Ch. 11 A and P Questions

The average life span of a red blood cell is about A) 1 week. B) 1 month. C) 4 months. D) 6 months. E) 1 year.

4 months

How long do platelets circulate before being removed by phagocytes? A) 9-12 days B) 6-18 hours C) 2-3 days D) 4-8 weeks E) 1-2 months

9-12 days

During red blood cell development, what is the term given to the first anucleate cell? A) reticulocyte B) erythrocyte C) myeloid stem cell D) hemocytoblast E) proerythroblast

reticulocyte

The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by A) the sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) the activation of proenzymes exposed to collagen. C) the release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium. D) the release of heparin from the liver. E) the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

the activation of proenzymes exposed to collagen.

Which blood type can safely be administered to patients of any blood type in an emergency? [Learning Outcome: 11-4, Level 2]

type O

Agglutinins A) are surface antigens on RBCs. B) prevent blood clotting. C) are substances that can trigger a protective defense mechanism called an immune response. D) are antibodies that will attack surface antigens on RBCs of a different blood type. E) contain abundant stained "granules."

are antibodies that will attack surface antigens on RBCs of a different blood type.

Which of the following processes may be required for evaluating the efficiency of gas exchange at the lungs? [Learning Outcome: 11-1, Level 1]

arterial puncture

The least numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes.

basophils

What is a benefit of a vascular spasm at the onset of hemostasis? A) a reduction in blood loss B) an increase in peripheral blood flow C) the formation of collagen fibers D) an easier passage for neutrophils to the site of injury E) greater availability of calcium

a reduction in blood loss

Platelets are A) giant, multinucleated cells. B) cellular fragments. C) immature leukocytes. D) fixed macrophages. E) surface antigens.

cellular fragments.

In the lungs, what process brings oxygen into the plasma and removes carbon dioxide? [Learning Outcome: 11-3, Level 1]

diffusion

Erythropoietin is most likely released under which of the following conditions? A) during anemia B) when the respiratory surfaces of the lungs are optimally enhanced C) when the carbon dioxide content of air in the lungs declines D) during erythrocytosis E) when blood flow to the thymus declines

during anemia

Which of the following begins with the activation of plasminogen? A) thrombosis B) fibrinolysis C) agglutination D) intrinsic pathway E) extrinsic pathway

fibrinolysis

The process by which formed elements of blood are produced is called__________. [Learning Outcome: 11-1, Level 1]

hemopoiesis

Formed elements that are nucleated and capable of amoeboid movement are A) leukocytes. B) chondrocytes. C) thrombocytes. D) erythrocytes. E) melanocytes.

leukocytes.

Globulins involved in lipid transport are called__________. [Learning Outcome: 11-2, Level 1]

lipoproteins

Which organ synthesizes more than 90 percent of plasma proteins? A) kidney B) spleen C) liver D) bone marrow E) thymus

liver

In blood smear preparations, blood is collected from which type of vessel? A) veins B) peripheral capillaries C) arteries D) lymphatic ducts E) venules

peripheral capillaries

A person's blood type is determined by the A) size and shape of red blood cells. B) number of antibodies in the plasma. C) chemical character of hemoglobin. D) presence or absence of specific surface antigens on the plasma membrane. E) type of oxygen- and carbon dioxide-binding sites on the hemoglobin molecules.

presence or absence of specific surface antigens on the plasma membrane.

What is the chief difference between plasma and serum? A) amount of water B) quantity of electrolytes C) quantity of organic wastes D) presence/absence of clotting proteins E) concentration of glucose

presence/absence of clotting proteins

Blood is approximately ________ percent plasma by volume. A) 46-63 B) 37-54 C) 12-33 D) 25-39 E) 99.9

46-63

A normal WBC count is about ________ cells per microliter. A) 1,500-4,000 B) 1,800-7,300 C) 5,000-10,000 D) 150,000-500,000 E) 4.4 million-6 million.

5,000-10,000

Which of the following statements is true regarding gender differences in hematocrit? [Learning Outcome: 11-3, Level 1]

Adult males, on the average, have a higher hematocrit than adult females.

________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of RBCs is reduced. A) Erythropoiesis B) Lymphopoiesis C) Anemia D) Leukopenia E) Leukemia

Anemia

Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A serum and anti-Rh serum, but not with the anti-B serum. This means A) Bill could receive type B blood in a transfusion. B) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type AB blood. C) Bill is Rh-negative. D) Bill's plasma would cross-react with type O negative red blood cells. E) Bill's plasma contains anti-B antibodies.

Bill's plasma contains anti-B antibodies.

