CCNA 7.0

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255.255.255.128 The largest subnet in the topology has 100 hosts in it so the subnet mask must have at least 7 host bits in it (27-2=126). 255.255.255.0 has 8 hosts bits, but this does not meet the requirement of providing the maximum number of subnets.

Refer to the exhibit. A company uses the address block of 128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What subnet mask would provide the maximum number of equal size subnets while providing enough host addresses for each subnet in the exhibit?

The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

The IPv6 enabled router interfaces begin sending ICMPv6 Router Advertisement messages.

What is the consequence of configuring a router with the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command?​

to request that a source decrease the rate at which it transmits data

What is the purpose of the TCP sliding window?

Allows clients to send email to a mail server and the servers to send email to other servers.

What service is provided by SMTP?

message size message encoding delivery options

What three requirements are defined by the protocols used in network communications to allow message transmission across a network? (Choose three.)

protocol unreachable route redirection

What two ICMP messages are used by both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols?

loopback ::1/128 — The loopback address is a unicast localhost address (corresponding to 127.0. 0.1/8 in IPv4). If an application in a host sends packets to this address, the IPv6 stack will loop these packets back on the same virtual interface.

What type of IPv6 address is represented by ::1/128?

public

What type of address is 198.133.219.162?

store-and-forward

When a switch configuration includes a user-defined error threshold on a per-port basis, to which switching method will the switch revert when the error threshold is reached?

interference security coverage area The three areas of concern for wireless networks focus on the size of the coverage area, any nearby interference, and providing network security. Extensive cabling is not a concern for wireless networks, as a wireless network will require minimal cabling for providing wireless access to hosts. Mobility options are not a component of the areas of concern for wireless networks.

A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)

POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3)

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 110. What service is the client requesting?

FTP

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 21. What service is the client requesting?

SSH

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 22. What service is the client requesting?

DNS

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 53. What service is the client requesting?

DHCP

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 67. What service is the client requesting?

HTTP DHCP - 67 IMAP - 143 FTP - 21 POP2 - 110 DNS -53 SSH-22

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 80. What service is the client requesting?

It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the default gateway.

A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but there are currently no mappings in its ARP cache. How will the device obtain a destination MAC address?

255.255.255.240

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 10 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

255.255.255.0

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 200 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

255.255.255.224

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 25 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

255.255.255.192

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 61 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

RFI​ EMI

A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)

255.255.255.224

A network administrator wants to have the same network mask for all networks at a particular small site. The site has the following networks and number of devices:IP phones - 22 addressesPCs - 20 addresses neededPrinters - 2 addresses neededScanners - 2 addresses needed The network administrator has deemed that 192.168.10.0/24 is to be the network used at this site. Which single subnet mask would make the most efficient use of the available addresses to use for the four subnetworks?

255.255.255.240 If the same mask is to be used, then the network with the most hosts must be examined for number of hosts. Because this is 10 hosts, 4 host bits are needed. The /28 or 255.255.255.240 subnet mask would be appropriate to use for these networks. ​

A network administrator wants to have the same subnet mask for three subnetworks at a small site. The site has the following networks and numbers of devices: What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for the three subnetworks?

extended star

A network team is comparing topologies for connecting on a shared media. Which physical topology is an example of a hybrid topology for a LAN?

testing the integrity of the TCP/IP stack on the local machine

A network technician types the command ping 127.0.0.1 at the command prompt on a computer. What is the technician trying to accomplish?

The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.

A router books and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?

Add a connection to the internet via a DSL line to another ISP With a separate DSL connection to another ISP, the company will have a redundancy solution for the Internet connection, in case the leased line connection fails. The other options provide other aspects of redundancy, but not the Internet connection. The options of adding a second NIC and adding multiple connections between the switches and the edge router will provide redundancy in case one NIC fails or one connection between the switches and the edge router fails. The option of adding another web server provides redundancy if the main web server fails.

A small advertising company has a web server that provides critical business service. The company connects to the Internet through a leased line service to an ISP. Which approach best provides cost effective redundancy for the internet connection?

Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.

What service is provided by HTTPS?

The data flow is being tracked based on the source port number that is used by each application. The source port number of an application is randomly generated and used to individually keep track of each session connecting out to the Internet. Each application will use a unique source port number to provide simultaneous communication from multiple applications through the Internet.

