Challenge Test Number 3
A rounded projection of moderate size is called a: a. Prominence b. Sharp prominence c. Tubercle d. Tuberosity
C.
An imaging exam using a contrast agent to evaluate possible herniated intervertebral discs is called a(n): a. Arthrogram b. Spinal study c. Myelogram d. Discography
C.
An undistorted radiographic image results when the object plane and the image plane are: a. Angled in relation to each other b. At right angles c. Parallel d. Perpendicular
C.
Beam restrictors reduce the amount of scatter produced by reducing which of the following? a. Characteristic rays b. Photoelectric effect c. Compton interactions d. Pair production
C.
Because the x-ray tube requires DC to operate properly, what device is required in the x-ray circuit? a. Autotransformer b. Step-up transformer c. Rectifier d. Falling load generator
C.
Cellular components contained in the cytoplasm are called a. Free radicals b. Ions c. Organelles d. DNA strands
C.
Compared with OSL and TLD badges, film badges are: a. more sensitive b. less sensitive c. the same sensitivity
C.
Distance and density are governed by what law or rule? a. Reciprocity law b. 15% rule c. Inverse square law d. Density maintenance rule
C.
For AP projection of the lumbar spine, the central ray is directed: a. Parallel to midline, entering at the level of the iliac crests b. Perpendicular to L2 c. Perpendicular to midline, entering at the level of the iliac crests d. Perpendicular to L4
C.
For PA projection of the chest, the central ray is directed: a. Perpendicular to T10 b. Parallel to the thoracic spine c. Perpendicular to T7 d. Perpendicular to the posterior ribs
C.
Given an original technique of 20 mAs and 80 kVp, which of the following would produce a radiograph with double the IR exposure? a. 40 mAs, 90 kVp b. 30 mAs, 92 kVp c. 40 mAs, 80 kVp d. 15 mAs, 92 kVp
C.
Image acquisition, image display, and image storage are the primary components of what system? a. DICOM b. CR/DR c. PACS d. HIS
C.
Synovial joints are called: a. Synarthroses b. Amphiarthroses c. Diarthroses d. Mesocephalic
C.
The blunt cartilaginous tip of the sternum is the: a. Manubrium b. Floating c. Xiphoid d. Jugular notch
C.
The feature of the image intensifier that ensures the radiation dose striking the input phosphor is constant is the: a. Photocathode b. Electron focusing lens c. Automatic brightness control d. Vidicon tube
C.
The filament circuit makes use of what type of transformer? a. Step-up b. Autotransformer c. Step-down d. Falling load
C.
The injection site for a lumbar myelogram is: a. C6-C7 b. L5-S1 c. L3-L4 d. L1-L2
C.
The portion of the small bowel that connects with the cecum is called the: a. Duodenum b. Jejunum c. Ileum d. Ascending
C.
The smallest particle of a compound that retains the characteristics of the compound is a(n): a. Element b. Atom c. Molecule d. Neutron
C.
The suffix that means "tumor" is: a. -oid b. -pathy c. -oma d. -algia
C.
This structure has superior, middle, and inferior lobes: a. Trachea b. Left lung c. Right lung d. Hilus
C.
Unwanted markings on a radiographic image are called: a. Processing irregularities b. Processing artifacts c. Artifacts d. Plus-density markings
C.
What is used to reduce both patient dose and the production of scatter radiation? a. Grids b. High speed class c. Collimation d. Filtration
C.
When a quality control test for accuracy of kVp is performed, the result must be within ________ of the control panel setting. a. 2% of SID b. 4% c. 10% d. 4
C.
When a quality control test for exposure linearity is performed, adjacent mA stations must be within ________ of one another. a. 2% of SID b. 4% c. 10% d. 5%
C.
Which bone distributes body weight from the tibia to the other tarsal bones? a. Navicular b. Calcaneus c. Talus d. Cuboid
C.
Which of the following grid errors would result in an image that shows normal exposure in the middle but decreased exposure on the sides, assuming the correct side of the grid faces the x-ray tube? a. Upside down b. Off-level c. Lateral decentering d. Grid-focus decentering
D.
Which of the following individual vertebra is larger and heavier than other individual vertebrae? a. Atlas b. Axis c. Thoracic vertebra d. Lumbar vertebra
D.
Which of the following part(s) of the humerus articulate(s) with the ulna? a. Greater and lesser tubercles b. Bicipital groove c. Capitulum d. Trochlea
D.
The SI unit of equivalent dose is the: a. Sievert b. Gray c. Radiation weighting factor d. LET
A.
The SI unit of exposure in air is the: a. Air kerma b. Gray c. Becquerel d. Sievert
A.
The SI unit of radioactivity is the: a. Becquerel b. Gray c. Quality factor d. Curie
A.
The annual effective dose limit for the general public, assuming infrequent exposure, is: a. 5 mSv b. 500 mSv c. 0.5 mSv d. 50 mSv
A.
