CES - study guide
What is a common neurophysiological effect that myofascial rolling creates for tissue relaxation?
Greater myofascial relaxation or "stretch tolerance"
What type of myofascial intervention is Instrument-Assisted Soft Tissue Mobilization?
It is a specialized technique that uses instruments to provide a mobilizing effect on the myofascia.
Knee valgus and varus, an increased Q angle, poor quadriceps and hamstrings flexibility, poor eccentric deceleration capabilities, and playing on hard surfaces are all risk factors for developing what common knee injury?
Patellar tendinopathy
The activation phase primarily focuses on correcting which of the following?
Lengthened Muscles
Greatest strength gains take place while the muscle is under resistance while doing which of the following?
Lengthening
What is the most appropriate duration for a static stretching warm-up?
Less than or equal to 60 seconds
The theoretical basis that attempting to strengthen muscles when joint motion restriction is present will provide less-than-optimal results and limited joint ROM comes in part from which of the following?
Mennell's truisms
What percent of ACL ruptures occur during single-foot contact in physical activity secondary to uncontrolled lower extremity biomechanics?
0.7
What is considered normal mobility during the seated hip internal and external rotation test?
45 degrees
At 45 degrees, how many pounds of stress are added to the head?
49 lbs
What is a potential problem with using a sports ball, such as a lacrosse ball, as a myofascial ball?
A new user will have difficulty regulating the pressure applied when rolling some areas.
Which tendon is the largest and strongest tendon in the human body?
Achilles
A client that presents with over-pronation and limited ankle mobility is at risk for which injury or condition?
Achilles tendinopathy
Kaden is a 45-year-old office worker just beginning a corrective exercise program. What is an example of a total body primer exercise for more advanced programming in the future?
Ball squat with overhead press
Which of the following represents the best explanation of the difference between ballistic and dynamic stretching?
Ballistic uses higher-velocity bouncing movements at end of ROM.
What are two examples of pre-exercise high-quality carbohydrates and lean proteins for strength and endurance athletes?
Carbohydrates: organic pancakes, low fiber cereal; Proteins: turkey, eggs
Which term best describes the amount of mobility or motion obtained by the examiner without any assistance by the client?
Passive motion
The Kendall kyphosis-lordosis posture presents with which of the following static positions in the lower body?
Excessive lumbar lordosis, anterior tilted pelvis, flexed hips, and flexed/hyperextended knees
Hanging effectively from a tree branch with an outstretched hand requires which full range of motion?
Flexion
What strategy can a fitness professional use to improve client self-care adherence?
Give the client homework related to their fitness program.
What should the fitness professional do when they first observe movement compensations during integrated movement in order to allow the athlete to cognitively process proper form?
Give verbal cues
A client with an Achilles tendon injury would be expected to have weakness in which of the following muscles?
Gastrocnemius
What is the recommended composition and timing for a post-exercise meal for the endurance athlete?
Quality carbohydrates and lean protein, 2 hours after exercise.
The heels elevated modification of the overhead squat assessment places the ankle in a plantarflexed position. How may this effect the squat?
Reduces the influence of the foot and ankle complex on the squat movement
In which order of the Corrective Exercise Continuum does activation occur?
Third
Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to scapular winging during the Davies test?
Serratus anterior
Which of the following would be the most likely movement compensations to observe in the head, neck, and shoulder regions during an overhead squat movement assessment?
Shoulder elevation, asymmetric CS shift, and forward head
Which of the following represents a common static posture finding indicating potential dysfunction at the cervical spine?
Shoulders rounded forward
Which movement assessment utilizes dumbbells to assess a vertical pushing movement?
Standing overhead press
What term is used to describe deviations from ideal posture that can be observed when standing still?
Static malalignments
The combination of enhanced motor unit activation, synchronization, and firing rate is known to increase what at that specific muscle?
Strength
A client presents with excessive wrist flexion during the assessment process. What activity would be a good next choice activity after inhibiting the wrist flexors?
Stretch the wrist flexors
Which is a reason for a high-arched or over-supinated foot to have restricted ankle dorsiflexion?
Structurally short Achilles tendon
What is the most common reason for compensations during gait observed during late midstance?
This is the point when maximum ankle mobility is required.
Integration techniques are used to reeducate the Human Movement System back into what type functional movement pattern?
Synergistic
What is the long-term impact that repeated heavy lifting can have on the kinetic chain?
Synergistic dominance
What is considered normal mobility during the 1st MTP extension test?
The great toe is above other toes.
What is considered normal mobility in the cervical side bending test?
The head can tilt to a 45-degree angle.
What is the name of the condition in which pain in the cervical spine is caused by looking down at a cell phone for prolonged periods of time?
Text Neck
What are the key components of the Cumulative Injury Cycle?
Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasms, and adhesions
Which of the following statements most accurately provides an example of a SMART goal?
To increase 5k run time by 5 minutes, in 10 weeks, by training distance running and sprints 4 days per week.q
What ligament creates the carpal tunnel?
