease. Which of the following signs should you expect to see when he arrives at the office? A. Darkly pigmented skin B. Moon face C. Buffalo hump D. Acne

A

A mammography report of Class III status indicates a mass that is: A. Benign; short-term follow-up suggested B. Benign; conduct self exams monthly C. Cancer highly likely D. Suspicion of cancer; further evaluation suggested

A

A mother brings her 18-month-old son to the pediatrician because he is nonverbal. He was born full term and met all milestones. Yet he rarely gestures or points at things and always plays alone. On exam, he does not respond to his name or make eye contact. A hearing test was normal. Which of the following conditions best characterize this condition? A. Autism spectrum disorder B. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder C. Tic disorder D. Asperger syndrome

A

Which of the following T-scores is most likely to be associated with a postmenopausal Caucasian woman presenting with a hip fracture and multiple vertebral compression fractures? A. T score < -2.5 B. T score > 0 C. T score -1.5 to -2.5 D. T score > -1.5

A

A 55 year-old female complains of malaise, a sense of depression, anxiety, weight loss, and fever but with no apparent weakness. Upon observation, you do not observe any limitation in the range of motion of her joints, however, she reports that she does have morning stiffness. The large muscles on her leg and arm are tender but not warm or red. The muscles of her hip and shoulder girdle are most affected by the tenderness in a symmetric manner. Her rheumatologist has diagnosed her with Giant Cell Arteritis. What do you believe the correct diagnosis to be? A. Polymalgia rheumatica B. Gouty arthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. FIbromyalgia syndrome

A

A 72 year old male comes to your office upon his son's recommendation. You notice that he walks in a wide stance, appears confused, and appears to have weak eye movements. Upon speaking to him you begin to hear wild confabulations about how his time in Mexico was spent saving Mexicans from hot sauce and wild jalapeno farmers. His son then texts you asking what mental condition his father could have. What condition is the most likely? A. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency ; Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome B. Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) deficiency ; Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome C. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency; Dementia D. Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) deficiency; Dementia

A

A regular patient of yours with a history of Hyperthyroidism comes to your clinic for weekly appointments. This week, she appears to be agitated and slightly confused about how she got to your office. You notice that she is having difficulty breathing. When you check her heart rate, it is 175 beats per minute. How do you proceed? A. Call 911. B. Tell her you cannot treat her today because of an increased risk of needle shock but send her home with an herbal formula. C. Give her the treatment you had planned for her and recommend that she see her doctor within the next week. D. Have her lie down and press on KID 1 until she feels better.

A

All of the following blotting procedures are acceptable for HIV confirmation EXCEPT: A. Southwestern blot B. Eastern blot C. Western blot D. Southern blot

A

An athlete has just finished a marathon the day before and a long run prior to coming to the clinic. She is known to have poor eating and hydrating habits as she is afraid to gain weight. She becomes very light headed in your clinic and begins to feel very cold but is coherent of her surroundings. What should you do? A. Give her juice or a sugary snack B. Give her water C. Call 911 D. Begin CPR

A

An elevation in uric acid levels typically indicates: A. Gout B. Cardiovascular disease C. Pancreatitis D. Liver disease

A

During the menstrual period, menstrual blood that is discharged is due to sloughing of the _______. A. Endometrium B. Peritoneum C. Epimetrium D. Urethral mucosa

A

Epistaxis is a common complaint which is typically benign and self-limiting. What is the most common site of epistaxis? A. Anterior B. Superficial C. Posterior D. Internal

A

HIV targets which lymphocyte? A. CD4 cells B. C7 cells C. Basophils D. Neutrophils

A

It is common to prescribe colorectal cancer screening such as Fecal Occult Blood Tests for patients over the age of 50 with average risk: A. Every year B. Every six months C. Every two years D. Every three years

A

List the meninges in order of outer, middle and inner: A. Dura-Arachnoid-Pia B. Pia-Arachnoid-Dura C. Dura-Pia-Arachnoid D. Arachnoid-Pia-Dura

A

Menstrual bleeding occurs when: A. Estrogen and progesterone decrease B. Estrogen and progesterone increase C. Estrogen increases and progesterone decreases D. Estrogen decreases and progesterone increases

A

Passive ROM test checks for the integrity of the? A. Joint B. Nerve C. Muscle D. Bursa

A

Renin is produced in the: A. Kidney B. Brain C. Adrenals D. Heart

A

Stage 1 Hypertension is defined as a systolic pressure of: A. 130-139 B. 140-159 C. 150-159 D. 160-169

A

Symptoms of Osteoarthritis include all of the following except: A. Symmetrical joint involvement B. Pain that is better after rest C. Deep ache in the involved joints D. Pain and stiffness of the larger, weight-bearing joints

A

Systemic conditions which may contribute to the onset of Carpel Tunnel Syndrome include all of the following except: A. HIV B. Liver disease C. Diabetes D. Pregnancy

A

Systemic conditions which may contribute to the onset of Carpel Tunnel Syndrome include all of the following except: A. HIV B. Liver disease C. Pregnancy D. Diabetes

A

The Integumentary System protects the body by: A. acting as a barrier against infectious agents. B. producing white blood cells which fight infection. C. killing bacteria and viruses on contact. D. raising the body's temperature.

A

The right side of the heart pumps blood to A. The pulmonary circuit B. The brain C. Right ventricle D. The descending aorta

A

The small intestine region of the GI tract consists of which of the following in correct order: A. Duodenum - Jejunum - Ileum B. Ileum - Jejunum - Duodenum C. Duodenum - Ileum - Jejunum D. Jejunum - Ileum - Duodenum

A

Upper GI and Lower GI divided by which of the following anatomical sites? A. Ligament of Treitz B. Pyloric sphincter C. Esophageal sphincter D. Ampulla of Vater

A

Vaccines are available for which of the following varieties of Hepatitis? A. Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B B. Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C C. Hepatitis A, Hepatitis D D. Hepatitis D, Hepatitis E

A

What are the breaths-to-compressions ratio for a child CPR with a single rescuer? A. 2 breaths for every 30 compressions B. 2 breaths for every 5 compressions C. 2 breaths for ever 15 compressions D. 1 breath for every 15 compressions

A

What are the current guidelines for performing a mammography for breast cancer screening? A. Every 2 years after age 50 B. Every 5 years after age 50 C. Every 6 months after age 50 D. Every 3 years after age 50

A

What is considered the appropriate age for cervical cancer screening? A. Start at age 21, or 3 years after the first sexual intercourse B. Start at age 14, or 2 years after the first sexual intercourse C. Start at age 15, or 2 years after the first sexual intercourse D. Start at age 18, or 3 years after the first sexual intercourse

A

What is the first line of treatment for a woman with eclapsia after birth? A. Magnesium sulfate IV drip B. Corticosteroids C. Benzodiazepines D. Diuretics

A

What is the incubation period for Hepatitis C? A. 14-180 days B. 15-50 days C. 18-60 days D. 40-160 days