The ilium is part of the: a. Hip b. Shoulder c. Skull d. Small intestine
A.
The outer part of the kidney is called the: a. Cortex b. Medulla c. Nephron d. Glomeruli
A.
The portion of the small bowel that connects with the stomach is called the: a. Duodenum b. Jejunum c. Ileum d. Ascending
A.
Unjustified restraint of a patient defines: a. Assault b. Battery c. False imprisonment d. Invasion of privacy
176. C. Invasion of privacy involves violating confidential ity or improperly exposing the patient's body to viewing or radiation. Assault and battery involve threats and striking the patient.
The weighting factor related to radiation effects in organs and tissues is: a. W R b. Gy a c. Gy t d. W T
A.
The word part that means "organ" is: a. Viscer b. Megal c. Trans d. Emia
A.
Barium sulfate should be mixed with water at what temperature for a barium enema? a. 100° C b. 75° F c. 85° C d. 100° F
189. D. Be sure to observe the F or C. You would not wantto mix barium in water at 100° C.
This structure is approximately 12 cm long and is located in front of the esophagus: a. Trachea b. Left lung c. Right lung d. Hilus
A.
What is plotted on the x-axis of a dose-response curve? a. Dose b. Response c. Receptor exposure d. Radioactivity
A.
When a quality control test for collimator accuracy is performed, the result must be within ________. a. 2% of SID b. 4% c. 10% d. 5%
A.
Areas for the general public, such as waiting rooms and stairways, are considered: a. Controlled areas b. Uncontrolled areas c. Off-limits areas d. Radiation areas
34. B. Waiting rooms and stairways are considered uncontrolled areas. They are shielded to keep exposure under 0.5 rem annually. Controlled areas are those occupied by persons who are trained in radiation safety and are wearing personnel monitoring devices. There is no specific area known as the off-limits area or the radiation area.
Which of the following bones consists of five fused segments? a. Sacrum b. Axis c. Thoracic vertebra d. Lumbar vertebra
A.
Which of the following bones has wings? a. Sphenoid bone b. Ethmoid bone c. Mandible d. Maxilla
A.
Which of the following does not belong in the definition of matter? a. Travels at the speed of light b. Has shape c. Has form d. Occupies space
A.
Which of the following should be used when a person is choking on a piece of food? a. Heimlich maneuver b. Modified Valsalva maneuver c. Valsalva maneuver d. Toe touch maneuver
A.
The primary purpose of radiation safety practices is to a. Limit occupational exposure b. Limit the introduction of mutations into the population c. Limit long-term somatic effects d. Limit short-term somatic effects
B.
The radiation weighting factor for x-rays is: a. 10 b. 1 c. 20 d. 5
B.
The suffix that means "like" is: a. -oma b. -oid c. -osis d. -pathy
B.
What must precede any examinations involving iodinated contrast media? a. Chest x-ray study b. Nephrotoxicity assessment c. Patient held NPO d. Pregnancy test
B.
Which of the following bones has a dens? a. Atlas b. Axis c. Thoracic vertebra d. Lumbar vertebra
B.
Which of the following can be documented as an indication of patient dose? a. AEC b. Exposure indicator c. System speed class d. Histogram
B.
Which bone is located in the wrist, between the trapezoid and the hamate? a. Scaphoid b. Hamate c. Pisiform d. Capitate
D.
Which bone lies along the lateral border of the navicular bone? a. Navicular b. Calcaneus c. Talus d. Cuboid
D.
Which of the following grid errors would result in an image that shows decreased density more to one side than the other? a. Upside down b. Off-level c. Lateral decentering d. Grid-focus decentering
B.
Which of the following bones has a coronal suture? a. Frontal bone b. Temporal bone c. Occipital bone d. Parietal bone
D.
Which of the following bones has a temporal process? a. Sphenoid bone b. Ethmoid bone c. Mandible d. Zygomatic bone
D.
Which of the following bones has an alveolar process? a. Sphenoid bone b. Ethmoid bone c. Mandible d. Maxilla
D.
An item that is used to feed the patient or to suction gastric contents is a: a. Ventilator b. Nasogastric tube c. Chest tube d. Venous catheter
B. Gastric indicates that it flows into the stomach. Knowledge of medical terminology will greatly assist in ruling out some answers and carefully considering others.
Structures seen outside of the collimated area on a radiograph, produced by "off-focus" (extrafocal) radiation, are the result of: a. Electron interaction within the x-ray tube at a point other than the focal spot b. Scatter radiation emanating from the patient or tabletop c. The use of an SID that is not recommended with the grid in use d. The x-ray tube positioned off-center to the grid
A.
The ARRT Rules of Ethics and Code of Ethics are contained in what document? a. Standards of Ethics b. Practice Standards c. Mission Statement d. Scope of Practice
A.
A pit is described as a: a. Fossa b. Groove c. Sulcus d. Sinus
A.
An exam that may be diagnostic and therapeutic is: a. Hysterosalpingogram b. Myelogram c. Arthrogram d. Barium enema
A.