Transverse carpal ligament
A fitness professional observes his client rolling out his lumbar spine with a hard density foam roller. What should he recommend to the client?
That rolling the lumbar spine is a contraindication and should be avoided.
Which of the following would be an example of an agonist muscle role?
The biceps brachii contracting during elbow flexion.
Research has shown a correlation between which two specific sleep variables that result in optimizing next-day performance?
The duration of deep sleep and nighttime anabolic hormone release.
What best describes a closed-packed position of the shoulder?
The glenohumeral joint is at 90 degrees of abduction and full external rotation.
What verbal cue would one provide a client when doing a single-leg activity?
"Keep your knees in line with your second and third toe."
What is the most appropriate verbal cue to use if a client demonstrates knee valgus upon landing?
"Keep your knees in line with your second and third toes."
What is the recommended verbal instruction when performing the cervical rotation test?
"Look over your right then left shoulder as far as you comfortably can."
A Corrective Exercise Specialist would like to provide, Leopold, their client, instruction how to inhibit the sternocleidomastoid. What response is most appropriate to instruct Leopold?
"Place one or two fingers on the belly of the muscle and apply light pressure on identified trigger points."
How would one best instruct a client to correctly perform static stretching of their right upper trapezius muscle?
"Place your right arm to your side and then use your left hand to help sidebend your neck to the left."
Which instruction provided to a client would correctly assist them to perform static stretching of their right sternocleidomastoid (SCM)?
"Place your right arm to your side, rotate your head to the right, and then use your left hand to help sidebend your neck to the left."
A Corrective Exercise Specialist is recommending the supine chin tuck activation exercise to help address a client's postural abnormality. Which instruction correctly describes how to perform this exercise?
"Slowly move your head straight back, hold this position for 2 seconds, and then return back to the start position in 4 seconds."
The concentric tempo should last approximately how long?
1 second
What is the most appropriate repetition range for static stretching?
1 to 4
What is the optimal duration of stretching to decrease musculotendinous stiffness?
30-60 seconds
A Corrective Exercise Specialist is looking to integrate short foot into the programming of a client with an over-pronated foot type. How many repetitions are best to include?
10 to 15 reps under control
The thoracic spine has how many vertebrae?
12
What is the typical duration for static stretching for professional athletes?
12-17 seconds
The isometric tempo should last approximately how long?
2 seconds
Intervertebral discs make up what percentage of the height of a healthy spine?
25%
What degree of performance impairments are associated with prolonged static stretching in isolation (no dynamic warm-up activities)?
3 to 7%
What is the recommended time to have a pre-exercise snack and pre-exercise meal, respectively, before strength training exercise begins?
30 minutes to 2 hours; 2 to 4 hours
What is the recommended number of active movements to include in Step 2 of the myofascial rolling program?
4 to 6
What is the minimum duration of stretching per week for each muscle group to improve or maintain a healthy ROM?
5 minutes
What is the most appropriate duration for a task-specific activities during warm-up?
5 to 15 minutes
In order to satisfy hydration needs, most average exercisers should consume which amount of water before bed and within 1 hour prior to exercise?
500 mL (16.9 oz)
What is the minimum typical duration of acute static stretching per muscle group in isolation (no dynamic warm-up activities) that would lead to performance impairments?
60 seconds
What is the recommended duration for static stretching for older adults?
60 seconds
How many cervical vertebrae make up the cervical spine?
7
For optimal sleep, what should the temperature of the room be?
72 degrees F/22 degree C
A client, who is an endurance athlete, asks what a good pre-exercise meal should be and how long before exercise he should consume it. What is the best general advice to give him?
A meal composed of high-quality carbohydrates, lean protein, and low fiber and fat, 3 to 4 hours before exercise.
What best describes the psycho-physiological concept of stretch tolerance?
A client can tolerate the level of discomfort during a prolonged stretch.
Which of the following is a sign or symptom that would immediately require a fitness professional to stop activity and refer a client to the appropriate medical professional?
A painful, swollen joint.
Why might it make sense to exercise the dominate limb first before the non-dominate limb for recruitment?
A primer to better prepare the non-dominate side
What can a fitness professional use to help understand a client's recovery habits?
A recovery questionnaire
Which is a benefit to having a shorter myofascial roller?
A short myofascial roller is easier to pack into a gym bag.
A ligament injury to the acromioclavicular joint is best classified as what?
AC Separation
Programming by the fitness professional that focuses on improving movement dysfunction such as excessive knee valgus, knee rotation, hip adduction and hip rotation; improving single-leg neuromuscular balance; and improving muscle strength can help reduce the risk of what severe knee injury?
ACL tear/rupture
Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall flat-back posture?
Abdominals, intercostals, internal obliques, and hip extensors
What position should the shoulder be in when performing the shoulder internal and external rotation test?
Abducted and bent to 90 degrees
What is the name of the structure in the ilium where the femoral head connects that helps deepen the socket?
Acetabulum
During a bench press exercise, which muscle synergy is occurring?