A technician with a PC is using multiple applications while connected to the Internet. How is the PC able to keep track of the data flow between multiple application sessions and have each application receive the correct packet flows?

DNS server default gateway

A user is attempting to access http://www.cisco.com/ without success. Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)

when the value in the TTL field reaches zero When a router receives a traceroute packet, the value in the TTL field is decremented by 1. When the value in the field reaches zero, the receiving router will not forward the packet, and will send an ICMP Time Exceeded message back to the source.

A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a router, which is in the path to the destination device, stop forwarding the packet?

peer-to-peer (P2P) Peer-to-peer (P2P) networks have two or more network devices that can share resources such as printers or files without having a dedicated server.

A wired laser printer is attached to a home computer. That printer has been shared so that other computers on the home network can also use the printer. What networking model is in use?

the use of full-duplex capable Layer 2 switches. The use of Layer 2 switches operating in full-duplex mode eliminates collisions, thereby eliminating the need for CSMA/CD.

Although CSMA/DC is still a feature of Ethernet, why is it no longer necessary?

The source port field identifies the running application or service that will handle data returning to the PC. UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for transport across the network. The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server which will handle the data. Layer 4 port numbers identify the application or service which will handle the data. The source port number is added by the sending device and will be the destination port number when the requested information is returned. Layer 4 segments are encapsulated within IP packets. UDP, not TCP, is used when low overhead is needed. A source IP address, not a TCP source port number, identifies the sending host on the network. Destination port numbers are specific ports that a server application or service monitors for requests.

Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination server. Which three statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this situation?

It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files. The service password-encryption command encrypts plaintext passwords in the configuration file so that they cannot be viewed by unauthorized users.

How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches?

The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.

If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

Legacy application that enables a diskless workstation to discover its own IP address and find a BOOTP server on the network.

What service is provided by BOOTP?

peer-to-peer network [+] no dedicated server is required [+] client and server roles are set on a per request basis peer-to-peer application[#] requires a specific user interface a background service is required Peer-to-peer networks do not require the use of a dedicated server, and devices can assume both client and server roles simultaneously on a per request basis. Because they do not require formalized accounts or permissions, they are best used in limited situations. Peer-to-peer applications require a user interface and background service to be running, and can be used in more diverse situations.

Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all options are used.)

STP - This type of copper media is used in industrial or similar environments where there is a lot of interference. Coaxial - This type of media is used in wired office environments. optical fiber - This type of media is used for high transmission speed and can also transfer data over long distances. wireless - This type of media provides the most mobility options.

Match the Description with the Media

TCP FTP, HTTP, SMTP UDP DHCP TFTP

Match the application protocols to the correct transport protocols

TCP FTP, HTTP, SMTP UDP DHCP TFTP

Match the application protocols to the correct transport protocols.

IP Address - contained in the Layer 3 header separated into a network portion and a unique identifier 32 or 128 bits MAC Address- contained in the Layer 2 header separated into OUI and a unique identifier 48 bits

Match the characteristic to the category. (Not all options are used.)

Dynamically assigns IP addresses to end and intermediary devices.

What service is provided by DHCP?

Cut-Through has low latency may forward runt frames begins forwarding when the destination address is received. Store-and-Forward always stores the entire frame checks the CRC before forwarding checks the frame length before forwarding A store-and-forward switch always stores the entire frame before forwarding, and checks its CRC and frame length. A cut-through switch can forward frames before receiving the destination address field, thus presenting less latency than a store-and-forward switch. Because the frame can begin to be forwarded before it is completely received, the switch may transmit a corrupt or runt frame. All forwarding methods require a Layer 2 switch to forward broadcast frames.

Match the characteristic to the forwarding method. (Not all options are used.)

R1(config)# service password-encryption R1>enable R1# copy running-config startup-config R1(config-line)# login R1 (config-if)# ip address 192.168.4.4

Match the command with the device mode.

global routing prefix - This network portion of the address is assigned by the provider. subnet ID - This part of the address is used by an organization to identify subnets. interface ID - This part of the address is the equivalent to the host portion of an IPv4 address.

Match the description to the IPv6 addressing component. (Not all options are used.)