A

What is the normal body temperature for an infant? A. 98.2 B. 98.8 C. 98.6 D. 98.4

A

When giving CPR to a child, what is the proper procedure ratio? A. 30 chest thrusts, 2 breaths B. 50 chest thrusts, 2 breaths C. 30 chest thrusts, do not give breaths D. 15 chest thrusts, 1 breaths

A

When testing a patient's cholesterol, what is the ideal serum LDL level? A. Less than 100 B. Greater than 200 C. Greater than 100 D. Less than 200

A

Which hormone has primary involvement in T-cell activation and the immune response? A. Seratonin B. Histamine C. Estrogen D. Bradykinin

A

Which of the following phrases are correct? A. Gout is needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals; Pseudogout is rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent crystals. B. Gout is needle-shaped, positively birefringent crystals; Pseudogout is needle-shaped, neutrally-charged birefringent crystals. C. Gout is leaf-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals; Pseudogout is rhomboid-shaped neutrally-charged birefringent crystals. D. Gout is leaf-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals; Pseudogout is needle-shaped, positively birefringent crystals.

A

Which of the following regions of the GI tract is the site of enzyme release for Fat digestion? A. Small Intestine B. Large Intestine C. Directly below the esophageal sphincter D. Stomach

A

Which of the following represents the ratio of constituents that make up blood plasma? A. (91%) Water, (9%) Dissolved substances B. (99%) Water, (1%) Dissolved substances C. (81%) Water, (19%) Dissolved substances D. (60%) Water, (40%) Dissolved substances

A

Which of the following sex chromosome variations is indicative of Klinefelter syndrome? A. XXY B. XYY C. YYY D. XO

A

Which of the following supplements decrease the risk of neural tube defects? A. Folate B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Vitamin D

A

Which of the following symptoms are indicative of Myasthenia Gravis? A. Ptosis (drooping of the eyelids) B. Loss of taste C. Sudden deafness D. Vertigo and Dizziness

A

Which of the following tests are described by "the big toe dorsiflexing and the toes fan out?" A. Babinski test B. Brudzinski sign C. Sulcus sign D. Reverse Phalen's sign

A

Which of the following types of epistaxis is not visible, swift in drainage, and can be swallowed before seen? A. Posterior bleed B. Lateral bleed C. Anterior bleed D. Medial bleed

A

Which of the following vitamin deficiencies can lead to both megaloblastic and pernicious anemia? A. Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) deficiency B. Vitamin B9 (folic acid) deficiency C. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency D. Vitamin B5 (pantothenic) deficiency

A

Which of the following vitamin deficiencies can lead to sCurvy? A. Vitamin C deficiency B. Vitamin A deficiency C. Vitamin B6 deficiency D. Vitamin E deficiency

A

Which of these inflammatory bowel diseases involves the rectum and presents with continuous lesions, abdominal pain with blood diarrhea? A. Ulcerative colitis B. Diverticular disease C. Irritable bowel syndrome D. Crohn's disease

A

Which part of the brain is affected when a patient has issues with coordination and balance? A. Cerebellum B. Medula C. Cerebrum D. Thalamus

A

Which statement best describes the two types of glaucoma? A. They both are characterized by high intraocular pressure; however, open-angle glaucoma is more common, chronic with gradual loss of peripheral vision. Meanwhile, closed-angle glaucoma is acute, presents with eye pain, headache, nausea, conjunctival infection with fixed, dilated pupils and halos around lights. B. They both are characterized by high intraocular pressure; however, open-angle glaucoma is less common, chronic with gradual loss of peripheral vision. Meanwhile, closed-angle glaucoma is acute, presents with eye pain, headache, nausea, conjunctival infection with fixed, dilated pupils and halos around lights. C. They both are characterized by high intraocular pressure; however, open-angle glaucoma is less common, acute with immediate loss of peripheral vision. Meanwhile, closed-angle glaucoma is chronic, presents with eye pain, headache, nausea, conjunctival infection with fixed, dilated pupils and halos around lights. D. They both are characterized by high intraocular pressure; however, open-angle glaucoma is more common, acute with gradual loss of peripheral vision. Meanwhile, closed-angle glaucoma is chronic, presents with eye pain, headache, nausea, conjunctival infection with fixed, dilated pupils and halos around lights.

A

Which three of the following physiologic activities are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system? A. Muscle building, Erection, Urination B. Muscle breakdown, Muscle building, Erection C. Urination, Urination block, Ejaculation D. Erection, Ejaculation, Muscle building

A

You ask your patient to move their shoulder into internal rotation while you resist the motion. This movement elicits pain in your patient's shoulder. What muscle is most likely injured? A. Subscapularis B. Infraspinatus C. Supraspinatus D. Teres Minor

A

You have a 73 year old male patient with hypertension. You are considering herbs to work alongside his diuretic medications. You recall an instructor mentioning that excessive licorice (Gan Cao) intake can increase urinary excretion of which of the following minerals? A. Potassium B. Manganese C. Sodium D. Calcium

A

You have a new 24-year-old female patient who is very depressed because she has Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) and has only been physically intimate with one man. She states that she is certain that he has never been with another woman and wants to know why her doctor would state that she most likely had _____________________ prior to her PID. A. Chlamydia B. Syphilis C. Gonorrhea D. HIV

A

You have a patient that is requesting you to advise them on improving their SSRI effectiveness. They state that they had bought 5 HTP and was going to ask if you would advise if they could safely take them. Your response is: A. No, This supplement can increase the risks of a Serotonin Syndrome B. Yes, it will work synergistically with no negative repercussion. C. Yes, it can reduce the side effects of your SSRIs D. No, This supplement reduces the effects of SSRI

A

Your patient tells you he is taking Lipitor, Flomax, and Inderal. Which conditions does he most likely have? A. Hypercholesterolemia, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and hypertension B. Hypertension, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and angina C. Hypercholesterolemia, renal failure, and hypertension D. Hypercholesterolemia, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and anxiety

A

Which of the following can indicate the health of the radial nerve? A. Elbow extension B. Extension at the wrist C. Grip strength D. One-handed clap

B

Which of the following can indicate the health of the radial nerve? A. One-handed clap B. Extension at the wrist C. Elbow extension D. Grip strength

B

A 63 y/o man comes to your clinic with complaints of abdominal pain. He has been a smoker and daily alcohol drinker since he was 13 years old. He states that the pain began after eating mussels. When you exam the area there is a little lump with a strong pulsation. What could this be? A. Crohn's disease B. Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm C. Ulcerative colitis D. Appendicitis

B

Causes of decrease in Calcium in the body include all of the following except: A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Vomiting/diarrhea C. Vitamin D deficiency D. Renal disease

B

Down syndrome A. Turner's syndrome B. Trisomy 21 C. Trisomy 18 D. Trisomy 13

B

Elevated levels of which of the following compounds are found in the urine of patients with pre-eclampsia? A. Leukocytes B. Protein C. BUN D. Creatinine

