CCNA Routing and Switching Essentials Final Exam

B & E

What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.) A. Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers. B. Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers. C. Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router. D. The database information for each router is obtained from the same source. E. Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.

C

How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined? A. the highest EUI-64 ID on an active interface B. the highest IPv6 address on an active interface C. the highest IPv4 address on an active interface D. the lowest MAC address on an active interface

B

What benefit does NAT64 provide? A. It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses. B. It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses. C. It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks. D. It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.

A

What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols? A. They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors. B. They flood the entire network with routing updates. C. They only send out updates when a new network is added. D. They use hop count as their only metric.

A

What caused the following error message to appear? 01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state 01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8. 01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down 01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down A. Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8. B. A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused. C. An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8. D. NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8. E. Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.

C

What summary static address would be configured on R1 to advertise to R3? A. 192.168.0.0/24 B. 192.168.0.0/23 C. 192.168.0.0/22 D. 192.168.0.0/21

B & C

Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.) A. computer type B. destination UDP port number C. ICMP message type D. destination MAC address E. source TCP hello address

D & E

Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)​ A, They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers. B. In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers. C. The interface vlan <vlan number> command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports. D. They are not associated with a particular VLAN. E. They are used for point-to-multipoint links.

A

Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs? A. switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address sticky switchport port-security violation restrict B. switchport mode access switchport port-security C. switchport mode access switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address sticky D. switchport mode access switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address sticky switchport port-security violation protect

E

A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home? A. ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443 ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365 B. No additional configuration is necessary. C. ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225 D. ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5 E. ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443 ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365

B

A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other? A. permit ip any any B. permit icmp any any nd-na C. permit ip any host ip_address D. deny ip any any

C

A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry? A. 0.0.0.127 B. 0.0.0.255 C. 0.0.1.255 D. 0.0.255.255 E. A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.

D

A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used? A. in an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN B. in an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another LAN C. in an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used on a specific server D. in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device

A

A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task? A. Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk B. Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast C. Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1 D. Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

C

A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame? A. All devices in all VLANs see the frame. B. Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame. C. Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame. D. Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.

A

A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network? A. ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200 B. ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100 C. ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100 D. ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200

A & D

A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.) A. RouterA(config)# router ospf 1 B. RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0 C. RouterA(config)# router ospf 0 D. RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 E. RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

C

A small-sized company has 20 workstations and 2 servers. The company has been assigned a group of IPv4 addresses 209.165.200.224/29 from its ISP. What technology should the company implement in order to allow the workstations to access the services over the Internet? A. port address translation B. static NAT C. dynamic NAT D. DHCP

1

In IPv6, all routes are level __________ ultimate routes.

3 1 2 5 6

Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router. (Not all options are used.) 1. Each router is responsible for "saying "hello" to its neighbors on directly connected networks. 2. Each router builds a Link-State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link. 3. Each router learns about each of its own directly connected networks 4. Each router increments the hop count for the destination network 5. Each router floods the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database. 6. Each router uses the database to construct a complete map of the topology and computes the best path to each destination network

C

On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch? A. Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat B. Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100 C. Switch(config)# no vlan 100 D. Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100

B & E

Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.) A. (config)# interface fastethernet0/4 (config-if)# switchport mode trunk B. (config)# ip routing C. (config)# interface vlan 1 (config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0 (config-if)# no shutdown D. (config)# interface gigabitethernet1/1 (config-if)# switchport mode trunk E. (config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 (config-if)# no switchport (config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252

D E & F

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has just configured address translation and is verifying the configuration. What three things can the administrator verify? (Choose three.) A. Two types of NAT are enabled. B. One port on the router is not participating in the address translation. C. Three addresses from the NAT pool are being used by hosts. D. The name of the NAT pool is refCount. E. A standard access list numbered 1 was used as part of the configuration process. F. Address translation is working.

A

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0? A. The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation. B. The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified. C. No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet. D. The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.

B

Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown? A. The ipv6 route command was used. B. Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol. C. The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing protocol configuration mode command. D. The ip route command was used.

