CCSK Practice Exam

If there are gaps in network logging data, what can you do? A. Nothing. There are simply limitations around the data that can be logged in the cloud. B. Ask the cloud provider to open more ports. C. You can instrument the technology stack with your own logging. D. Ask the cloud provider to close more ports. E. Nothing. The cloud provider must make the information available.

C

To understand their compliance alignments and gaps with a cloud provider, what must cloud customers rely on? A. Provider documentation B. Provider run audits and reports C. Third-party attestations D. Provider and consumer contracts E. EDiscovery tools

C

What is the newer application development methodology and philosophy focused on automation of application development and deployment? A. Agile B. BusOps C. DevOps D. SecDevOps E. Scrum

C

Which governance domain deals with evaluating how cloud computing affects compliance with internal security policies and various legal requirements, such as regulatory and legislative? A. Legal Issues: Contracts and Electronic Discovery B. Infrastructure Security C. Compliance and Audit Management D. Information Governance E. Governance and Enterprise Risk Management

C

Which governance domain focuses on proper and adequate incident detection, response, notification, and remediation? A. Data Security and Encryption B. Information Governance C. Incident Response, Notification and Remediation D. Compliance and Audit Management E. Infrastructure Security

C

Cloud services exhibit five essential characteristics that demonstrate their relation to, and differences from, traditional computing approaches. Which one of the five characteristics is described as: a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities such as server time and network storage as needed? A. Rapid elasticity B. Resource pooling C. Broad network access D. Measured service E. On-demand self-service

E

What is true of security as it relates to cloud network infrastructure? A. You should apply cloud firewalls on a per-network basis. B. You should deploy your cloud firewalls identical to the existing firewalls. C. You should always open traffic between workloads in the same virtual subnet for better visibility. D. You should implement a default allow with cloud firewalls and then restrict as necessary. E. You should implement a default deny with cloud firewalls.

E

What item below allows disparate directory services and independent security domains to be interconnected? A. Coalition B. Cloud C. Intersection D. Union E. Federation

E

Which statement best describes the impact of Cloud Computing on business continuity management? A. A general lack of interoperability standards means that extra focus must be placed on the security aspects of migration between Cloud providers. B. The size of data sets hosted at a Cloud provider can present challenges if migration to another provider becomes necessary. C. Customers of SaaS providers in particular need to mitigate the risks of application lock-in. D. Clients need to do business continuity planning due diligence in case they suddenly need to switch providers. E. Geographic redundancy ensures that Cloud Providers provide highly available services.

E

Who is responsible for the security of the physical infrastructure and virtualization platform? A. The cloud consumer B. The majority is covered by the consumer C. It depends on the agreement D. The responsibility is split equally E. The cloud provider

E

Which opportunity helps reduce common application security issues? A. Elastic infrastructure B. Default deny C. Decreased use of micro-services D. Segregation by default E. Fewer serverless configurations

A

Your cloud and on-premises infrastructures should always use the same network address ranges. A. False B. True

A

A security failure at the root network of a cloud provider will not compromise the security of all customers because of multitenancy configuration. A. False B. True

A

An important consideration when performing a remote vulnerability test of a cloud-based application is to A. Obtain provider permission for test B. Use techniques to evade cloud providerג€™s detection systems C. Use application layer testing tools exclusively D. Use network layer testing tools exclusively E. Schedule vulnerability test at night

A

ENISA: Which is a potential security benefit of cloud computing? A. More efficient and timely system updates B. ISO 27001 certification C. Provider can obfuscate system O/S and versions D. Greater compatibility with customer IT infrastructure E. Lock-In

A

How can virtual machine communications bypass network security controls? A. VM communications may use a virtual network on the same hardware host B. The guest OS can invoke stealth mode C. Hypervisors depend upon multiple network interfaces D. VM images can contain rootkits programmed to bypass firewalls E. Most network security systems do not recognize encrypted VM traffic

A

How does virtualized storage help avoid data loss if a drive fails? A. Multiple copies in different locations B. Drives are backed up, swapped, and archived constantly C. Full back ups weekly D. Data loss is unavoidable with drive failures E. Incremental backups daily

A

How should an SDLC be modified to address application security in a Cloud Computing environment? A. Integrated development environments B. Updated threat and trust models C. No modification is needed D. Just-in-time compilers E. Both B and C

A

The Software Defined Perimeter (SDP) includes which components? A. Client, Controller, and Gateway B. Client, Controller, Firewall, and Gateway C. Client, Firewall, and Gateway D. Controller, Firewall, and Gateway E. Client, Controller, and Firewall

A

What is a potential concern of using Security-as-a-Service (SecaaS)? A. Lack of visibility B. Deployment flexibility C. Scaling and costs D. Intelligence sharing E. Insulation of clients

