Cardiovascular- Practice Questions
Which individual is at greatest risk for developing a venous thrombosis resulting from venous stasis? A. Dehydrated client B. Client on bed rest C. Pregnant woman D. Client in the terminal stage of cancer
B
A client with a long history of stable angina suddenly experiences substernal pain that radiates to the left arm, neck, and jaw. He describes the pain as severe and feels as if he is suffocating. He has taken nitroglycerin and not experienced any relief. The client is most likely experiencing: A. Onset of STEMI B. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) C. Pneumonia D. Gastroespohageal reflux disease (GERD)
A
The nurse is caring for a client who has just experienced an acute myocardial infarction. Which type of shock is this client likely to experience? A. Cardiogenic B. Neurogenic C. Hypovolemic D. Septic
A
A 20-year-old college student has a pelvic fracture and a severed leg from a motorcycle accident. She lost several units of blood. When the student arrived in the emergency department, her blood pressure was very low, her pulse was high, and her skin was pale. The nurse knows that this client has developed which type of shock? A. Obstructive B. Hypovolemic C. Distributive D. Cardiogenic
B
A community health nurse is conducting a seminar at a local church group on health and wellness. Which of the following does she tell the group is the leading cause of death in the United States? A. Automobile accidents B. Heart disease C. Infectious diseases D. Cancer
B
A client with a known history of intravenous drug abuse has been diagnosed with infective endocarditis. Select the most likely cause of infection. A. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans B. Kingella Kingae C. Staphylococcus Aureus D. Eikenella Corrodens
C
An older adult client has been diagnosed with orthostatic hypotension. When planning the clients subsequent care, the nurse should prioritize which diagnosis? A. Impaired walking B. Impaired physical mobility C. Risk for falls D. Risk for trauma
C
Considering the PQRST complex of an electrocardiogram (ECG), which of the following letter designations represents atrial depolarization? A. QRS complex B. ST segment C. P wave D. T wave
C
What is the correct sequence for the generation of electrical impulses in the heart causing ventricular contraction? A. AV node- bundle of HIS- bundle branches- SA node- Purkinje fibers B. AV node- SA node- bundle of HIS- bundle branches- Purkinje fibers C. SA node- AV node- bundle of HIS- bundle branches- Purkinje fibers D. SA node- AV node- bundle branches- Purkinje fibers-bundle of HIS
C
A monitored hospitalized client with a pulmonary embolism has been in atrial fibrillation (AF) for 4 days. The nurse observes the rhythm spontaneously convert to a normal sinus rhythm. Which form of AF is this? A. Permanent B. Persistent C. Chronic D. Paroxysmal
D
Select the response that best describes the pressure sensitive receptors that respond to changes in the stretch of the vessel wall. A. Neural pathways B. Cardiovascular centers C. Chemoreceptors D. Baroreceptors
D
The client has been diagnosed with impaired blood flow in the deep venous channels of her legs. The nurse explains that the most common cause of this condition is: A. Pressure on the abdominal veins caused by pregnancy B. Congenital venous malformations C. Arteriovenous (AV) fistulas D. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
D
Four clients were admitted to the emergency department with severe chest pain. All were given preliminary treatment with aspirin, morphine, oxygen, and nitrates and were monitored by ECG. Which client most likely experienced myocardial infarction? A. An 80-year-old woman whose pain started at 6am shortly after awakening and was not relieved by nitrates or rest; the ECG showed ST- segment elevation with inverted T waves and abnormal Q waves; levels of cardiac markers subsequently rose. B. A 33-year-old man whose pain started at 7am during moderate exercise and was relieved by nitrates; ECG was normal; cardiac markers remained stable. C. A 67-year-old female whose pain started at 2am while she was asleep and which responded to nitrates; the ECG showed dysrhythmias and ST- segment elevation; cardiac markers remained stable. D. A 61-year-old man whose pain started at 9am during a short walk and responded to nitrates, but not to rest; ECG and cardiac markers remained stable, but anginas pattern worsened.