D

Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology? A. 10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains B. 16 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains C. 5 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains D. 5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains

D

Refer to the exhibit. If RIPng is enabled, how many hops away does R1 consider the 2001:0DB8:ACAD:1::/64 network to be? A. 4 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

B

Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?​ A. A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address. B. The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface. C. R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.​ D. The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.

D

Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet? A. Add an administrative distance of 254. B. Change the exit interface to S0/0/1. C. Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226. D. Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0.0.

A & B

Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.) A. outbound B. R1 Gi0/1.12 C. R2 Gi0/1.20 D. R2 S0/0/1 E. inbound F. R1 S0/0/0

D

Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem? A. The VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.​ B. There is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface. C. A configuration for the native VLAN is missing. D. The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.​

C

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route is 172.16.0.0/16? A. ultimate route B. child route C. level 1 parent route D. default route

D

What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate? A. A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination. B. Cost equals bandwidth. C. Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination. D. A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.

B.

What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency? A. They request more information about their databases. B. They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs. C. They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals. D. They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.

B

What is a disadvantage of NAT? A. The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication. B. There is no end-to-end addressing. C. The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network. D. The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.

A

What is a function of the distribution layer? A. interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets B. network access to the user C. fault isolation D. high-speed backbone connectivity

D

What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs? A. The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLANs. B. The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only. C. The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced. D. A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.

B

When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default? A. data VLAN ID B. native VLAN ID C. management VLAN ID D. unused VLAN ID

A

When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections, what is the purpose of the crypto key generate rsa command? A. create a public and private key pair B. disconnect SSH connected hosts C. access the SSH database configuration D. show active SSH ports on the switch E. show SSH connected hosts

A

Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B? A. R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1 B. R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254 C. R1(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254 D. R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

C

Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled? A. service dhcp B. ip helper-address C. ip address dhcp D. ip dhcp pool

A

Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table? A. the source MAC address and the incoming port B. the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port C. the source MAC address and the outgoing port D. the destination MAC address and the incoming port E. the destination MAC address and the outgoing port F. the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

A

Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?​ A. a DHCPREQUEST unicast message​ B. a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message​ C. a DHCPDISCOVER unicast message​ D. a DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message

D

Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down? A. An encapsulation mismatch has occurred. B. The no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface. C. There is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface. D. A cable has not been attached to the port.

C

Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically? A. It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table. B. It has an administrative distance of 1. C. It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols. D. It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.

B

Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing? A. IPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols. B. IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes. C. IPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers. D. IPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes.

D

Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58? A. ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 S0/0/0 B. ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0 C. ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0 D. ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0

B

Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check? A. ingress port buffering B. store-and-forward switching C. cut-through switching D. borderless switching

B D & F

Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.) A. Configuration of static routes is error-free. B. Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does. C. Static routes scale well as the network grows. D. The path a static route uses to send data is known. E. No intervention is required to maintain changing route information. F. Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security.

A D & E

Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.) A. the type of network link B. the link bandwidth C. the link next-hop IP address D. the cost of that link E. the link router interface IP address and subnet mask

C D & E

Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.) A. The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router. B. The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address. C. The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match. D. The link interface subnet masks must match. E. The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command. F. The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command.

A B & D

Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.) A. source address and wildcard mask B. destination address and wildcard mask C. source subnet mask and wildcard mask D. access list number between 100 and 199 E. access list number between 1 and 99 F. destination subnet mask and wildcard mask G. default gateway address and wildcard mask

D & E

Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose two.) A. show processes B. show cdp neighbor C. show ip route D. show access-lists E. show running-config

B & E

Which two commands should be implemented to return a Cisco 3560 trunk port to its default configuration? (Choose two.) A. S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan B. S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable C. S1(config-if)# switchport mode access D. S1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1 E. S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk native vlan

A & D

Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.) A. scalability B. ISP selection C. the autonomous system that is used D. speed of convergence E. campus backbone architecture

D

Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device? A. HTTP B. Telnet C. DNS D. IPsec E. ICMP