A

What is defined as the process by which an opposing party may obtain private documents for use in litigation? A. Discovery B. Custody C. Subpoena D. Risk Assessment E. Scope

A

What is the most significant security difference between traditional infrastructure and cloud computing? A. Management plane B. Intrusion detection options C. Secondary authentication factors D. Network access points E. Mobile security configuration options

A

What is true of a workload? A. It is a unit of processing that consumes memory B. It does not require a hardware stack C. It is always a virtual machine D. It is configured for specific, established tasks E. It must be containerized

A

What is true of searching data across cloud environments? A. You might not have the ability or administrative rights to search or access all hosted data. B. The cloud provider must conduct the search with the full administrative controls. C. All cloud-hosted email accounts are easily searchable. D. Search and discovery time is always factored into a contract between the consumer and provider. E. You can easily search across your environment using any E-Discovery tool.

A

Which cloud-based service model enables companies to provide client-based access for partners to databases or applications? A. Platform-as-a-service (PaaS) B. Desktop-as-a-service (DaaS) C. Infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS) D. Identity-as-a-service (IDaaS) E. Software-as-a-service (SaaS)

A

Which concept provides the abstraction needed for resource pools? A. Virtualization B. Applistructure C. Hypervisor D. Metastructure E. Orchestration

A

Which data security control is the LEAST likely to be assigned to an IaaS provider? A. Application logic B. Access controls C. Encryption solutions D. Physical destruction E. Asset management and tracking

A

Which layer is the most important for securing because it is considered to be the foundation for secure cloud operations? A. Infrastructure B. Datastructure C. Infostructure D. Applistructure E. Metastructure

A

APIs and web services require extensive hardening and must assume attacks from authenticated and unauthenticated adversaries. A. False B. True

B

All cloud services utilize virtualization technologies. A. False B. True

B

Big data includes high volume, high variety, and high velocity. A. False B. True

B

CCM: In the CCM tool, `Encryption and Key Management` is an example of which of the following? A. Risk Impact B. Domain C. Control Specification

B

CCM: The following list of controls belong to which domain of the CCM?GRM 06 `" Policy GRM 07 `" Policy Enforcement GRM 08 `" Policy Impact on Risk Assessments GRM 09 `" Policy Reviews GRM 10 `" Risk Assessments GRM 11`" Risk Management Framework A. Governance and Retention Management B. Governance and Risk Management C. Governing and Risk Metrics

B

Cloud applications can use virtual networks and other structures, for hyper-segregated environments. A. False B. True

B

Network logs from cloud providers are typically flow records, not full packet captures. A. False B. True

B

REST APIs are the standard for web-based services because they run over HTTPS and work well across diverse environments. A. False B. True

B

Sending data to a provider's storage over an API is likely as much more reliable and secure than setting up your own SFTP server on a VM in the same provider A. False B. True

B

Use elastic servers when possible and move workloads to new instances. A. False B. True

B

Which of the following is NOT a cloud computing characteristic that impacts incidence response? A. The on demand self-service nature of cloud computing environments. B. Privacy concerns for co-tenants regarding the collection and analysis of telemetry and artifacts associated with an incident. C. The possibility of data crossing geographic or jurisdictional boundaries. D. Object-based storage in a private cloud. E. The resource pooling practiced by cloud services, in addition to the rapid elasticity offered by cloud infrastructures.

B

Which of the following is a perceived advantage or disadvantage of managing enterprise risk for cloud deployments? A. More physical control over assets and processes. B. Greater reliance on contracts, audits, and assessments due to lack of visibility or management. C. Decreased requirement for proactive management of relationship and adherence to contracts. D. Increased need, but reduction in costs, for managing risks accepted by the cloud provider. E. None of the above.

B

A cloud deployment of two or more unique clouds is known as: A. Infrastructures as a Service B. A Private Cloud C. A Community Cloud D. A Hybrid Cloud E. Jericho Cloud Cube Model

C

CCM: A hypothetical company called: `Health4Sure` is located in the United States and provides cloud based services for tracking patient health. The company is compliant with HIPAA/HITECH Act among other industry standards. Health4Sure decides to assess the overall security of their cloud service against the CCM toolkit so that they will be able to present this document to potential clients.Which of the following approach would be most suitable to assess the overall security posture of Health4Sure's cloud service? A. The CCM columns are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered ad a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls. This approach will save time. B. The CCM domain controls are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered as a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls thoroughly. This approach saves time while being able to assess the companyג€™s overall security posture in an efficient manner. C. The CCM domains are not mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act. Therefore Health4Sure should assess the security posture of their cloud service against each and every control in the CCM. This approach will allow a thorough assessment of the security posture.