A
The nurse is teaching the client with chronic venous insufficiency. Which part of the body is particularly prone to development of stasis dermatitis? A. Lower leg B. Lower abdomen C. Hands D. Upper leg
A
The nursing student has learned in his class that coronary artery disease (CAD) is heart disease caused by: A. Impaired coronary blood flow B. Frequent exercise C. Exposure to too much sunlight D. A congenital defect
A
Which measure is the best modality to diagnose hypertension? A. Repeated blood pressure determinations B. Laboratory blood analysis C. Tissue analysis D. X-ray
A
Which of the following is called the pacemaker of the heart? A. Sinoatrial (SA) node B. Bundle of HIS C. Atrioventricular (AV) node D. Purkinje fibers
A
The nurse determines that teaching has been effective when a client diagnosed with chronic stable angina (CSA) states: A. "Because it is chronic angina, it will not get worse." B. "If the angina occurs when I am resting, I do not need to worry." C. "Angina may result from exertion activity or emotional stress and be relieved within minutes by rest or by nitroglycerin." D. "If it takes longer than 5 to 10 minutes for relief of symptoms after I take my Nitro, I am improving."
C
A client has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The nurse is planning care and recognizes that the client is most at risk for: A. Vasculitis B. Arterial insufficiency C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Pulmonary embolisim
D
A client with a suspected MI is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. The nurse caring for this client would expect to receive an order for which laboratory test to confirm a diagnosis of MI? A. Creatine kinase marker B. Complete blood components C. Calcium level D. Troponin level
D
The nursing instructor, when teaching the students about coronary artery disease (CAD), identifies which of the following as the main cause of CAD? A. Excessive use of dairy products B. Defect in the DNA C. Excessive exercise D. Atherosclerosis
D
Which manifestation of left-sided heart failure can be diagnosed by examination of the lips and mucous membranes? A. Fibrillation B. Valvular insufficiency C. Tamponade D. Cyanosis
D
Which risk factor for the development of primary hypertension is non-modifiable? A. High sodium intake B. Dyslipidemia C. Obesity D. Black ethnicity
D
Which teaching point would be most appropriate for a group of older adults who are concerned about their cardiac health? A. "The plaque that builds up in your heart vessels obstructs the normal flow of blood and can even break loose and lodge itself in a vessel." B. "The impaired function of the lungs that accompanies pneumonia or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is a precursor to plaque disruption." C. "Infections of any sort are often a signal that plaque disruption is in danger of occurring." D. "People with plaque in their arteries experience attacks of blood flow disruption at seemingly random times."
A
A client has been diagnosed with aortic stenosis and asks the nurse what this means. The most appropriate response would be: A. The valve opening is incompetent, thereby allowing blood to flow back from the pulmonary artery and into the left atrium. B. The valve opening is narrowed and produces increased resistance to blood flow out of the left ventricle and into the aorta. C. The valve opening permits backward flow to occur when the valve should be closed. D. The valve opens backward, permitting blood to flow from the right ventricle into the right atrium.
B
A client is seen in the emergency department complaining of chest discomfort, productive cough, and a fever of over 101 F (38.3 C) for 3 days. The nurse performs an electrocardiogram and observes a rate of 110 beats per minute with a normal P wave and a PR interval of 0.12 second preceding each QRS complex. What does the nurse determine the rhythm to be? A. Atrial Flutter B. Sinus Tachycardia C. Sick Sinus Syndrome D. Third- degree Heart Block
B
A nurse is teaching a client with newly diagnosed hypertension about antihypertensive drug therapy. The nurse determines that the knowledge is understood when the client correctly describes which of the following as the mechanism of action of an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor? A. Inhibits the movement of calcium into cardiac and vascular smooth muscle B. Inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, decreasing angiotensin II levels and reducing its effect on vasoconstriction C. Decreases the heart rate, which will cause a decrease in cardiac output D. Decreases vascular volume by suppressing renal reabsorption of sodium
B
An older adult client is diagnosed with orthostatic hypotension. For which Clinical manifestation should the nurse assess? A. Chest pain and palpitations B. Dizziness and fainting C. Nausea and vomiting D. Headache and double vision
B
On a routine physical exam visit, the physician mentions that he hears a new murmur. The client gets worried and asks, "What does this mean?" The physician responds: A. "It would be caused by stress. Let's keep our eye on it and see if it goes away with your next visit." B. "This could be caused by an infection. Have you been feeling well the past few weeks?" C. "One of your heart valves is not opening properly. We need to do an echocardiogram to see which valve is having problems." D. "This may make you a little more fatigued than usual. Let me know if you start getting dizzy or lightheaded."
C
While discussing the heart, the nursing instructor teaches about pericarditis. Which statement does the instructor state best defines this disease? A. It is an autoimmune response to stress B. It is a congenital disease C. It is an inflammatory process D. It is a result of suffering a myocardial infarction
C