Activation of the pectoralis major as an agonist with the triceps brachii and anterior deltoid assisting synergistically.
What type of stretching involves a 2-second static stretch with a contraction of the antagonist muscle to induce reciprocal inhibition?
Active
What are two common contraindications to stretching?
Acute injury and recent musculoskeletal surgery
The supraspinatus is responsible for which eccentric action?
Adduction of the arm
Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome?
Adductors, iliopsoas, peroneals, gastrocnemius, and soleus
How does proprioception influence movement?
Afferent information from internal feedback is delivered to the central nervous system for use in monitoring and manipulating movement.
What is the prime mover of a specific joint action regardless of concentric or eccentric muscle action?
Agonist
At which joint might an increase in ROM serve as a preventative strategy by allowing the trunk to be more upright and minimizing shearing forces in the trunk?
Ankle
Which global muscle subsystem functions in the transverse plane and helps stabilize the front side of the LPHC?
Anterior Oblique
Lower Crossed Syndrome A and B both contain which of the following observable body positions?
Anterior tilted pelvis
What joint is located between the first cervical vertebrae and the skull?
Atlanto-occipital joint
Which is a recommended modification to training if a client has diagnosed plantar fasciitis?
Avoid impact based exercises and focus on increasing ankle mobility.
Compression boots should not be used during which part of the client's workout session?
Before the workout
Which of the following muscles serves to decelerate tibial internal rotation and knee extension?
Bicep Femoris
Between which segment levels does 50% of rotation in the cervical spine occur?
C1-C2
Overactivity in which muscles contributes to forward head posture?
Cervical extensors, levator scapulae, sternocleidomastoid, upper trapezius
What are common overactive/shortened muscles in the upper body?
Cervical extensors, pectorals, upper trapezius, and levator scapula
Which factor is most closely related to developing postural imbalances?
Chronic suboptimal positioning
What assessment collects valuable subjective information and identifies "red flags" that may be the first glimpse at potential movement impairments?
Client Intake Screen
Myofascial rolling is classified as what type of intervention?
Compression
Which daily living activity is most commonly related to chronic suboptimal cervical spine posture?
Computer work
What type of muscle contractions are common during the jumping phase of the depth jump?
Concentric
What induces reciprocal inhibition in active stretching?
Contraction of antagonist muscles
Strengthening of one side unilaterally can also increase the strength of which of the following?
Contralateral limb
Overhead movements, often used in integrated dynamic movements, standing, unilateral and bilateral exercises, help to place increased stress on what other area?
Core musculature
What position is recommended for the fingers and hands during the thoracic extension test?
Crossed Over the chest
Which modality uses suction to promote the movement of blood and other fluids through the tissues?
Cupping
Which of the following movement assessments would assess plyometric capabilities of the upper extremities?
Davies test
Knee injuries often occur during landing and, therefore, it is important to assess if the client lacks musculoskeletal control of the lower extremity during landing if there are no compensations observed during earlier assessment. The depth jump is one such assessment. During a depth jump assessment most impairments will be observed during what phase?
Decelaration
Performing a walking pattern with or without resistance is an example of activation for which subsystem?
Deep Longitudial
Which global subsystem stabilizes the sacroiliac joint and is activated in part by the biceps femoris, increasing tension on the sacrotuberous ligament?
Deep Longitudinal
To help correct a client's forward head posture, the Corrective Exercise Specialist recommends that the client perform the chin tuck exercise. What primary muscle(s) are targeted when performing this exercise?
Deep cervical flexors
Polly demonstrates forward head posture during her assessment. Which of her muscles are most likely underactive?
Deep cervical flexors, lower trapezius, middle trapezius, and rhomboids
In order to obtain neuromuscular efficiency and optimization of human movement, total-body integrated exercises are called on to provide and control which of the following?
Degrees of freedom
As long as less than 3% of body weight is expected to be lost during exercise or competition due to sweating, what hydration strategy should clients be instructed to follow?
Drink fluids as desired.
Which category of movement assessments includes gait assessments?
Dynamic
Which category of movement assessments includes the Davies test?
Dynamic
What is defined as the alignment of the body while and individual is in motion?
Dynamic posture
Which phase of the muscle action spectrum is the slowest during corrective exercise?
Eccentric
Which phase of the muscle action spectrum leads to the most muscle damage, inflammation, impaired muscle function, and muscular soreness occurs, providing a good reason to limit the number of sets for the initial exerciser?
Eccentric Deceleration
During which phase of the muscle action spectrum are most strength gains developed?
Eccentric deceleration
Which type of exercises are the "gold standard" for Achilles tendinopathy?
Eccentrics
What additional region of the body should undergo mobility testing if a client's arms fall forward during the overhead squat assessment?
Elbow and wrist
Which test is indicated if a client is unable to straighten their arms overhead?
Elbow and wrist extension
Scott demonstrates an excessive posterior pelvic tilt during the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following would be the most appropriate muscle to activate?
