Cellular Neuroscience Final
37. L-Type calcium channels are ______ voltage activated and P/Q-Type calcium channels are _________voltage activated. A) High, High B) High, Low C) Low, High D) Low, Low
A) High, High
40. TRUE or FALSE. Hyperpolarizing current can be transferred across gap junctions with virtually no synaptic delay. A) True B) False
A) True
42. TRUE or FALSE. Miniature End Plate Potentials (MEPPs) represent the release of a single quantal packet of neurotransmitters in the absence of synaptic stimulation. A) True B) False
A) True
50. In what case(s) can a depolarizing synaptic potential also be inhibitory (e.g. a depolarizing IPSP)? A. ECl- is more negative than the action potential threshold but positive with respect to the resting membrane potential B. ECl- more positive than the action potential threshold C. ECl- is more negative than the resting membrane potential D. None of the above
A. ECl- is more negative than the action potential threshold but positive with respect to the resting membrane potential
39. In his classical experiment, what substance did Otto Loewi transfer from one heart to another, and what effect did it have on the recipient heart? A) Acetylcholine; heart rate increased B) Acetylcholine; heart rate decreased C) Glutamate; heart rate increased D) Glutamate; heart rate decreased
B) Acetylcholine; heart rate decreased
44. TRUE or FALSE. The quantal size is dramatically increased during the induction of long term potentiation and in many other forms of synaptic plasticity A) True B) False
B) False
48. TRUE or FALSE. The sodium-potassium ATPase pump has no effect on the resting membrane potential and does not consume energy (i.e. it is electroneutral). A) True B) False
B) False
45. Which of the three hypotheses about synaptic vesicular exocytosis would you expect to predominate in fast-spiking neurons? A) Classical B) Kiss and run C) Bulk endocytosis D) None of the above
B) Kiss and run
46. If the equilibrium potential for sodium is ~+55mV, why is the equilibrium potential for AMPA receptors close to 0mV? A)AMPA receptors are more permeable to K+ than Na+ B)AMPA receptors are equally permeable to K+ and Na+ C)AMPA receptors are also permeable to Ca2+ D)AMPA receptors are Cl- channels
B)AMPA receptors are equally permeable to K+ and Na+
37. What magnitudes of tau and lambda might you expect in a synaptic connection that is highly efficacious (e.g. a synapse that has undergone LTP)? a. Large tau and large lambda b. Large tau and small lambda c. Small tau and large lambda d. Small tau and small lambda
Large tau and large lambda
35. During development, the intracellular concentration of Cl- is _____ and the equilibrium potential for Cl- sits _____ the resting membrane potential causing depolarization upon the opening of ligand-gated Cl- channels. A) High; below B) Low; below C) High; above D) Low; above
C) High; above
8. What is atropine? A. A nAChR agonist B. a GABAA receptor agonist C. A muscarinic AchR antagonist D. None of the above
C. A muscarinic AchR antagonist
6. Microtubules are organized in a + and - orientation with: a. + end at ends of axons and the - end facing the nucleus b. + end facing the nucleus and the - end at the end of axons c. Kinesins moving from the + end to the - end toward the nucleus d. Dyneins moving from the - end to the + end and being responsible for slow anterograde transport
a. + end at ends of axons and the - end facing the nucleus
8. What is calmodulin? a. A calcium binding protein that activates CaMKII b. A protein involved in catecholamine synthesis c. A protein that deactivates and inhibits CaMKII d. A protein that binds DNA to stimulate CREB
a. A calcium binding protein that activates CaMKII
16. Familial erythromelalgia is caused by: a. A gain of function mutation in the voltage gated sodium channel Nav1.7 encoded by the SCN9A gene b. A loss of function mutation in the voltage gated sodium channel Nav1.8 encoded by the SCN10A gene c. A mutation that causes both Nav1.7 and Nav1.8 to be constitutively active d. A mutation that causes affected individuals to have double the normal number of nociceptors
a. A gain of function mutation in the voltage gated sodium channel Nav1.7 encoded by the SCN9A gene
1. What are the three types of ionotropic glutamate receptors? a. AMPA, NMDA, Kainate b. GABA, muscarinic, 5HT c. Purine, AMPA, nAchR d. Glycine, Kainate, 5HT
a. AMPA, NMDA, Kainate
3. The adenylyl cyclase pathway involves the messenger cAMP. What molecule is the precursor for the enzymatic production of cAMP? a. ATP b. PKA c. GTP d. DNA
a. ATP
7. Which of the following is FALSE about the cannabinoid system? a. Activation of CB1 receptors by endocannabinoids causes an anxiogenic, anti-analgesic and strong suppression of feeding phenotype in animals b. Cannabinoid receptors are metabotropic c. Endocannabinoids can modulate the activity of various ion channels d. Cannabinoid receptors are abundant in brain and in other organs such as the liver and pancreas.