B

For which of the following conditions must you contact an ophthalmologist immediately? A. Diabetic retinopathy B. Closed-angle glaucoma C. Cataracts D. Open-angle glaucoma

B

A 54-year-old patient brings you a urologist report of a firm, rubbery, smooth prostatic surface. Upon questioning you discover he has frequent, urgent urination, with decreased force and size of urinary stream.Which of the following conditions is most likely? A. Urinary tract infection B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) C. Cystitis D. Prostatic cancer

B

Formed elements (RBCs, WBCs, platelets) comprise what percentage of total blood volume? A. 55% B. 45% C. 40% D. 50%

B

How is infant responsiveness determined during CPR? A. Shaking him and shouting B. Patting his feet and shoulders C. Sprinkling water on his face D. Slapping his face lightly

B

A 56 year old woman was recently diagnosed with osteomalacia of the knees. She spent the last four months going to various specialists so that she could get the most cutting edge approach to treatment. Last week, upon visiting your office, she complained of having abdominal pain that worsens with the consumption of food. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Duodenal ulcer B. Gastric ulcer C. Pellagra D. Crohn's disease

B

A 59-year-old male arrives at the emergency room. He has a history of diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and chest pain radiating to the jaw. The pain began 6 hours ago and the ECG confirms anterior MI. Which of the following conditions is the most "specific" test that can be performed for this patient? A. Myoglobin B. Troponin I C. CK-MB (Creatine Kinase-MB) D. LDH (lactate dehydrogenase)

B

A 51-year-old female comes into the clinic complaining of hot flashes, atrophy of the vagina walls, low bone density, coronary artery disease, and frequent sleep disturbances. Upon examination of her lab markers you noticed a markedly increase FSH. Which of the following conditions is most likely? A. Middle age crisis B. Menopause C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Rheumatoid arthritis

B

A 52 year-old man is a regular patient of yours. Last week, you treated his left arm after he injured it during his weekly tennis game. Today, he says the arm pain went away but has returned and is much worse. He also says that he is experiencing a tight pressure in his chest and some difficulty breathing that got worse when he climbed the stairs up to your office. What is the proper treatment for this patient today? A. Tell the patient to lie down and elevate his legs until he feels better. B. Call 911. C. Recommend that he tell his family doctor about these symptoms at his next check-up. D. Repeat the treatment on the arm but add in points for the new symptoms.

B

How long should one apply continuous pressure to a hematoma of an artery? A. Three minutes B. Up to five minutes C. Up to ten minutes D. One minute

B

A female patient comes to your clinic with severe diarrhea after eating over the last 5 years. She states that she has celiac disease but doesn't eat grains anymore, only a new energy bar. She states that she hasn't menstruated for the last 4 months with no chance to be pregnant. She has also been losing hair. What can be creating her health problem? A. Crohn's disease B. Celiac disease C. Ulcerative colitis D. Cascading turgor

B

A lab test reflecting an elevated level of creatinine can indicate a disorder in which of the following organs? A. Heart B. Kidneys C. Liver D. Lungs

B

A male, 31 years old, fills out your initial intake form stating abdominal discomfort with incomplete relief with defecation and intermittent diarrhea interrupted by constipation. Upon your initial questioning you learn that his condition is aggravated by psychological factors. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD) B. Irritability bowel syndrome (IBS) C. Ulcerative colitis D. Vitamin B12 deficiency

B

A patient comes to you with diminished patellar reflexes. Which spinal nerve is most likely affected? A. L5 B. L4 C. S1 D. L3

B

A patient comes to your clinic with ankylosing spondylosis. What lab test would you run to determine this diagnosis? A. CA-72-38 B. HLA-B27 C. CA-125 D. TSH

B

A patient has scheduled a laparoscopy with her internal medicine doctor. What region of the body is this test used to visualize? A. Esophagus and stomach B. Abdomen and pelvis C. Cystic ducts D. Urethra and bladder

B

A patient presents to you with elevated blood glucose, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and weight gain. What is the most likely diagnosis for this cluster of signs? A. Cushing's Disease B. Metabolic Syndrome (Syndrome X) C. Addison's Disease D. Hypothyroidism

B

A patient presents to you with numbness in her fourth and fifth toes. Which spinal nerve is most likely involved? A. L3 B. S1 C. L5 D. L4

B

A patient taking acetaminophen should be monitored for any bleeding, bruising, nosebleeds as well as: A. Respiratory problems B. Right upper quadrant pain C. Chest pain D. Black tongue mass

B

A patient testing positive for Speed's Test is indicative of which orthopedic dysfunction? A. Adhesive capsulitis B. Bicipital tendonitis C. Acromial clavicular arthritis D. Rotator cuff tear

B

A patient who is low in iron should refrain from what food or beverage? A. Broccoli B. Tea C. Cherry juice D. Dairy

B

After using cups on a patient, the proper technique to prepare the cups for the next use is: A. Washing with soap and water. B. Clean all cups of all lubricants and biological material using soap and water before disinfecting. Disinfect all cups using an appropriate FDA-cleared intermediate to high-level disinfecting solution in accordance with label instructions. C. Sterilization in an autoclave for at least twenty minutes. D. Soaking in diluted bleach solution for at least twenty minutes then air drying.

B

All of the following are characteristic of Melanoma EXCEPT: A. Color Irregularities B. Regular border C. Diameter > 6mm D. Asymmetrical shape

B

All of the following are considered indications of eosinophilia EXCEPT? A. Allergies B. Malar flush C. Parasitic infection D. Addison's disease E. Neoplasms F. Collagen vascular disease

B

All of the following are opportunistic infections associated with HIV except: A. Kaposi's Sarcoma B. Legionnaire's Disease C. Pneumonia D. Candidiasis

B

All of the following are signs of a possible upper motor neuron lesion except: A. Loss of the ability to perform fine motor movements B. Negative Babinski Sign C. Decreased superficial reflexes D. Muscle spasticity

B

All of the following statements about Gout are true except: A. It typically causes Hyperuricemia. B. It typically affects the wrist joints first. C. It typically has an abrupt onset of severe pain. D. It is commonly treated with the drug Allopurinol.