Erector spinae
Through which movement does the subtalar joint load or absorb energy?
Eversion
For which movement impairment would one see the arch of the foot collapse or malalignment of the Achilles tendon?
Excessive pronation
According to the Screw-Home Mechanism, in an open-chain position and as the knee extends, what action best describes the motion of the tibia on the femur during the last 30 degrees?
External rotation
A new client says they work as a computer programmer. What is the primary consideration in designing their corrective exercise program?
Extended periods of sitting
Lengthening of the biceps is most effective with which shoulder position?
Extension
Which term best describes the normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow for the full range of motion of a joint?
Flexibility
Jenny, a client, was diagnosed with fibromyalgia 6 months ago. She wants to begin a stretching program. What are the considerations before starting a program with her?
Fibromyalgia is considered a precaution and stretching should be done with caution.
If an observed knee compensation improves with the heels elevated during the modified overhead squat assessment, what is the primary area to address with corrective mobility exercise?
Foot and ankle complex
The knee is a part of the kinetic chain that is greatly affected by which segments proximal and distal?
Foot, ankle and lumbo-pelvic-hip complex
What three methods can be used to deliver optimal movement strategies to different types of clients?
Formal assessment sessions, a "feels right" strategy, and pre-formatted routines that are effective for the general population.
Weaknesses in which muscle may allow over-pronation deviations in subtalar joint motion during gait?
Gluteus Medius
What hip muscle is best to activate when valgus and overpronation are observed?
Gluteus maximus
Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to knee dominance during the split squat assessment?
Gluteus maximus
Matt presented with a knee valgus compensation that did not improve with a heel lift on the OHS assessment. What two muscles should be addressed as a key part of the activation exercises of Matt's corrective exercise program?
Gluteus medius and gluteus maximus
Pain on the inside of the elbow may be a symptom of what condition?
Golfer's Elbow
Which activities are most commonly related to habitual repetitive movement?
Golfing multiple days per week.
Which receptor is activated by tension exerted on the muscle tendon and muscle?
Golgi Tendon Organ
Jared is a beginner client with weightloss goals and several mild movement dysfunctions. During the beginning phases, the repetition range for Jared during resistance training should be which of the following?
High Repetition
Foam rolling the posterior adductor magnus and hamstring complex helps to reduce tension in the tissues allowing for appropriate levels of which joint action to be achieved?
Hip Flexion
Which best describes the testing leg starting position during the active knee extension test?
Hip flexed to 90 degrees with knee bent to 90 degrees
Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall lordotic posture?
Hip flexors, lumbar extensors, and internal obliques (upper)
A Corrective Exercise Specialist is implementing a static stretching program with a youth basketball team. What are the recommended acute training variables this type of stretching?
Hold 20-30 seconds, 1-4 repetitions, daily
What three factors optimally influence an individual's success with muscle hypertrophy and strength improvements?
Hormone levels, a properly designed resistance training program, and consumption of the right food
Which description best describes static posture?
How individuals physically present themselves in stance, reflected in the alignment of the body.
What are two common precautions to stretching?
Hypertension and joint replacement
What common knee injury results from overuse and is usually caused by muscle weakness in the kinetic chain and is commonly seen in runners?
IT Band Syndrome
Why might a fitness professional choose to use ankle mobility screening on a client?
If the client demonstrates feet turning out that was corrected by the heels elevated modification
Georgia has completed Phases 1 and 2 of the Corrective Exercise Continuum for forward head posture. Which of the following is most appropriate activation exercise for her?
Incline dumbbell scaption
Which is an abnormal movement associated with a seven-fold increase in ankle sprains?
Increased postural sway
What are the current recommendations for overall rest that include daily sleep, limited stress, and physical, and psychological relaxation?
Individuals should try to achieve a minimum of 8 hours of sleep, 60 minutes of psychological relaxation, and minimize stress each day.
Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall sway-back posture?
Intercostals, abdominals, internal obliques, and hip extensors
Which of the following describes the ability of different muscles in the body to work together to allow coordination of global and refined movements?
Intermuscular coordination
Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall kyphosis-lordosis posture?
Internal obliques, hip flexors, and lumbar extensors
Rearfoot pronation or eversion is associated with what coupled motion?
Internal tibial rotation
Peter, a Corrective Exercise Specialist, has completed his assessment of a new client who demonstrated non-neutral wrist during her assessment. He's completed Phases 1-3 of the Corrective Exercise Continuum, what should be his next exercise with his client?
Inverted row
How can forward head posture influence the position of the pelvis?
It can cause the pelvis to tilt anteriorly.
What is the most accurate purpose of the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)?
It is used to help determine if a person is ready to undertake an increase in physical activity.
Which statement most accurately defines an informed consent agreement with a corrective exercise client?
It outlines general information and associated risks involved with the corrective exercise process.
Decreased abdominal core neuromuscular control may contribute to which of the following positions of the lower extremity, which can lead to increased risk of knee injuries?
Knee Valgus
What is the key compensation to look for during a single-leg squat assessment?