a. Activation of CB1 receptors by endocannabinoids causes an anxiogenic, anti-analgesic and strong suppression of feeding phenotype in animals
7. How is PKA activated? a. Binding of cAMP to PKA regulatory subunits b. Phosphatases dephosphorylate the catalytic domain of PKA c. High concentrations of DAG signals PKA activation d. All of the above
a. Binding of cAMP to PKA regulatory subunits
45. Increasing the concentration of extracellular K+ from 5mM to 30mM will do what to the neuronal membrane potential: a. Cause a depolarization b. Cause a hyperpolarization c. Have no effect at all d. None of the above
a. Cause a depolarization
20. Gap junction proteins are made up of two protein families with at least 20 genes that fall into the ________ family and 3 genes that fall into the ________ family a. Connexin, pannexin b. Pannexin, DEKA c. EEEE, connexin d. DEKA, EEEE
a. Connexin, pannexin
14. Astrocytes release a certain amino acid that then binds to NMDARs and is a required co-transmitter with glutamate at this receptor. What is this amino acid called? a. D-Serine b. D-Methionine c. S-Tyrosine d. R-Cysteine
a. D-Serine
12. Glial cells are thought to play a role in epilepsy. How would an anti-convulsant therapeutic potentially decrease neuronal excitability in epilepsy through affecting glial cells? a. Decrease calcium signaling in astrocytes b. Inactivate potassium channels c. Increase activation of microglial cells d. Activate sodium channels
a. Decrease calcium signaling in astrocytes
11. Radial Glia cells are considered the stem cells of the brain, arising from neuroepithelial cells. In humans, at which age are there the highest number of radial glial cells? a. Embryonic b. Adolescent c. Adult d. Elder
a. Embryonic
7. A striking feature of fragile X syndrome is the finding that metabotropic glutamate receptor induced LTD is ______ in the absence of FMRP. a. Enhanced b. Absent c. Exactly the same d. Converted to LTP
a. Enhanced
28. CRE recombinase is an enzyme that is broadly used to a. Excise parts of the genome that are flanked by loxP sites to create cell-specific knockout mice b. Cut DNA into pieces at specific sequences called "restriction sites" c. Insert new genes into the genome specifically in the kidney d. Excise chromatin structures from DNA in a cell type specific fashion
a. Excise parts of the genome that are flanked by loxP sites to create cell-specific knockout mice
6. Baclofen and Phaclofen are drugs that act on what receptor? a. GABABR b. 5-Ht3R c. nAChR d. D2R
a. GABABR
4. NMDA-Rs serve as coincidence detectors because two things must happen simultaneously in order for the channel to get activated. What are these two events? a. Glutamate must bind to the receptor and Mg+ must be removed from the pore b. Hyperpolarization and activation of Kainate receptors c. Ca2+ influx and closing of K+ channels d. Na+ influx and opening of K+ channels
a. Glutamate must bind to the receptor and Mg+ must be removed from the pore
4. For some types of ion channels, multiple subunits must come together to form a functional ion channel pore. What is the difference between a hetero-oligomer and a homo-oligomer? a. Homo-oligomers are made up of the same type of subunits b. Hetero-oligomers are made up of the same type of subunits c. Homo-oligomers are made up of accessory subunit proteins that are not pore forming d. Hetero-oligomers are made up of accessory subunit proteins that are not pore forming
a. Homo-oligomers are made up of the same type of subunits
26. Traditional knockout mice are widely used in neuroscience research to: a. Identify the physiological function of a single gene that has been removed from the genome b. Remove entire chromosomes from the genome c. Create mice with organs that are fluorescently labeled d. Induce gain of function mutations that enhance cognition
a. Identify the physiological function of a single gene that has been removed from the genome
7. Are drug that inhibits COMT would be expected to have what major effect? a. Increased synaptic dopamine and serotonin b. Decreased synaptic dopamine c. Increased synaptic glutamate d. Increased synaptic GABA
a. Increased synaptic dopamine and serotonin
36. How can neurons decrease resistance inside their axons ()? a. Increasing axon diameter b. Decreasing axon diameter c. Myelination d. De-myelination
a. Increasing axon diameter
5. One action of serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) is that they can increase the concentration of NE in the spinal cord. What is the impact of this increased NE levels in the spinal cord? a. Inhibits pain b. Increases attention c. Turns off GABA neurons d. Increases dopamine reuptake
a. Inhibits pain
2. Translation is the process of creating peptides from mRNAs. What is the rate limiting step in translation regulation? This is the step that is most heavily influenced by cellular kinases and is involved in neuronal plasticity. a. Initiation b. Elongation c. Termination d. Transcription
a. Initiation
1. Long term depression leads to an influx of calcium via NMDA receptors that trigger AMPA receptors to do what? a. Internalization into the cytoplasm away from the postsynaptic density b. Insert into the synapse c. Open to sodium influx d. Close potassium channels
a. Internalization into the cytoplasm away from the postsynaptic density
19. In what direction would a negatively-charged ion X flow if the membrane potential was more positive than the equilibrium potential for ion X? a. Into the cell b. Out of the cell c. There would be no net flow of X d. Impossible to determine with the given information
a. Into the cell
28. In voltage-clamp experiments, a downward deflection in current usually indicates a. Inward current b. Outward current c. Inverse current d. Low current
a. Inward current
27. Reversal potential can be reached when permeability for a given ion becomes so high that it dominates the overall permeability of the cell. As sodium's permeability gets higher and higher during an action potential and the membrane voltage becomes more and more positive, what happens to its driving force? a. It gets smaller and smaller, eventually hitting its reversal potential b. It gets larger and larger, eventually hitting hits reversal potential. c. It remains constant and reversal potential isn't affected d. Its driving force depends on the reversal potential for potassium
a. It gets smaller and smaller, eventually hitting its reversal potential
24. The permeability of ions can vary at different stages of excitability and during the action potential. When a cell is at resting membrane potential, the cell membrane is most permeable to which ion? a. K+ b. Na+ c. Cl- d. Ca2+
a. K+
9. 2-AG is degraded by what enzyme? a. Monoacylglycerol lipase b. Fatty acid amide hydrolase c. Arachidonic acid d. Phospholipase C-Beta
a. Monoacylglycerol lipase
31. PSP direction depends on the reversal potential for the postsynaptic potential in question. What does an EPSP's reversal potential have to be in comparison to the Action Potential threshold for a given neuron? a. More positive b. 0.5 times c. More negative d. 4 times under
a. More positive
1. There are multiple types of opioid ligands that bind to specific types of opioid receptors. What opioid receptor do endorphins and morphine preferentially bind to? a. Mu b. Kappa c. Delta d. CB2
a. Mu
7. Certain cation chloride co-transporters are expressed at different levels depending on the developmental stage of the organism. Which cation chloride cotransporter is strongly expressed during early embryonic development of the nervous system in rodents and humans? a. NKCC1 b. KCC2 c. Na/K ATPase d. None of the above