B

All of the following statements are true about Hepatitis B EXCEPT? A. Incubation: 45-160 days B. Abrupt onset C. Bloodborne D. Vaccine available

B

All of the following vessels contain deoxygenated blood EXCEPT: A. Pulmonary artery B. Pulmonary vein C. Superior vena cava D. Inferior vena cava

B

Although there is currently a controversy between the USPSTF (U.S. Preventive Services Task Force) and the ACOG (American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists), what is the standing guideline for performing a pap smear for cervical cancer screening? A. Start at age 18 B. Start at age 21 C. Start at menarche D. Start at menopause

B

An 18-year-old junior college athlete comes in with his mother on a Monday morning. She is trying to figure out what to do with her son who was told by his coach that he may have suffered an "unhappy triad" (O'Donoghue) injury during Saturday's football game. What diagnostic imaging would be most appropriate for this condition? A. X-Ray B. MRI C. CT scan D. PET scan

B

An 8-year-old boy is brought over to your clinic by his mother. She laments that over the last 7 months her son is easily distracted, has difficulty following instructions, is disorganized, fidgets and interrupts others at school and home. Which of the following conditions best characterize his condition? A. Learning disorder B. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder C. Asperger syndrome D. Tic disorder

B

An elevation in red blood cells may indicate all of the following except: A. Cardiovascular disease B. Side effects of chemotherapy C. Polycythemia D. Lung disease

B

Blood cells (vs. Plasma) perform all of these physiologic functions EXCEPT: A. Circulation of WBC B. Maintains the electrolytes and fluid balance C. Clotting at sites of injuries of cuts D. 45% of Blood E. Supply of oxygen

B

Bouchard nodes occur in which joint types? A. DIP joints B. PIP joints C. Near the carpals D. MCP joints

B

Carpel Tunnel Syndrome affects which nerve? A. Radial nerve B. Median nerve C. Axillary nerve D. Ulnar nerve

B

In this orthopedic test the examiner places the patients arm in shoulder flexion, external rotates the arm and puts the elbow in full extension. Then with the forearm in supination, manual resistance is applied by the examiner in a downward direction. The test is considered to be positive if pain in the bicipital tendon or bicipital groove is reproduced. Which test is this? A. Phalen maneuver B. Speed Test C. Full Can Test D. Finkelstein test

B

In which of the following cell types is insulin produced? A. Delta cells in the pancreas B. Beta cells in the pancreas C. Hepatocytes D. Alpha cells in the pancreas

B

Passive ROM test checks for the integrity of the? A. Bursa B. Joint C. Nerve D. Muscle

B

Patella reflex is primarily associated with A. L3 nerve root B. L4 nerve root C. S1 nerve root D. L5 nerve root

B

Reflexes are graded on a scale of? A. -1 - 2+ B. 0 - 4+ C. 0 - 10+ D. 1 - 3+

B

Restrictive Pulmonary Disease shares traits with which of these diseases? A. Asthma B. Sarcoidosis C. Obesity hypoventilation syndrome D. Chronic bronchitis

B

Schedule II drug is a drug with: A. Minimal risk for potential abuse B. High-risk potential for abuse resulting in severe physical and psychological dependence C. Low-risk potential for abuse resulting in limited physical or psychological dependence D. Medium-risk potential for abuse resulting in low-to-moderate physical dependence or high psychological dependence

B

Tachycardia is considered to be a heart rate: A. Greater than 60 beats per minute B. Greater than 100 beats per minute C. Less than 60 beats per minute D. Less than 100 beats per minute

B

The 'B' in the ABCDs of skin changes/skin cancer examination stands for: A. Basal cell B. Border irregularity C. Brown D. Biomedical

B

The Sartorius muscle is comprised of which kind of muscle tissue? A. Smooth muscle B. Striated muscle C. Squamous cell muscle D. Cardiac muscle

B

The following mnemonic (SIG E CAPS) is useful for the diagnosis of which mental condition? • Sleep (?/?) • Interest ? • Guilt• Energy ? • Concentration ? • Appetite (?/?) • Psychomotor agitation or retardation • Suicidal ideation A. Bipolar disorder B. Major depression C. Borderline personality disorder D. Dysthymia

B

The generic names of cholesterol drugs typically end with: A. ...ol B. ...statin C. ...done D. ...pril

B

The risk for an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is greatest in which group? A. 45-55yo, for everyone B. 45-55yo, for who have ever smoked C. 65-75yo, for who have ever smoked D. 65-75yo, for everyone

B

The role of the anterior pituitary gland is to produce and release hormones? A. False B. True

B

The role of the posterior pituitary gland is to store and release hormones? A. False B. True

B

The triceps' reflex is primarily associated with? A. C6 nerve root B. C7 nerve root C. C4 nerve root D. C5 nerve root

B

True or False? An EsophagoGastroDuodenoscopy is considered a lower endoscopy (based on the direction the scope is pointed) while a Colonoscopy is considered an upper endoscopy (also based on the direction the scope is point). A. True B. False

B

What do the CHAPS in secondary hypertension mnemonic stand for? A. Cushing Syndrome, Hyperthyroidism, Aorta coarctation, phaeochromocytoma, stenosis of renal arteries B. Cushing Syndrome, Hyperaldosteronism, Aorta coarctation, phaeochromocytoma, stenosis of renal arteries C. Cushing Syndrome, Hyperaldosteronism, Aorta coarctation, phaeochromocytoma, secondary hypercholesterolemia D. Cushing Syndrome, Hyperthyroidsim, Aorta coarctation, phaeochromocytoma, Systolic dysfunction

B

What is a problem that patients should be cautious with due to head trauma? A. Aortic Aneurysm B. Cerebral bleeding C. Insomnia D. Stroke

B

What is the most common form of skin cancer lesion? A. Goblet Cell Carcinoma B. Basal Cell Carcinoma C. Squamous Cell Carcinoma D. Malignant Melanoma

B

What is the most common medical complication of pregnancy? A. Severe preeclampsia B. Diabetes mellitus (DM) C. Eclampsia D. Mild preeclampsia

B

What is the role of the meninges of the brain? A. Surround the sulci and insulate neuronal signals B. Serve as a protective membrane covering the brain and spinal cord C. Protect the pia mater from molecules that cannot pass the blood brain barrier D. Facilitate activity between both lobes of the brain

B

Which dermatological pathology typically affects preschool children and presents with thin-walled blisters around the nose and mouth that rupture and form crusty yellow lesions? A. Cellulitis B. Impetigo-Bacterial C. Ringworm D. Listeriosis

B

Which hormone triggers ovulation? A. TSH B. LH C. FSH D. GH

B

Which leukocyte is primarily involved in helping the body fight off bacterial infections? A. Monocytes B. Neutrophils C. Eosinophils D. Basophils

B

Which of the cranial nerves below are involved in the posterior 1/3 region for the sensation of taste? A. Cranial nerve VII B. Cranial nerve IX C. Cranial nerve X D. Cranial nerve XII

B

Which of the following BP rates are considered to be Stage2 HTN? A. SBP 100-119 and 66-80 B. SBP > = 140 or DBP > = 90 C. SBP > 160 or DBP > 100 D. SBP 120-139 or DBP 80-89

B

Which of the following best characterizes a T-score? A. The bone density of the left femur compared to the bone density of a same age reference mean. B. The bone density of the site compared to the bone density of a young reference mean. C. The bone density of a random site compared to the bone density of a same age reference mean. D. The bone density of the site compared to the bone density of a same age reference mean.

B

Which of the following best characterizes an internal hemorrhoid? A. Below the pectinate line, Non-painful B. Above the pectinate line, Non-painful C. Above the pectinate line, Painful D. Below the pectinate line, Painful

B

Which of the following signs indicates a patient to be a candidate for Abnormal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) surgery? A. Shock, cyanosis, altered mental status, tachycardia, hypertension. B. Shock, cyanosis, altered mental status, tachycardia, hypotension. C. Sleepy, cyanosis, altered mental status, bradycardia, hypotension. D. Sleepy, cyanosis, altered mental status, bradycardia, hypertension.