C

CCM: In the CCM tool, a _____________________ is a measure that modifies risk and includes any process, policy, device, practice or any other actions which modify risk. A. Risk Impact B. Domain C. Control Specification

C

ENISA: Which is not one of the five key legal issues common across all scenarios: A. Data protection B. Professional negligence C. Globalization D. Intellectual property E. Outsourcing services and changes in control

C

Which of the following statements are NOT requirements of governance and enterprise risk management in a cloud environment? A. Inspect and account for risks inherited from other members of the cloud supply chain and take active measures to mitigate and contain risks through operational resiliency. B. Respect the interdependency of the risks inherent in the cloud supply chain and communicate the corporate risk posture and readiness to consumers and dependent parties. C. Negotiate long-term contracts with companies who use well-vetted software application to avoid the transient nature of the cloud environment. D. Provide transparency to stakeholders and shareholders demonstrating fiscal solvency and organizational transparency. E. Both B and C.

C

What is known as a code execution environment running within an operating system that shares and uses the resources of the operating system? A. Platform-based Workload B. Pod C. Abstraction D. Container E. Virtual machine

D

Which attack surfaces, if any, does virtualization technology introduce? A. The hypervisor B. Virtualization management components apart from the hypervisor C. Configuration and VM sprawl issues D. All of the above

D

Which cloud security model type provides generalized templates for helping implement cloud security? A. Conceptual models or frameworks B. Design patterns C. Controls models or frameworks D. Reference architectures E. Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

D

Which concept is a mapping of an identity, including roles, personas, and attributes, to an authorization? A. Access control B. Federated Identity Management C. Authoritative source D. Entitlement E. Authentication

D

Which term is used to describe the use of tools to selectively degrade portions of the cloud to continuously test business continuity? A. Planned Outages B. Resiliency Planning C. Expected Engineering D. Chaos Engineering E. Organized Downtime

D

Why is a service type of network typically isolated on different hardware? A. It requires distinct access controls B. It manages resource pools for cloud consumers C. It has distinct functions from other networks D. It manages the traffic between other networks E. It requires unique security

D

A defining set of rules composed of claims and attributes of the entities in a transaction, which is used to determine their level of access to cloud-based resources is called what? A. An entitlement matrix B. A support table C. An entry log D. A validation process E. An access log

D

ENISA: An example high risk role for malicious insiders within a Cloud Provider includes A. Sales B. Marketing C. Legal counsel D. Auditors E. Accounting

D

ENISA: `VM hopping` is: A. Improper management of VM instances, causing customer VMs to be commingled with other customer systems. B. Looping within virtualized routing systems. C. Lack of vulnerability management standards. D. Using a compromised VM to exploit a hypervisor, used to take control of other VMs. E. Instability in VM patch management causing VM routing errors.

D

How does running applications on distinct virtual networks and only connecting networks as needed help? A. It reduces hardware costs B. It provides dynamic and granular policies with less management overhead C. It locks down access and provides stronger data security D. It reduces the blast radius of a compromised system E. It enables you to configure applications around business groups

D

In volume storage, what method is often used to support resiliency and security? A. proxy encryption B. data rights management C. hypervisor agents D. data dispersion E. random placement

D

Select the best definition of `compliance` from the options below. A. The development of a routine that covers all necessary security measures. B. The diligent habits of good security practices and recording of the same. C. The timely and efficient filing of security reports. D. The awareness and adherence to obligations, including the assessment and prioritization of corrective actions deemed necessary and appropriate. E. The process of completing all forms and paperwork necessary to develop a defensible paper trail.

D

Select the statement below which best describes the relationship between identities and attributes A. Attributes belong to entities and identities belong to attributes. Each attribute can have multiple identities but only one entity. B. An attribute is a unique object within a database. Each attribute it has a number of identities which help define its parameters. C. An identity is a distinct and unique object within a particular namespace. Attributes are properties which belong to an identity. Each identity can have multiple attributes. D. Attributes are made unique by their identities. E. Identities are the network names given to servers. Attributes are the characteristics of each server.

D

What are the primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in the management infrastructure? A. Building and properly configuring a secure network infrastructure B. Configuring second factor authentication across the network C. Properly configuring the deployment of the virtual network, especially the firewalls D. Properly configuring the deployment of the virtual network, except the firewalls E. Providing as many API endpoints as possible for custom access and configurations

D

What factors should you understand about the data specifically due to legal, regulatory, and jurisdictional factors? A. The physical location of the data and how it is accessed B. The fragmentation and encryption algorithms employed C. The language of the data and how it affects the user D. The implications of storing complex information on simple storage systems E. The actual size of the data and the storage format

D