________ is the characteristic of WBCs that allow them to enter surrounding tissue by squeezing between adjacent epithelial cells in the capillary wall. A) Hemotaxis B) Positive chemotaxis C) Hemolysis D) Diapedesis E) Amoeboid movement

Diapedesis

________ directly stimulates red blood cell production. A) Intrinsic factor B) Thyroxine C) EPO D) Vitamin B12 E) GH

EPO

________ are the most abundant cell population of the formed elements of blood. A) Erythrocytes B) Platelets C) Neutrophils D) Lymphocytes E) Monocytes

Erythrocytes

The extrinsic and intrinsic pathways join at the common pathway through the activation of which clotting substance produced by the liver? A) albumin B) fibrinogen C) Factor X D) calcium E) vitamin K

Factor X

As blood flows through peripheral tissues, what occurs regarding the hemoglobin molecules of RBCs? A) Hemoglobin binds oxygen and releases its bound carbon dioxide. B) Hemoglobin releases carbon dioxide and oxygen. C) Hemoglobin binds oxygen and carbon dioxide. D) Hemoglobin binds carbon dioxide and releases its bound oxygen. E) Hemoglobin gains an increase in its oxygen-carrying capacity.

Hemoglobin binds carbon dioxide and releases its bound oxygen.

Without mitochondria, RBCs are relatively inefficient in terms of energy production. However, there is an advantage to RBC function. What is this advantage? A) It ensures that its iron component will interact with the plasma protein transferrin. B) It stimulates the conversion of yellow bone marrow to red bone marrow. C) It stimulates the absorption of vitamin B12. D) It ensures that its iron component is converted to bilirubin. E) It ensures that any oxygen the RBCs absorb will be delivered to peripheral tissues.

It ensures that any oxygen the RBCs absorb will be delivered to peripheral tissues.

Why might women be more prone to suffering from iron-deficient anemia than men? A) Women require about 50% more heme units per hemoglobin. B) Hemoglobin molecules break down more readily in women. C) Women have approximately half as many iron reserves. D) The RBCs in women have a shorter lifespan. E) Women absorb less iron from their diet.

Women have approximately half as many iron reserves.

One of the functions of blood is to absorb and neutralize the __________ generated by active tissues. [Learning Outcome: 11-1, Level 1]

acids

Type AB blood contains A) A agglutinins on the red blood cells. B) agglutinogen A and agglutinogen B. C) B agglutinogens on the red blood cells. D) B agglutinins in the plasma. E) agglutinin A and B.

agglutinogen A and agglutinogen B.

Plasma proteins that are necessary for blood to maintain osmotic pressure are A) albumins. B) fibrinogens. C) globulins. D) fibrin. E) platelets.

albumins

During the recycling of hemoglobin, what is the breakdown product of the globular proteins of each hemoglobin molecule? A) amino acids B) stercobilins C) bilirubin D) transferrin E) urobilins

amino acids

What process enables white blood cells to move along the walls of blood vessels and, when outside the bloodstream, through surrounding tissues? [Learning Outcome: 11-5, Level 1]

amoeboid movement

Platelets A) are phagocytic. B) are a major component of the vascular clotting system. C) are a component of the unformed elements of blood. D) are lymphocytes. E) have multi-lobed nuclei.

are a major component of the vascular clotting system.

Neutrophils A) are agranulocytes. B) are not phagocytic. C) have multiple nuclei. D) are active in fighting bacterial infection. E) are responsible for specific defenses.

are active in fighting bacterial infection.

Which cell population of WBCs migrate to sites of injury and cross the capillary wall to accumulate within damaged tissues, where they discharge their granules into the interstitial fluids? A) monocytes B) eosinophils C) basophils D) lymphocytes E) neutrophils

basophils

In the process of hemoglobin recycling, each heme molecule is stripped of its iron and converted to which pigmented organic compound? A) urobilin B) bilirubin C) stercobilin D) transferrin E) biliverdin

biliverdin

The function of hemoglobin is to A) bind and transport oxygen and carbon dioxide. B) protect the body against pathogens. C) aid in the process of blood clotting. D) carry nutrients from the intestine to the body's cells. E) absorb and neutralize the acids generated by active tissues.

bind and transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Normal blood clotting CANNOT occur unless the plasma contains the necessary clotting factors, which include plasma proteins and __________ ions. [Learning Outcome: 11-7, Level 1]

calcium

During their formation, RBCs A) flatten. B) multiply their mitochondria. C) eject their nucleus. D) are saturated with oxygen. E) recycle hemoglobin into iron and pigment molecules.

eject their nucleus

A drifting blood clot, air bubble, or fat globule is called A) thrombus. B) plaque. C) clotting factor. D) embolus. E) hemostatic element.

embolus

Formation of red blood cells is called A) thrombopoiesis. B) leukocytosis. C) leukopoiesis. D) erythropoiesis. E) erythrocytosis.

erythropoiesis.

