CCNA
Fields in Ethernet frame: Start Frame Delimiter (SFD)/Synch
1 Byte The preamble is seven octets and the SFD in one octet (synch). The SFD is 10101011, where the last pair of 1s allows the receiver to come into the alternating 1,0 pattern somewhere in the middle and still sync up to detect the beginning of the data.
Fields in Ethernet frame: Preamble
7 Bytes An alternation 1,0 pattern provides a clock at the start of each packet, which allows the receiving devices to lock the incoming bit stream.
Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.) A. Defines the network functions that occur at each layer B. Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network C. Changes in one layer do not impact other layer D. Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach
A. Defines the network functions that occur at each layer B. Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network
What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? A. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually. B. Central AP management requires more complex configurations. C. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method. D. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs.
A. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.
Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.) A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network. B. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network. C. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network. D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address 192.168.2.4. E. It uses the default administrative distance. F. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist.
A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network. E. It uses the default administrative distance.
Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment? A. Platinum B. Bronze C. Gold D. Silver
A. Platinum
Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two.) A. Provide uninterrupted forwarding service B. Inspect packets for malicious activity C. Ensure timely data transfer between layers D. Provide direct connectivity for end user devices E. Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network
A. Provide uninterrupted forwarding service; C. Ensure timely data transfer between layers
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints? A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery. B. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets. C. UDP provides reliable message transfer, and TCP is a connectionless protocol. D. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and ACK bits.
A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two.) A. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies B. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail C. The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains D. The core layer maintains wired connections for each host E. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions
A. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies; B. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail
Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.) A. To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address B. The MAC address is also referred to as the IP address C. The MAC address of a device must be configured in the Cisco IOS CLI by a user with administrative privileges D. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware E. An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90 F. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the network on which the host resides and the second of which uniquely identifies the host on the network
A. To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address; D. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware; E. An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90
What are two benefits that the UDP protocol provide for application traffic? (Choose two.) A. UDP traffic has lower overhead than TCP traffic B. UDP provides a built-in recovery mechanism to retransmit lost packets C. The CTL field in the UDP packet header enables a three-way handshake to establish the connection D. UDP maintains the connection state to provide more stable connections than TCP E. The application can use checksums to verify the integrity of application data
A. UDP traffic has lower overhead than TCP traffic; E. The application can use checksums to verify the integrity of application data
Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.) A. asychronous routing B. single-homed branches C. dual-homed branches D. static routing E. dynamic routing
A. asynchronous routing C. dual-homed branches
Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture? A. broadband cable access B. frame-relay packet switching C. dedicated point-to-point leased line D. Integrated Services Digital Network switching
A. broadband cable access
What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency? A. different nonoverlapping channels B. one overlapping channel C. one nonoverlapping channel D. different overlapping channels
A. different nonoverlapping channels
A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement? A. enable Band Select B. enable DTIM C. enable RX-SOP D. enable AAA override
A. enable Band Select
Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture? A. enforcing routing policies B. marking interesting traffic for data policies C. applying security policies D. attaching users to the edge of the network
A. enforcing routing policies
What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two.) A. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time B. achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering C. housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client D. runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers E. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests
A. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time E. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.) A. input errors B. frame C. giants D. CRC E. runts
A. input errors D. CRC
Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response? A. management B. protected frame C. action D. control
A. management
Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space? (Choose two.) A. to enable intra-enterprise communication B. to implement NAT C. to connect applications D. to conserve global address space E. to manage routing overhead
A. to enable intra-enterprise communication; D. to conserve global address space
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 B. to allow communication with devices on a different network C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2; E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet? A. link-local B. unique local C. multicast D. global unicast
Answer : B Explanation: A IPv6 Unique Local Address is an IPv6 address in the block FC00::/7. It is the approximate IPv6 counterpart of the IPv4 private address. It is not routable on the global Internet. Note: In the past, Site-local addresses (FEC0::/10) are equivalent to private IP addresses in IPv4 but now they are deprecated. Link-local addresses only used for communications within the local subnet. It is usually created dynamically using a link-local prefix of FE80::/10 and a 64-bit interface identifier (based on 48-bit MAC address).
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address? A. 2000::/3 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/10 D. FF00::/8
Answer : D Explanation:FF00::/8 is used for IPv6 multicast and this is the IPv6 type of address the question wants to ask.FE80::/10 range is used for link-local addresses. Link-local addresses only used for communications within the local subnetwork (automatic address configuration, neighbor discovery, router discovery, and by many routing protocols). It is only valid on the current subnet. It is usually created dynamically using a link-local prefix of FE80::/10 and a 64-bit interface identifier (based on 48-bit MAC address).