Knee Valgus
For which movement impairment would one see the knees bow outward?
Knee Varus
Which movement impairment is characterized by an upright trunk and more knee flexion excursion than hip flexion excursion?
Knee dominance
Weakness of the external rotators of the LPHC will result in synergistic dominance of the TFL and adductors resulting in what observed compensation at the knee?
Knee valgus
During a movement assessment, if the foot over-supinates, what compensation would one observe?
Knee varus
Which of the following represents ideal posture when observing the five kinetic chain checkpoints?
Knees in line with second and third toes of each foot.
Which best describes the recommended knee position during the lumbar flexion test?
Knees straight
What term is used to describe the form of feedback whereby a fitness professional notes abnormal movement during a squat and asks the client if they felt or saw anything abnormal?
Knowledge of performance
Which category of movement assessments includes the overhead squat?
Transitional
What is the technical term for the natural curvature of the thoracic spine?
Kyphosis
This region of the body is most likely impacted by sitting most of the day?
LPHC
Taylor, a 30-year-old ex-athlete, is just beginning a workout program. He does very well on the overhead squat and single-leg squat assessment but demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt during a loaded squat assessment. Which of the following should be prioritized in Taylor's training program?
LPHC stabilization and hip extensor activation
During a gait assessment, at which phase of gait are most compensation patterns observed?
Late midstance
Performing a gait assessment can be a great technique for observing dynamic range of motion. During which phase of gait is ankle mobility assessed?
Late midstance
Most ankle sprains occur at which aspect of the ankle?
Lateral
Which global muscle subsystem activates synergistically to control movement in the frontal plane?
Lateral
Which muscle would be considered overactive/shortened, leading to the arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment?
Latissimus dorsi
What are two muscles that may be overactive/shortened if a client demonstrates restricted shoulder flexion?
Latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major
"Do you feel energized throughout the day and prior to activities?" is a question that would be found in what section of the client intake screen?
Lifestyle
Which of the following tissues that surround the spine limit intersegmental motion, maintain the integrity of the lumbar spine, and may fail when proper motion cannot be created, proper posture cannot be maintained, or excessive motion cannot be resisted by the surrounding musculature?
Ligaments
Keeping the RI model in mind, excessive forward lean of the trunk that occurs during the descent phase of a squat may be the result of which of the following impairments?
Limited Dorsiflexion of the ankles
What are the two scientific theories behind myofascial rolling?
Local mechanical and neurophysiological effect
What type of stretching can lead to decreased incidences of muscle and tendon injury?
Long-term static stretching
Which category of movement assessments includes the split squat?
Transitional
Which are the four dysfunctional spinal postures identified by Kendall?
Lordotic, flat-back, sway-back, and kyphosis-lordosis
In an OHSA, tightness in hip flexors, erector spinae, and latissimus dorsi will most likely contribute to which movement dysfunction?
Low-back arch
Subjects with which of the following issues have been reported to demonstrate impaired postural control, delayed muscle relaxation, abnormal muscle recruitment patterns, and notably diminished transverse abdominis and multifidus activation?
Low-back pain
Low sets and relatively light weights are needed to allow for the slow tempo and high repetition range to provide mild stress to specific areas of the body that benefit from regular activations with which of the following intensities?
Low-level activations
Medial tibial stress syndrome typically presents on which aspect of the tibia?
Lower 1/3 of the medial tibia
Which of the Janda syndromes has both an A and B designation?
Lower Crossed Syndrome
Which of the following are postural distortion patterns identified by Janda?
Lower Crossed Syndrome (A & B), Upper Crossed Syndrome, and Layered Crossed Syndrome
Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to the arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment?
Lower Trapezius
A client is performing an overhead squat demonstrates excessive shoulder elevation. To help correct this compensation, what muscle or muscle group would be the most appropriate to activate?
Lower trapezius
Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to scapular elevation during a loaded pulling movement?
Lower trapezius
When screening the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, which tests should the fitness professional begin with?
Lumbar flexion and extension
What is the recommended client position when performing the passive hip internal rotation test?
Lying prone on the table with legs together
A client has been training with a fitness professional and independently consistently for over 6 months. What stage of change would he most probably be in?
Maintenance
A client presents with the Janda Upper Crossed Syndrome. Which muscles are commonly underactive/lengthened?
Middle and lower trapezius, rhomboids, and serratus anterior
Which term best describes the entire available motion at a joint as well as the body's neuromuscular control during motion?
Mobility
A client has shown dysfunction on a static assessment of the elbow. What would the next reasonable step in the assessment process be?
Mobility assessment of the elbow and wrist
Which of the following is defined as the inability to move a joint through what should be its full range of motion?
Mobility restriction
During a session, a Corrective Exercise Specialist notices hyperkyphosis of the thoracic spine. What technique would improve the resultant neck and shoulder position?
Mobilize the thoracic spine with a foam roller and stretch the pectoralis group.