Plasma and interstitial fluid account for most of the volume of ________ in the body. A) serum B) lymphatic fluid C) whole blood D) extracellular fluid E) packed blood

extracellular fluid

The extrinsic and intrinsic pathways join to form the common pathway through the activation of__________. [Learning Outcome: 11-7, Level 1]

factor X

How many different polypeptide chains combine to form a single hemoglobin molecule? [Learning Outcome: 11-3, Level 1]

four

A hemoglobin molecule contains A) three protein chains, four heme groups, and two iron ions. B) two protein chains, two heme groups, and four iron ions. C) four protein chains, two heme groups, and two iron ions. D) four protein chains, four heme groups, and four iron ions. E) four protein chains, six heme groups, and two iron ions.

four protein chains, four heme groups, and four iron ions.

Which of the following plasma proteins transports ions, hormones, and lipids, and has an immune function? [Learning Outcome: 11-2, Level 1]

globulin

The primary function of white blood cells is to A) remove carbon dioxide from active cells. B) clump together and stick to the blood vessel walls. C) carry oxygen from the lungs to the body's cells. D) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells. E) help defend the body against pathogens.

help defend the body against pathogens.

The percentage of whole blood volume occupied by formed elements is called A) normovolemic. B) reticulocyte count. C) hematocrit. D) hemoglobin concentration. E) differential count.

hematocrit

Red blood cells result from the divisions of cells called A) hemocytoblasts. B) lymphoblasts. C) monoblasts. D) myeloblasts. E) progenitor cells.

hemocytoblasts

When large numbers of RBCs break down in the circulation, the urine can turn reddish or brown in a condition called A) sickle cell anemia. B) hemoglobinuria. C) pernicious anemia. D) leucopenia. E) septicemia.

hemoglobinuria

The inherited condition resulting from the inadequate production of clotting factors is termed A) anemia. B) thalassemia. C) jaundice. D) hemophilia. E) leukopenia.

hemophilia

A sample of tissue from an injury shows a large number of eosinophils. This would indicate that the tissue was A) abscessed. B) inflamed. C) being rejected. D) infected by viruses. E) infected by parasites.

infected by parasites

For erythropoiesis to proceed normally, protein synthesis requires adequate supplies of factors, such as vitamin B12, which is absorbed from the diet in the presence of which of the following? A) thyroxine B) intrinsic factor C) Factor X D) platelet factor E) EPO

intrinsic factor

Which condition results from abnormally high levels of bilirubin in the plasma of blood? A) hematuria B) hypoxia C) hemoglobinuria D) jaundice E) thalassemia

jaundice

Excess transferrins are removed in the ________, where the iron extracted from heme molecules is stored in special protein-iron complexes. A) liver and thymus B) liver and spleen C) thymus and bone marrow D) spleen and bone marrow E) thymus and spleen

liver and spleen

When foreign cells invade the body, one would most likely expect to see increased numbers of A) erythrocytes. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) thrombocytes.

lymphocytes

Which of the following WBCs are continuously migrating from the bloodstream, through peripheral tissues, and back to the bloodstream, and also have a relatively large nucleus? [Learning Outcome: 11-5, Level 1]

lymphocytes

Which of the following is an agranulocyte? A) erythrocyte B) basophil C) neutrophil D) eosinophil E) monocyte

monocyte

The white blood cells that are important in leaving the blood vessels and phagocytizing large materials, releasing chemicals that draw fibroblasts to the injured areas, are A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes.

monocytes

Which of the following WBCs are aggressive phagocytes that often attempt to engulf items as large or larger than themselves? [Learning Outcome: 11-5, Level 1]

monocytes

________ are large phagocytic WBCs that remain in circulation for only about 24 hours before entering peripheral tissues to become tissue macrophages. A) Neutrophils B) Eosinophils C) Basophils D) Lymphocytes E) Monocytes

monocytes

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of stages in RBC maturation? A) stem cell, erythroblast, proerythroblast, reticulocyte, RBC B) hemocytoblast, myeloblast, reticulocyte, megakaryocyte, RBC C) myeloid stem cell, proerythroblast, erythroblast, reticulocyte, RBC D) monoblast, promonocyte, myelocyte, band cell, RBC E) lymphoblast, proerythroblast, reticulocyte, band cell, RBC

myeloid stem cell, proerythroblast, erythroblast, reticulocyte, RBC

During the formation of red blood cells, hemocytoblast divisions give rise to which of the following cells? [Learning Outcome: 11-3, Level 1]

myeloid stem cells

The most abundant type of WBC in a normal blood sample is the A) basophil. B) neutrophil. C) lymphocyte. D) eosinophil. E) monocyte.