a. NKCC1
35. Changes in membrane potential can induce changes in current and ion flow. When sodium's reversal potential is passed and exceeded, what happens to Na+ flow in the neuron? a. Na+ flows out of the cell b. Na+ flows into the cell c. There is no net ion flow d. Na+ stops flowing in and out of the cell
a. Na+ flows out of the cell
4. There is an atypical PKC that was theorized to maintain late-LTP because it lacks a regulatory domain making it a candidate for a constitutively active kinase. What is its name? a. PKMζ b. PKA c. PKT d. PLL
a. PKMζ
2. Tyrosine receptor kinases are special metabotropic receptors that activate many signaling processes. What happens when a Trk interacts with a ligand? a. Receptors dimerize leading to autophosphorylation b. Recruits CREB proteins c. Binds to calmodulin d. Directly phosphorylates PKC
a. Receptors dimerize leading to autophosphorylation
12. Which of the following would occur if a neuron had increased sodium ion permeability? a. Resting membrane potential would become more positive b. Resting membrane potential would become more negative c. Resting membrane potential would not change d. Resting membrane potential would cease to exist
a. Resting membrane potential would become more positive
9. Before microglia get activated, they are in a state where they move around and survey their environment. What is this state called? a. Resting state b. Phagocytic state c. Ameboid form d. All of the above
a. Resting state
25. Classical neurotransmitters such as GABA and glutamate are: a. Synthesized in the presynaptic terminal b. Synthesized inside astrocytes and released directly into the cleft c. Transported from the cell body to the synaptic terminal during an action potential d. Encoded in the genome
a. Synthesized in the presynaptic terminal
2. Paired pulse depression results from progressive depletion of what? a. The active vesicle pool b. ATP c. The reserve vesicle pool d. cAMP
a. The active vesicle pool
19. A very common feature of most neuropathic chronic pain disorders is a. The generation of spontaneous activity in nociceptors (C-fibers) b. Spontaneous loss of GABA neurons in the spinal cord c. A loss of A-beta fiber innervation of lamina III of the dorsal horn d. Skin pathology caused by autoimmune reactions
a. The generation of spontaneous activity in nociceptors (C-fibers)
10. The primary area for dopamine synthesis for projections that go to the striatum in the brain is called: a. The substantia nigra b. The ventral tegmental area c. The Raphe Magnus d. The A11 nuclei
a. The substantia nigra
3. Ion channels, such as voltage gated channels have subunits that have have distinct functions. For a voltage gated Ca2+ channel, which of the following subunits is the pore-forming subunit? a. The α subunit b. The α2δ1 subunit c. The β subunit d. The gamma2 subunit
a. The α subunit
13. TRUE or FALSE. The sodium-potassium ATPase pump is an example of a transmembrane ion channel that requires energy. a. True b. False
a. True
38. The length constant (l) has a greater value in axons that are myelinated. a. True b. False
a. True
28. There are proteins that allow vesicles to interact with the plasma membrane at the active zone. What kind of protein is synaptobrevin? a. V-SNARE b. SNAp c. T-SNARE d. Synapsin
a. V-SNARE
24. Inbred mouse strains are: a. good representatives of single individuals within the human population b. not used in research labs due to the likelihood of genetic mutations c. likely to have single nucleotide polymorphisms d. not genetically identical due to random mutation events within their genome
a. good representatives of single individuals within the human population
1. The postsynaptic density is an important area of for synpatic plasticity. What is inside the postsynaptic density? a. Accumulation of myelin b. A network of signaling proteins, receptors and scaffolding proteins c. Pools of CREB d. GABA activation
b. A network of signaling proteins, receptors and scaffolding proteins
9. Acetylcholine is synthesized from the precursors _____ and _____, by the enzyme _____. a. ChAT, Acetate, cholinesterase b. Acetyl coenzyme A, choline, chAT c. Glucose, Acetyl CoA, acetylcholinesterase d. Acetyl coenzyme A, acetate, chAT
b. Acetyl coenzyme A, choline, chAT
6. Kinases regulate ion channels by: a. Removing phosphate groups (dephosphorylation) b. Adding phosphate groups (phosphorylation) to Serine, Threonine or Tyrosine residues c. Inhibiting phosphatases d. None of the above
b. Adding phosphate groups (phosphorylation) to Serine, Threonine or Tyrosine residues
9. Galphai coupled GPCRs lead to what physiological effect in cells: a. Increased cAMP and PKA activation b. Decreased cAMP and PKA inhibition c. Increased cGMP and PKG activation d. Increased PLC and DAG production
b. Decreased cAMP and PKA inhibition
42. Pseudo-unipolar neurons have a single axon coming off the cell body that then splits off into two axons and are usually found in: a. The brain stem b. Dorsal root ganglion c. The ventral horn of the spinal cord d. Hippocampus
b. Dorsal root ganglion
18. TRUE or FALSE. The equilibrium potential of potassium is the membrane voltage at which no potassium ions are allowed to cross the membrane? a. True b. False
b. False
29. TRUE or FALSE. DREADD activation by CNO has exactly the same kinetics as ChR2 activation by blue light. a. True b. False
b. False
5. What kind of transport is dependent on kinesin motor proteins? a. Fast retrograde b. Fast anterograde c. Slow retrograde d. Slow anterograde
b. Fast anterograde
5. The inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA is synthesized by glutamate being metabolized by a certain enzyme. What is this enzyme? a. EAAT b. GAD c. Glutaminase d. Choline Acetyl Transferase
b. GAD
6. Which of the following statements about neuropeptides is FALSE? a. Neuropeptide precursors are transported to the synapse by first traversing the trans-Golgi network b. Motor proteins within the axon (kinesin) bind directly to propeptides for fast anterograde transport of the peptide to the synapse c. Pre-propeptides are made at the rough ER d. Pre-propeptides within the vesicle undergo proteolytic processing which processes them into their mature form
b. Motor proteins within the axon (kinesin) bind directly to propeptides for fast anterograde transport of the peptide to the synapse
4. During the late phase of long term potentiation, dendritic spines can take on a new shape. What is the prototypical shape of dendritic spines that have undergone consolidation of late LTP? a. Long thin b. Mushroom shaped c. Spiky d. Split
b. Mushroom shaped
7. NMDA receptors are non-selective cation channels because they allow the following to flow through them: a. Na+, Glutamate, and K+ b. Na+, Ca2+, K+ c. Na+, Mg+, Ca2+ d. Ca2+ and K+ e. They only allow Na+ to enter when glutamate binds
b. Na+, Ca2+, K+
9. Mutations in ion channels can cause important genetic diseases that are often called channelopathies. Mutations in some ion channels can cause intractable pain. Which sodium channel is mutated in the intractable pain disease called Primary Erythromelalgia? a. Nav1.4 b. Nav1.7 c. Nav1.8 d. Nav1.6
b. Nav1.7
11. There are multiple types of voltage gated sodium channels. What is the voltage gated sodium channel that is primarily expressed in nociceptive neurons in the peripheral nervous system and is resistant to TTX? a. Nav1.7 b. Nav1.8 c. Nav1.3 d. Nav1.5
b. Nav1.8
32. GABAA and glycine receptors cause hyperpolarization of the cell. How do they accomplish this? a. Preventing Ca2+ from entering the cell b. Opening Cl- channels c. Opening K+ channels d. None of the above