CLI - users interact with the operating system by typing commands. GUI - enables the user to interact with the operating system by pointing and clicking. Kernel - the part of the OS that interacts directly with the device hardware. Shell - the part of the operating system that interfaces with applications and the user.

Match the descriptions of the terms.

packet filtering - prevents access based on IP or MAC address URL filtering - prevents access to websites network address translator - (none) stateful packet inspection - prevents unsolicited incoming sessions application filtering - prevents access by port number Firewall products come packaged in various forms. These products use different techniques for determining what will be permitted or denied access to a network. They include the following: + Packet filtering - Prevents or allows access based on IP or MAC addresses+ Application filtering - Prevents or allows access by specific application types based on port numbers+ URL filtering - Prevents or allows access to websites based on specific URLs or keywords+ Stateful packet inspection (SPI) - Incoming packets must be legitimate responses to requests from internal hosts. Unsolicited packets are blocked unless permitted specifically. SPI can also include the capability to recognize and filter out specific types of attacks, such as denial of service (DoS)

Match the firewall function to the type of threat protection it provides to the network. (Not all options are used.)

show running-config

Only employees connected to IPv6 interfaces are having difficulty connecting to remote networks. The analyst wants to verify that IPv6 routing has been enabled. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?

Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP addresses.

What service is provided by DNS?

The untwisted length of each wire is too long. When a cable to an RJ-45 connector is terminated, it is important to ensure that the untwisted wires are not too long and that the flexible plastic sheath surrounding the wires is crimped down and not the bare wires. None of the colored wires should be visible from the bottom of the jack.

Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?

200

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has been given the network address of 192.168.99.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 to subnet across the four networks shown. How many total host addresses are unused across all four subnets?

application, transport, Internet, and network access layers The TCP/IP model contains the application, transport, internet, and network access layers. A file transfer uses the FTP application layer protocol. The data would move from the application layer through all of the layers of the model and across the network to the file server.

Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to the server, what layers of the TCP/IP model would be used?

Network A needs to use 192.168.0.128 /25, which yields 128 host addresses.Network B needs to use 192.168.0.0 /26, which yields 64 host addresses.Network C needs to use 192.168.0.96 /27, which yields 32 host addresses.Network D needs to use 192.168.0.80/30, which yields 4 host addresses.

Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each network.

Network A needs to use 192.168.0.0 /25 which yields 128 host addresses.Network B needs to use 192.168.0.128 /26 which yields 64 host addresses.Network C needs to use 192.168.0.192 /27 which yields 32 host addresses.Network D needs to use 192.168.0.224 /30 which yields 4 host addresses.

Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each network. (Not all options are used.)

PC2 will send an ARP reply with its MAC address.

Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC2. In this scenario, what will happen next?

R1: G0/0

Refer to the exhibit. The IP address of which device interface should be used as the default gateway setting of host H1?

IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.33 Using a /29 prefix to subnet 192.168.10.0 results in subnets that increment by 8:192.168.10.0 (1)192.168.10.8 (2)192.168.10.16 (3)192.168.10.24 (4)192.168.10.32 (5)

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the LAN of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 prefix. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the properties of the workgroup server to allow connectivity to the Internet?

only hosts B, C, and router R1 Since host A does not have the MAC address of the default gateway in its ARP table, host A sends an ARP broadcast. The ARP broadcast would be sent to every device on the local network. Hosts B, C, and router R1 would receive the broadcast. Router R1 would not forward the message.

Refer to the exhibit. The switches are in their default configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC address for its default gateway. Which network hosts will receive the ARP request sent by host A?

The switch can be remotely managed. One device is attached to a physical interface. The default SVI has been configured. Vlan1 is the default SVI. Because an SVI has been configured, the switch can be configured and managed remotely. FastEthernet0/0 is showing up and up, so a device is connected.

Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the viewable output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)

ARP

Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol was responsible for building the table that is shown? interface: 192.168.1.67 — 0xa internet address physical address type 192.168.1.254 64-0f-29-0d-36-91 dynamic . . . interface: 10.82.253.91 —- 0x10

An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.

What service is provided by Internet Messenger?

A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.

What service is provided by HTTP?

DoS A DoS (denial of service) attack prevents authorized users from using one or more computing resources.

The employees and residents of Ciscoville cannot access the Internet or any remote web-based services. IT workers quickly determine that the city firewall is being flooded with so much traffic that a breakdown of connectivity to the Internet is occurring. Which type of attack is being launched at Ciscoville?