As speed class decreases, patient dose: a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains the same
A.
Fibrous joints are called: a. Synarthroses b. Amphiarthroses c. Diarthroses d. Mesocephalic
A.
For AP projection of the knee, the central ray is angled: a. 5 to 7 degrees cephalad b. 5 to 7 degrees caudad c. 10 degrees cephalad d. 10 degrees caudad
A.
For lateral projection of the cervical spine, the central ray is directed: a. Perpendicular to C4 b. Parallel to C4 c. 15 to 20 degrees caudad d. 20 to 25 degrees cephalad
A.
If you suspect an object is contaminated, assume: a. That it is contaminated b. That it should be used immediately c. That it is not contaminated, so as not to waste supplies d. That your hands must be sterilized
A.
Instead of Vidicon or Plumbicon tubes, what device may be used in the television system? a. Charge-coupled device (CCD) b. C-arm c. Automatic brightness control d. Output phosphor
A.
The SI unit of effective dose is the: a. Sievert b. Gray c. Radiation weighting factor d. LET
A.
The accuracy of collimation at a 72-inch SID must be: a. ± 1.44 inches b. ± 7.2 inches c. ± 3.6 inches d. ± 0.02 inch
A. 2% of the SID
This type of infection transmission occurs when an infected person or contaminated object touches a host: a. Contact transmission b. Airborne transmission c. Droplet transmission d. Common vehicle transmission
A. As explained in question 195. Be sure to keep all of these facts straight.
Which photon-tissue interaction produces a recoil electron and a scattered photon in diagnostic radiography? a. Compton b. Coherent c. Photoelectric d. Pair production
A. Choice B is incorrect because coherent scatter occurs at extremely low kVp levels and does not pro- duce a recoil electron. Choice C is incorrect because the photoelectric effect does not scatter the photon. Choice D is incorrect because pair production does not occur in diagnostic radiography.
A positive contrast agent administered to a patient in the form of an inert salt is: a. Barium sulfate b. Iodine c. Perforated ulcers or ruptured appendix d. Air
A. Choice C does not make sense. Air is a gas, and iodine is not inert.
Areas occupied by persons trained in radiation safety and wearing personnel monitoring devices are called: a. Controlled areas b. Uncontrolled areas c. Off-limits areas d. Radiation areas
A. Controlled areas are those occupied by persons who are trained in radiation safety and are wearing personnel monitoring devices. Uncontrolled areas are general public areas, such as stairways and wait- ing rooms. There is no specific area known as the off- limits area or the radiation area.
What "language" is used by PACS? a. DICOM b. Base 10 c. HIS d. RIS
A. Digital communication in medicine
For PA axial projection of the clavicle, the central ray is angled: a. 25 to 30 degrees caudad b. 25 to 30 degrees cephalad c. 20 degrees caudad d. 20 degrees cephalad
A. Distinguish between PA and AP. Be sure to read the question carefully. Remember that the humerus and forearm must also be in the same plane.
A mechanical respirator is called a: a. Ventilator b. Nasogastric tube c. Chest tube d. Venous catheter
A. Great care must be taken when performing a por- table chest x-ray exam on a patient who is receiving mechanical ventilation.
When are embryologic effects least likely to occur? a. During the final trimester of gestation b. During the middle trimester of gestation c. During the first trimester of gestation d. At conception
A. However, following ALARA at all times is of para- mount importance. Embryologic effects are most likely to occur during the first trimester.
Which of the following causes about 5% of the cellular response to radiation? a. Direct effect b. Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau c. Target theory d. Indirect effect
A. Indirect effect occurs when radiation strikes the cytoplasm. This causes the formation of free radi- cals and hydrogen peroxide, which damage the cell. Choice B is incorrect because the law of Bergonié and Tribondeau describes the radiosensitivity of cells. Choice C is incorrect because target theory explains that DNA is the master molecule of the cell. Choice D is incorrect because indirect effect causes about 95% of the cellular response.
Because the digital system software ultimately controls contrast, kVp may be: a. Increased b. Decreased c. Kept the same
A. Patient dose may be lower.
Relative biological effectiveness (RBE) describes the: a. Ability of radiation to produce biological damage b. Efficacy of radiation therapy c. Sensitivity of DNA to radiation exposure d. Radiosensitivity of water in the cytoplasm
A. RBE varies with the type of radiation and its LET.
The amount of time the beam is on and directed at a particular barrier is called: a. Use factor b. Shielding factor c. Occupancy d. Workload
A. The amount of time the beam is on and directed at a particular barrier is called the use factor. Work- load, measured in mA minutes per week, takes into account the volume and types of exams performed in the room. Occupancy is a determinant of barrier thickness that simply takes into account who occupies a given area. There is no specific shielding factor. Be sure to review the determinants of barrier thickness factors.