b. Opening Cl- channels
22. How would you describe the current generated from negatively-charged ions flowing into the cell? a. Inward current b. Outward current c. Inverse current d. Low current
b. Outward current
23. A cell's resting membrane potential can be calculated through the Nerst or Goldman's Equations. Goldman's Equation is different because it introduces the concept of what? a. Various protein pumps such as Na+/K+ ATPase b. Permeability of individual ions c. The opening of chloride channels d. The creation of ion gradients
b. Permeability of individual ions
6. Early LTP depends mostly on what? a. Insertion of new NMDA receptors into the post synaptic density b. Phophorylation of ion channels c. New gene expression d. All of the above
b. Phophorylation of ion channels
20. The value of the resting membrane potential is most dependent upon the permeability of which ion species? a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Chloride d. Calcium
b. Potassium
7. While early LTP is independent of ______ the late phase of LTP is dependent on ______ . a. Protein synthesis, ongoing CaMKII alpha activity b. Protein synthesis, new gene expression c. CaMKII alpha activation, PKC d. NMDA receptors, kainate receptors
b. Protein synthesis, new gene expression
27. Which family of proteins are in charge of transporting vesicles to active zones and are the energy consuming molecular motors in this process? a. Synapsins b. Rab GTPases c. Clathrin d. SNAREs
b. Rab GTPases
In the knee jerk response reflex the flexor muscle (hamstring) is inhibited by: a. Release of glutamate by the muscle spindle afferent onto a GABAergic interneuron in a monosynaptic arrangement b. Release of GABA by the muscle spindle afferent in a polysynaptic arrangement c. A circuit originating in the brainstem that releases serotonin in the ventral horn d. A long-range GABA neuron in the contralateral primary motor cortex
b. Release of GABA by the muscle spindle afferent in a polysynaptic arrangement
16. Which type of glial cell increases the conduction velocity of action potentials in the peripheral nervous system? a. Oligodendrocytes b. Schwann cells c. Astrocytes d. Microglia
b. Schwann cells
31. What prevents the action potential from propagating backwards? a. Sodium channel closing b. Sodium channel inactivation c. Biophysical properties of the axon hillock d. Sodium channel voltage sensors
b. Sodium channel inactivation
18. C-fibers send projections into the dorsal horn of the spinal cord that a. Synapse in the ipsilateral periaqueductal gray b. Synapse ipsilaterally at the level at which they enter in the dorsal horn c. Cross the midline and then synapse on second order neurons in the contralateral dorsal horn
b. Synapse ipsilaterally at the level at which they enter in the dorsal horn
27. The term "conditional" in conditional knockout mice refers to a. The fact that genetic manipulations are sometimes unsuccessful b. The ability to remove a gene in a specific population of cells c. The ability to remove a gene using a drug d. The ability to express a gene in an organ with exposure to light
b. The ability to remove a gene in a specific population of cells
1. The transcriptome for a given tissue refers to the mRNAs that are expressed in that organ. Which of the following statements are correct? a. The brain and heart transcriptomes are remarkably similar b. The brain's transcriptome is very distinct compared to other tissues in the human body c. The brain doesn't have a transcriptome d. Only about 2000 mRNAs are expressed in the brain
b. The brain's transcriptome is very distinct compared to other tissues in the human body
If the myelin sheath surrounding the axon of a neuron were to degrade, which of the following would occur? a. The length constant would increase b. The length constant would decrease c. the axon would die d. nothing would happen
b. The length constant would decrease
48. Which of the following statements about action potentials are false? a. They are all or none b. They are usually induced by hyperpolarization c. They require voltage gated sodium channels d. They occur when the membrane potential reaches "threshold"
b. They are usually induced by hyperpolarization
5. Certain ion channels can have defining characteristics that make them morphologically different than other ion channels but there can also be striking similarities. What similarities do voltage gated Na+ and Ca2+ channels share? a. They both have inactivation gates b. They both are composed of 1 pore forming subunit and 24 transmembrane domains c. They have an internal stabilizing system for hydrated ions called the DECA filter d. They are made up of 4 different pore forming subunits
b. They both are composed of 1 pore forming subunit and 24 transmembrane domains
9. The rate limiting step in the synthesis of dopamine and norepinephrine is: a. Tryptophan hydroxylase b. Tyrosine hydroxylase c. Aromatic L amino acid decarboxylase d. PKA activation
b. Tyrosine hydroxylase
47. Ohm's law is written as V - Vequilibrium potential = I*R when considering currents in the nervous system because when V = Vequilibrium potential there is ___________ net current flow. a. Infinite b. Zero c. Very large d. None of the above
b. Zero
10. Which of the following is true about fatty acid amide hydrolase? a. URB597 enhances its activity b. Inhibition of the enzyme primarily increases anandamide concentrations in the brain c. Inhibition of the enzyme primarily increases 2-AG levels in the brain d. All of the above
b. Inhibition of the enzyme primarily increases anandamide concentrations in the brain
2. When there is a low frequency (1-10 Hz) stimulation of NMDA-Rs, this can lead to what kind of plasticity? a. LTP b. LTD c. Frequency stimulation doesn't affect plasticity d. GABA depletion plasticity
b. LTD
39. Which type of axon would have the fastest action potential conduction velocity? a. Small, myelinated axons b. Large, myelinated axons c. Axons with a small length constant d. Axons with a very long time constant
b. Large, myelinated axons
2. Norepinephrine is responsible for many functions and originates entirely from a specific area of the brain. What is the area where most of the norepinephrine in the brain is found? a. Substantia nigra b. Locus coeruleus c. Medulla d. VTA
b. Locus coeruleus
32. When blocking specific ion channels, significant changes in current can be observed during the action potential. What can be observed with TTX, the Na+ channel blocker? a. Mainly inward currents remained b. Mainly outward currents remained c. Outward currents for the first half, inward currents for the second half d. Inward currents for the first half, outward currents for the second half
b. Mainly outward currents remained
6. What enzyme degrades serotonin? a. Aromatic L amino acid decarboxylase b. Monoamine oxidase c. tryptophan hydroxylase d. 5-Ht N-acetylase
b. Monoamine oxidase
8. Golgi's Reticular Theory and Ramon y Cajal's Neuron Doctrine rivalled each other in the way neurons were portrayed in the brain. How were the two theories different? a. Cajal's theory stated that all neurons were connected to each other throughout the brain. b. Golgi's theory stated that all neurons were individual cells, separate from each other. c. Golgi's Reticular Theory is now more widely accepted because of the way it describes neurons as continuously connected together in the brain through a net d. Cajal's theory is now more widely accepted in because of its hypothesis that neurons are individual, non-continuous cells that allow for cell to cell communication in the brain.