A client demonstrates a knee dominance compensation. The observed compensation did not improve with OHS with heel lift. What mobility test will the fitness professional use to test the hip flexors?
Modified Thomas test
What is one potential limitation to using handheld myofascial rollers?
Most require the use of both hands and rolling is limited to the lower extremities.
What term defines the cumulative change in motor behavior over a person's entire lifetime?
Motor Development
What is practiced with limited resistance with slow tempos and high repetitions so that the client can modify and rehearse quality movement?
Movement Efficiency
Which items should be considered when assessing the lifestyle of a client?
Recreation or hobbies
Which muscle should be strengthened in a fitness program for a client with a lack of lumbar stabilization?
Multifidus
Which modality creates a tangential shearing or wringing-towel effect by creating compression around the muscle group and then adding movements to improve mobility?
Myofascial flossing
A client had a knee surgery 3 weeks ago and wants to use a myofascial roller to decrease their hamstring discomfort. What should the fitness professional consider before prescribing the intervention?
Myofascial rolling may be contraindicated and the client should discuss with their physician first.
What type of stretching is also known as PNF?
Neuromuscular
What is the head position for the seated thoracic rotation test?
Neutral with nose in line with sternum
What is the anatomic action of the longus capitus and longus colli muscles?
Nodding of the chin
What term is used to describe reduced neural drive to an antagonist muscle when an agonist muscle contracts?
Reciprocal Inhibition
Which visual method should be used to observe a client during the static postural assessment?
Observe the client beginning with the feet and travel up to the head.
In which component of a client intake screen would the question, "Do you feel like your work day is mentally stressful?" be most appropriate to ask?
Occupation
Which of the following mental health topics is likely within a fitness professional's scope of practice to discuss with a client?
Occupational stress
What are the six dimensions of wellness as defined by the National Wellness Institute?
Occupational, physical, social, intellectual, spiritual, and emotional
"Weightlifter's shoulder" is a term associated with what clinical presentation?
Osteoarthritis of the AC joint
Orthotics are typically used to control which foot type?
Over-pronated
During the overhead squat assessment, a client demonstrates a lack of elbow extension. To what is this often attributed?
Overactive/shortened biceps brachii
If a client has a history of ankle sprains, which assessment can be used to determine if this has negatively influenced gluteal strength?
Overhead squat
Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients?
Overhead squat
Limited dynamic postural control, core muscle strength, and core muscle endurance are all significant risk factors for the development of which type of injury in the lower extremity?
Overuse
Knee injuries can cause a decrease in neural control to muscles that stabilize which two joints?
Patellofemoral and tibiofemoral
What muscle attaches to the coracoid process of the scapula?
Pectoralis minor
Which upper-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall flat-back posture?
Pectoralis minor, shoulder adductors, upper trapezius, and levator scapulae
When one or both ilia are irregularly rotated, showing altered movement in the Human Movement System during standing or sitting, it is referred to as which of the following?
Pelvic Asymmetry
What reflex is directly influenced by forward head posture?
Pelvo-ocular reflex
Which of the following best describes how to introduce tissue movement with the myofascial roller?
Perform active movements such as flexion/extension while maintaining pressure.
What should a fitness professional do to attempt to identify a potential root cause of the primary movement impairment in the foot and ankle?
Perform the heels elevated overhead squat modification.
According to recent research, which of the following may lead to increased core activation during a plank?
Performing a posterior pelvic tilt
What is the recommended range of frequency (days per week) for self-myofascial rolling?
Performing myofascial rolling between two and five times per week may be enough to experience benefits.
Which muscle is the most appropriate to static stretch for the client who demonstrates over-pronation in the overhead squat?
Peroneus longus
Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome can lead to the following injuries?
Plantar fasciitis, medial tibial stress syndrome (shin splints), patellar tendonitis, and low-back pain
Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to excessive pronation during the overhead squat assessment?
Posterior tibialis
What term is used to describe the independent and interdependent alignment and function of all components of the Human Movement System at any given moment?
Posture
Activation exercises may not be considered normal but are designed to provide isolated strengthening to specific muscles prior to moving into an integrated movement pattern by placing joints in the best position for which of the following?
Preferential activation
How does the concept of tissue creep relate to stretching?
Prolonged stretching can lead to a permanent length change in muscles and tendons.
The healthy elbow allows what motion?
Pronation
Turning the palm toward the floor is what action?
Pronation
What are the two principles within the refuel recovery strategy?
Proper hydration and nutrition
Which type of movement assessment should always be performed first?
Transitional
Research has shown that resistance training stimulates synthesis of which macronutrient substrate to repair and build muscle?
Protein
The extensibility of which three muscles are assessed during the modified Thomas test?
Psoas, TFL, and rectus femoris
What's the most appropriate muscle to inhibit if a client demonstrates heel rise during assessment?
Quadriceps
Jon exhibits a knee dominance compensation during assessment. Jon's corrective exercise program should focus on inhibiting and lengthening what muscle groups?