neutrophil

Pus associated with infected wounds contains which type of white blood cell? A) basophils B) lymphocytes C) eosinophils D) monocytes E) neutrophils

neutrophils

Which of the following are the most active type of leukocytes, phagocytically, and are usually the first to arrive at an injury site? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) basophils D) lymphocytes E) erythrocytes

neutrophils

EPO is released when A) oxygen levels in the blood increase. B) oxygen levels in the blood decrease. C) carbon dioxide levels in the blood increase. D) carbon dioxide levels in the blood decrease. E) protein levels in the blood increase.

oxygen levels in the blood decrease.

A toxin that blocks the stomach's ability to release intrinsic factor would most likely cause A) hemophilia. B) an embolism. C) leukopenia. D) iron deficiency anemia. E) pernicious anemia.

pernicious anemia.

The liver is the primary source of__________. [Learning Outcome: 11-2, Level 1]

plasma proteins

During fibrinolysis, which enzyme begins digesting the fibrin strands, breaking down the clot? A) Factor X B) clotting Factor VII C) thrombin D) fibrinogen E) plasmin

plasmin

As repairs proceed, a blood clot gradually dissolves in a process that begins with the activation of A) Factor X. B) thrombin. C) fibrinogen. D) prothrombin. E) plasminogen.

plasminogen

Thrombocytopenia is defined as a deficiency of A) antibodies. B) erythrocytes. C) platelets. D) eosinophils. E) neutrophils.

platelets

Which formed elements of blood, which remain in circulation or in vascular organs, are produced by megakaryocytes in bone marrow? [Learning Outcome: 11-6, Level 1]

platelets

In adults, the stem cells responsible for the production of red and white blood cells originate primarily in the A) liver. B) thymus. C) spleen. D) red bone marrow. E) yellow bone marrow.

red bone marrow

What is the function of colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)? [Learning Outcome: 11-5, Level 1]

regulating WBCs, except lymphocytes, by targeting stem cell lines.

The process of blood clotting is an example of which function of blood? A) stabilizing body temperature B) transporting dissolved gases, nutrients, hormones, and metabolic wastes C) defending against toxins and pathogens D) regulating the pH and ion composition of interstitial fluids E) restricting fluid losses at injury sites

restricting fluid losses at injury sites

Which disease is characterized by defective hemoglobin that results from a mutation affecting the amino acid sequence of one pair of the globular proteins of the hemoglobin molecule resulting in stiff, markedly curved red blood cells? A) sickle cell anemia B) thalassemia C) hematuria D) jaundice E) aplastic anemia

sickle cell anemia

Agglutinogens of the various blood types are examples of A) surface antibodies. B) channel proteins. C) leukocytes. D) surface antigens. E) agranulocytes.

surface antigens.

The common pathway of coagulation ends with A) the sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) the activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen. C) the release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium. D) the activation of a clotting factor that converts prothrombin to thrombin. E) the activation of a clotting factor that converts fibrinogen to fibrin.

the activation of a clotting factor that converts fibrinogen to fibrin.

The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by A) the sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) the activation of proenzymes exposed to collagen. C) the release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium. D) the release of heparin from the liver. E) the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

the release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium.

A blood clot attached to the wall of a vessel is called a(n) A) embolus. B) thrombus. C) plaque. D) coagulant. E) platelet plug.

thrombus

Which blood type is characterized as red blood cells with surface antigen B and anti-A antibodies? [Learning Outcome: 11-4, Level 1]

type B

Once a blood vessel has been cut, local contractions in the smooth muscle fibers of the vessel wall are characteristic of which phase of hemostasis? [Learning Outcome: 11-7, Level 1]

vascular phase

The following is a list of the steps involved in the process of hemostasis and clot removal: 1. coagulation phase 2. fibrinolysis 3. vascular phase 4. retraction 5. platelet phase

vascular phase, platelet phase, coagulation phase, retraction, fibrinolysis

Fresh whole blood is usually collected through a procedure called A) acupuncture. B) transfusion. C) venipuncture. D) arterial puncture. E) hematocrit.

venipuncture

Calcium ions and ________ have an effect on nearly every aspect of the clotting process. A) vitamin K B) vitamin A C) vitamin D D) vitamin E E) thiamin

vitamin K

The term ________ refers to the combination of plasma and the formed elements together. A) whole blood B) hematocrit C) thrombocyte D) hemopoiesis E) packed cell volume

whole blood