B

Which of the following signs is indicated when hip/knee are flexed, there is an inability to straighten the knee? A. Babinski test B. Kernig sign C. Kemp's sign D. Obturator sign

B

Which of the following signs is indicated when hip/knee are flexed, there is an inability to straighten the knee? A. Obturator sign B. Kernig sign C. Kemp's sign D. Babinski test

B

Which of the following signs is indicated when the neck is flexed, the knee and hip flex along with it involuntarily? A. Kernig sign B. Brudzinski sign C. Sulcus sign D. Murphy's sign

B

Which of the following statements about cranial nerves and taste fibers are true? A. CN 8 = Anterior 2/3; CN 9 = Posterior 1/3; CN 10 = Vallecula and Epiglottis B. CN 7 = Anterior 2/3; CN 9 = Posterior 1/3; CN 10 = Vallecula and Epiglottis C. CN 10 = Anterior 2/3; CN 7 = Posterior 1/3; CN 9 = Vallecula and Epiglottis D. CN 9 = Anterior 2/3; CN 7 = Posterior 1/3; CN 10 = Vallecula and Epiglottis

B

Which of the following symptoms are indicative of Myasthenia Gravis? A. Sudden deafness B. Ptosis (drooping of the eyelids) C. Vertigo and Dizziness D. Loss of taste

B

Which of the following symptoms describes diabetic retinopathy? A. An asymptomatic, rapid loss of vision in diabetics with microscopic findings. The condition can go into remission with specific medications injected into the superior orbital vein. B. An asymptomatic, gradual loss of vision in diabetics with fundoscopic findings. The condition can go into remission with strict glucose and blood pressure control. C. An asymptomatic, gradual loss of vision in diabetics with microscopic findings. The condition can go into remission with specific medications injected into the superior orbital vein. D. An asymptomatic, gradual loss of vision in diabetics with fundoscopic findings. The condition can go into remission with specific medications injected into the superior orbital vein.

B

Which of the following time range represents a pre-term delivery? A. Delivery by induction B. Delivery at 20-37 weeks C. Delivery at 35-40 weeks D. Delivery at >42 weeks

B

Which of the following types of leukemia is most common in children? A. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML) B. Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) C. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) D. Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

B

Which of the following types of leukemia is most common in children? A. Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML) B. Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) C. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) D. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)

B

Which of the following urologic conditions is considered an emergency that requires immediate intervention? A. Orchitis B. Testicular torsion C. Benign prostatic hyperplasia D. Epididymitis

B

Which of the following vitamin deficiencies can lead to Hemorrhage? (Note: Rare except in newborn infants) A. Vitamin D deficiency B. Vitamin K deficiency C. Vitamin B1 deficiency D. Vitamin E deficiency

B

Which of the following vitamin deficiencies can lead to both dry beriberi and wet beriberi? A. Vitamin B5 (pantothenic) deficiency B. Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency C. Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) deficiency D. Vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency

B

Which part of the Neuron receives the stimulus which initiates the nerve signal? A. Axon B. Dendrite C. Soma D. Terminal buttons

B

Which sign can be used to rule in Bell's Palsy? A. Masseter muscle weakness B. Patient is unable to wrinkle forehead. C. Unilateral drooping of the corner of the mouth D. Bilateral drooping of the corners of the mouth

B

Which three of the following physiologic activities are associated with the sympathetic nervous system? A. Erection, Ejaculation, Muscle building B. Urination block, Ejaculation, Muscle breakdown C. Erection, Ejaculation, Muscle breakdown D. Erection, Ejaculation, Urination

B

Which type of deficiency is associated with microcytic anemia? A. Folate deficiency B. Iron deficiency C. B12 deficiency D. Fibrate deficiency

B

You have a patient who has low back pain with decreased patellar reflexes and a slight subluxation at L4. What condition do you think this is? A. Ecchymosis B. Sciatica C. Drop foot D. Spondylitis

B

You order a CBC with differentiation for your patient. The report states that his WBC count is elevated with a specific elevation in monocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Parasitic infection B. Chronic infection C. Allergic reaction D. Cancer

B

Your patient, who is 47 years old, is coming in with acute lower GI Bleeding. Knowing that the most common cause of acute lower GI bleeding in patients above age 40 is ________________________, you would refer out for what test? A. Diverticulitis B. Diverticulosis C. Esophageal ulcer D. Colon Cancer

B

All of the following are an action of Angiotensin II EXCEPT: A. Increase Na+ reabsorption B. Increase sympathetic activity C. Arteriolar vasodilation D. Increase aldosterone secretion

C

All of the following are estrogen hormones EXCEPT: A. Estradiol B. Estrone C. Estredione D. Estriol

C

All of the following can cause an increase in blood pressure except: A. Steroid use B. Coronary artery disease C. Anemia D. Pain

C

A 'Target Lesion' can often be observed at the contraction of which disease? A. Bacterial Meningitis B. Lupus C. Lyme's Disease D. Ecenphalitis

C

A 21 year-old male presents to you with nausea, photophobia, neck stiffness, slight disorientation, and what he calls "the worst headache of his life." The most likely diagnosis of his condition is: A. Alcohol hangover B. Hypoglycemia C. Bacterial Meningitis D. Hypertension

C

A 22 year old African-American woman enters your office with a butterfly shaped rash on her face centered across the nose. She complains of bilateral arthritis. Upon further questioning you find that she is ANA (+). Which is the most likely condition? A. Parkinson disease B. Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) C. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) D. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

C

All of the following conditions are considered secondary hypertension EXCEPT: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Obstructive sleep apnea C. Idiopathic hypertension D. Chronic kidney disease E. OCPs

C

All of the following statements about Thoracic Outlet Syndrome are true except: A. It most commonly occurs in women in middle age. B. Symptoms may appear when carrying heavy objects. C. It can be diagnosed using Phalen's test. D. It may cause the person to wake up in the middle of the night with a 'pins and needles' sensation in the hands.