The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network. A default gateway address is typically configured on all devices to allow them to communicate beyond just their local network.In a switch this is achieved using the command ip default-gateway .

The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?

accessing the media data encapsulation

What are two primary responsibilities of the Ethernet MAC sublayer?

audio conference, financial transactions, web page QoS mechanisms enable the establishment of queue management strategies that enforce priorities for different categories of application data. Thus, this queuing enables voice data to have priority over transaction data, which has priority over web data.

Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

well-known There are different types of TCP and UDP port numbers: Well-known 0-1023 Registered Ports 1024-49151 Dynamic or private ports 49152-65535

To which TCP port group does the port 414 belong?

The fragment-free switching offers the lowest level of latency

Two network engineers are discussing the methods used to forward frames through a switch. What is an important concept related to the cut-through method of switching?

the network performance baseline

Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?

worm

Users report that the network access is slow. After questioning the employees, the network administrator learned that one employee downloaded a third-party scanning program for the printer. What type of malware might be introduced that causes slow performance of the network?

throughput

What OSI physical layer term describes the measure of the transfer of bits across a medium over a given period of time?

protocols developed by organizations who have control over their definition and operation Proprietary protocols have their definition and operation controlled by one company or vendor. Some of them can be used by different organizations with permission from the owner. The TCP/IP protocol suite is an open standard, not a proprietary protocol.

What are proprietary protocols?

cable lengths pinouts connector types

What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)

port numbering use of checksum Both TCP and UDP use source and destination port numbers to distinguish different data streams and to forward the right data segments to the right applications. Error checking the header and data is done by both protocols by using a checksum calculation to determine the integrity of the data that is received. TCP is connection-oriented and uses a 3-way handshake to establish an initial connection. TCP also uses window to regulate the amount of traffic sent before receiving an acknowledgment. UDP is connectionless and is the best protocol for carry digitized VoIP signals.

What are two characteristics shared by TCP and UDP? (Choose two.)

MAC address

What attribute of a NIC would place it at the data link layer of the OSI model?

an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service

What characteristic describes a DoS attack?

malicious software or code running on an end device

What characteristic describes a Trojan horse?

a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization

What characteristic describes a VPN?

malicious software or code running on an end device

What characteristic describes a virus?

software that identifies fast-spreading threats

What characteristic describes an IPS?

ipconfig

What command can be used on a Windows PC to see the IP configuration of that computer?

nslookup

What command is used to manually query a DNS server to resolve a specific host name?

de-encapsulates the frame

What does a router do when it receives a Layer 2 frame over the network medium?

TCP window size is one of the most popular options for network troubleshooting or performing an application baseline. ... The TCP window size, or as some call it, the TCP receiver window size, is simply an advertisement of how much data (in bytes) the receiving device is willing to receive at any point in time.

What is TCP window size?

an SVI is created in software and requires a configured IP address and a subnet mask in order to provide remote access to a switch.

What is a characteristic of a switch virtual interface (SVI)?

It encourages competition and promotes choices. A monopoly by one company is not a good idea from a user point of view. If a protocol can only be run on one brand, it makes it difficult to have mixed equipment in a network. A proprietary protocol is not free to use. An open standard protocol will in general be implemented by a wide range of vendors.

What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined by an open standard?

2001:DA48:FC5:A4::/64​

What is the subnet ID associated with the IPv6 address 2001:DA48:FC5:A4:3D1B::1/64?

remote routes Routing table entries for remote routes will have a next hop IP address. The next hop IP address is the address of the router interface of the next device to be used to reach the destination network. Directly-connected and local routes have no next hop, because they do not require going through another router to be reached.

What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a destination network?

segment At the transport layer, a host computer will de-encapsulate a segment to reassemble data to an acceptable format by the application layer protocol of the TCP/IP model.

Which PDU is processed when a host computer is de-encapsulating a message at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model?

RJ 45

Which connector is used with twisted-pair cabling in an Ethernet LAN?

FFFF.FFFF.FFFF

Which destination address is used in an ARP request?

internet The OSI model network layer corresponds directly to the internet layer of the TCP/IP model and is used to describe protocols that address and route messages through an internetwork.