d. Cajal's theory is now more widely accepted in because of its hypothesis that neurons are individual, non-continuous cells that allow for cell to cell communication in the brain.
5. While Ca2+ influx that leads to LTP favors the activation of kinases, Ca2+ influx associated with LTD favors the activation of ______. a. Tyrosine receptor kinases b. GPCRs c. CREB d. Calcium sensitive phosphatases
d. Calcium sensitive phosphatases
17. When many ion channels are opened, what happens to conductance and resistance? a. Conductance decreases; Resistance increases b. Conductance increases; Resistance increases c. Conductance decreases; Resistance decreases d. Conductance increases; Resistance decreases
d. Conductance increases; Resistance decreases
8. All of the following are true about tyrosine hydroxylase expect: a, phosphorylated by PKC b. Downregulated by antidepressants c. Upregulated by caffeine d. Converts L-DOPA into Dopamine
d. Converts L-DOPA into Dopamine
10. The selectivity filter of voltage gated ion channels is composed of a series of amino acids that are near the entrance to the channel pore. What is the selectivity sequence for voltage-gated sodium channels? a. EAAT b. EEEE c. DAAT d. DEKA
d. DEKA
4. The PLC pathway is important for release of Ca2+ from intracellular stores and the activation of PKC. Which membrane bound product is produced by the cleavage of PIP2? a. IP3 b. PKC c. Phosphatase d. Diacylglycerol (DAG)
d. Diacylglycerol (DAG)
6. G protein signaling is terminated by what process? a. Degradation of the protein by proteases b. G-alpha subunit exchanges GDP for GTP c. GAPs bind to the G-beta-gamma dimer allowing it to recouple to the G-protein d. G-alpha subunit hydrolyzes bound GTP to GDP
d. G-alpha subunit hydrolyzes bound GTP to GDP
34. There are two types of refractory periods: absolute and relative. What does the absolute refractory period depend on? a. Na+ channels being open b. K+ channels being open c. K+ channels being closed d. Inactivation of Na+ channels
d. Inactivation of Na+ channels
2. The acetylcholine receptor has multiple parts to make it a functioning ion channel pore. Where are its M2 domains located? a. In the bilipid membrane b. Extracellularly c. In the cytoplasm d. Inside the pore
d. Inside the pore
4. PKC has multiple domains that specify its function, specifically the C1, C2, C3, C4 domains. What would happen if a PKC lacked the region that made it sensitive to Ca2+? a. It would be very sensitive to Mg2+ b. It would be insensitive to ATP c. It would be insensitive to phosphorylation d. It would only require DAG to turn it on
d. It would only require DAG to turn it on
44. The resting membrane potential in neurons is primarily determined by which two ions: a. Na+ and Mg2+ b. Na+ and Cl- c. K+ and Ca2+ d. K+ and Na+
d. K+ and Na+
15. All of the following have the capacity to activate microglia EXCEPT a. Ischemia b. Bacteria c. Cytokines d. Neurogenesis
d. Neurogenesis
13. Which of the following is FALSE about peripheral sensitization? a. It is important for tissue healing and repair b. Is a result of protein synthesis and the phosphorylation of channels c. Increases nociceptor activation by lowering heat and mechanical thresholds d. None of the above
d. None of the above
30. At the end of vesicular fusion, there are proteins that aid in recycling. One of these proteins are called dynamin. What is its function? a. Form coated pits around newly forming vesicles b. Indirect binding of ligands c. Fuse the vesicle with the membrane d. Pinches off the coated vesicle
d. Pinches off the coated vesicle
50. The Goldman equation is most commonly used to find the a. Equilibrium potential for a specific ion b. Driving force of a single ion c. length constant for a myelinated axon d. The resting membrane potential
d. The resting membrane potential
2. Each ion channel has a specific number of transmembrane domains and protein subunits that are needed to form a functional channel. How many subunits and transmembrane domains does a voltage gated Na+ channel have? a. 1, 4 b. 4, 6 c. 1, 24 d. 4, 6
c. 1, 24
23. Synaptotagmin binds to calcium ions to cause neurotransmitter release. How many calcium ions does it bind to per synaptotagmin molecule? a. 2 b. 6 c. 4 d. 1
c. 4
2. The vast majority of GPCRs have how many transmembrane domains? a. 5 b. 3 c. 7 d. none
c. 7
3. Local mRNA translation can control neuronal plasticity. Which of the following are types of neuronal plasticity that are regulated by local translation? a. Long Term Potentiation b. Long Term Depression c. A and B d. None of the above
c. A and B
22. If you crossed a D5-receptor FLOXED mouse with a mouse that expressed CRE in CAMKII-positive cells, the result would be: a. A transgenic mouse that expresses D5-receptors within all cells b. A whole-body knockout mouse that does not express the D5-receptor c. A conditional knockout mouse that does not express the D5-receptor in any CAMKII-positive cell d. A transgenic mouse that expresses green fluorescent protein on the D5-receptor e. None of the above
c. A conditional knockout mouse that does not express the D5-receptor in any CAMKII-positive cell
5. A kinase has catalytic subunits and regulatory subunits. The regulatory subunit almost always contains a domain that interferes with the activity of the catalytic domain. What is this domain called? a. Na+ b. A second messenger c. A pseudosubstrate domain d. Phosphatase
c. A pseudosubstrate domain
17. First pain is thought to be mediated by a. C-fibers that have a rapid conduction velocity b. A-beta fibers c. A-delta fibers with a conduction velocity of 5 -30 m/sec d. C-fibers that have a slow conduction velocity
c. A-delta fibers with a conduction velocity of 5 -30 m/sec
5. LTP can convert silent synapses to active synapses through insertion of a certain kind of receptor. What is this receptor? a. NMDA b. GABA c. AMPA d. nAChR
c. AMPA
8. Which of the following is an endocannabinoid? a. Morphine b. Fentanyl c. Anandamide d. Dynorphin
c. Anandamide
1. Catecholamine synthesis involves multiple enzymes. What is the enzyme that is responsible for creating Dopamine from L-Dopa? a. Tyrosine hydroxylase b. Phenylethanolamine n methyl transferase c. Aromatic L amino acid decarboxylase d. Dopamine Beta Hydroxylase