Tachycardia indicates a pulse of: a. Greater than 100 beats per minute b. Less than 60 beats per minute c. Greater than 90 beats per minute d. Less than 50 beats per minute
A. The heartbeat is regular but rapid.
The x-ray control booth is considered a: a. Secondary protective barrier b. Primary protective barrier c. Mobile barrier d. Nonbarrier
A. The primary beam is never aimed at the control booth. The exposure switch in the x-ray control booth must have a cord short enough that the radiographer has to be behind the secondary protective barrier to operate the switch.
Lead aprons must be worn to protect against which photontissue interaction? a. Compton b. Coherent c. Photoelectric interaction d. Pair production
A. This should be the only source of occupational exposure.
Which exposure factor causes excessive image noise if set too high? a. kVp b. mAs c. AEC d. Time
A. Too few photons creating the image
An AP lordotic chest radiograph best demonstrates the: a. Apices of the lungs b. Bases of the lungs c. Mediastinal structures d. Position of the diaphragm
A.The preceding series of positioning questions has illustrated the level of knowledge you need going into the Registry exam. Be sure to review carefully and accurately. Do not panic. Just review some every day until you have mastered these facts.
The narrow distal end of the stomach that connects with the small intestine is called the: a. Rugae b. Pylorus c. Fundus d. Greater curvature
B.
The pelvocalyceal system reaches greatest visualization approximately how many minutes after injection? a. 1 to 2 b. 2 to 5 c. 2 to 8 d. 15 to 20
B.
The portion of the colon located between the splenic flexure and the sigmoid portion is called the: a. Duodenum b. Descending c. Ileum d. Ascending
B.
A spine describes a: a. Prominence b. Sharp prominence c. Tubercle d. Tuberosity
B.
An imaging exam using a contrast agent to visualize possible meniscal tears is called a(n): a. Myelogram b. Arthrogram c. Joint manipulation study d. Sports injury exam
B.
An imaging exam using a contrast agent to visualize the uterus and fallopian tubes is called a(n): a. Uterogram b. Hysterosalpingogram c. Intravenous urogram d. Pregnancy study
B.
Choosing the anatomic region on a touch screen display to set technique is called: a. Phototiming b. Anatomically programmed radiography c. AEC imaging d. Automatic radiography
B.
Diabetic patients should be scheduled: a. Later because of their need for insulin b. Early because of their need for insulin c. Just before mealtime d. Just after mealtime
B.
During an injection of contrast media, extravasation occurs. The proper procedure is to: a. Continue the injection and tell the patient the burning sensation will subside momentarily b. Remove the needle and hold pressure on the vein until all bleeding has stopped c. Remove the needle, repuncture the same vein, and continue the injection d. Place a warm compress above the site of injection and continue administering the contrast
B.
For AP oblique projections of the sacroiliac joints, the central ray is directed: a. 1 inch lateral to elevated ASIS b. 1 inch medial to elevated ASIS c. 1 inch lateral to dependent ASIS d. 1 inch medial to dependent ASIS
B.
For AP projection of the ankle, the central ray is directed perpendicular to the: a. Lateral malleolus b. Ankle joint midway between malleoli c. Medial malleolus d. Tibia
B.
Grid ratio is described by which of the following? a. H & D b. H/D c. mAs = mAs d. 15% rule
B.
Image artifacts are usually classified as: a. Scatter b. Plus or minus density c. Compton and photoelectric d. Patient motion and equipment motion
B.
Located between the greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus is (are) the: a. Greater and lesser tubercles b. Bicipital groove c. Capitulum d. Trochlea
B.
Patient Care (Questions 168-200) The major advantage of nonionic contrast media over ionic contrast media is that nonionic contrast agents: a. Are considerably less expensive b. Are less likely to cause an adverse reaction in the patient c. Provide better radiographic contrast d. Require the use of considerably less kV and mAs
B.
Photoelectric interaction occurs at what level in the atom? a. L-shel b. K-shell c. M-shel d. Outer shell
B.
Radiation exiting the patient in very divergent paths would be indicative of a. Photoelectric rays b. Scatter c. Coherent interaction d. Patient motion during the exposure
B.
The SI unit of absorbed dose is the: a. LET b. Gray c. Curie d. Sievert
B.
The cumulative occupational exposure for a 48-year old radiographer is: a. 48 mSv b. 480 mSv c. 24 mSv d. 0.48 mSv
B.
The effective dose limit for radiographers for localized areas of skin is: a. 50 mSv per year b. 500 mSv per year c. 0.5 mSv monthly d. 10 mSv monthly
B.
The electronic device that may be used for many quality control tests on x-ray equipment is the: a. Automatic exposure control b. Digital dosimeter c. Penetrometer d. Densitometer
B.
The eleventh and twelfth pairs of ribs are called: a. Manubrium b. Floating c. Xiphoid d. Jugular notch
B.
The equivalent dose limit for the embryo-fetus is: a. 500 mSv per year b. 0.5 mSv per month c. 0.05 rem per month d. 0.5 mSv during gestation
B.