Which layer of the TCP/IP model provides a route to forward messages through an internetwork?

It ensures sensitive corporate data is available for authorized users.

Which statement describes network security?

A packet-filtering firewall typically can filter up to the transport layer, while a stateful firewall can filter up to the session layer.

Which statement describes the characteristics of packet-filtering and stateful firewalls as they relate to the OSI model?

store-and-forward switching

Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

destination IPv4 address

Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains a unicast, multicast, or broadcast address?

ping cisco.com nslookup cicso.com The ping command tests the connection between two hosts. When ping uses a host domain name to test the connection, the resolver on the PC will first perform the name resolution to query the DNS server for the IP address of the host. If the ping command is unable to resolve the domain name to an IP address, an error will result. Nslookup is a tool for testing and troubleshooting DNS servers.

Which two commands could be used to check if DNS name resolution is working properly on a Windows PC?

wireless LAN controller IPS A wireless LAN controller, or WLAN controller, monitors and manages wireless access points in bulk and allows wireless devices to connect to WLAN, a wireless network architecture. Intrusion Prevention System (IPS), also known as intrusion detection prevention system (IDPS), is a technology that keeps an eye on a network for any malicious activities attempting to exploit a known vulnerability intermediary Device is any networking device positioned between a Remote Access Service (RAS) server and a RAS client. Intermediary devices are third-party devices for performing security-related tasks such as authentication, encryption, and other functions.

Which two devices would be described as intermediary devices?

adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium

Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame

Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium handles communication between upper layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware

Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media

Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication?

implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper

Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame

Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection

Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

using the incorrect cable type a malfunctioning NIC using the incorrect cable type

Which two issues can cause both runts and giants in Ethernet networks? (Choose two.)

The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6. The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6.

Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers? (Choose two.)

video, voice

Which two traffic types use the Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP)?

DNS A DNS server stores records that are used to resolve IP addresses to host names. Some DNS record types include the following: A - an end device IPv4 addressNS - an authoritative name serverAAAA - an end device IPv6 addressMX - a mail exchange record

Which type of server relies on record types such as A, NS, AAAA, and MX in order to provide services?

Time-to-Live When a router receives a packet, the router will decrement the Time-to-Live (TTL) field by one. When the field reaches zero, the receiving router will discard the packet and will send an ICMP Time Exceeded message to the sender.

Which value, that is contained in an IPv4 header field, is decremented by each router that receives a packet?

ZigBee

Which wireless technology has low-power and data rate requirements making it popular in home automation applications?

256

An organization is assigned an IPv6 address block of 2001:db8:0:ca00::/56. How many subnets can be created without using bits in the interface ID space?

TFTP

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 69. What service is the client requesting?

tracert

A user is complaining that an external web page is taking longer than normal to load.The web page does eventually load on the user machine. Which tool should the technician use with administrator privileges in order to locate where the issue is in the network?

CSMA/CA

What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network. (StateLess Address Auto Configuration) The preferred method of assigning IP addresses in an IPv6 network. SLAAC devices send the router a request for the network prefix, and the device uses the prefix and its own MAC address to create an IP address.

A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?

HTTP

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 80. What service is the client requesting?

authorization After a user is successfully authenticated (logged into the server), the authorization is the process of determining what network resources the user can access and what operations (such as read or edit) the user can perform.

A company has a file server that shares a folder named Public. The network security policy specifies that the Public folder is assigned Read-Only rights to anyone who can log into the server while the Edit rights are assigned only to the network admin group. Which component is addressed in the AAA network service framework?

Reconnaissance attacks are general knowledge gathering attacks. These attacks can happen in both logical and physical approaches. Whether the information is gathered via probing the network or through social engineering and physical surveillance, these attacks can be preventable as well.

A disgruntled employee is using some free wireless networking tools to determine information about the enterprise wireless networks. This person is planning on using this information to hack the wireless network. What type of attack is this?

ping ipconfig nslookup

A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necessary information? (Choose three.)

255.255.255.248

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 4 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

255.255.255.128

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 90 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

SSH

A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

Fiber optic cabling requires different termination and splicing expertise from what copper cabling requires. Fiber optic provides higher data capacity but is more expensive than copper cabling.

A network technician is researching the use of fiber optic cabling in a new technology center. Which two issues should be considered before implementing fiber optic media? (Choose two.)

Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter .

A new network administrator has been asked to enter a banner message on a Cisco device. What is the fastest way a network administrator could test whether the banner is properly configured?

nslookup Traceroute (tracert) is a utility that generates a list of hops that were successfully reached along the path from source to destination.This list can provide important verification and troubleshooting information. The ipconfig utility is used to display the IP configuration settings on a Windows PC. The Netstat utility is used to identify which active TCP connections are open and running on a networked host. Nslookup is a utility that allows the user to manually query the name servers to resolve a given host name. This utility can also be used to troubleshoot name resolution issues and to verify the current status of the name servers.

A technician can ping the IP address of the web server of a remote company but cannot successfully ping the URL address of the same web server. Which software utility can the technician use to diagnose the problem?

the MAC address of the default gateway

A user sends an HTTP request to a web server on a remote network. During encapsulation for this request, what information is added to the address field of a frame to indicate the destination?

all IPv6 configured routers on the local link​

An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::2. What is the target of this packet?​

Configure the IP domain name on the router. Generate the SSH keys. Enable inbound vty SSH sessions.

An administrator defined a local user account with a secret password on router R1 for use with SSH. Which three additional steps are required to configure R1 to accept only encrypted SSH connections? (Choose three.)

security quality of service fault tolerance

An employee of a large corporation remotely logs into the company using the appropriate username and password. The employee is attending an important video conference with a customer concerning a large sale. It is important for the video quality to be excellent during the meeting. The employee is unaware that after a successful login, the connection to the company ISP failed. The secondary connection, however, activated within seconds. The disruption was not noticed by the employee or other employees. What three network characteristics are described in this scenario? (Choose three.)

switch the packet to the directly connected interface

During the process of forwarding traffic, what will the router do immediately after matching the destination IP address to a network on a directly connected routing table entry?

Place the options in the following order:peer-to-peer network[+] no dedicated server is required[+] client and server roles are set on a per request basispeer-to-peer aplication[#] requires a specific user interface[#] a background service is required Peer-to-peer networks do not require the use of a dedicated server, and devices can assume both client and server roles simultaneously on a per request basis. Because they do not require formalized accounts or permissions, they are best used in limited situations. Peer-to-peer applications require a user interface and background service to be running, and can be used in more diverse situations.

Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all options are used.)

Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200 Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200

Refer to the exhibit. Host B on subnet Teachers transmits a packet to host D on subnet Students. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses are contained in the PDUs that are transmitted from host B to the router?

remove the Ethernet header and configure a new Layer 2 header before sending it out S0/0/0 When PC1 forms the various headers attached to the data one of those headers is the Layer 2 header. Because PC1 connects to an Ethernet network, an Ethernet header is used. The source MAC address will be the MAC address of PC1 and the destination MAC address will be that of G0/0 on R1. When R1 gets that information, the router removes the Layer 2 header and creates a new one for the type of network the data will be placed onto (the serial link).

Refer to the exhibit. If PC1 is sending a packet to PC2 and routing has been configured between the two routers, what will R1 do with the Ethernet frame header attached by PC1?

BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB When a host sends information to a distant network, the Layer 2 frame header will contain a source and destination MAC address. The source address will be the originating host device. The destination address will be the router interface that connects to the same network. In the case of host A sending information to host B, the source address is AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA and the destination address is the MAC address assigned to the R2 Ethernet interface, BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB.

Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the destination address be in the frame when it leaves host A?

There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1. There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1. The output displays a successful Layer 3 connection between a host computer and a host at 19.168.100.1. It can be determined that 4 hops exist between them and the average transmission time is 1 milliseconds. Layer 3 connectivity does not necessarily mean that an application can run between the hosts.

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)

PC2 will send an ARP reply with its MAC address. When a network device wants to communicate with another device on the same network, it sends a broadcast ARP request. In this case, the request will contain the IP address of PC2. The destination device (PC2) sends an ARP reply with its MAC address.

Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC2. In this scenario, what will happen next?

Security rules are applied to the default gateway device, preventing it from processing ping requests.

Two pings were issued from a host on a local network. The first ping was issued to the IP address of the default gateway of the host and it failed. The second ping was issued to the IP address of a host outside the local network and it was successful. What is a possible cause for the failed ping?