C

A 22 year-old female patient presents to you with severe lower abdominal pain that radiates to the low back. She states that the pain came on suddenly this morning. When you examine her, she has rebound tenderness in the left lower quadrant. She reports no changes in bowel patterns and no difficulty with urination. She states that she is sexually active, and that she and her boyfriend use condoms most of the time. She says that she couldn't be pregnant because she started spotting this morning and that she missed her period last month. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient? A. Appendicitis B. Crohn's Disease C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Cholecystitis

C

A 23-year-old female patient comes to your clinic with pain in her joints. Her doctor said she has erosion to her cartilage due to her medication Orthotricycline. What vitamin is she deficient in that could accelerate this erosion? A. Vitamin A B. Magnesium C. Vitamin C D. Iron

C

A 23-year-old female patient comes to your clinic. She is on antibiotic therapy and is worried about conceiving a child. She recently began taking Orthotricycline. What should you inform the patient? A. Birth control pills will cause her to age faster B. It is safer for her to use the pull out method versus birth control pills C. Birth control pills are contraindicated with antibiotics D. Intercourse while on antibiotics causes birth defects

C

A 27 y/o female patient who is slightly obese has finished her first half marathon. She has tightness in her anterior tibialis but also numbness in her 2nd and 3rd toe. What can be the cause of the toe numbness? A. Legionairre's syndrome B. Drop foot C. Tarsal tunnel syndrome D. Carpal tunnel syndrome

C

A 44 year old patient of yours comes into your clinic after a 5 year absence. You notice that his clothes are not particularly well-fitting as you were accustomed to seeing. He tells you that he had some financial difficulties but now his great aunt is helping him get on his feet again. He complains about intense pruritus, especially at night and after hot showers. The affected sites are the hands, axillae, and genitals. Upon closer examination you notice small mite tracks along his area of complaint. What is the most likely condition this patient suffers from? A. Head louse B. Body louse C. Scabies D. Pubic louse

C

A 44 year-old female presents to you with moderately severe epigastric pain that radiates to her right shoulder. She is concerned that it may be a side effect from the Lipitor that her MD prescribed recently. The pain seems to come and go, but is worse when she eats fatty foods. What is her most likely diagnosis? A. Duodenal ulcer B. Pancreatitis C. Cholelithiasis D. Angina

C

A 44-year -old male enters your clinic. He complains of a headache that started an hour ago. He has vomited twice and has a stiff neck. Upon history taking you are told that he has "the worst headache" of his life. Which condition is most likely? A. Epidural hematoma B. Subdural hematoma C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Intracerebral hemorrhage

C

A 44-year old male enters your office complaining of cough, hemoptysis, bronchial obstruction, and wheezing. Upon questioning you learn that his doctor found a pneumonic "coin" lesion on X-ray and a non-calcified nodule on CT. Which of the following conditions is best represented by these signs and symptoms? A. COPD B. Tuberculosis C. Lung cancer D. Emphysema

C

A 52 year-old man is a regular patient of yours. Last week, you treated his left arm after he injured it during his weekly tennis game. Today, he says the arm pain went away but has returned and is much worse. He also says that he is experiencing a tight pressure in his chest and some difficulty breathing that got worse when he climbed the stairs up to your office. What is the proper treatment for this patient today? A. Tell the patient to lie down and elevate his legs until he feels better. B. Repeat the treatment on the arm but add in points for the new symptoms. C. Call 911. D. Recommend that he tell his family doctor about these symptoms at his next check-up.

C

A 59-year-old male arrives at the ER. He is experiencing chest pain that radiates to the jaw. He was admitted and diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction 4 days ago. Which of the enzymes is the best to test for a possible "reinfarction"? A. LDH B. Troponin I C. Creatine Kinase-MB D. Myoglobin

C

A lack of which vitamin is associated with Pernicious Anemia? A. B6 B. D C. B12 D. C

C

A male, 2 years old, comes into the office with his mother. The mother is concerned about "the Babinski" that her medical student friend brought to her attention. What does a (+) Babinski reflex indicate at this child's age? A. Deep tendon damage B. CNS (central nervous system) disorders C. CNS Normality D. Plantar fasciitis

C

A patient comes to your clinic after having a car accident the day prior. The medical center stated that they seem fine though they were having a one sided headache with no other symptoms. The physician wanted to keep the patient in the hospital longer but the patient refused. Why do you think the physician was concerned? A. Possible hangman's fracture B. Seizure disorder C. Concussion D. Patient may have been on drugs

C

A patient comes to your clinic stating that he has a diagnosis of prostatitis, what symptom would most likely be the most indicative of prostatitis? A. Painful urination B. Difficulty starting the flow of urine C. Incomplete voiding D. Weak urine stream

C

A patient presents to you with elevated blood glucose, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and weight gain. What is the most likely diagnosis for this cluster of signs? A. Hypothyroidism B. Addison's Disease C. Metabolic Syndrome (Syndrome X) D. Cushing's Disease

C

A patient presents with severe right lower quadrant pain, nausea and vomiting, and a fever of 101 degrees. Bowel sounds are evident in all four quadrants. Her WBC count is elevated and she tests positive when you perform McBurney's test. Your patient's most likely diagnosis is: A. Irritable Bowel Disease B. Cholelithiasis C. Appendicitis D. Abdominal obstruction

C

A patient tells you she has Lymphoma but is unable to tell you whether or not it is Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma. What is the one sign that would help you determine the type? A. Night sweats B. Swollen lymph nodes in the neck C. Enlargement of the liver, spleen, and abdominal lymph nodes D. Fever

C

A patient who is low in iron should refrain from what food or beverage? A. Cherry juice B. Dairy C. Tea D. Broccoli

C

An 18-year-old junior college athlete comes in with his mother on a Monday morning. She is trying to figure out what to do with her son who was told by his coach that he may have suffered an "unhappy triad" (O'Donoghue) injury during Saturday's football game. What diagnostic imaging would be most appropriate for this condition? A. CT scan B. PET scan C. MRI D. X-Ray

C

An elevation in blood creatinine levels typically indicates: A. Malnutrition B. Liver disease C. Renal disease D. Hypoglycemia

C

During ovulatory phase all of the following occur EXCEPT: A. LH (luteinizing hormone) surge B. A mature egg is released from the ovary C. Progesterone surge D. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) surge

C

ICD-10 codes relate to: A. Insurance remittance reports B. Treatment protocols C. Diagnosis D. Prescription drug writing

C

If TH (Thyroid Hormone) levels are low, how will this affect the levels of TSH (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone)? A. TH does not have an affect on TSH. B. TSH will remain the same. C. TSH will rise. D. TSH will also be low.

C

LH (luteinizing hormone) is secreted by the: A. Hypothalamus B. Hippocampus C. Anterior pituitary gland D. Ovaries

C

Prozac and Paxil are known to have similar side effects. When comparing the two drugs, which of the following conditions are NOT a side effect found in both medications? A. Acid Regurgitation B. Sexual dysfunction C. Depression D. Irritability

C

Substance intoxication that cause belligerence, psychosis, violence, impulsiveness, psychomotor agitation A. Opioids B. LSD C. Phencyclidine hydrochloride (PCP) D. Cocaine

C

Symptoms of a decrease in Potassium include: A. Increased thirst, dry skin, agitation B. Thready pulse, nausea, decrease in blood pressure C. Muscle cramps, muscle weakness, changes in cardiac rhythm D. Bone pain, renal failure

C

The KUB X-ray is known to specifically evaluate the kidneys, bladder and: A. Adrenals B. Uterus C. Ureters D. Fallopian tubes