The law of Bergonié and Tribondeau states: a. Radiation intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance b. Cells are most sensitive to radiation when they are immature, undifferentiated, and rapidly dividing c. Voltage is equal to current times resistance d. All radiation exposure causes damage to the cell
B. A is the inverse square law; C is Ohm' law.
Manual manipulation of the digital image after acquisition is referred to as: a. Digital coding b. Postprocessing c. Leveling d. Archiving
B. Be familiar with the various modes of postprocessing.
A furrow is described as a: a. Fossa b. Groove c. Sulcus d. Sinus
B. Be sure to review these definitions. You are not likely to be asked more than one on the Registry exam, but you will want to get it correct.
Gonadal shielding should be used: a. On every examination performed b. Whenever it does not obstruct the area of clinical interest c. Only on children and women of childbearing age d. Only during pregnancy
B. Choice A is incorrect because gonadal shielding may obstruct the area of interest in some projections. Choice C is incorrect because male patients must also be shielded. Choice D is incorrect because the gonads must be protected outside of pregnancy as well.
Which of the following would be applicable to radiation therapy? a. Inverse square law b. Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau c. Reciprocity law d. Ohm's law
B. Choice A is incorrect because the inverse square law states that the intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source of radiation. Choice C is incorrect because the reciprocity law states that mAs = mAs. Choice D is incorrect because Ohm's law states that voltage is equal to current times resistance in a circuit.
Mutations are examples of: a. Short-term somatic effects b. Genetic effects c. Acute radiation syndrome d. Long-term somatic effects
B. Genetic effects may express themselves in future generations as mutations.
The complete removal of all organisms from equipment and the environment in which patient care is conducted is called: a. Medical asepsis b. Surgical asepsis c. Standard precautions d. Gas sterilization
B. Medical asepsis is not the complete removal, and gas sterilization is a way to sterilize equipment, not a patient care environment.
What agency publishes radiation protection recommendations? a. ICRP b. NCRP c. NRC d. ASRT
B. National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements. Choice A, the International Commis- sion on Radiological Protection, is incorrect. Choice C is incorrect, but the Nuclear Regulatory Com- mission does have enforcement power. Choice D is incorrect because the American Society of Radiologic Technologists is the professional organization for radi- ation science professionals.
A legal doctrine that states that the cause of the negligence is obvious is known as: a. Respondeat superior b. Res ipsa loquitur c. Gross negligence d. Slander
B. Respondeat superior means "let the master answer." Gross negligence is a reckless disregard for life or limb. Slander is spoken defamation.
The proximal radioulnar articulation has what type of movement? a. Hinge b. Pivot c. Saddle d. Gliding
B. Review the various types of joints so you will be able to handle any question you are asked about them.
What effect does increasing filtration have on contrast? a. Increases contrast b. Decreases contrast c. No effect d. Varying effect
B. The average wavelength of the beam decreases.
This item is used to clear an obstructed airway: a. Crash cart b. Suction unit c. Defibrillator d. Sphygmomanometer
B. The crash cart contains everything needed for a code blue, a defibrillator restores errant heart- beat, and the sphygmomanometer measures blood pressure..
Organelles are located in the: a. DNA b. Cytoplasm c. RNA d. Cellular nucleus
B. The cytoplasm contains water and the organelles, each of which plays a role in the functioning of the cell.
A reaction that may occur in the vein in which an injection occurred is: a. Local irritation b. Cardiovascular c. Anaphylactic d. Phlebitis
D. Literally, inflammation of a vein
The exposure switch must keep the radiographer behind the: a. Primary protective barrier b. Secondary protective barrier c. X-ray tube d. Door
B. The exposure switch in the x-ray control booth must have a cord short enough that to operate the switch, the radiographer must be in the control booth, not simply behind the x-ray tube. The control booth is a secondary, not a primary, protective barrier.
The exposure switch on a portable x-ray machine must be attached to a cord that is at least how many feet long? a. 3 b. 6 c. 12 d. 2
B. The exposure switch on a portable x-ray machine must be attached to a cord that is at least 6 feet long. This does NOT mean six feet is a safe distance. A lead apron must still be worn when performing mobile radiography.
Long-wavelength x-rays are removed from the primary beam by the use of a a. Collimator b. Filter c. Cylinder cone d. Gonadal shield
B. The filter is made of aluminum.
Twice as many electrons strike the target in the x-ray tube when: a. kVp is doubled b. mAs is doubled c. SID is reduced by one-half d. OFD is reduced by one-half
B. This is a direct relationship.
For a lateral projection of the wrist, the elbow must be flexed: a. 45 degrees b. 90 degrees c. Only slightly d. Approximately 25 degrees
B. This is difficult for a patient with an elbow injury.
Under what conditions can the radiographer be exposed to the primary beam? a. When performing mobile radiography, as long as the exposure is low b. Never, under any conditions c. When performing cross-table projections, if needed to hold the cassette in place d. When assisting with fluoroscopy
B. Under no circumstances should the radiographer be exposed to the primary beam.
This type of infection transmission occurs as a result of coughing or sneezing: a. Contact transmission b. Airborne transmission c. Droplet transmission d. Common vehicle transmission
C. As explained in question 195
Which of the following bones has an external protuberance? a. Frontal bone b. Temporal bone c. Occipital bone d. Mandible
C. Be sure to review the major anatomy of the skull. Even though routine skull series are seldom per- formed, having been replaced by computed tomogra- phy, skull questions are still asked on the ARRT exam.