c. Aromatic L amino acid decarboxylase
41. The BOLD signal in functional MRI is most dependent upon changes in blood flow in the brain that are regulated by which type of cell? a. Pyramidal neurons b. Inhibitory interneurons c. Astrocytes d. Microglia
c. Astrocytes
3. ERK and PKA can phosphorylate transcription factors to cause them to bind DNA and affect transcription. What is an example of a transcription factor that is affected by these kinases? a. mTOR b. Raf c. CREB d. AMPA
c. CREB
1. Synaptic facilitation can be promoted by prolonged elevation of what ion (the primary ion that has a metabotropic action in neurons)? a. Na+ b. K+ c. Ca2+ d. Cl-
c. Ca2+
8. There are three calcium channel families: Cav1, Cav2, and Cav3. Which one is considered low voltage activated (meaning it is activated by relatively small changes in membrane voltage)? a. Cav1 b. Cav2 c. Cav3 d. There is no such thing as a low voltage activated Ca2+ channel
c. Cav3
22. There are two major types of neurotransmitters made in the brain: classical transmitters and neuropeptides. Which of the following statements about these types of neurotransmitters are true? a. A common example of neuropeptides are GABA and glutamate b. Classical transmitters are packaged into large and dense core vesicles and are encoded in the genome c. Classical transmitters are made locally at the synapse and are rapidly synthesized by enzymes. d. Classical transmitters need a high frequency stimulation to be released
c. Classical transmitters are made locally at the synapse and are rapidly synthesized by enzymes.
4. Retrograde cannabinoid signaling is mediated by CB1 receptors that are located on presynaptic terminals to affect the release of neurotransmitters. How do these receptors affect neurotransmitter release? a. Increase neurotransmitter release b. Enhance endocannabinoid signaling c. Decrease neurotransmitter release d. Activate voltage gated Ca2+ channels
c. Decrease neurotransmitter release
4. Regulating intracellular calcium is critical for neurons because too much intracellular calcium can cause excitotoxicity. Which of the following organelles play a key role in buffering calcium in neurons? a. Nucleus and mitochondria b. Golgi and rough ER c. Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria d. Mitochondria and golgi
c. Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria
6. Protein phosphatases are: a. Enzymes that add phosphate groups to proteins b. Enzymes that catalyze the transfer of phosphate groups to proteins c. Enzymes that dephosphorylate proteins d. None of the above
c. Enzymes that dephosphorylate proteins
21. During the cycle of neurotransmitter release, the transmitter is released into the synaptic cleft through what process? a. Endocytosis b. Receptor induction c. Exocytosis d. Plasmacytosis
c. Exocytosis
33. Na+ channels and K+ channels are different in their time course for opening and closing. What is the typical time course for a Na+ ion channel? a. Slow and non-inactivating b. Slow and inactivating c. Fast and inactivating d. Fast and non-inactivating
c. Fast and inactivating
10. Increasing intensity and duration of a stimulus will increase action potential ___________, but its _____________ remains the same. a. Upshoot, Undershoot b. Amplitude, Frequency c. Frequency, Amplitude d. Undershoot, Upshoot
c. Frequency, Amplitude
4. The catecholamine dopamine is degraded by MAO and COMT into a metabolite that can be measured outside the brain. What is this molecule? a. Acetyl b. Choline c. Homovanillic acid (HVA) d. cAMP
c. Homovanillic acid (HVA)
3. In Fragile X Syndrome, the loss of of FMRP leads to dendritic spines that have what type of appearance? a. Elderly b. Adolescent c. Immature d. Stubby
c. Immature
49. How do cells make themselves less leaky (i.e. increase their length constant)? a. Decrease axon diameter and increase myelination b. Decease axon diameter and decrease myelination c. Increase axon diameter and increase myelination d. Increase axon diameter and decrease myelination
c. Increase axon diameter and increase myelination
14. Neurons, sitting at resting membrane potential, normally have a high ____ potassium ion concentration and a high ____ sodium ion concentration. a. Extracellular , Extracellular b. Extracellular , Intracellular c. Intracellular , Extracellular d. Intracellular , Intracellular
c. Intracellular , Extracellular
15. When astrocytes get activated, they increase in size, release inflammatory factors, and show increased calcium levels. What kinds of events can activate astrocytes? a. Release of Cl- b. Frequent depolarizations c. Ischemia or direct mechanical damage d. Increased extracellular sodium concentrations
c. Ischemia or direct mechanical damage
3. When acetylcholine is broken down, it is recycled back into the synapse. Which transporter is responsible for this? a. NKCC1 b. KCC2 c. Na+/Choline Transporter d. Na+/K+ ATPase
c. Na+/Choline Transporter
21. Approximately how excitable are neurons during the peak of an action potential? a. Very excitable b. Somewhat excitable c. Not excitable d. Depends heavily on neuronal subtype
c. Not excitable
7. Myelin in the CNS is made by: a. Schwann cells b. Astrocytes c. Oligodendrocytes d. Both A and C
c. Oligodendrocytes
2. There is a certain brain area that is largely responsible for the analgesic effects of opioid drugs and the analgesic effects of the endogenous opioid system. What brain area is this? a. Prefrontal cortex b. Basal ganglia c. Periaqueductal gray d. Cerebellum
c. Periaqueductal gray
30. What would happen to the potassium ion conductance if you added tetrodotoxin (TTX) to your electrophysiological preparation? a. Potassium ion conductance would increase b. Potassium ion conductance would decrease c. Potassium ion conductance would not change d. Potassium ion conductance would be reduced to zero
c. Potassium ion conductance would not change