C

The apex of the lungs is level with which vertebra? A. C6 B. C7 C. T1 D. T2

C

The biceps' reflex is primarily associated with? A. C8 nerve root B. C3 nerve root C. C5 nerve root D. C4 nerve root

C

The earliest recommended age to begin a pap smear is at age: A. 16 B. 11 C. 21 D. 18

C

Under microcentrifugation, a Hematocrit (Hct) blood test measures the percentage of total blood volume that is composed of which of the following constituents: A. Natural Killer Cells B. Neutrophils C. RBCs D. Monocytes

C

Urinary pregnanediol is measured to evaluate which of the following hormones: A. DHEA B. Cortisol C. Progesterone D. ACTH

C

What is the current guideline for performing osteoporosis screenings? A. Ultrasound, women > 65yo B. CT scan, women > 65yo C.DEXA scan,women > 65yo D. X-ray, women > 65yo

C

What is the definition of tachycardia in an adult? A. Resting heart rate under 80 bpm B. Resting heart rate over 80 bpm C. Resting heart rate over 100 bpm D. Resting heart rate under 100 bpm

C

Which cranial nerve is involved in the condition Bell's Palsy? A. Trigeminal nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Facial nerve D. Vagus nerve

C

Which hormone increases levels of Calcium in the blood? A. Thyroxine ((T3) B. Calcitrianine C. Parathyroid hormone D. Calcitonin

C

Which ion is utilized in muscle Contractions? A. Potassium B. Magnesium C. Calcium D. Sodium

C

Which of the following are principle factors contributing to atherosclerotic vascular disease? A. ↓LDL, ↓HDL B. ↓LDL, ↑HDL C. ↑LDL, ↓HDL D. ↑LDL, ↑HDL

C

Which of the following are transmitted through the fEcal-orAl route? A. Hep B and Hep D B. Hep A and Hep B C. Hep A and Hep E D. Hep B and Hep C

C

Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias is 100% fatal if not corrected within minutes? A. Atrial fibrillation B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Atrial fasiculation

C

Which of the following conditions are likely causes of abnormal uterine bleeding in post-menopausal women? A. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease B. Vaginitis C. Uterine cancer D. Vulvulitis

C

Which of the following conditions is a sideways curvature of the spine that occurs most often during the growth spurt just before puberty? A. Lordosis B. Herniated disc C. Scoliosis D. Kyphosis

C

Which of the following conditions is caused by a gram-negative, aerobic, pathogenic, and encapsulated coccobacillus of the genus Bordetella? A. Tuberculosis B. Acid reflux C. Pertussis D. Pneumonia

C

Which of the following conditions is characterized by palpitations, abdominal distress, numbness, nausea, intense fear of death, choking, chills, chest pain, sweating, shaking, and shortness of breath? A. Avoidant Personality Disorder (APD) B. Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) C. Panic Disorder D. Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)

C

Which of the following conditions is responsible for causing patients to experience parotitis, orchitis, and meningitis? A. German measles B. Rubella C. Mumps D. Measles

C

Which of the following conditions is responsible for causing what is known colloquially as German (3-day) measles? A. Epidemic parotitis B. Rubeola C. Rubella D. Pertusis

C

Which of the following conditions is the #1 cause of death for those between 15 and 24 years of age in the U.S.? A. Urogenital disorders B. Methamphetamine use C. Unintentional injury D. Joyriding

C

Which of the following conditions is the leading cause of blindness in the United States? A. Open-angle glaucoma B. Night blindness C. Closed-angle glaucoma D. Diabetic retinopathy

C

Your regular patient, a 65 year-old female who you have been treating for low back pain, tells you that her periods have started again after five years. She says she isn't having any cramps and feels fine. What is the best course of treatment for her? A. Give her an herbal formula to help support the Blood. B. Call 911. C. Give her an acupuncture treatment and recommend that she call her OBGYN that day for an appointment. D. Recommend she let her OBGYN know at her annual visit.

C

A heartbeat comprises of an initial loud sounding 'lub' followed by a shorter and softer sounding 'dub.' What causes the first louder sound? A. The closure of the aortic valve B. The closure of the pulmonary semilunar valve C. The closure of the mitral valve alone D. The closure of the mitral and tricuspid valve

D

A male, 58 years old, comes into your office complaining of shortness of breath on supine position, edema of the legs, and severe fatigue. Which of these conditions are most likely the cause? A. Atrial flutter B. DVT (deep vein thrombosis) C. PE (pulmonary embolism) D. CHF (congestive heart failure)

D

The pharmaceutical Varenicline (Chantix) is used for which of the following conditions? A. Electronics addiction B. Opioid addiction C. Amphetamine addiction D. Nicotine addiction

D

A new 54 year old female patient enters your office complaining of double vision, jaw pain, and tenderness in the scalp. Upon further questioning, she recalls being diagnosed with Temporal arteritis last year while in Germany. What is the most feared manifestation of this disease? A. Deafness B. Aphasia C. Weight loss D. Blindness

D

A patient had left a medical clinic 6 days ago after being treated for abrasions. They come to your clinic with tight skin that is red and painful to the touch on their lower leg. What skin condition would you suppose this is? A. Scabies B. Folliculitis C. Edema D. Cellulitis

D

We are unable to see the repolarization of the atria on an EKG. Why is this? A. The atria do not undergo repolarization. B. The electric signal of atria repolarization is to weak to be detected by the EKG. C. The depolarization of the ventricles masks the repolarization of the atria. D. The muscle fibers of the atria mask any electrical signals that might be emitted.

D

A patient has come to your clinic for 5 years and states that their depression medication isn't working as well anymore. Their physician indicated to them that they can take SAMe to help their SSRI improve. Your response is: A. Your physician is trying to help with absorption so you should also combine this with 5 HTP B. Your physician doesn't understand SAMe and may cause you to have seizures. C. Your physician may cause a serotonin syndrome and you can appear "crazy" D. Your physician may be referring to SAMe increasing the SSRI absorption but use caution.

D

A patient prescribed theophylline should be advised against oral intake of: A. Fava beans B. Aspirin C. Low fat foods D. Caffeine containing products

D

What are the current guidelines for performing a colonoscopy for colon cancer screening? A. Every year in those >50 B. Every 5 years in those >50 C. Every 10 years in those >35 D. Every 10 years in those >50

D

What is the expected incubation period of Hepatitis B? A. 20-90 days B. 50-90 days C. 15-50 days D. 50-180 days

D

What is the other name for the suspensory muscle of the duodenum? A. Sulcus B. Loop of Henle C. Circle of Willi D. Ligament of Treitz

D

A pregnant woman comes to your clinic in her last trimester with a blood pressure of 154/94, no albumin in her urine and no headaches. Your treatments were effective in helping her retain this child as she has a history of miscarriages. Months after her delivery, she comes to your clinic with her blood pressure now normalized at 118/72. What type of hypertension would she have? A. Traumatic hypertension B. Eclampsia C. Essential hypertension D. Secondary hypertension

D

According to the American Hospital Association, which of the following conditions would NOT require you to refrain from patient contact? A. Staphylococcal furuncle (boil) B. Streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat) C. Active influenza D. Upper respiratory tract infection

D

All of the following are considered restrictive lung diseases EXCEPT: A. Asbestosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Goodpasture syndrome D. Emphysema

D

All of the following are forms of beriberi EXCEPT? A. Infantile B. Wet C. G.I. D. Nasal E. Dry

D

Which cervical ganglionic root segments does the biceps reflex tests for? A. C7, C8 B. C4, C5 C. C2, C3 D. C5, C6

D

All of the following statements about Toxoplasmosis are true except: A. Symptoms include enlarged lymph nodes, muscle aches and pains, and general flu-like symptoms. B. It can be passed on from a pregnant woman to her fetus with the possibility of causing severe birth defects. C. It is caused by a single-cell parasite. D. It is transmitted via direct skin contact.