The photon-tissue interaction in diagnostic radiography that results in the total absorption of an x-ray photon and the production of contrast in the radiographic image is: a. Compton b. Coherent c. Photoelectric d. Pair production
C. Choice A is incorrect because Compton produces scatter radiation. Choice B is incorrect because coher- ent scatter is produced at extremely low kVp levels. Choice D is incorrect because pair production occurs only at levels above 1.02 MeV.
Radiation safety standards assume what relationship between dose and response? a. Linear-threshold b. Nonlinear-nonthreshold c. Linear-nonthreshold d. Nonlinear-threshold
C. Choices A and D are incorrect because there is no threshold dose regarding radiation protection. Choice B is incorrect because we do not assume a nonlinear response for radiation protection.
Some level of hypertension is indicated when diastolic pressure is: a. Greater than 100 mm Hg b. Less than 60 mm Hg c. Greater than 90 mm Hg d. Less than 50 mm Hg
C. Diastolic pressure is the blood pressure of the heart at rest.
Leakage radiation from a diagnostic x-ray tube may not exceed: a. 1 mGy a per hour, measured at the source b. 10 mGy a per hour c. 1 mGy a per hour, measured at 1 m from the housing d. 100 mGy a per hour, measured at 1 m from the housing
C. It is measured at a distance of 1 meter because that is where the patient would be.
How does beam restriction affect contrast? a. Decreases contrast b. Longer scale of contrast c. Shorter scale of contrast d. No effect on contrast
C. Less Compton scatter produced
The amount of radiation deposited per unit length of tissue traversed by incoming photons is called: a. REM b. RADS c. LET d. RPU
C. Linear energy transfer
Which of the following describes the radiosensitivity of lymphocytes? a. Low radiosensitivity b. Least radiosensitive cells in the body c. Most radiosensitive cells in the body d. There is no connection between lymphocytes and radiation exposure
C. Muscle cells are the least radiosensitive cells in the body.
This item is used to restore the heart to normal rhythm: a. Crash cart b. Suction unit c. Defibrillator d. Sphygmomanometer
C. The crash cart contains everything needed for a code blue, a defibrillator restores errant heartbeat, and the sphygmomanometer measures blood pressure.
At the time of exposure, the charge on the focusing cup is: a. Irrelevant b. Positive c. Negative d. Alternating
C. This is to repel the electrons.
How is workload factor measured? a. Half-value layer b. Amount of time the beam is on c. mA minutes per week d. Average kVp per week
C. Workload, measured in mA minutes per week, takes into account the volume and types of exams performed in the room. Half-value layer is the thick- ness of absorbing material required to reduce the x-ray beam to half its original intensity. The amount of time the beam is on and directed at a particular barrier is called the use factor.
Where is the rectifier located in the x-ray circuit? a. Between the timer and the step-up transformer b. Between the step-up transformer and the step down transformer c. Between the primary and secondary coils of the step-up transformer d. Between the step-up transformer and the x-ray tube
D.
Which bone is located in the wrist, between the lunate and the pisiform? a. Scaphoid b. Hamate c. Pisiform d. Triquetrum
D.
A "typical" skull would be described as: a. Synarthroses b. Amphiarthroses c. Diarthroses d. Mesocephalic
D.
A radiographic grid should be used when: 1. The body area to be radiographed measures more than 10 cm 2. A field size larger than 10 to 12 inches is used 3. More than 60 kVp is required to penetrate a body part a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
D.
An interaction that produces heat at the anode and also produces x-rays is called: a. Characteristic b. Photoelectric c. Compton d. Bremsstrahlung
D.
An uncontrolled area must be kept under what dose weekly? a. 5 μSv b. 10 μSv c. 15 μSv d. 20 μSv
D.
Arthrography is increasingly being replaced by what imaging modality? a. CT b. Diagnostic ultrasound c. PET scanning d. MRI
D.
Decreased SID causes image: a. Minification b. Foreshortening c. Elongation d. Magnification
D.
For AP axial (Towne) projection for the skull, the central ray is directed: a. 30 degrees to IOML b. 37 degrees to OML c. 25 degrees to IOML d. 30 degrees to OML
D.
For AP projection of the cervical spine, the central ray is directed: a. 10 degrees cephalad b. Parallel to C4 c. 15 to 20 degrees caudad d. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad
D.
For AP projection of the foot, the central ray enters at the: a. Head of the third metatarsal b. Head of the second metatarsal c. Base of the first metatarsal d. Base of the third metatarsal
D.