Quadriceps and soleus
Which muscle would be considered overactive/shortened, leading to a heel rise during the overhead squat assessment?
Quadriceps complex
Which muscle would be considered overactive/shortened, leading to knee dominance during the overhead squat assessment?
Quadriceps complex
De Quervain's Tenosynovitis affects which part of the hand?
Radial side of the hand
What is the biggest contraindication for stretching?
Recently injured individuals
What are common underactive/lengthened muscles in the lower body?
Rectus abdominis, gluteus maximus, tibialis anterior, and peroneals
Which muscle is thought to be overactive/shortened if the client demonstrates knee extension during the modified Thomas test?
Rectus femoris
The Kendall flat-back posture presents with which of the following static positions in the lower body?
Reduced lumbar lordosis, posterior tilted pelvis, and extended hips and knees
Which statement most accurately describes the potential impact a previous low-back injury could have on a client?
Reduced proprioception
What is the tradeoff for enhanced mobility in the glenohumeral joint structure?
Reduced stability
Lee, a client, shows up to a session with visible swelling in his left knee. What is the appropriate action to take?
Refer Lee out to a qualified medical professional.
Ruth, a new client, complains of jaw pain and difficulty swallowing after completing her assessments with her Corrective Exercise Specialist. What is the most appropriate response for the specialist?
Refer Ruth to a healthcare professional who is licensed to diagnose and treat her condition.
While conducting a client intake screen, Sherry noticed that her client has reported feeling sad, low energy, and irritable and has had a significant change in her nutrition habits. What is the most appropriate action for Sherry to take next?
Refer the client to a licensed mental health professional.
A client has selected YES on multiple questions in the PAR-Q+. What should the Corrective Exercise Specialist do to ensure the safety of this client?
Refer them to a qualified medical professional for clearance first.
A client states he has a sharp pain in his right knee when he is completing his exercises. What should the Corrective Exercise Specialist do to ensure the client's safety?
Refer them to a qualified medical professional.
Which of the following best define the concept of regeneration within the recovery strategy framework?
Regeneration is the cumulative process of pre- and post-training routines to maintain optimal movement efficiency.
Recent research pointed out that potential precautions and contraindications for myofascial rolling have not been thoroughly documented. Therefore, precautions and contraindications have been taken from which of the following?
Related myofascial therapies
Women become more flexible during pregnancy due to the release of which of the following hormones?
Relaxin
Dysfunction in intrinsic core stabilizers (transverse abdominis and multifidus) can result in which of the following?
SIJ instability and low back pain
A client answered YES to the medical history question, "Has your doctor ever said you have a heart condition or high blood pressure?" How should the fitness professional react to stay within a Corrective Exercise Specialist's scope of practice?
Require the client to get clearance from their doctor before beginning an exercise program.
A client presents with excessive elbow flexion during the assessment process. What activity would be a good choice to start the corrective exercise process?
SMR the bicep brachii and brachialis
During a push-up, a client demonstrates scapular winging. After 2 weeks of attempted strengthening, there is no improvement. What is the best course of action?
Revisit the shoulder assessments to re-evaluate the potential root cause.
The serratus anterior muscle originates and inserts on what structures?
Rib cage and medial border of the scapula
The thoracic spine is unique because of what articulation?
Ribs
What are the common neurophysiological mechanisms of myofascial rolling that result in decreased pain?
Roller pressure may modulate pain through stimulation of muscle and cutaneous receptors, afferent central nociceptive pathways (gate theory of pain), and descending anti-nociceptive pathways (diffuse noxious inhibitory control)
What is the recommended order of progressions when considering planes of motion?
Sagittal > Frontal > Transverse
Through which plane and motion does the talocrural joint move?
Sagittal; dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
The acromion is part of which bony structure?
Scapula
When performing active range of motion assessments with a client, the Corrective Exercise Specialist notices that their scapula does not move in a normal fashion during humeral elevation. Which term best describes this movement abnormality?
Scapular dyskinesis
What is the abnormal curvature of the thoracic spine in the frontal plane called?
Scoliosis
What process describes the ability of the CNS to interpret sensory information as needed to execute the proper motor response?
Sensorimotor integration
What are two modern advancements in recovery technology that have become popular among both individuals and professionals?
Sensory deprivation chambers and wearable activity trackers
Which is a common cause of limited ankle dorsiflexion?
Short/overactive plantar flexors
A client has demonstrated feet turn out during assessment. Which of the following integrate exercises is most appropriate for a beginner client?
Single-leg balance
A 65 year old client, Bob, is having trouble with his balance during the single-leg squat assessment. What is the most appropriate way to handle this situation?
Split squat modification
Though it is outside the scope of the fitness professional to focus on pain management, if guided by the clients physician, what can the fitness professional focus on for clients with low back discomfort?
Stability and mobility
The fitness professional uses activations to provide strength to muscles that lack the ability to appropriately eccentrically decelerate unwanted joint actions and do what else?
Stabilize unwanted movement
What term describes a muscle acting to help support the joint or joints that permit movement from the primary mover?