10.18.10.208/28 Addresses 10.18.10.0 through 10.18.10.63 are taken for the leftmost network. Addresses 192 through 199 are used by the center network. Because 4 host bits are needed to accommodate 10 hosts, a /28 mask is needed. 10.18.10.200/28 is not a valid network number. Two subnets that can be used are 10.18.10.208/28 and 10.18.10.224/28.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two network addresses can be assigned to the network containing 10 hosts? Your answers should waste the fewest addresses, not reuse addresses that are already assigned, and stay within the 10.18.10.0/24 range of addresses. (Choose two.)

subnet ID global routing prefix interface ID

What are the three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

Update the operating system and other application software. Install and update antivirus software.

What are the two most effective ways to defend against malware? (Choose two.)

A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting. After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired. All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.

What are three characteristics of the CSMA/CD process?

Neighbor Solicitation Router Advertisement

What are two ICMPv6 messages that are not present in ICMP for IPv4? (Choose two.)

does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection operates independently of the network media The Internet Protocol (IP) is a connectionless, best effort protocol. This means that IP requires no end-to-end connection nor does it guarantee delivery of packets. IP is also media independent, which means it operates independently of the network media carrying the packets

What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.)

improper termination low-quality cable or connectors

What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)

If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast. If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.

What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

directing data packets to destination hosts on other networks providing end devices with a unique network identifier

What are two functions that are provided by the network layer?

The ARP request is sent as a broadcast, and will flood the entire subnet. All ARP request messages must be processed by all nodes on the local network. ARP requests are sent as broadcasts:(1) All nodes will receive them, and they will be processed by software, interrupting the CPU.(2) The switch forwards (floods) Layer 2 broadcasts to all ports. A switch does not change its MAC table based on ARP request or reply messages. The switch populates the MAC table using the source MAC address of all frames. The ARP payload is very small and does not overload the switch.

What are two problems that can be caused by a large number of ARP request and reply messages? (Choose two.)

software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user

What characteristic describes adware?

applications that protect end devices from becoming infected with malicious software

What characteristic describes antispyware?

applications that protect end devices from becoming infected with malicious software

What characteristic describes antivirus software?

the use of stolen credentials to access private data

What characteristic describes identity theft?

software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user

What characteristic describes spyware?

loss of signal strength as distance increases

What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?

Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted. The transport input ssh command when entered on the switch vty (virtual terminal lines) will encrypt all inbound controlled telnet connections.

What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?

Network capabilities are extended without requiring investment in new infrastructure, personnel, or software.

What is a benefit of using cloud computing in networking?

provides for the exchange of frames over a common local media

What is a function of the data link layer?

Messages are kept in the mail servers until they are manually deleted from the email client. IMAP and POP are protocols that are used to retrieve email messages. The advantage of using IMAP instead of POP is that when the user connects to an IMAP-capable server, copies of the messages are downloaded to the client application. IMAP then stores the email messages on the server until the user manually deletes those messages.

What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP?

It shields the upper layer protocol from being aware of the physical medium to be used in the communication.

What is one main characteristic of the data link layer?

It decrements the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Time Exceeded message to the source host.

What mechanism is used by a router to prevent a received IPv4 packet from traveling endlessly on a network?

Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.

What service is provided by FTP?

Retrieves email from the server by downloading the email to the local mail application of the client.

What service is provided by POP3?

255.255.255.192

What subnet mask is needed if an IPv4 network has 40 devices that need IP addresses and address space is not to be wasted?

twisting the wires together into pairs To help prevent the effects of crosstalk, UTP cable wires are twisted together into pairs. Twisting the wires together causes the magnetic fields of each wire to cancel each other out.

What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect against signal interference from crosstalk?

neighbor solicitations Neighbor solicitations are used by nodes to determine the link layer address of a neighbor, or to verify that a neighbor is still reachable via a cached link layer address. neighbor advertisements Neighbor advertisements are used by nodes to respond to a Neighbor Solicitation message.

What two ICMPv6 message types must be permitted through IPv6 access control lists to allow resolution of Layer 3 addresses to Layer 2 MAC addresses?