For AP projection of the lower ribs, the central ray is directed: a. Perpendicular to T10 b. Perpendicular to T5 c. Perpendicular to T7 d. Perpendicular to T12
D.
For AP projection of the thoracic spine, the central ray is directed: a. 5 degrees cephalad b. Parallel to T7 c. 3 to 4 degrees caudad d. Perpendicular to T7
D.
For AP projection of the toes, the central ray enters at the: a. Third metatarsophalangeal joint b. Second metacarpophalangeal joint c. First metatarsophalangeal joint d. Second metatarsophalangeal joint
D.
For a PA projection of the hand, the central ray is centered: a. Perpendicular to the first metacarpophalangeal joint b. Perpendicular to the third metatarsophalangeal joint c. Parallel to the third metacarpophalangeal joint d. Perpendicular to the third metacarpophalangeal joint
D.
For axial projection of the calcaneus, the central ray is angled how many degrees to the long axis of the foot? a. 25 b. 15 c. 10 d. 40
D.
For lateral projection of the facial bones, the central ray enters at the: a. Glabella b. Medial surface of the zygomatic bone c. Medial surface of the nasal bone d. Lateral surface of the zygomatic bone
D.
For radiography of the fingers, the central ray enters: a. Perpendicular to the distal interphalangeal joint b. Parallel to the distal interphalangeal joint c. Parallel to the proximal interphalangeal joint d. Perpendicular to the proximal interphalangeal joint
D.
Geometric unsharpness within the radiographic image can be minimized by using the: 1. Smallest focal spot 2. Shortest object-image receptor distance 3. Longest target-image receptor distance a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
D.
Grid radius is described as: a. The height of the lead strips divided by the distance between the lead strips b. The distance between the lead strips divided by the height of the lead strips c. The number of lead strips per inch or centimeter d. The SID at which the grid may be used
D.
Image Production (Questions 54-103) Devices in the x-ray circuit that increase or decrease voltage are called: a. Rectifiers b. Generators c. Timers d. Transformers
D.
Inaccurate use of grids may result in repeat exposures due to what condition? a. Overexposure b. Grid analysis error c. Underexposure d. Cut-off
D.
Located below the tubercles of the humerus is (are) the: a. Greater and lesser tubercles b. Bicipital groove c. Capitulum d. Surgical neck
D.
Procedures (Questions 104-167) An enlargement at the end of a bone is called a: a. Prominence b. Sharp prominence c. Tubercle d. Head
D.
The lateral surface of the stomach is called the: a. Rugae b. Pylorus c. Fundus d. Greater curvature
D.
The measure of a grid's ability to enhance contrast is called: a. Grid ratio b. Grid selectivity c. Speed d. Contrast improvement factor
D.
The most effective method to prevent the spread of infection is: a. Use of gloves b. Use of gowns c. Time, distance, and shielding d. Handwashing
D.
The primary type of grid used in diagnostic imaging is: a. Crosshatch b. Parallel c. Rhombic d. Focused
D.
The radiocarpal joint has what type of movement? a. Hinge b. Pivot c. Saddle d. Condyloid
D.
The section of the stomach where the esophagus enters is called the: a. Rugae b. Pylorus c. Fundus d. Cardiac portion
D.
Thermionic emission occurs at the: a. Anode b. Control panel c. Rectifier d. Cathode
D.
When a quality control test for exposure reproducibility is performed, successive exposures must be within ________ of one another. a. 2% of SID b. 4% c. 10% d. 5%
D.
When radiation strikes the cytoplasm, which of the following occurs? a. Direct effect b. Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau c. Target theory d. Indirect effect
D. Direct effect occurs when radiation directly hits the cellular nucleus. Indirect effect occurs when radia- tion strikes the cytoplasm of the cell.
The accuracy of collimation at a 60-inch SID must be: a. ± 6 inches b. ± 3 inches c. ± 2 inches d. ± 1.2 inches
D. 2% of the SID
The part of the kidney through which blood is first filtered is called the: a. Cortex b. Medulla c. Nephron d. Glomeruli
D. Be comfortable with answering questions regard- ing the alimentary canal and the urinary system. These types of questions are asked on the certification exam. Study tips: For the following series of questions, be sure to know the exact centering point that you learned in position- ing class and from Chapter 5 of this text. Also be aware that in some Registry exam questions you may be given ranges of angles from which to choose, making it easier to choose the correct answer. This may occur because not all positioning textbooks agree on certain angles.
Effective dose limit is: a. The level of radiation that an organism can receive before formation of cancer b. Age × 1 mSv for occupationally exposed individuals c. 50 mSv per month for occupationally exposed individuals d. 50 mSv per year for occupationally exposed individuals
D. Be sure to know all the dose limits.
When oxygen is administered to the patient, the usual flow rate is: a. 3 to 5 L/second b. 5 L/hour c. 1 to 3 L/minute d. 3 to 5 L/minute
D. Be sure to know the correct amount per unit time. Choice A would be damaging. The other choices would be inadequate. Read carefully.