34. What are SNARE proteins? a. Proteins that are involved with filling the vesicle with neurotransmitter b. Proteins that are involved in vesicle recycling c. Proteins that promote vesicle fusion to the presynaptic membrane d. Proteins that bind Ca2+ during vesicular fusion events
c. Proteins that promote vesicle fusion to the presynaptic membrane
14. The descending inhibitory pathway can inhibit pain signals by: a. Releasing glutamate to cause excitotoxicity in the presynaptic C-fiber b. Causing the presynaptic C-fiber to release GABA onto the second-order neuron c. Releasing neurotransmitter and neuropeptides such as noradrenaline, GABA, and enkephalin onto both C-fibers and second order neurons
c. Releasing neurotransmitter and neuropeptides such as noradrenaline, GABA, and enkephalin onto both C-fibers and second order neuron
29. Using cytoskeleton fibers and kinases, synapsin is an important protein that aids in vesicular localization in synapses. What is its primary function? a. Actively transports vesicles b. Fuses vesicles to the membrane c. Restrict vesicles in place at particular locations d. Interacts with Ca2+
c. Restrict vesicles in place at particular locations
5. Different alpha subunits of G proteins have different signaling properties. What does Galphaq do? a. Stimulate the adenylyl cyclase pathway b. Inhibit the adenylyl cyclase pathway c. Stimulate the PLC pathway d. Inhibit the PLC pathway
c. Stimulate the PLC pathway
7. What does IP3 do? a. Cleaves PIP2 b. Stimulates the release of Zn2+ ions from the endoplasmic reticulum c. Stimulates the release of Ca2+ ions from intracellular stores d. Activates PLC
c. Stimulates the release of Ca2+ ions from intracellular stores
12. These channels are involved in the detection of temperature: a. TRK b. CB1 receptors c. TRP channels d. ASICs
c. TRP channels
46. At the equilibrium potential (also known as the reversal potential) for any given ion: a. There will be no net conductance if ion channels for that ion are open b. There is a massive opening of Cl channels c. There will be no net current if ion channels for that ion are open d. The Gas constant is no longer constant
c. There will be no net current if ion channels for that ion are open
3. Cocaine and amphetamines act on the dopamine pathway to potentially cause addictive states. How do these drugs affect dopamine? a. They decrease DA release b. They upregulate D2 receptors c. They inhibit the re-uptake of DA through an action on dopamine transporters d. They block NAT
c. They inhibit the re-uptake of DA through an action on dopamine transporters
13. There is an ongoing debate about how that glial cells can modulate the synapse and synaptic transmission. Based on the tripartite synapse theory, how do astrocytes play a primary role in regulation of neurotransmission? a. They have increased KCC2 and give this KCC2 to neurons when they need it b. They release sodium to modulate the synapse c. They play an active role in removing and recycling neurotransmitters d. They release diffusible kinases that phosphorylate AMPA receptors
c. They play an active role in removing and recycling neurotransmitters
26. The Nerst equation incorporates multiple variables such as ion concentration, temperature, and the charge of ions. What is the main purpose of using the Nerst equation? a. To solve for individual ions' permeability factors b. To solve for the ratio of extracellular and intracellular concentrations of an ion c. To solve for the equilibrium potential / reversal potential of an individual ion d. To solve for a cell's condition at different temperatures
c. To solve for the equilibrium potential / reversal potential of an individual ion
11. Sensory information about pain and temperature is detected in free nerve endings in a process called: a. Sensitization b. Transfection c. Transduction d. Propagation
c. Transduction
1. What is the molecule that is the precursor for the serotonin synthesis pathway? a. Tyrosine b. Serine c. Tryptophan d. Glutamate
c. Tryptophan
23. Which of the following is FALSE about optogenetics: a. Blue light can open channelrhodopsin allowing Na+ to enter and depolarize the cell b. Rhodopsin can be inserted into specific cells using the LoxP/CRE system c. Yellow light activates halorhodopsin allowing K+ to enter the cell d. Allows neuroscientists to study how the activity of specific cell populations affects behavior (in vivo)
c. Yellow light activates halorhodopsin allowing K+ to enter the cell
18. When released at the synapse, glutamate: a. Activates postsynaptic inhibitory receptors b. is degraded by proteases in the synaptic cleft c. is removed from the synaptic cleft via EAATs (excitatory amino acid transporters) d. All of the above
c. is removed from the synaptic cleft via EAATs (excitatory amino acid transporters)
1. Ion selectivity in voltage gated channels depends on the hydration status of the ion. What is the basis of K+ selectivity in voltage gated K+ channels? a. K+ is repelled by positive charges in the channel pore b. A K+ ion that is not hydrated is stabilized at the outside of the pore and then loses a neutron to allow it to pass through the pore c. Voltage gated K+ channels are not actually selective to K+ as they also readily pass Na+ d. A K+ ion hydrated by a single water molecule is the perfect size to be stabilized at the pore and pass through after shedding its water molecule
d. A K+ ion hydrated by a single water molecule is the perfect size to be stabilized at the pore and pass through after shedding its water molecule
30. Which of the following is a primary difference between DREADDs and optogenetics? a. The amount of time it takes to change neuronal activity b. Duration of the change in neuronal activity c. The ability to induce either excitation or inhibition d. A and B
d. A and B
25. If you crossed a Flox-stop-flox halorhodopsin mouse with a mouse that expressed CRE in Nav1.8 cells, you could: a. Use yellow light to activate halorhodopsin exclusively in Nav1.8-positive cells b. Use yellow light to activate halorhodopsin in all cells except Nav1.8-positive cells c. Implant a wireless optoelectronic system around nociceptive fibers to determine how inhibition of nociceptors affects behavior in awake animals d. A and C e. None of the above.