IP addresses Layer 1 statuses The command show ip interface brief shows the IP address of each interface, as well as the operational status of the interfaces at both Layer 1 and Layer 2. In order to see interface descriptions and speed and duplex settings, use the command show running-config interface. Next-hop addresses are displayed in the routing table with the command show ip route, and the MAC address of an interface can be seen with the command show interfaces.

What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)

virtual private networks intrusion prevention systems

What two security solutions are most likely to be used only in a corporate environment? (Choose two.)

The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.

What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

What would be the interface ID of an IPv6 enabled interface with a MAC address of 1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8 when the interface ID is generated by using the EUI-64 process?

frame check sequence field

Which frame field is created by a source node and used by a destination node to ensure that a transmitted data signal has not been altered by interference, distortion, or signal loss?

the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM The show startup-config command displays the saved configuration located in NVRAM. The show running-config command displays the contents of the currently running configuration file located in RAM.​

Which information does the show startup-config command display?

FE80::/10 Link-local addresses are in the range of FE80::/10 to FEBF::/10. The original IPv6 specification defined site-local addresses and used the prefix range FEC0::/10, but these addresses were deprecated by the IETF in favor of unique local addresses. FDEE::/7 is a unique local address because it is in the range of FC00::/7 to FDFF::/7. IPv6 multicast addresses have the prefix FF00::/8.

Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?

A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window. The source and destination port numbers are used to identify the correct application and window within that application

Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?

192.168.1.64/26 For the subnet of 192.168.1.64/26, there are 6 bits for host addresses, yielding 64 possible addresses. However, the first and last subnets are the network and broadcast addresses for this subnet. Therefore, the range of host addresses for this subnet is 192.168.1.65 to 192.168.1.126. The other subnets do not contain the address 192.168.1.96 as a valid host address.

Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

application session presentation The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: application, transport, internet, and network access. The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and physical. The top three layers of the OSI model: application, presentation, and session map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model.

Which three layers of the OSI model map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

route print netstat -r On a Windows host, the route print or netstat -r commands can be used to display the host routing table. Both commands generate the same output. On a router, the show ip route command is used to display the routing table. The netstat -s command is used to display per-protocol statistics. The tracert command is used to display the path that a packet travels to its destination.

Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table?

enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame The data link layer is actually divided into two sublayers: + Logical Link Control (LLC): This upper sublayer defines the software processes that provide services to the network layer protocols. It places information in the frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being used for the frame. This information allows multiple Layer 3 protocols, such as IPv4 and IPv6, to utilize the same network interface and media.+ Media Access Control (MAC): This lower sublayer defines the media access processes performed by the hardware. It provides data link layer addressing and delimiting of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium and the type of data link layer protocol in use.

Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

POP, DNS

Which two protocols operate at the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose two.)

NAT introduces problems for some applications that require end-to-end connectivity. NAT provides a solution to slow down the IPv4 address depletion.

Which two statements accurately describe an advantage or a disadvantage when deploying NAT for IPv4 in a network? (Choose two.)

Destination IP addresses in a packet header remain constant along the entire path to a target host. Destination and source MAC addresses have local significance and change every time a frame goes from one LAN to another.

Which two statements are correct about MAC and IP addresses during data transmission if NAT is not involved?

Directly connected interfaces will have two route source codes in the routing table: C and S. If a default static route is configured in the router, an entry will be included in the routing table with source code S.

Which two statements describe features of an IPv4 routing table on a router?

Capture traffic during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types. Perform the capture on different network segments. Traffic flow patterns should be gathered during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types. The capture should also be performed on different network segments because some traffic will be local to a particular segment.

Which two statements describe how to assess traffic flow patterns and network traffic types using a protocol analyzer? (Choose two.)

Trojan horse A Trojan horse is software that does something harmful, but is hidden in legitimate software code. A denial of service (DoS) attack results in interruption of network services to users, network devices, or applications. A brute-force attack commonly involves trying to access a network device. A buffer overflow occurs when a program attempts to store more data in a memory location than it can hold.

Which type of security threat would be responsible if a spreadsheet add-on disables the local software firewall?

to enable the switch to be managed remotely A switch, as a Layer 2 device, does not need an IP address to transmit frames to attached devices. However, when a switch is accessed remotely through the network, it must have a Layer 3 address. The IP address must be applied to a virtual interface rather than to a physical interface. Routers, not switches, function as default gateways.

Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?


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