Which of the following is true regarding frequencyand wavelength of electromagnetic radiation? a. Frequency and wavelength are directly proportional b. Frequency and wavelength are unrelated c. Wavelength and frequency are inversely proportional to the square of the distance between wave crests d. Wavelength and frequency are inversely proportional
D. Be sure to read all choices carefully.
Grid conversion factor (Bucky factor) is described as the: a. Height of the lead strips divided by the distance between the lead strips b. Distance between the lead strips divided by the height of the lead strips c. Number of lead strips per inch or centimeter d. Amount of exposure increase necessary to compensate for the absorption of image-forming rays and scatter in the cleanup process
D. Be sure to review the Bucky factors.
The word part that means "kidney" is: a. Viscer b. Megal c. Trans d. Nephr
D. Be sure to review the major medical terms you learned early in your program.
Safety (Questions 1-53) Radiation that exits the x-ray tube from the anode is called: a. Remnant radiation b. Gamma radiation c. Nonionizing radiation d. Primary radiation
D. Remnant radiation exits the body (choice A); gamma radiation is not produced in the x-ray tube (choice B). Choice C, nonionizing radiation, is incor- rect because x-rays are ionizing radiation.
Compton interaction: a. Produces poorer recorded detail in the radiographic image b. Results in absorption of the incident photon c. May produce higher contrast on the radiograph d. May produce a gray fog on the image, lowering contrast
D. Choice A is incorrect because contrast is produced by photoelectric effect, not Compton interaction.
A type of shock that is caused by a severe allergic reaction is called: a. Hypovolemic shock b. Septic shock c. Neurogenic shock d. Anaphylactic shock
D. Choice A is incorrect because hypovolemic shock s caused by a loss of fluids. Choice B is incorrect because septic shock follows massive infection. Choice C is incorrect because neurogenic shock causes blood to pool in peripheral vessels.
The upper boundary dose that can be absorbed that carries a negligible risk of somatic or genetic damage to the individual defines: a. Maximum permissible dose b. ALARA c. Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau d. Effective dose limit
D. Choice A is incorrect because this term is no lon- ger used. Choice B is incorrect because ALARA stands for as low as reasonably achievable.
This type of infection transmission occurs when an animal contains and transmits an infectious organism to humans: a. Contact transmission b. Airborne transmission c. Droplet transmission d. Vectorborne transmission
D. Contact is person to person, airborne is droplets and dust, and droplet is coughs and sneezes.
For purposes of radiation protection, the x-ray beam is filtered. X-ray tubes operating above 70 kVp must have total filtration of: a. At least 0.25-mm aluminum equivalent b. At least 0.25-mm lead equivalent c. No more than 2.5-mm aluminum equivalent d. At least 2.5-mm aluminum equivalent
D. For proper radiation protection, x-ray tubes oper- ating above 70 kVp must have total filtration of at least 2.5-mm aluminum equivalent. Lead is not used as a filter material.
Grid ratio is expressed as: a. Length of the lead strips to the space between them b. Height of the aluminum strips to the space between them c. Height of the interspacers to the lead strips d. Height of the lead strips to the space between them
D. H/D
Which of the following articulate(s) with the first, second, and third metatarsal bones? a. Navicular b. Calcaneus c. Talus d. Cuneiforms
D. It is important to be able to "label" anatomy whether on drawings, on radiographs, or, as these questions illustrate, by using words.
What is the preferred source-to-skin distance for C-arms? a. 12 inches b. 10 inches c. 20 inches d. 15 inches
D. The requirement is no less than 12 inches.
The secondary protective barrier must overlap the primary protective barrier by at least: a. 1 ⁄ 10 inch b. 1 inch c. 1 foot d. ½ inch
D. The secondary protective barrier must overlap the primary protective barrier by at least ½ inch to pre- vent leakage after the building has settled.
________ refers to energy per unit mass absorbed by an object. a. Bq b. Gy a c. W R d. Gy t
D. The t refers to tissue.
Factors that may cause the patient to react to a contrast agent simply as a result of anxiety are termed: a. Local irritation b. Cardiovascular c. Anaphylactic d. Psychogenic
D. This can be caused by the mere suggestion of a reaction.
Violations of civil law are known as: a. Assault b. Battery c. False imprisonment d. Torts
D. Torts are a part of personal injury law.
Which of the following takes into account the volume and types of examinations performed in the room? a. Use factor b. Shielding factor c. Volume factor d. Workload
D. Workload, measured in mA minutes per week, takes into account the volume and types of exams performed in the room. The use factor is the amount of time the beam is on and directed at a particular bar- rier. There is no specific shielding factor.
An item that must never be placed above the level of the bladder is a: a. Ventilator b. Nasogastric tube c. Chest tube d. Urinary catheter
D. You do not want urine to flow backward into the bladder, causing an infection.