d. A and C
15. Neuropeptides like substance P act on: a. second order neurons in the spinal dorsal horn b. Blood vessels causing vasodilation c. Immune cells d. All of the above
d. All of the above
16. After an injury to the peripheral nervous system, it is possible for chronic pain to develop. This type of pain is referred to as neuropathic pain and many current theories of neuropathic attribute causation to glial cells in the spinal cord. How are these glial cells thought to contribute to chronic pain? a. By becoming activated and proliferating in the spinal dorsal horn b. By releasing inflammatory factors c. Through the activation of MAPK signaling pathways such as p38 and ERK d. All of the above
d. All of the above
19. Astrocytes can greatly influence neuronal activity. How? a. By releasing d-serine which binds to NMDA receptors b. By removing and recycling glutamate from the synaptic cleft c. Responding to CNS injury by releasing inflammatory factors d. All of the above
d. All of the above
20. Nociceptive pain ______ whereas neuropathic pain _______ . a. Serves a protective function, does not serve an obvious protective function b. Is caused by acute exposure to damaging stimuli, is caused by damage to the peripheral or central nervous system such as chemotherapeutics c. Occurs only at high threshold (e.g. a hammer hitting your finger), can occur at low threshold (e.g. allodynia, wearing a shirt) d. All of the above
d. All of the above
24. Gap junctions serve which of the following purposes in the nervous system: a. generate certain types of synchronous neuronal oscillations b. allow for very fast, bidirectional communication between cells c. Help balance precisely timed synchronous excitation and inhibitory communications in interneuron networks d. All of the above
d. All of the above
26. The number of vesicles released from the presynaptic terminal is dependent on: a. the number of release sites b. the number of docked vesicles c. the number of active zones d. All of the above
d. All of the above
6. Slow and steady increases in Ca2+ into the cell does what? a. Causes internalization of AMPA receptors b. Results in LTD c. Leads to dephosphorylation of proteins d. All of the above
d. All of the above
29. The rate at which neurons can fire action potentials is most dependent on a. Action potential amplitude b. Action potential duration c. Relative refractory period d. B and C
d. B and C
17. Through which two mechanisms do glial cells modulate synapses? a. Release, removal and recycling of neurotransmitters and other molecules b. Release of intracellular calcium via GPCRs c. Firing of miniature action potentials that harmonize with neurons d. Both A and B e. Both B and C
d. Both A and B
21. Neuroscientists can study the function of a protein using genetics by: a. Knocking out the gene for the protein by destroying DNA with various drugs b. Inserting specific markers such as fluorescent tags (GFP) into specific places within the genome to create fusion proteins that can be tracked c. Inserting LoxP sites around the gene for the protein of interest and excising it using a recombinase enzyme d. Both B and C
d. Both B and C
3. Endocannabinoids have different types of receptors located throughout the body. Which type of receptor is mainly found in immune cells? a. CB1 b. TRPA1 c. Kappa d. CB2
d. CB2
3. One of the effects of PKA is the promotion of long term synaptic plasticity. This effect of PKA is due to phosphorylation of which transcription factor? a. Kainate b. Ca2+ c. mTOR d. CREB
d. CREB
10. What do insecticides (organophosphates) and nerve gases (Sarin, Soman) do? a. Cause neuromuscular paralysis b. Binds to nAChR which permanently prevents Ach binding c. Inhibits Acetylcholinesterases from breaking down ACh d. Both A and B e. Both A and C f. All of the above
e. Both A and C
38. For a substance to fit the definition of a neurotransmitter it must meet which of the following criteria? A) The substance must be present in the presynaptic terminal B) The substance must have receptors on the postsynaptic membrane C) The substance must be released in response to presynaptic depolarization in a calcium-dependent fashion D) All of the above
D) All of the above
43. In which stage of the synaptic vesicular cycle are vesicles coated in clathrin? A) Docking B) Priming C) Fusion D) Endocytosis
D) Endocytosis
47. If you were to administer 10 nM concentration of tetrodotoxin to the voltage-gated sodium channel isoform, Nav1.8, what effect would this have on the channel? A) Increase in sodium permeability for Nav1.8 B) Decrease in sodium permeability for Nav1.8 C) Slower opening of channel D) Nothing, Nav1.8 is tetrodotoxin resistant
D) Nothing, Nav1.8 is tetrodotoxin resistant
TRPV1 is a receptor that is largely expressed in nociceptive dorsal root ganglion (DRG) and trigeminal ganglion (TG) neurons and is involved in what type of sensation? A) Noxious cold B) Cooling C) Mild warmth D) Noxious heat
D) Noxious heat
36. The primary structure of a protein refers to the _____. A) The coming together of multiple subunits to form a functional protein B) The folding of the amino acid sequence to form alpha helices or beta pleated sheets C) The folding of alpha helices, beta pleated sheets, and other folded structures to form a subunit of a protein D) The sequence of amino acids that make up the protein
D) The sequence of amino acids that make up the protein
41. Which of the following is correctly ordered? A) Vesicular endocytosis; Voltage-dependent Ca2+ channels open; Transmitter release; EPSP B) Voltage-dependent Ca2+ channels open; Transmitter release; Vesicular movement into the endosome; EPSP C) Voltage-dependent Ca2+ channels open; EPSP; Vesicular endocytosis; Transmitter release D) Voltage-dependent Ca2+ channels open; Transmitter release; EPSP; Vesicular endocytosis
D) Voltage-dependent Ca2+ channels open; Transmitter release; EPSP; Vesicular endocytosis
49. The Kiss and Run hypothesis differs from the classical synaptic vesicle fusion hypothesis in the following way(s) A. dependence on vesicle docking for subsequent neurotransmitter release B. the SNARE proteins that regulate vesicle fusion C. dependence on Ca2+ influx D. endocytosis mechanisms that follow vesicle fusion and/or "kissing"
D. endocytosis mechanisms that follow vesicle fusion and/or "kissing"