Stabilizer
Jamie demonstrated a posterior pelvic tilt during the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following is an appropriate activation exercise for Jamie?
Standing Hip Flexor
When performing a static postural assessment on a client, the fitness professional notes that the client demonstrates a forward head posture. What muscle group is most likely shortened and overactive?
Suboccipitals
The anterior side of the scapula (subscapular fossa) is designed to house which muscle of the rotator cuff?
Subscapularis
Javier demonstrates knee valgus during his assessment. Which of the following muscles should be inhibited?
TFL
Which muscle is thought to be overactive/shortened if the client demonstrates knee abduction during the modified Thomas test?
TFL
Which of the following is another name for the ankle joint complex?
Talocrural joint
What is the most appropriate term for a overuse injury to a tendon?
Tendinopathy
What is an effective tool to help understand a client's willingness to create behavior change in their workout routine?
The Transtheoretical Model of Change
What would occur if the resting length of a muscle is shorter than it should be?
The amount of available actin on myosin cross-bridging is reduced.
Where is the hyoid bone located in the cervical spine?
The anterior neck in a muscular sling.
Which muscle or region is the use of a foam roller contra-indicated for self-myofascial release due to high risk for causing pain or injury?
The cervical spine
Which best describes the target motion of the knee flexion test?
The client actively flexes the knee as far as tolerable.
What should the client do with the non-testing leg during the modified Thomas test?
The client holds the knee to their chest, putting the non-test hip in maximal flexion.
Which of the following set-up scenarios are needed for optimal assessment of static posture?
The client removes their shoes, wears form-fitted clothes, and comfortably stands still.
If the client has an underlying medical conditions that could be a contraindication, what is the best course of action before having them use a self-myofascial roller?
The client should be cleared through an appropriately licensed medical professional before proceeding with any myofascial techniques.
What compensatory movement pattern is defined as knee valgus?
The knees collapsing inward.
Which of the following is an example of a stabilizing muscle role?
The muscle of the rotator cuff contracting along with the deltoids during an overhead shoulder press.
What muscle changes may occur as a result of a chronically inhibited neural drive?
The muscle on the opposing side of the joint would pull it into a lengthened state.
The current research suggests that myofascial release be changed to myofascial rolling due to which factor?
There is no current evidence that a "release" occurs in the myofascia after rolling.
A new client, Tommy, is just learning to use the myofascial roller. He asks how much pain should be felt while performing Step 1 of the myofascial rolling program. What is the best response?
There should be some discomfort, but he should be able to relax and breathe
What is considered normal mobility during the elbow flexion test?
The palm of the hand almost touches the front of the shoulder without compensation.
Which best describes a role of the plantar fascia during movement?
Transferring the potential energy from ground reaction forces
What compensatory movements create an excessive posterior pelvic tilt?
The pelvis rolling backward and lumbar flexion.
What compensatory movements create an excessive anterior pelvic tilt?
The pelvis rolling forward and lumbar extension.
Which best describes a component of pressure exerted by a myofascial roller?
The rollers diameter
What dysfunctional movement is observed during scapular elevation?
The shoulders moving upward toward the ears.
Which statement most accurately defines the use of terminology such as compensation, impairment, and dysfunction when communicating with a client?
The terms should be avoided.
Why is a textured myofascial roller theorized to be more effective than a flat myofascial roller?
The textured roller may distort or "move" the tissues more than a smooth roller.
What is an important consideration regarding the "ideal amount of pressure" needed for a positive response?
The user's experience with myofascial rolling
What is the purpose of holding a ball (or other object) between the knees during the seated thoracic rotation test?
To lock the hips into place
What type of responsibilities might a client have that could reduce adherence to their long-term exercise and recovery program?
Unexpected family and social obligations.
What is the most appropriate duration for a dynamic stretching warm-up?
Up to 90 seconds
Which muscle would be considered overactive/shortened, leading to scapular elevation during a loaded pulling movement?
Upper Trapezius
Which upper-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall sway-back posture?
Upper trapezius, levator scapulae, pectoralis minor, and intercostals
Which of the following represent the correct steps, in the correct order, for the recovery planning process?
Use the recovery questionnaire, develop a recovery plan, and implement the plan.
Posture and dynamic movement assessments reveal excessive wrist flexion. What muscle group should be lengthened?
Wrist Flexors
Posture and dynamic movement assessments reveal excessive wrist flexion. What muscle group should be activated?
Wrist extensors
If wrist extension is limited with elbow flexion, one can assume the limitation is coming from which structure(s)?
Wrist joint
What is the name given for the wrist bones collectively?
carpals
When should the static posture assessment be conducted during an objective assessment session with a client?
first
What is the most common way to use a self-myofascial foam roller?
he client applies bodyweight pressure by lying on the roller in different positions.
What is the name of the upper arm bone?
humerus
Which internal tissue or structure can get irritated and lead to pain when herniated discs press against it?
nerve
The glenohumeral joint is what type of joint?
synovial