What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address? A. 00000000 B. 11111100 C. 11111111 D. 11111101
B. 11111100
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet? A. 172.9.0.0/16 B. 172.28.0.0/16 C. 192.0.0.0/8 D. 209.165.201.0/24
B. 172.28.0.0/16 Explanation: This question asks about the private ranges of IPv4 addresses. The private ranges of each class of IPv4 are listed below: Class A private IP address ranges from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 Class B private IP address ranges from 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 Class C private IP address ranges from 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255Only the network 172.28.0.0/16 belongs to the private IP address (of class B).
Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure? A. NAT B. 6 to 4 tunneling C. L2TPv3 D. dual-stack
B. 6 to 4 tunneling
Which two goals reasons to implement private IPv4 addressing on your network? (Choose two.) A. Comply with PCI regulations B. Conserve IPv4 address C. Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers D. Reduce the risk of a network security breach E. Comply with local law
B. Conserve IPv4 address; D. Reduce the risk of a network security breach
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets? A. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data, UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost. B. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking. C. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data; UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery. D. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake.
B. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking.
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.) A. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections B. The glass core component is encased in a cladding C. The data can pass through the cladding D. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber E. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using RJ-45 connections
B. The glass core component is encased in a cladding; D. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber
Refer to the exhibit. Which action do the switches take on the trunk link? A. The trunk does not form, and the ports go into an err-disabled status. B. The trunk forms, but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain. C. The trunk forms, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state. D. The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.
B. The trunk forms, but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.) A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses. B. They are less costly than public IP addresses. C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections. D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies. E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses. C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame? A. 00:00:0c:07:ac:01 B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff C. 43:2e:08:00:00:0c D. 00:00:0c:43:2e:08 E. 00:00:0c:ff:ff:ff
B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff
A. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 B. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0 C. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128 D. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224
B. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32? A. default route B. network route C. host route D. floating static route
B. network route
What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two.) A. when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used B. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex C. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again D. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted E. when the cable length limits are exceeded
B. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex E. when the cable length limits are exceeded Explanation: A late collision is defined as any collision that occurs after the first 512 bits (or 64th byte) of the frame have been transmitted. The usual possible causes are full- duplex/half-duplex mismatch, exceeded Ethernet cable length limits, or defective hardware such as incorrect cabling, non-compliant number of hubs in the network, or a bad NIC. Late collisions should never occur in a properly designed Ethernet network. They usually occur when Ethernet cables are too long or when there are too many repeaters in the network.
Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions? A. 5, 6, 7 B. 1, 2, 3 C. 1, 6, 11 D. 1, 5, 10
C. 1, 6, 11
A corporate office uses four floors in a building. ✑ Floor 1 has 24 users. ✑ Floor 2 has 29 users. ✑ Floor 3 has 28 users. ✑Floor 4 has 22 users. Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration? A. 192.168.0.0/24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor B. 192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor C. 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor D. 192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor
C. 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor
In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required? A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them. B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks. C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch. D. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.
C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge? SW1: 0C:E0:38:41:86:07 - SW2: 0C:0E:15:22:05:97 - SW3: 0C:0E:15:1A:3C:9D - SW4: 0C:E0:18:A1:B3:19 - A. SW1 B. SW2 C. SW3 D. SW4
C. SW3
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery? A. TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgment, and parity checks, and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only B. TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks, and UDP uses retransmissions only C. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgements, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only D. TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only
C. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgements, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received? A. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table. B. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning. C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN. D. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.
C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines? A. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources. B. Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch. C. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage. D. Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor.
C. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage.
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design? A. This design will function as intended. B. Spanning-tree will need to be used. C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme. D. The connection between switches should be a trunk. E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.
C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated? A. The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value B. The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface C. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted D. The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification
C. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted
Refer to the exhibit. Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B? A. The source MAC address is changed. B. The destination MAC address is replaced with ffff.ffff.ffff. C. The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same. D. The switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its own.
C. The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same.
What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules? A. They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength B. They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module C. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable D. They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode
C. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface? A. ipv6 address dhcp B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64 C. ipv6 address autoconfig D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local
C. ipv6 address autoconfig
A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received. Which interface counter increments? A. runt B. collision C. late collision D. CRC
C. late collision
What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.) A. acts as a central point for association and authentication servers B. selects the best route between networks on a WAN C. moves packets within a VLAN D. moves packets between different VLANs E. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet
C. moves packets within a VLAN; E. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet
Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming? A. start of frame delimiter B. Type field C. preamble D. Data field
C. preamble
Refer to the exhibit. When PC1 sends a packet to PC2, the packet has which source and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2? A. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 10.10.2.2 B. source 192.168.20.10 and destination 192.168.20.1 C. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10 D. source 10.10.1.1 and destination 10.10.2.2
C. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10
DRAG DROP -Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left on to the correct values on the right. Select and Place:
Connection Oriented: SMTP, SSH, FTP Connectionless: SNMP, TFTP, VoIP
Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router1 use for traffic to Host A? A. 10.10.10.0/28 B. 10.10.13.0/25 C. 10.10.13.144/28 D. 10.10.13.208/29
D. 10.10.13.208/29
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses? A. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240 B. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240 C. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224 D. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224
D. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224
What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture? A. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth. B. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports. C. It provides variable latency. D. Each device is separated by the same number of hops.