D

All of these are major risk factors for ischemic heart disease EXCEPT: A. Family history B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hyperlipidemia D. Female gender

D

An 8-year-old boy is brought over to your clinic by his mother. She laments that over the last 7 months her son is easily distracted, has difficulty following instructions, is disorganized, fidgets and interrupts others at school and home. Which of the following conditions best characterize his condition? A. Tic disorder B. Learning disorder C. Asperger syndrome D. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

D

An ECG gathers information on a heartbeat based on which of the following patterns? A. D E F G A B. V W X Y Z C. A B C D E D. P Q R S T

D

An elevated creatinine score indicates trouble in which organ function? A. Pancreas B. Adrenals C. Liver D. Kidneys

D

An elevation in red blood cells may indicate all of the following except: A. Lung disease B. Cardiovascular disease C. Polycythemia D. Side effects of chemotherapy

D

An elevation in uric acid levels typically indicates: A. Liver disease B. Pancreatitis C. Cardiovascular disease D. Gout

D

Bilateral swelling and tenderness of the fingers for several weeks at a time is most likely due to: A. Epicondylitis B. Heberden nodes C. Acute gouty arthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis

D

Calcitonin is a hormone associated with the: A. Anterior pituitary B. Posterior pituitary C. Thymus D. Thyroid

D

Pick the list of correctly matched cranial nerves to their salivary glands: A. Submandibular gland CN 9; Sublingual gland CN 9; Parotid gland CN 7 B. Submandibular gland CN 9; Sublingual gland CN 7; Parotid gland CN 9 C. Submandibular gland CN 7; Sublingual gland CN 8; Parotid gland CN 9 D. Submandibular gland CN 7; Sublingual gland CN 7; Parotid gland CN 9

D

Stool which is black and tarry/sticky when passed most likely indicates: A. Decreased fat absorption in the small intestine B. Pancreatic cancer C. Hemorrhoids D. Upper gastrointestinal bleed

D

The Rheumatoid Factor Test is typically used to rule in ALL of the following EXCEPT: A. Rheumatoid Arthritis B. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus C. Sjogren's Disease D. Osteoarthritis

D

A 75 year-old female presents to you with edema around her feet and lower legs. She says she drinks enough water throughout the day, but doesn't urinate very frequently. She has no pain upon urination. She has a history of untreated hypertension, and was recently diagnosis with diabetes and anemia. Which blood tests would you order for this patient? A. Amylase and Lipase B. CBC with differentiation C. AST and ALT D. Creatinine and BUN

D

A Myelogram provides a radiographic visualization of which region? A. Abdominal arterial walls B. Deep muscles C. Lungs D. Spinal cord

D

A decrease in white blood cells may indicate all of the following except: A. Chemotherapy side effects B. HIV infection C. Bone marrow pathology D. Pneumonia

D

The following are all risk factors for repeated cessation of breathing > 10 seconds during sleep leading to disrupted sleep and daytime somnolence EXCEPT: A. Older age B. Obesity C. Disproportionate upper airway anatomy D. Female gender

D

A female patient recently used antibiotics. Now she has genital pruritus, dysuria and a thick-white "cottage cheese" discharge that has no odor. The pH is normal. A. Trichomoniasis B. Eating too much cottage cheese C. Bacterial vaginosis D. Candida vulvovaginitis (Yeast)

D

The most common adverse effects of ACE inhibitors are: A. Gastrointestinal disturbance B. Flaking skin C. Tinnitus D. Cough

D

The organ(s) best represented by PSA levels is/are: A. Bladder B. Testis C. Penis D. Prostate

D

A 39 year old patient develops GERD over the course of 6 years in a high stress job. He is asking for a dietary plan from you. Your recommendation to him should be to avoid all of the following EXCEPT: A. Nicotine B. Caffeine C. Alcohol D. H2 receptor antagonist

D

A 40-year-old male patient enters your office complaining of diarrhea with a history of recent antibiotic use. Which of the following is most likely implicated? A. Virus infection B. Osmotic disease C. Parasitic infection D. Clostridium difficile

D

A 44 year old female patient presents with muscle aches, poor sleep, and fatigue. All the lab tests she has performed over the last year have failed to show anything. You decide to palpate her body and discover that 11 of 18 trigger points reproduce pain. Which of the following conditions are most likely? A. Polymyalgia Rehmuatica (PMR) B. Prader-Willi Syndrome C. Myasthenia gravis D. Fibromyalgia

D

A 48 year old female with a diagnosis of hypertension complains of headaches throughout the day. She tells you that they began 5 years ago after her divorce and that they are exacerbated by stress. The following drugs are useful in the treatment of hypertension EXCEPT: A. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors B. Calcium channel blockers C. Thiazide diuretics D. Metformin

D

A 50 year old patient enters your office describing a visit to her ophthalmologist complaining of nystagmus. If you want to verify the diagnosis made and only have a little time, which exam can you skip? (Hint: which of the following is NOT related with eye movement?) A. Cranial nerve III B. Cranial nerve VI C. Cranial nerve IV D. Cranial nerve II

D

A 54-year-old female is taking acetaminophen (Tylenol) on a long trip. She should report any bleeding, bruising, nosebleeds to local doctors in addition to which of the following symptoms? A. Cold hands B. Chest pain C. Black tongue coating D. Right upper quadrant pain

D

A 55-year-old male has been diagnosed with BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia). His doctor most likely came to this conclusion using any of the following methods EXCEPT? A. Transrectal ultrasonography B. Digital rectal examination C. PSA reading D. Colonoscopy

D

A 57 year-old male presents with dull and aching upper right quadrant pain that he states started last month. He has a history of heavy alcohol consumption. Upon examination, you notice that his sclera have a slight yellow cast. Which blood tests would you order for this patient? A. CBC with differentiation B. Amylase and Lipase C. Creatinine and BUN D. AST, ALT, and GGT

D

A 64 year-old female has Bell Palsy. All of the following can help to confirm diagnosis EXCEPT: A. EMG B. MRI (with contrast agent for 7th cranial nerve) C. Physical exam of facial ptosis D. Nerve biopsy of the 7th cranial nerve

D


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