D. Each device is separated by the same number of hops.
Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address? A. 2000::/3 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/10 D. FF00::/12
D. FF00::/12
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two.) A. 2000::/3 B. 2002::5 C. FC00::/7 D. FF02::1 E. FF02::2
D. FF02::1 E. FF02::2
Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.16.143 255.255.255.240 Bad mask /28 for address 192.168.16.143 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received? A. It belongs to a private IP address range. B. The router does not support /28 mask. C. It is a network IP address. D. It is a broadcast IP address.
D. It is a broadcast IP address.
What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command? A. It immediately enables the port in the listening state. B. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded. C. It enables BPDU messages. D. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time.
D. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time.
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch? A. Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down. B. After spanning tree converges, PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs. C. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically. D. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.
D. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP? A. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol. B. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol. C. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol. D. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
D. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC? A. The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop B. The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC C. The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC
D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC
Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public addresses? A. multicast B. unique local C. link-local D. global unicast
D. global unicast
An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria? A. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252 B. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248 C. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248 D. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 209.165.201.2 225.255.255.252
D. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 209.165.201.2 225.255.255.252
You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically.Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this? A. ip default-gateway B. ip route C. ip default-network D. ip address dhcp E. ip address dynamic
D. ip address dhcp
A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software that is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend? A. infrastructure-as-a-service B. platform-as-a-service C. business process as service to support different types of service D. software-as-a-service
D. software-as-a-service
An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). Which command sequence must be implemented? A. switch(config-if)#lldp port-description B. switch#lldp port-description C. switch(config-line)#lldp port-description D. switch(config)#lldp port-description
D. switch(config)#lldp port-description
What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device? A. to transmit wireless traffic between hosts B. to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet C. to forward traffic within the same broadcast domain D. to pass traffic between different networks
D. to pass traffic between different networks
Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right.Select and Place:
Explanation:This subnet question requires us to grasp how to subnet very well. To quickly find out the subnet range, we have to find out the increment and the network address of each subnet. Let"™s take an example with the subnet 172.28.228.144/18:From the /18 (= 1100 0000 in the 3rd octet), we find out the increment is 64. Therefore the network address of this subnet must be the greatest multiple of the increment but not greater than the value in the 3rd octet (228). We can find out the 3rd octet of the network address is 192 (because 192 = 64 * 3 and 192 < 228) -> The network address is 172.28.192.0. So the first usable host should be 172.28.192.1 and it matches with the 5th answer on the right. In this case we don"™t need to calculate the broadcast address because we found the correct answer.Let"™s take another example with subnet 172.28.228.144/23 -> The increment is 2 (as /23 = 1111 1110 in 3rd octet) -> The 3rd octet of the network address is 228(because 228 is the multiply of 2 and equal to the 3rd octet) -> The network address is 172.28.228.0 -> The first usable host is 172.28.228.1. It is not necessary but if we want to find out the broadcast address of this subnet, we can find out the next network address, which is 172.28.(228 + the increment number).0 or172.28.230.0 then reduce 1 bit -> 172.28.229.255 is the broadcast address of our subnet. Therefore the last usable host is 172.28.229.254.
DRAG DROP -Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.Select and Place:
FTP: uses ports 20 & 21; provides reliability when loading an IOS image upon boot up; uses TCP TFTP: uses port 69; does not required
DRAG DROP -Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that is uses on the right. Select and Place:
TCP: FTP, SMTP, SSH UDP: DHCP, SNMP, TFTP
DRAG DROP -Drag and drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right. Select and Place:
TCP: sends transmissions in sequence uses a lower transmission rate to ensure reliability transmits packets as a stream UDP: transmissions include an 8-byte header transmits packets individually uses a higher transmission rate to support latency-sensitive applications
Fields in Ethernet frame: Source Address (SA)
The SA is a 48-bit MAC address used to identify the transmitting device, and it uses the least significant bit first. Broadcast and multicast address formats are illegal within the SA field.
Fields in Ethernet frame: Destination Address (DA)
This tranmits a 48-bit value using the least significant bit (LSB) first. The DA is used by receiving stations to determine if an incoming packet is addressed to a particular node. The destination address can be an individual address or a broadcast or multicast MAC address. Remember that a broadcast is all 1s---all Fs in hex---and is sent to all devices. A multicast is sent only to a similar subset of nodes on a network.
